1



Name: __________________

Date: ___________

Final Exam

Intro to Weather and Climate – August 2006

Multiple Choice (60 pts; 1 pt each, please write the correct answer to the left of the question.)

1. Which of the following correctly lists the layers of the atmosphere from lowest altitude to highest altitude?

a) troposphere, thermosphere, mesosphere, stratosphere

b) troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere

c) thermosphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, troposphere

d) troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere

2. The “lag” in daily temperature refers to the time lag between

(a) the time of maximum solar radiation and maximum temperature

(b) the time between minimum and maximum temperatures for a day

(c) sunrise and sunset

(d) the time of minimum temperature and maximum solar radiation

3. Atmospheric pressure

(a) decreases exponentially with height

(b) increases exponentially with height

(c) remains constant with height

4. Which of the following best defines latent heat?

(a) Energy associated with phase change of water

(b) Energy associated with radiation

(c) Heat energy that is no longer available for use by the atmosphere

(d) Solar energy stored in the ground

5. At night, the temperature typically falls due to radiational cooling, but the moisture content typically remains constant. What then happens to the relative humidity?

(a) Decreases

(b) Increases

(c) Stays the same

(d) Oscillates randomly through the night

6. Which of the following is not an important component of the hydrologic water cycle?

(a) precipitation

(b) runoff

(c) evaporation

(d) transpiration

(e) hydration

7. Austin, Texas has a surface temperature of 80°F and a dewpoint temperature of 65°F. Norman, Okla., located north of a wicked cold front, has a temperature of 25°F and a dewpoint temperature of 22°F. Which statement is incorrect regarding these two cities?

(a) Austin has the higher vapor pressure

(b) Austin has the higher relative humidity

(c) Norman has less water vapor in the atmosphere

(d) Austin has the higher saturation vapor pressure

8. As the air temperature increases, the air's capacity for water vapor

(a) increases.

(b) decreases.

(c) remains constant.

(d) is unrelated to air temperature and can either increase or decrease.

9. Which of the following is the best indicator of the actual amount of water vapor in the air?

(a) saturation vapor pressure

(b) relative humidity

(c) dew point temperature

(d) air temperature

10. Because of the _______ shift, weather radar can measure not only particle size but also motion toward and away from the radar.

(a) Newtonian

(b) Doppler

(c) Bjerknes

(d) Bernard

(e) Rossby

11. Which of these cities, given the following surface conditions, would report the highest relative humidity?

(a) Laguna Beach: Temperature 20F, Dewpoint 20F

(b) Cartagena: Temperature 30F, Dewpoint 20F

(c) Moore: Temperature 40F, Dewpoint 20F

(d) Enid: Temperature 50F, Dewpoint 20F

12. The dry adiabatic lapse rate is

(a) 10° C / km

(b) 0.1° C / km

(c) 1° C / km

(d) 100° C / km

13. A sinking air parcel ________, its internal energy and temperature _________, and work is done to it.

(a) expands, increase

(b) expands, decrease

(c) compresses, increase

(d) compresses, decrease

14. As an air parcel rises, what happens to its size and temperature?

(a) It expands and cools

(b) It expands and warms

(c) It contracts and cools

(d) It contracts and warms

(e) It oscillates in size but does not change temperature

15. Most thunderstorms do not extend very far into the stratosphere. Why not?

(a) The stratosphere is stable since the stratosphere is an inversion layer

(b) The stratosphere is unstable since the air aloft is so cold

(c) The stratosphere is stable since the temperature decreases with height

(d) The stratosphere is neutral since the temperature decreases with height

16. Which of the following is not a primary force in the atmosphere?

a) Torque

b) Friction

c) Gravity

d) Pressure gradient

e) Coriolis

17. Because of the 90° deflection to the right caused by the Coriolis force, surface low pressure in the northern hemisphere rotates _________, or _________.

(a) clockwise; cyclonically.

(b) counterclockwise; cyclonically.

(c) clockwise; anticyclonically.

(d) counterclockwise; anticyclonically

18. The hydrostatic balance occurs between the vertical pressure gradient and what other atmospheric force?

a) Coriolis force

b) centrifugal force

c) horizontal pressure gradient force

d) gravity

e) None of the above

19. A wind blowing at a constant speed parallel to straight line isobars with the pressure gradient force (PGF) equally and oppositely balancing the Coriolis force is in ________ balance.

a) cyclostrophic

b) zonal

c) gradient

d) geostrophic

20. A tropical weather system is given a name when it reaches which status?

a) tropical disturbance

b) tropical depression

c) tropical storm

d) hurricane

21. The particles that compose clouds range widely in size. Choose the correct order of cloud material, from smallest to largest.

(a) Raindrop, cloud droplet, cloud condensation nuclei

(b) Cloud droplet, cloud condensation nuclei, raindrop

(c) Cloud droplet, raindrop, cloud condensation nuclei

(d) Cloud condensation nuclei, cloud droplet, raindrop

22. Which of the following is a type of high cloud?

(a) Cirrus

(b) Stratus

(c) Altocumulus

(d) Pileus

23. What is the term used to describe the net inflow of air molecules into a region of the atmosphere?

a) divergence

b) jetstreak

c) convergence

d) diabatic process

24. The large, upward convective cell that is driven by convective "hot" towers along the equator is the:

(a) Ferrel cell.

(b) Hadley cell.

(c) Ekman spiral.

(d) El Niño cell.

25. On a weather map, what marks the transition zone between two airmasses with sharply contrasting temperature and/or moisture properties?

a) a front

b) the letter “H”

c) the letter “L”

d) a trough

26. If you examine a surface map and discover that there is a region where cold air is retreating and warm air is advancing toward it, you would classify this as what meteorological feature?

a) an airmass

b) a cold front

c) a warm front

d) a stationary front

27. Airmasses are characterized by:

(a) temperature

(b) moisture

(c) wind speed

(d) A and B

28. The boundary between mT and cP airmasses is called a:

(a) dryline

(b) cold front

(c) warm front

(d) stationary front

29. Which of the following ingredients are necessary for thunderstorm formation?

a) a source of moisture

b) a mechanism to trigger an updraft

c) a conditionally unstable atmosphere

d) all of the above are correct.

30. A thunderstorm is considered severe if which of the following are true?

a) only wind gusts greater than or equal to 58 mph

b) hail ¾” or greater, wind gusts greater than or equal to 58 mph or a tornado

c) only a tornado

d) thunderstorms are never severe

31. Which of the following is not a primary type of thunderstorm?

(a) airmass

(b) horizontally sheared

(c) supercell

(d) multi-cell

(e) squall line

32. Which of the following is not a stage of development in an airmass thunderstorm?

a) dissipation stage

b) mature stage

c) lightning stage

d) cumulus stage

33. The lack of __________ causes airmass thunderstorms to be short-lived.

(a) vertical wind shear

(b) small cloud droplets

(c) a symmetric anvil

(d) graupel particles

34. Where is the most common location for a squall line to form?

a) ahead of a cold front

b) ahead of a warm front

c) behind an occluded front

d) behind a stationary front

35. In multi-cell thunderstorms:

a) vertical wind shear keeps precipitation from falling back into the updraft.

b) rain-cooled air advances out in advance of the first thunderstorm forming a “gust” front

c) the cool air of the “gust” front acts as a trigger mechanism for new thunderstorm development

d) old storms strengthen as they are cut off from the warm, moist inflow of air

e) (a), (b), and (c) are true

36. The most intense forms of severe weather almost always come from which type of thunderstorm?

a) airmass

b) squall line

c) multicell

d) supercell

37. Which type of thunderstorm always rotates?

(a) airmass

(b) squall line

(c) multicell

(d) supercell

38. Which of the following types of vertical wind shear is described by this statement?

“Assume you have a flagpole that can extend 20,000 feet in the air. The flag at the surface points northwest. The flag 5,000 feet up points north. The flag 10,000 feet up points northeast. The flag 15,000 feet up points east-northeast. The flag 20,000 feet up points east. All of the flags are extended the same length, indicating equal wind speeds at each level.”

(a) speed shear

(b) directional shear

(c) horizontal shear

(d) jet stream shear

39. Why is vertical wind shear a key environmental condition for severe thunderstorm formation?

a) Wind shear is the primary “energy source” for thunderstorms.

b) Wind shear is necessary for the adiabatic expansion of rising air.

c) Wind shear causes the updraft to separate from the downdraft, allowing the inflow of warm, moist air to continue to feed the storm.

d) Wind shear is the outflow from mature thunderstorms.

40. What does the term “mesocyclone” refer to?

a) a very large tornado

b) a high altitude tornado

c) a false alarm tornado warning

d) the rotating updraft of a supercell thunderstorm

e) None of the above are correct.

41. A tornado typically forms in the “hook echo” region of a thunderstorm because:

(a) the hook echo is where the two downdraft (FFD, RFD) regions collide to enhance the updraft

(b) graupel collisions in the hook echo enhance the updraft

(c) horizontal wind shear is greatest in the hook echo

(d) the tornado gets cut off from the warm, moist air when it forms in the hook echo

42. Tornadoes are rated according to the Fujita Scale of tornado intensity based on:

(a) pressure measurements from within the tornado

(b) the size and duration of the tornado

(c) the damage the tornado causes

(d) the number of people killed by the tornado

43. Tornadoes rated F-5 on the Fujita Scale of tornado intensity have occurred in all the following time periods except:

(a) January-March

(b) April-June

(c) July-September

(d) October-December

(e) None of the above. F-5 tornadoes have occurred in each of these time periods.

44. The central Oklahoma tornado outbreak on May 3, 1999 was:

(a) well-forecast days in advance by government scientists

(b) predicted to occur based on advanced computer model output from May 1, 1999

(c) not expected to occur, even through the morning hours of May 3

(d) only (a) and (b) are correct

45. The likely “trigger mechanism” that led to the formation of the supercell thunderstorms that produced the May 3, 1999 tornado outbreak was:

(a) a horizontal convective roll evident on radar reflectivity

(b) incredible environmental instability

(c) strong low-level convergence on the dryline

(d) a cold front advancing south from southern Kansas

46. In their early and mid-morning forecasts on May 3, 1999, government scientists thought that __________ thunderstorms would be the dominant type because of strong linear forcing from the upper-level trough.

(a) squall line

(b) multi-cell

(c) supercell

(d) airmass

47. What is the process that causes multiple suction vortices in tornadoes?

a) vortex breakdown

b) multiple tornadogenesis

c) cyclic mesocyclones

d) coriolis torque

48. Which of the following is a typical sea level pressure value?

a) 100 millibars

b) 500 millibars

c) 700 millibars

d) 850 millibars

e) 1013.25 millibars

49. In the figure below, circle the point that has the strongest pressure gradient, and therefore would also have the strongest surface winds. Pressures are contoured every 4 mb.

[pic]

50. True or False. Because of the Coriolis force, toilets flush counterclockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere.

(a) True

(b) False

51. Weather systems that form in the tropics (equator to 30() are classified according to wind speed and central pressure. Which choice below lists tropical weather systems from the weakest to the strongest?

a) Tropical disturbance, tropical wave, tropical storm, tropical depression, hurricane

b) Tropical wave, tropical disturbance, tropical depression, tropical storm, hurricane

c) Tropical depression, tropical disturbance, tropical storm, hurricane, tropical wave

d) Hurricane, tropical storm, tropical disturbance, tropical wave, tropical depression

52. Which statement is false? For hurricanes to develop:

a) The surface layer of warm water in the ocean must be sufficiently deep, typically 60 m (200 ft.) or more.

b) The sea surface temperature must exceed 80(F (27(C)

c) The winds in the atmosphere must change substantially with height (strong vertical wind shear).

d) The location must be at least a few degrees everywhere north or south of the equator.

53. A tropical forecaster sees a cluster of thunderstorms over the tropical Atlantic Ocean and predicts that it will not develop into a hurricane. What factor led the forecaster to come to this conclusion?

a) The sea surface temperature was 85(F, too cold to support tropical development.

b) There was very strong wind shear in the vicinity of the thunderstorms.

c) The cluster of thunderstorms was located at 15(N where the Coriolis force is zero.

d) The forecaster noticed the thunderstorms were located over open ocean, far from land.

54. Which of the following is not one of the “parts” of a mature hurricane?

(a) Eye

(b) Central dense overcast

(c) Coriolis torque

(d) Eye wall

(e) Spiral rain band

55. What date is considered the “peak” of the Atlantic hurricane season activity?

(a) July 30

(b) September 10

(c) September 30

(d) October 10

56. Which two components of the earth system interact strongly as the El Niño/Southern Oscillation goes through its complete cycle?

a) atmosphere and landmass

b) atmosphere and ocean

c) landmass and ocean

d) ocean and sea ice

57. During normal (non-El Nino) conditions, the air’s vertical motion is _______ over northern Australia and _______ over the region near South America.

(a) upward, downward

(b) downward, upward

(c) upward, close to zero

(d) close to zero, upward

58. The Southern Oscillation Index is determined by monitoring which variable?

a) sea level pressure

b) sea level elevation

c) wind speeds

59. What is the linkage between El Niño and decreased hurricane activity in the Atlantic Ocean?

a) vertical wind shear

b) location of the low-level convergence

c) atmospheric humidity

d) elevation of sea level

60. Tornado formation is governed by the “law” of conservation of angular momentum. This principle tells us that as the radius of a thunderstorm updraft ________, its rotational speed __________. (Hint: consider the figure skater example who pulls her arms in and spins faster).

(a) increases; increases

(b) increases; stays same

(c) decreases; increases

(d) decreases; stays same

61. (5 pts) Label the following five parts of the supercell on the supercell figure below:

(1) updraft, (2) anvil, (3) overshooting top, (4) tropopause, (5) wall cloud.

62. (10 points). The image below was taken after a tornado passed through Arlington, TX on March 29, 2000.

Use your knowledge of the Fujita scale of tornado intensity and

1- assign a rating for the strength of this tornado (i.e., F0, F1, F2, F3, F4, or F5)

2 - give a short discussion of the difficulty associated with tornado intensity assessment.

[pic]

63. (15 points) The following two images show the tracks of Hurricane Rita (LEFT) and Hurricane Ophelia (RIGHT) from the 2005 hurricane season.

A – What is the primary meteorological factor that governs hurricane motion?

B – Why did Hurricane Rita move regularly (east to west, curving northward then northeastward) while Ophelia moved irregularly (stalling & looping off the NC coast)?

C – Hurricane Rita strengthened from a Category 1 to Category 5 in less than two days while in the central Gulf.

-- First, list the meteorological conditions that are favorable for hurricane intensification.

-- Second, speculate why Rita (& Katrina) intensified so rapidly in the Gulf of Mexico

D – Hurricane Rita had only seven direct fatalities, despite being the approximately the same strength at landfall as Hurricane Katrina. Briefly discuss why you think Rita’s death toll was so much lower.

64. (5 points). The following graphic depicts the pressure reversal associated with the Asian Monsoon circulation. Given that up to ½ of the population of the world (~ 3 billion people) are affected by this feature, give a short discussion of:

- the meteorological reasons behind the monsoon development

-- why is there an H in winter and L in summer?

-- why does the wind blow off-shore in winter and on-shore in summer?

-- what weather dominates during winter, and what dominates during summer?

- the societal impacts of this important monsoon system

65. (5 points) Tornado safety.

a. List several actions that the general public can take when a tornado approaches to minimize the threat

b. Now list several things that the general public should not do when a tornado approaches.

-----------------------

A

B

C

D

................
................

In order to avoid copyright disputes, this page is only a partial summary.

Google Online Preview   Download