AP Calculus
Tier One Tutors
Subject Evaluation Quizzes
Table of Contents
Algebra I 2
Algebra II 7
Geometry 12
AP Calculus 16
Pre-Calculus 21
Statistics 26
Trigonometry 31
Biology (HS) 36
Physics (HS) 40
Physics (AP) 47
AP Biology 55
Chemistry 60
AP Chemistry 65
AP European History 72
AP U.S. History 76
Writing 81
Database Directions 86
Tutoring Tips 88
Tutor Manual 90
Algebra I
1) In order to isolate the variable x in the equation [pic], one must perform which of the following operations to both sides of the equation?
a) Add 2, Divide by 4 b) Subtract 10, Subtract 4x
c) Subtract 4, Divide by 2 d) Subtract 2, Divide by 10
e) Answer not shown
2) Solve the equation [pic] for x.
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) Answer not shown
3) Solve the equation [pic] for x.
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) Answer not shown
4) Solve the equation [pic] for y in terms of x.
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) Answer not shown
5) A scale model of a bridge is 10 cm long and 4 cm tall. The actual bridge is 100 ft tall. Which of the following proportions could NOT be used to solve for the length of the bridge?
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) All of these proportions can be used to solve the problem
6) A classroom contains two boys for every three girls. If there are 30 students in the class, how many students are boys?
a) 20 b) 18
c) 16 d) 12
e) Answer not shown
7) Write the radical expression [pic] in simplest form.
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) [pic]
8) What is the distance between the points (1, 1) and (6, 13) in a Cartesian coordinate plane?
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) 13
9) Which of the following expressions could be used to find the midpoint of [pic] if A is the point (-1, 1) and B is the point (-13, 17)?
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) Answer not shown
10) Which of the following expressions is equivalent to [pic]?
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) [pic]
11) Solve the equation [pic] for y.
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) [pic]
12) If [pic], then which of the following must be true?
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) Answer not shown
13) Which of the following expressions can be factored into [pic]?
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) Answer not shown
14) Find the domain of the function [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) [pic]
15) A snail moves at a pace of [pic] meters per second. How long would it take this snail to travel [pic] meters?
a) 15 seconds b) 40 seconds
c) 60 seconds d) 150 seconds
e) 180 seconds
16) Find the y-intercept of the line containing the points (-2, 10) and (4, -8).
a) -4 b) 6
c) -2 d) 2
e) Answer not shown
17) Find the solution to the linear system of:
the line [pic]
the line parallel to [pic] passing through (0,-11)
a) (-4, 10) b) (-2, 5)
c) (5, -1) d) (7, 1.75)
e) (-7, 11)
18) Which of the following is a factorization of [pic] ?
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) [pic]
19) Let [pic]. Find all real roots of f(x).
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) Only complex roots exist.
20) Using f(x) from the previous problem, which of the following correctly implements the quadratic formula?
a) [pic] b) [pic]
c) [pic] d) [pic]
e) [pic]
-END ALGEBRA I QUIZ-
Algebra II
1) For all real numbers a, [pic] is equal to which of the following?
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
2) Simplify [pic] as much as possible.
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
3) The complex conjugate of [pic] is…
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
4) Solve [pic] for x.
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
5) Point P lies directly down from the point (a, b) and directly to the right from point (c, d) in a coordinate plane. What are the coordinates of point P?
a) (a, c)
b) (b, c)
c ) (c, a)
d) (c, b)
e) (a, d)
6) Find the equation of the line (in slope-intercept form) that passes through the points (4, 7) and (-4, -5).
a) [pic]
b) [pic] y = 1.5x - 1
c) [pic] y = 1.5x + 1
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
7) Find the equation of the line that passes through the point (-2, 5) and is perpendicular to the line [pic] (in standard form).
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
8) Factor the following expression completely: [pic]
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) The expression is already prime.
9) Find the solution set for x of: [pic].
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
10) Simplify [pic].
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
11) Multiply and write in the form [pic]: [pic]
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
12) Divide and simplify to the form [pic]: [pic]
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
13) [pic] is equivalent to which of the following?
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
14) Simplify [pic].
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
15) Solve the system of linear equations.
[pic]
[pic]
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) No solution
16) The equation [pic] has…
a) 2 real roots
b) 1 real root
c) 0 real roots
17) Solve the equation [pic] for x.
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) No solution
18) For any real number x and any functions [pic] and [pic], [pic] gives…
a) 0
b) [pic]
c) x
d) [pic]
e) 1
19) Find [pic] (the base is 9)
a) 1.5
b) 2.5
c) 3
d) 3.5
e) 4
20) Find the domain of the function [pic]
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
-END ALGEBRA II QUIZ-
Geometry
1) Segment GH has endpoints G(-3, 2) and H(3, -2). Find the coordinates of the midpoint of GH.
a) (0,0)
b) (1,2)
c) (-1,0)
d) (-2, -1)
e) (6, 4)
2) Find the distance between the points (-3, 5) and (2, 17).
a) 5
b) 12
c) 13
d) 15
e) 17
3) If a triangle has two interior angles measuring 35˚ and 60˚, the measure of the corresponding remote exterior angle is...
a) 35˚
b) 60˚
c) 85˚
d) 95˚
e) 120˚
4) What is the sum of the interior angle measures of an octagon?
a) 360˚
b) 540˚
c) 720˚
d) 900˚
e) 1080˚
5) Find the measure of each interior angle of a regular decagon (10 sides).
a) 10˚
b) 144˚
c) 112˚
d) 135˚
e) 170˚
6) Determine the equation of the line perpendicular to y = 2x - 2 which passes through the point (-4, 5).
a) y = 0.5x - 2
b) y = 0.5x + 3
c) y = -0.5x - 2
d) y = -0.5x + 3
e) y = -2x – 3
7) Determine which of the following statements is false, regarding quadrilaterals.
a) A kite has exactly one set of parallel sides.
b) A trapezoid can have four angles all with different measures.
c) It is possible for a rhombus to also be a rectangle.
d) Opposite interior angles in a parallelogram are always congruent.
e) A kite has exactly one pair of congruent angles.
8) What is the arc length of an arc intercepted by a central angle of 36˚ in a circle with radius 10?
a) π
b) π/2
c ) 2 π
d) 2
e) π/4
9) One leg of an isosceles right triangle measures 4 cm. What is the length of the hypotenuse?
a) 5 cm
b) 6 cm
c) [pic] cm
d) [pic] cm
e) 3[pic] cm
10) A triangle ABC with vertices A(4, 2), B (1, 3), and C(-1, -1) is reflected over the y-axis. Find C’.
a) (-1, -1)
b) (1, -1)
c) (-1, 1)
d) (1, 1)
e) (0, 0)
11) What is the area of an equilateral triangle with side lengths that measure 6 cm each?
a) 18 cm2
b) 36 cm2
c) 9[pic] cm2
d) 9[pic] cm2
e) 27 cm2
12) If a conditional statement states “If p, then q” then the contrapositive states…
a) If not p, then not q
b) If q, then p
c) If p, then not q
d) If not q, then p
e) If not q, then not p
13) The conditional statement “If a polygon is a triangle, then it has three sides” is a biconditional.
a) true
b) false
14) Which of the following can NOT be used to prove that two triangles are congruent?
a) SSS
b) SAS
c) ASA
d) AAS
e) AAA
15) What is the surface area of a cylinder with radius 6 and height 11?
a) 204π
b) 157π
c) 396π
d) 130π
e) 66π
16) What is the volume of a prism whose height is 10 and whose base is a regular hexagon with side length 4?
a) 160
b) 240[pic]
c) 160[pic]
d) 280
e) 512
17) Find the surface area of a cone whose height is 12 whose base has radius 5.
a) 42π
b) 56 π
c) 64 π
d) 90 π
e) 120 π
18) Find the volume of a pyramid whose height is 12 whose base is a rectangle with length 8 and width 3.
a) 288
b) 96
c) 112
d) 214
e) 632
19) What is the measure of each exterior angle of a regular octagon?
a) 135˚
b) 45˚
c) 65˚
d) 75˚
e) 112˚
20) A cube has dimension 6 by 6 by 6. Find the length of the diagonal whose endpoints are vertices of the cube which passes through the center of the cube.
a) 6
b) 18[pic]
c) 9[pic]
d) 6[pic]
e) 18[pic]
-END GEOMETRY QUIZ-
AP Calculus
1) Find [pic][pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic] d) [pic] e) Does not exist.
2) Let [pic] be defined by the following piecewise function:
[pic]
Find [pic] [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic] d) [pic] e) Does not exist.
3) Find [pic][pic] [pic] using l’Hôpital’s rule.
a) 0 b) -[pic] c) [pic] d) -[pic] e) Does not exist.
4) Let [pic]. Find [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic]
d) [pic] e) [pic]
5) Let [pic]. Find [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic]
d) [pic] e) [pic]
6) Find [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic]
d) [pic] e) [pic]
7) Given [pic], find [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic]
d) [pic] e) The function is not differentiable with respect to [pic].
8) Given [pic], find [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic]
d) [pic] e) [pic]
9) Find the relative maximum and minimum of [pic] on the interval [pic].
a) Max: 2 b) Max: 1 c) Max: 32
Min: -1 Min: -2 Min: -4
d) Max: 7 e) Max: 4
Min: -20 Min: 2
10) Using [pic] from the previous problem, determine the intervals of increase and decrease over the domain of the function.
a) Increasing: [pic] b) Increasing: [pic]
Decreasing: [pic] Decreasing: [pic]
c) Increasing: [pic] d) Increasing: [pic]
Decreasing: [pic] Decreasing: [pic]
e) Increasing: [pic]
Decreasing: [pic]
11) Using [pic] from the previous problem, determine intervals of concavity over the domain using the second derivative test.
a) Concave up: [pic] b) Concave up: [pic]
Concave down: [pic] Concave down: [pic]
c) Concave up: [pic] d) Concave up: [pic]
Concave down: [pic] Concave down: [pic]
e) Concave up: [pic]
Concave down: [pic]
12) The Mean Value Theorem states that if [pic]is a function differentiable over the interval [pic], then there exists a point C in [pic] such that
[pic]
Let [pic] and let C exist on the interval [pic]. What is one possible value for [pic] on the interval [pic]?
a) -7 b) -6 c) -5
d) 0 e) 10
13) Water is being poured onto a flat surface, creating a circular puddle. If the area of the puddle is increasing at a rate of 36 cm[pic] per second, how fast is the radius of the puddle increasing when the radius of the puddle is 12 cm?
a) 6 cm/s b) [pic] cm/s c) [pic] cm/s
d) 24[pic] cm/s e) [pic]cm/s
14) Let [pic]be a continuous function. A certain operation is defined by
[pic] [pic]
where [pic] is the x-coordinate of one of n evenly spaced sub-intervals on the domain of f. The inverse of this operation is:
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic] [pic]
d) Both (a) and (b) e) Both (b) and (c)
15) Find [pic] using a substitution, and indicate the easiest substitution to use for this problem.
a) [pic], letting [pic] b) [pic], letting [pic]
c) [pic], letting [pic] d) [pic], letting [pic]
e) [pic], letting [pic]
16) Find [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic] d) [pic] e) [pic]
17) Find [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic]
d) [pic] e) [pic]
18) Find [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic]
d) [pic] e) [pic]
19) Find the area of the region bounded by [pic], [pic], [pic], and [pic].
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic] d) [pic] e) [pic]
20) Find the volume of the solid generated by revolving the region in the previous problem about the x-axis.
a) [pic] b) [pic] c) [pic] d) [pic] e) [pic]
-END AP CALCULUS QUIZ-
Pre-Calculus
1) Write the following in expanded form[pic].
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
2) Describe the interval determined by the inequality [pic].
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
3) Which point is farther from the origin, (15, 6) or (16, 2)?
a) (15,6)
b) (16,2)
c) They are the same distance from the origin
4) Which of the following values of k make all root(s) of the equation [pic] real numbers?
a) 1
b) -1
c) -2
d) [pic]
e) -30
5) Find the domain of the function [pic].
a) [pic] [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
6) Find the range of the function [pic].
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
7) Given a function [pic], and that [pic], then describe the translation of f(x) to get g(x).
a) g(x) is f(x) moved right 4 units and down 5 units
b) g(x) is f(x) moved right 4 units and up 5 units
c) g(x) is f(x) moved left 4 units and down 5 units
d) g(x) is f(x) moved left 4 units and up 5 units
e) g(x) is f(x) moved right 5 units and up 4 units
8) Find the maximum possible area for a right triangle with a hypotenuse of 15 cm. Hint: if x is the length of one leg, then [pic].
a) 144 square cm
b) 336/5 square cm
c) 25 square cm
d) 25/2 square cm
e) 225/4 square cm
9) Solve for x: [pic].
a) ln(3/2)
b) ln(3)
c) 1
d) ln(-2/3)
e) e
10) Which of the following is an odd function?
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
11) Simplify [pic].
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
12) Convert 165 degrees to radian measure.
a) [pic] d) [pic]
b) [pic] e) [pic]
c) [pic]
13) The expression [pic] is equivalent to which of the following?
a) [pic]
b) 0.14487
c) 1
d) 0
e) [pic]
14) Find an exact value for sin(75˚).
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) 1
15) Solve [pic].
a) t = 1/2
b) t = 1
c) t = 1/2, 1
d) t = -1
e) t = 0
16) Which of the following is equivalent to [pic]?
I. [pic]
II. [pic]
III. [pic]
a) I only
b) II and III only
c) I and III only
d) II only
e) I, II, and III
17) Convert the following polar coordinate to rectangular: (1, [pic]).
a) (0, 1)
b) (1, 0)
c) (-1, 0)
d) (0, -1)
e) (1, 3)
18) Find the center of the ellipse defined by [pic]
a) (5, 3)
b) (-5, 3)
c) (5, 1)
d)(-5, 1)
e) (5, -1)
19) Find the lengths of the major and minor axes of the ellipse in the previous problem.
a) 5 and 3 respectively
b) 10 and 6 respectively
c) 5 and 1 respectively
d)10 and 2 respectively
e) 9 and 16 respectively
20) A, B, and C are the vertices of triangle ABC. A is 60 degrees, B is 45 degrees, and the length of BC is 12 cm. Find the length of AC.
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
-END PRE-CALCULUS QUIZ-
Statistics
1) In statistics, a distribution:
a) Describes the behavior of a random variable
b) Is always “Normal”
c) Is the population the sample data is collected from
d) Describes the characteristics of a particular sample
e) Describes the characteristics of a particular population
2) Consider the following scenario. A study of the standard of living of typical families in Middletown has collected income data from a reasonable sample of the town’s population. Most residents have middle-low incomes, however, a billionaire resident of Middletown was included in the sample. Which measure of center would probably most accurately reflect the standard of living of a typical Middletown resident?
a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) Variance
e) Standard Deviation
3) Which of the following statements are true about density curves?
I. The area underneath a density curve is always 1.
II. Density curves describe the overall pattern of a distribution.
III. Density curves are formed by interpolating areas from scatter-plot data.
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and III only
d) I and II only
e) I, II and III
4) All normal distributions can be standardized to “Standard normal”, allowing us to calculate a standardized value for a data element in the sample, called a z-score. Calculate the z-score of ‘87’ if [pic] and [pic].
a) z = -2
b) z = -.5
c) z = 1
d) z = 1.5
e) z = 2.5
5) True or false: Standardized values (z-scores) can sometimes be used to estimate the likelihood of an event occurring within a standard distribution.
a) True
b) False
6) The length of human pregnancies from conception to birth varies according to a distribution that is approximately normal with mean 266 days and standard deviation 16 days. How could we determine what percentage of pregnancies last less than 240 days?
a) normalcdf(-1,000, 240)
b) normalpdf(240, 266)
c) normalcdf(-10, -1.625)
d) normalcdf(-10, 1.625)
e) normalpdf(-10, 1.625)
7) In linear relationships, the correlation coefficient ‘r’ measures:
a) The slope of a best-fit line obtained from linear regression
b) The strength of the correlation between two variables
c) The average amount each element of data varies from the sample mean
d) The average amount each element of data varies from the population mean
e) The generalizability of the sample data to the population
8) Two variables are correlated with a correlation coefficient of ‘r’. Which of the following values of ‘r’ would represent the weakest correlation between the two variables?
a) r = 0.98
b) r = -0.77
c) r = -0.4
d) r = -.89
e) r = 0.1
9) Which of the following represents a Simple Random Sample (SRS)?
a) Students at a university are randomly assigned ID numbers, and ID numbers are randomly chosen by a fair computer program. Students with selected ID numbers are given a survey asking opinions about University policies.
b) Fans at a rock concert are asks to answer questions regarding their musical taste. The results are then generalized to the general population.
c) A researcher is interested in measuring attitudes toward a presidential candidate. He/she collects data by going to an affluent shopping center and asking every fifth passer-by to fill out a survey about their views of the candidate.
d) A teacher receives a sample of 12 emails from parents in one week. 8 of these emails are from unhappy parents, criticizing the teacher’s methods. The other 4 are from happy parents, praising the teacher’s methods.
e) An author undertakes a study of women’s attitudes towards sex and love by distributing 100,000 questionnaires through women’s groups, and using the 4,500 questionnaires that were actually returned as a sample.
10) The primary difference between correlational studies and experiments is:
a) Correlational studies use control groups, while experiments do not.
b) Correlational studies seek to determine simply whether two variables are related, while experiments try to determine which variable causes which.
c) Correlational studies always use a SRS, but experiments always use a stratified random sample.
d) Correlational studies are prone to confounding or lurking variables, while experiments are not.
e) Correlational studies do not use placebos.
11) Outliers in statistical data have the greatest effect on which measure of center?
a) Mean d) Outliers equally affect all measures of center
b) Median e) Outliers have no effect on measures of center
c) Mode
12) Which of the following is an example of a discrete random variable?
a) The exact amount of time it takes a runner to run a lap.
b) The weight of a newborn baby at birth.
c) The number of heads obtained in a finite series of coin tosses.
d) The distance a car travels on one tank of gas.
e) A member of a certain population’s height.
13) Which of the following is an example of a continuous random variable?
a) The number of tails obtained in a finite series of coin tosses.
b) An integer selected randomly between 0 and 99.
c) The number of correct answers a student got on a test of 100 questions.
d) The number of fish in a given body of water.
e) The distance between the earth and the sun at a given time.
14) Let the events A and B be defined such that:
A = the event that the sum of two (fair) 6-sided die rolls equals 7
B = the event that the sum of two (fair) 6-sided die rolls equals 4
P(A) = the probability that A occurs
P(B) = the probability that B occurs
Find P(A) [pic]P(B).
a) 1/6 d) 1/4
b) 3/7 e) 1/3
c) 2/9
15) Using the definitions from the previous problem, find P(B|A).
a) 1/36, the two events are independent
b) 1/6, the two events are independent
c) 1/3, the two events are dependent
d) 1/12, the two events are independent
e) 1/4, the two events are dependent
16) The number of bacteria in a colony that approximately doubles its population every 2 hours could be best approximated by which regression model?
a) Linear Regression
b) Power Regression
c) Exponential Regression
d) Logarithmic Regression
e) Quartic Regression
17) You give a test to an SRS of 1000 people from a large population in which the scores have mean 280 and standard deviation [pic]. The mean [pic] of the 1000 scores will vary if you take repeated samples. The distribution of the random variable [pic] is approximately normal. What is the approximate mean and standard deviation of the random variable [pic]?
a) mean 0.28, standard deviation 0.06
b) mean 280, standard deviation 1.89737
c) mean 160, standard deviation 60
d) mean 280, standard deviation 60
e) mean 160, standard deviation 1.35562
18) A study of the career paths of hotel general managers sent questionnaires to an SRS of 160 hotels belonging to major U.S. hotel chains. There were 114 responses. The average time these 114 general managers had spent with their current company was 11.78 years. Give a 99% confidence interval for the mean number of years general managers of major-chain hotels have spent with their current company. (Assume the standard deviation of time with the company for all general managers is 3.2 years).
a) 11.78 [pic] 0.77
b) 11.78 [pic] 0.34
c) 11.78 [pic] 0.61
d) 11.78 [pic] 1.44
e) 11.78 [pic] 1.22
19) The p-value of a significance test directly tells you:
a) The probability that the observed outcome was due to chance
b) The probability that the observed outcome was NOT due to chance
c) Whether or not the outcome is statistically significant at a given fixed confidence interval
d) a and c
e) b and c
20) A significance test yields a p-value of 0.067 for a test statistic to be evaluated at the 10% significance level. In this case we should:
a) Reject the null hypothesis
b) Reject the alternative hypothesis
c) Fail to reject the null hypothesis
d) Accept the alternative hypothesis
e) Accept the null hypothesis
-END AP STATISTICS QUIZ-
Trigonometry
1) Convert 135 degrees to radian measure.
a) π /6
b) π/3
c) 4 π/3
d) 3 π/4
e) 5 π/6
2) What is the arc length of an arc intercepted by a central angle measuring 5 π/4 in a circle with radius 4?
a) π
b) 2 π/3
c) 5
d) π/3
e) 5 π
3) Convert the radian measure 11 π/6 to degrees.
a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 330°
d) 300°
e) 270°
4) sinA and cosA both have negative values for which quadrant?
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
5) Which of the following angle measures is equivalent to 450°?
a) 60°
b) -90°
c) -270°
d) 135°
e) -120°
6) Find csc(-330°) to the nearest hundredth using reference angles.
a) 2.00
b) 0.50
c) -0.50
d) 0.707
e) 0.867
7) If sin245° + cos2A = 1, what is the measure of angle A?
a) 25°
b) 135°
c) 45°
d) 315°
e) 90°
8) Evaluate csc(A)tan(A)cos(A) for A = π/3.
a) -2
b) -1
c) 0
d) 1
e) 2
9) Which of the following is equivalent to [pic] ?
a) 1
b) cscA tanA
c) secA cosA
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
10) Simplify [pic].
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
11) Convert 165 degrees to radian measure.
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
12) The expression [pic] is equivalent to which of the following?
a) [pic] d) 0
b) 0.14487 e) [pic]
c) 1
13) Find an exact value for sin(75˚).
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) 1
14) Solve [pic].
a) t = 1/2
b) t = 1
c) t = 1/2, 1
d) t = -1
e) t = 0
15) Which of the following is equivalent to [pic]?
I. [pic]
II. [pic]
III. [pic]
a) I only
b) II and III only
c) I and III only
d) II only
e) I, II, and III
16) Which of the following gives an exact value for sin(75°)?
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic]
17) The statement that [pic] = 1 is…
a) Sometimes true depending on the value of theta.
b) Always true, no matter what the value of theta.
c) Never true, no matter what the value of theta.
18) [pic] is equivalent to which of the following?
a) [pic]
b) [pic]
c) [pic]
d) [pic]
e) [pic] – [pic]
19) Convert the following polar coordinate to rectangular: (1, [pic]).
a) (0, 1)
b) (1, 0)
c) (-1, 0)
d) (0, -1)
e) (1, 3)
20) Find the center of the ellipse defined by [pic]
a) (5, 3)
b) (-5, 3)
c) (5, 1)
d) (-5, 1)
e) (5, -1)
-END TRIGONOMETRY QUIZ-
Biology (HS)
1. The Kreb’s cycle produces:
a. 3 ATP, 1 NADH, 3 FADH2
b. 1 ATP, 3 NADH, 3 FADH2
c. 1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2
d. 3 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2
e. 1 ATP, 1 NADH, 3 FADH2
2. Of the following categories, which is the most broad:
a. Species
b. Phylum
c. Class
d. Genus
e. Order
3. Which of the following is not found in cells of humans:
a. Mitochondria
b. Plasma Membrane
c. Chloroplasts
d. Endoplasmic Reticulum
e. Golgi Apparatus
4. True or False: Gametes are formed by mitosis
a. True
b. False
5. The terms Bowman’s capsule, uric acid, and loop of Henle are associated with the:
a. Circulatory System
b. Excretory System
c. Lymphatic System
d. Immune System
e. Respiratory System
6. Protein synthesis takes place on:
a. Ribosomes
b. Lysosomes
c. Golgi Apparatus
d. Mitochondria
e. Chloroplast
7. AABb is an example of a(n):
a. Allele
b. Phenotype
c. Genotype
d. Gamete
8. True or False: Blood type O is the universal recipient.
a. True
b. False
9. ABCDEFG –>AZCDEFG is an example of:
a. Substitution
b. Deletion
c. Insertion
d. Frameshift mutation
e. Transcription
10. The cleavage of a cell furrows during which phase of mitosis:
a. Interphase
b. Anaphase
c. Prophase
d. Metaphase
e. Telophase
11. In DNA, adenine pairs with which of the following:
a. Cytosine d. Uricil
b. Thymine e. Taurine
c. Guanine
12. Which of the following is considered to be not “living”:
a. A paramecium
b. A bacterium
c. A protozoa
d. Plankton
e. A virus
13. Which of the following statements is TRUE about parasites and their relationships with their hosts?
a. The parasite and the host enjoy a mutual relationship, where both organisms benefit.
b. The parasite enjoys the benefits of a relationship in which the host is harmed or killed.
c. The host enjoys the benefits of a relationship in which the parasite is harmed or killed.
d. Neither the parasite nor host is really harmed in their symbiotic relationship.
14. In the animal kingdom, meiosis results in the production of what kinds of cells?
a. spores
b. skin cells
c. sperm cells
d. egg cells
e. c & d
f. a, c & d
15. Which of the following statements about living things is false?
a. All living things use energy to function.
b. All living things are composed of cells.
c. All living things have a nervous system.
d. All living things are capable of reproduction.
e. None of the above; all statements are true.
16. What is the smallest unit of life?
a. cell
b. atom
c. virus
d. a & b
e. a & c
17. Plants create their own food by absorbing and processing sunlight. The ability to produce your own food source is a metabolic process known as what?
a. heterotrophy
b. autotrophy
c. homotrophy
d. ditrophy
e. self-metabolization
18. An animal that consumes only vegetables is called a(n) what?
a. omnivore
b. herbivore
c. carnivore
d. consumavore
19. Glucose is a building block of carbohydrates. Which of these best describes glucose?
a. nucleotide
b. protein
c. monosaccharide
d. lipid
20. Which cell structure contains molecules that direct cell activities?
a. nucleus
b. ribosome
c. mitochondrion
d. chloroplast
-END BIOLOGY (HS) QUIZ-
Physics (HS)
[pic]
[pic]
1. A girl leaves a history classroom and walks 10 meters north to a drinking fountain. Then she turns and walks 30 meters south to an art classroom. What is the girl’s total displacement from the history classroom to the art classroom?
a. 20 M south
b. 20 M north
c. 40 M south
d. 40 M north
2. If the speed of a car is doubled, the kinetic energy of the car is:
a. quadrupled
b. quartered
c. doubled
d. halved
3. An electron in a mercury atom drops from an excited state to the ground state by emitting a single photon. If the difference in energy between the excited state and the ground state is 5.7 eV, what is the wavelength of the emitted photon?
a. 445 nm
b. 217 nm
c. 130 nm
d. 663 nm
4. Suppose a 5.0 Newton force and a 12.0 Newton force act on a point P. If the forces act at a 90[pic]angle from each other, the magnitude of the total force acting at point P is:
a. 5.0 N
b. 12 N
c. 7.0 N
d. 13 N
5. The energy equivalent of 5.0 × 10–3 kilogram is:
a. [pic] J
b. [pic] J
c. [pic] J
d. [pic] J
6. Which wave phenomenon makes it possible for a player to hear the sound from a referee’s whistle in an open field even when standing behind the referee?
a. diffraction
b. Doppler effect
c. reflection
d. refraction
7. In order to produce a magnetic field, an electric charge must be:
a. stationary c. positive
b. moving d. negative
8. A student does 60 joules of work pushing a 3.0-kilogram box up the full length of a ramp that is 5.0 meters long. What is the magnitude of the force applied to the box to do this work? Assume that the force applied to the box is parallel to the inclined ramp.
a. 20 N
b. 15 N
c. 12 N
d. 4.0 N
9. Which is a vector quantity?
a. speed
b. work
c. mass
d. displacement
10. A soccer player kicks a ball with an initial velocity of 10 meters per second at an angle of 30° above the horizontal. The magnitude of the horizontal component of the ball’s initial velocity is:
a. 5.0 m/s
b. 8.7 m/s
c. 9.8 m/s
d. 10 m/s
11. A block weighing 40 Newtons is released from rest on an incline 8.0 meters above the
horizontal, as shown in the diagram below.
[pic]
If 50 joules of heat is generated as the block slides down the incline, the maximum kinetic energy of the block at the bottom of the incline is:
a. 50 J
b. 270 J
c. 320 J
d. 3100 J
12. Assume that an electron, initially at rest, is accelerated through a potential difference of 2.0 Volts. What will be the electron’s speed at the end of this acceleration?
a. [pic]m/s
b. [pic]m/s
c. [pic] m/s
d. [pic]m/s
13. Which of the following temperatures would be most appropriate to keep milk at inside a refrigerator?
a. –20oC
b. 5 K
c. 40oC
d. 278 K
e. 350 K
14. A planet has a radius one-half that of Earth and a mass one-fifth the Earth’s mass. The
gravitational acceleration at the surface of the planet is most nearly:
a. 4.0 m/s2
b. 8.0 m/s2
c. 12.5 m/s2
d. 25 m/s2
e. 62.5 m/s2
15. A ball with a mass of 0.50 kg and a speed of 6.0 m/s collides perpendicularly with a wall and bounces off with a speed of 4.0 m/s in the opposite direction. What is the magnitude of the impulse acting on the ball?
a. 13 J
b. 1.0 N s
c. 5.0 N s
d. 2.0 m/s
e. 10 m/s
16. If the unit for force is F, the unit for velocity V, and the unit for time T, then the unit for momentum is:
a. FT
b. FTV
c. FT2V
d. FT/V
e. FV/T
17. A ball is rolled off the edge of a horizontal table. The ball has an initial speed vo and lands on the floor some distance from the base of the table. Which of the following statements concerning the fall of the ball is FALSE?
a. The time of flight depends on the height of the table.
b. One of the components of the final speed will be v[pic].
c. The ball will accelerate.
d. The ball will have a longer flight time if v[pic] is increased.
e. The ball will fall because of the force due to gravity.
18. Consider an object that has a mass, m, and a weight, W, at the surface of the moon. If we assume the moon has a nearly uniform density, which of the following would be closest to the object’s mass and weight at a distance halfway between Moon’s center and its surface?
a. ½ m & ½ W
b. ¼ m & ¼ W
c. 1 m & 1 W
d. 1 m & ½ W
e. 1 m & ¼ W
19. Four identical light bulbs K, L, M, and N are connected in the electrical
circuit shown in the accompanying diagram.
[pic]
Rank the current through the bulbs.
a. K > L > M > N
b. L = M > K = N
c. L > M > K > N
d. N > K > L = M
e. N > L = M > K
20. In the following problem, the word “weight” refers to the force a scale registers. If the Earth were to stop rotating, but not change shape:
a. the weight of an object at the equator would increase.
b. the weight of an object at the equator would decrease.
c. the weight of an object at the north pole would increase.
d. the weight of an object at the north pole would decrease.
e. all objects on Earth would become weightless.
-END PHYSICS (HS) QUIZ-
Physics (AP)
[pic]
[pic]
1. An airplane takes off 550 miles north of K-town and undergoes a displacement of 225 miles north to its first stop. It then undergoes another displacement of 880 miles south to its final destination. Find the position of the final destination relative to K-town.
A. 665 miles south of K-town
B. 330 miles south of K-town
C. 105 miles south of K-town
D. 105 miles north of K-town
2. At precisely 1:00 pm a GPS system in a car indicates that it is 350 km east of Knoxville and its odometer reads 9991 km. At 1:30 pm the same car is 290 km east of Knoxville and the odometer reads 10061 km. Determine the average speed of the car.
A. 120 km/h
B. 140 km/h
C. 160 km/h
D. 200 km/h
3. Suppose a volleyball player wants to serve the ball such that it just barely passes over the net. The horizontal distance from the player to the net is 10.0 meters and the vertical distance from where the ball is served to the top of the net is 1.00 meter. If the player launches the ball at an angle of 45[pic] relative to the horizontal, what does the initial launch speed of the ball have to be for it to just clear the net?
A. 6.6 m/s
B. 7.8 m/s
C. 9.0 m/s
D. 10.4 m/s
4. In reality the net force on a car varies as it accelerates. The net force on a Mini, which has a mass of 1,289 kg, can be modeled by F(t) = 6579 − 387t, where F is in Newtons and t is in seconds, when it is accelerating maximally from rest. Determine the time for it to go from zero to 20.0 m/s.
A. 3.24 s
B. 3.89 s
C. 4.52 s
D. 5.09 s
5. Two objects, masses 6.0 kg and 8.0 kg, are connected by a lightweight string that passes over a massless, frictionless pulley as shown in the diagram. A cord C suspends the pulley in the air. What is the tension in the cord C while the masses connected to the string are in motion?
[pic]
A. 67 N
B. 89 N
C. 118 N
D. 134 N
6. David puts a 0.85 kg rock in his sling and twirls it at 3.0 Hz. The rock moves in a circle with radius 35.0 cm. Ignoring the effect of gravity determine the speed of the rock when it is released.
A. 3.5 m/s
B. 4.7 m/s
C. 6.6 m/s
D. 9.8 m/s
7. A block of wood with mass 0.50 kg is initially at rest on a floor where μk = 0.30. A person kicks the block, quickly accelerating it to an initial speed [pic]. The block then slides a total distance of 2.0 m from beginning to end. Find [pic].
A. 1.09 m/s
B. 2.68 m/s
C. 3.43 m/s
D. 5.02 m/s
8. A bullet with mass 5.0 grams is moving horizontally with speed 375 m/s when it hits a tree. The bullet penetrates the tree 10.0 cm. Find the magnitude of the average force of the bullet on the wood.
A. 3500 N
B. 4200 N
C. 5600 N
D. 6700 N
9. The momentum of a certain object moving along the x-axis is given by p(t) = 2t[pic] − 5t + 3, where p is in kg m/s and t is in s. Find the net impulse on the object between t = 0 and t = 0.8 s
A. 2.7 N*s
B. 4.9 N*s
C. -1.3 N*s
D. -2.7 N*s
10. A 15.0-g bullet with speed 650.0 m/s is fired into a ballistic pendulum of mass 2.00 kg, as indicated in the diagram below. How far does the pendulum rise?
A. 0.87 m
B. 1.19 m
C. 1.34 m
D. 1.56 m
[pic]
11. An old record turntable is set for 45.0 rpm. Starting from rest it takes 1.50 seconds for the turntable to attain this rate. Find the rate of angular acceleration when it is first turned on.
A. 1.57 rad/s[pic]
B. 3.14 rad/s[pic]
C. 4.71 rad/s[pic]
D. 6.28 rad/s[pic]
12. Find the moment of inertia of the thin triangular plate of mass [pic] about the y-axis, with dimensions as shown below.
[pic]
A. [pic]
B. [pic]
C. [pic]
D. [pic]
13. Two parallel circular metal plates of radius 3.00 cm are separated by 1.00 mm to form an electron gun. In order to “fire” an electron at 2.0 × 10[pic] m/s, what must be the amount of charge on each plate?
A. 13 nC
B. 28 nC
C. 3.4 [pic]C
D. 12 [pic]C
14. Four point charges, each equal to 75 nC, are placed at the corners of a square with sides 15.0 cm long. Find the potential energy associated with one of these charges.
A. 0.75 mJ
B. 0.91 mJ
C. 1.1 mJ
D. 1.3 mJ
15. A uniform electric field of 25 kN/C is directed parallel to the z-axis. A square of sides 5.0 cm is submersed in this field and initially located in the xy-plane. Determine the electric flux for the square.
A. 17 N m[pic]/C
B. 34 N m[pic]/C
C. 53 N m[pic]/C
D. 63 N m[pic]/C
16. A large potential difference is applied between two electrodes in a gas tube such that it ionizes the atoms of the gas. This results in free electrons and positively ionized atoms. (a) Suppose 4.0 × 10[pic] electrons and 4.0 × 10[pic] ions pass through a cross section at the middle of the tube every 0.50 s – what is the net current in the tube?
A. 0.13 A
B. 0.26 A
C. 0.39 A
D. 0.52 A
17. The aurora borealis is caused by charged particles colliding with the atoms in the Earth’s atmosphere. Before the collision the charged particles are thought to “spiral in” along Earth’s magnetic field. Suppose such a particle has an energy of 2.0 keV and the magnetic field in that region has magnitude 0.40 G. Solve for the radius of its helical path if the particle is an electron.
A. 3.8 m
B. 4.9 m
C. 10. m
D. 17. m
18. An electromagnet is formed by wrapping a solenoid around an iron core. Iron is a ferromagnetic material in which motions of the electrons can become aligned, producing a strong net magnetic field (by superposition). The field formed by the current in the solenoid causes the alignment to occur. Suppose an electromagnet with 35 turns per centimeter carries 0.20 A current and produces a field of 0.90 T with the core in place. Find the magnetic field that would be produced without the core in place.
A. 0.59 mT
B. 0.72 mT
C. 0.88 mT
D. 0.97 mT
19. A student makes a capacitor with a piece of paper sandwiched between two rectangular pieces of aluminum foil, 20.0 cm × 28.0 cm. The paper is 0.100 mm thick and has a dielectric constant 3.7 and a dielectric strength of 16,000 kV/m. What is the maximum energy storage for this capacitor?
A. 10 mJ
B. 23 mJ
C. 37 mJ
D. 58 mJ
20. A student uses a computer to measure the current and emf for a coil of wire of negligible resistance. It is found that the emf of the coil is 35 mV as the current increases from 155 mA to 195 mA in 0.0100 seconds. What is the inductance of the coil?
A. 3.2 mH
B. 6.9 mH
C. 7.5 mH
D. 8.8 mH
-END TRIGONOMETRY QUIZ-
AP Biology
1. In photosynthesis, the main purpose of water is to:
a. combine with carbon dioxide
b. intake light energy
c. provide electrons in the light-dependent reactions
d. transport hydrogen ions in the light-independent (dark) reactions
e. supply oxygen for the light-independent (dark) reactions
2. After transcription, eukaryotic messenger RNA typically undergoes substantial alteration that results mainly from
a. excision of introns
b. fusion into circular forms known as plasmids
c. linkage to histone molecules
d. union with ribosomes
e. fusion with other newly transcribed MRNA molecules to form larger translatable units
3. When hydrogen ions are pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix, across the inner
mitochondrial membrane, and into the space between the inner and outer membranes, the
result is:
a. damage to the mitotochondrion
b. the reduction of NAD
c. the restoration of the Na-K balance across the membrane
d. the creation of a proton gradient
e. the lowering of pH in the mictochondrial matrix
4. While studying a cell with the electron microscope, a scientist notes the following: numerous ribosomes, a well-developed endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplasts, and a cell wall. Which of the following could be the source of this cell?
a. a fungus
b. an animal
c. a bacterium
d. a plant
e. a virus
5. Of the following, which one best describes a close ecological association in which an organism benefits from living on or inside a host, but which usually has a negative effect on the host?
a. stigmatism
b. commensalism
c. parasitism
d. mutualism
e. decomposition
6. Of the following statements, which is the best summation for organic evolution modern
evolutionists view it?
a. it is directed by goals.
b. it is the process by which monkeys became humans over time.
c. it is the same thing as gene flow.
d. it is an artificial process.
e. it represents the results of selection for acquired characteristics.
7. After transcription, the segment of DNA 3'-TAC GAT TAG-5' will be
a. 5'-TAC GAT TAU-3'
b. 5'-UAC GAU UAG-3'
c. 5'-AUG CUA AUC-3'
d. 5'-ATG CTA ATA-3'
e. 5'-AAC GAU UAA-3'
8. The three types of muscle that are found in vertebrates are
a. striated, smooth and long
b. striated, long, and cardiac
c. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
d. skeletal, striated, and cardiac
e. skeletal, striated, and long
9. A great population of animals in a laboratory setting has been allowed to breed randomly for several generations. After some time, 49 percent of the animals display a recessive trait (zz), which is the exact same percentage when the breeding program began. The other animals show the dominant phenotype, having heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants.
What can be reasonably concluded from the fact that the frequency of allele b has not changed over time?
a. The population is undergoing genetic drift.
b. The genotype BB is lethal.
c. There has been a high rate of mutation of allele B to allele b.
d. There has been sexual selection favoring allele b.
e. The two phenotypes are equally adaptive under laboratory conditions.
10. What percentage of the Population is heterozygous (Bb) for this trait?
a. 42%
b. 23%
c. 8%
d. 50%
e. 64%
11. The bone structure of a human arm is homologous to all of the following structures except a(n):
a. ape arm
b. bat wing
c. sparrow wing
d. moth wing
e. toad forelimb
12. The ancestors of land plants most likely resembled modern day members of the
a. Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae)
b. Phaeophyta (brown algae)
c. Rhodophyta (red algae)
d. Chrysophyta (diatoms and golden-brown algae)
e. Chlorophyta (green algae)
13. Which of the following offers the best description of neural transmission across a mammalian synaptic gap?
a. Neural impulses involve the flow of K' and Na' across the gap.
b. Neural impulses travel across the gap as electrical currents.
c. Neural impulses cause the release of chemicals that diffuse across the gap.
d. Neural impulses travel across the gap in both directions.
e. The calcium within the axons and dendrites of nerves adjacent to a synapse acts as the
neurotransmitter.
14. Which of the following statements is true about the Krebs (citric acid) cycle and the Calvin (light-independent) cycle?
a. They both result in a net production of ATP and NADH.
b. They both are carried out by enzymes located within an organelle matrix.
c. They both require a net input of ATP.
d. They both result in a release of oxygen.
e. They both take place within the cytoplasmic matrix.
15. Two fossilized vertebrates, each from a different class, are found in the undisturbed rock layers of a cliff. One fossil is a representative of the earliest amphibians. The other fossil, found in an older rock layer below the amphibian, is most likely to be
a. a fish
b. an insect
c. a mammal
d. a dinosaur
e. a bird
16. One main difference in mitosis and cytokinesis between higher plants and animals is that in plants:
a. the spindles contain cellulose microfibril in addition to microtubules, whereas animal
spindles do not contain microfibrils.
b. sister chromatids are identical, whereas in animals they differ from one another.
c. a cell plate starts forming at telophase, whereas in animals the cleavage begins to
furrow at this stage.
d. chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prohpase, whereas in animals
chromosomes do not become attacked until anaphase.
e. spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not
17. A feature which starch and glycogen share is that molecules of both:
a. are polymers of glucose.
b. form microfibrils that give support to connective tissue fibers.
c. contain repeated monomers of glucose and galactose.
d. are important structural components of plant cell walls.
e. are water-soluble disaccharides.
18. Which biome has the most diversity among plant species?
a. savannah
b. swamp
c. tropical rain forest
d. deciduous forest
e. desert
19. The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires:
a. the release of an O2 molecule
b. the addition of an H atom
c. the addition of an H2O molecule
d. the release of an H2O molecule
e. a decrease in potential energy
20. The cleavage of a cell furrows during which phase of mitosis:
a. Interphase
b. Anaphase
c. Prophase
d. Metaphase
e. Telophase
-END AP BIOLOGY QUIZ-
Chemistry
Reference elements and atomic weights:
H: 1.008 C: 12.01 N: 14.01 O: 16.00
F: 19.00 Ne: 20.18 Na: 22.99 Mg: 24.31
Al: 26.98 Rb: 85.47 Cs: 132.91
1) Arsenic, sulfur, water, and lead have specific heats of 0.329, 0.706, 4.180, and 0.128 J / gºC, respectively. Which substance would need the least quantity of heat to raise the temperature of 10 grams by 15ºC?
A) arsenic B) sulfur C) water
D) lead E) Not enough information
2) How many oxygen atoms are there in 42.5 g of sodium hydroxide?
A) 7.11 x 1023 B) 6.40 x 1023 C) 9.21 x 1026
D) 2.54 x 1025 E) 1.18 x 1023
3) For the following unbalanced reaction, which of the following is TRUE?
Mg(g) + AgNO3(aq) → Ag(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq)
A) Manganese is being reduced. D) Magnesium is being reduced.
B) Manganese is being oxidized. E) Silver is being oxidized.
C) Magnesium is being oxidized.
4) What is the molecular geometry and polarity for ammonia?
A) Tetrahedral, polar.
B) Trigonal pyramidal, polar.
C) Triangular pyramidal, polar.
D) Tetrahedral, non-polar.
E) Triangular pyramidal, non-polar.
5) Which contains the largest number of hydrogen atoms?
A) 1023 molecules of C2H6.
B) 1 mole of C12H22O11.
C) 2 moles of C6H12O6.
D) 1023 molecules of CH4.
E) 4 moles of CHCl3.
6) What is the coefficient of carbon dioxide in the reaction of methanol, CH4OH, combusting in the presence of oxygen?
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2
D) 3/2 E) 0, carbon monoxide is produced.
7) What is the acid dissociation constant for the following reaction?
HCO3(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) + CO3–(aq)
A) Ka = B) Ka = C) Ka =
D) Ka = E) Ka =
8) According to the kinetic-molecular theory of gases, which of the following is TRUE?
A) The particles are in constant, nonlinear motion.
B) The greater the velocity of a given particle, the greater its kinetic energy.
C) Particle collisions are inelastic.
D) The volume of the particles must be considered.
E) The average kinetic energy of a particle is inversely proportional to temperature.
9) An element has three naturally occurring isotopes. Given that 78.70% have a mass of 23.985 amu, 10.13% have a mass of 24.986 amu and 11.17% have a mass of 25.952, what is the atomic mass and symbol of the element?
A) 26.98 amu, Al+ B) 20.18 amu, Ne C) 22.99 amu, Na
D) 24.31 amu, Mg E) 26.98 amu, Al
10) What are the total number of neutrons, protons, and electrons in 133Cs?
A) 133 neutrons, 55 protons, 55 electrons
B) 79 neutrons, 54 protons, 54 electrons
C) 78 neutrons, 54 protons, 54 electrons
D) 67 neutrons, 66 protons, 66 electrons
E) None of the above
11) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is possible for an electron?
A) n = 1, l = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2 D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 3, s = -1/2
B) n = 2, l = 1, m = -2, s = +1/2 E) None of the above
C) n = 3, l = 1, m = -1, s = -1/2
12) A meniscus formed by the surface of water within a glass test tube DOES NOT demonstrate which of the following?
A) The strong cohesive force among water molecules compared to that between the water and glass.
B) The capillary action of the polar water molecules.
C) The weaker cohesive force among water molecules compared to that between the water and glass.
D) The strong adhesive force between glass and water.
E) Two different intermolecular forces.
13) Nitrogen dioxide is synthesized from nitrogen and oxygen gases. If a tank of nitrogen releases 8.44 liters of the gas at 127º C and 0.638 atm, what volume of nitrogen dioxide will be formed if it is collected at 187º C and 746 torr?
A) 8.08 L B) 12.6 L C) 6.31 L
D) 0.670 L E) 3.16 L
14) What is the strongest intermolecular force present among molecules of formaldehyde:
H–––C–––H
A) induced dipole B) dipole-dipole C) hydrogen bonding
D) London dispersion force E) ion-dipole
15) What volume of a soft drink which is 11.0% sucrose (C12H22O12) by mass contains 78.0 g of sucrose? Assume the density of the solution is 1.04 g/mL.
A) 892 mL B) 737 mL C) 825 mL
D) 788 mL E) 682 mL
16) Which of the following is considered a network solid?
A) I2 B) potassium chloride C) nickel
D) diamond E) None of the above
17) How much energy is required to vaporize 45.0 g of dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at its boiling point, if its ∆Hvap is 31.6 kJ/mol?
A) 1.42 x 103 kJ B) 121 kJ C) 16.7 kJ
D) 28.7 kJ E) None of the above
18) A common coolant used in automobile engine radiators is 38.7% carbon, 9.7% hydrogen, and 51.6% oxygen. If its molar mass is 62.0 g/mol, what is the molecular formula?
A) CH3O B) C4HO5 C) C2H6O2
D) CH3O2 E) C2H2O
19) For the following unbalanced redox reaction occurring in acidic solution, what is the coefficient for the product H2O:
Fe+2(aq) + MnO4–(aq) → Fe+3(aq) + Mn+2(aq)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3
D) 4 E) No water will be produced
20) What is the pH of 65.0mL of 0.100 M calcium hydroxide solution at 25º C?
A) 1.89 B) 12.1 C) 11.8
D) 12.7 E) 2.90
-END CHEMISTRY QUIZ-
AP Chemistry
Reference elements and atomic weights:
H: 1.008 C: 12.01 N: 14.01 O: 16.00
F: 19.00 Ne: 20.18 Na: 22.99 Mg: 24.31
Al: 26.98
1. How many O atoms are there in 36.5 g of aluminum nitrate?
A) 1.15 x 1022 B) 9.29 x 1023 C) 4.65 x 1023
E) 2.81 x 1023 E) 5.89 x 1023
2. A newly installed water heater is filled to its full 120.0 L capacity. How much energy is required to heat the water from 25.0º C to 74.5º C? Assume the specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 J/g • ºC at 298 K.
A) 2.48 x 107 kJ B) 1.42 x 106 kJ C) 1.42 x 103 kJ
D) 2.48 x 10 kJ E) 2.48 x 104 kJ
3. What is the hybridization of the carbon atom with an oxygen atom in the molecule COCl2?
A) sp2d B) sp C) sp3
D) sp2 E) not hybridized
4. H2O2 is used as an oxygen source at a wastewater treatment plant. It decomposes according to the following reaction:
2 H2O2 (aq) → 2 H2O (l) + O2 (g)
What volume of oxygen at 25.0º C and 760 mmHg can be liberated from 30.0 g of H2O2? Assume R = 0.08205746 L.atm.K-1mol-1.
A) 21.6 L B) 0.905 L C) 10.78 L
D) 10.47 L E) 0.0927 L
5. 0.125 g of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in water and the final volume is brought to 50.0 mL. What is the pH of the resulting solution?
A) 12.8 B) 1.20 C) 0.204
D) 13.8 E) 13.6
6. What is the balanced overall reaction given the following half reactions:
. Al(s) → Al+3(aq) + 3e-
. 2H+(aq) + 2e- → H2(g)
.
A) Al(s) + 4 H+(aq) → Al+3(aq) + 2 H2(g) B) Al(s) + H2(aq) → Al+3(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + e-
C) Al(s) + 2 H+(aq) → Al+3(aq) + H2(g) + e- D) 2 Al(s) + 6 H+(aq) → 2 Al+3(aq) + 3 H2(g)
E) none of the above
7. A composition of an unknown compound is 73.1% Cl, 24.8% C, and the rest is H. Which of the following is TRUE?
A) There are 2 moles of chlorine in every mole of the compound
B) The empirical formula is CHCl.
C) The molecular formula is CHCl.
D) The mole ratio of chlorine to carbon is approximately 3 to 1.
E) The empirical formula is CH2Cl.
8. Hydrobromic acid is mixed with a solution of sodium carbonate. Which of the following is NOT a product of the acidic reaction?
A) CO2 B) NaBr C) H2CO3
D) Br– ions E) H2O
9. What is the hybridization of the central atom and bond angle for BF3?
A) sp3d, 120º B) sp3d, 90º C) sp2, 90º
D) sp2d2, 120º E) sp2, 120º
10. What is the molecular geometry for the compound in question 9 above?
A) Triangular pyramidal
B) T-shaped
C) Trigonal planar
D) Trigonal pyramidal
E) Trigonal bipyramidal
11. Sulfur burns to SO2 emitting a beautiful deep blue-purple flame, but with a foul odor:
. 2 S + O2 → 2 SO2. How many liters of oxygen gas are needed to form 35.2 L of SO2 at standard temperature and pressure?
.
A) 70.4 L B) 35.2 L C) 8.8 L
D) 26.4 L E) 17.6 L
12. The following equilibrium is reached when sodium cyanide solution is added to silver nitrate solution: Ag+(aq) + 2 CN–(aq) ⇌ Ag(CN)2–(aq). If Keq = 5.6 x 1018, which of the following is TRUE?
A) The equilibrium will be favored in the forward direction.
B) The equilibrium will be favored in the reverse direction.
C) The cyanide ion concentration will be greater than the silver cyanide concentration at equilibrium.
D) The silver cyanide concentration will be less than the silver nitrate concentration at equilibrium.
E) The silver ion concentration will be higher than all the other ions at equilibrium.
13. If 3.00 moles of helium gas and 3.00 moles of radon gas are compared at STP, the two gases, in terms of their particles, will have equal:
A) density B) average molecular velocities C) volume
D) B and C E) all of the above
14. The chloride ion concentration of a saturated solution of silver chloride is 1.3 x 10–5 M. Calculate the Ksp for silver chloride.
A) 1.3 x 10–5 B) 1.7 x 10–5 C) 2.2 x 10–15
D) 1.7 x 10–10 E) 2.9 x 10–20
15. From the following chemical equations:
. 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g) ∆Hºrxn = -197.8 kJ
. 2 NO(g) + O2 (g) → 2 NO2(g) ∆Hºrxn = -114.14 kJ
.
. calculate ∆Hºrxn for the reaction:
. SO2(g) + NO2(g) → SO3(g) + NO(g)
.
A) -311.9 kJ B) -83.66 kJ C) -41.83 kJ
D) -155.9 kJ E) +155.9 kJ
.
16. A solution containing 7.25 g of barium chloride is added to a second solution containing excess sodium sulfate; barium sulfate precipitates as a result. Calculate the theoretical yield of barium sulfate.
A) 7.57 g B) 6.47 g C) 8.12 g
D) 7.01 g E) 9.80 g
.
17. The reaction in question 16 is experimentally observed to result in an actual yield of 7.12 g of barium sulfate. Calculate the percent yield.
A) 98.5% B) 90.9% C) 94.1%
D) 87.7% E) 72.7%
18. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) Alpha particles are electrons being ejected from the nucleus.
B) Positron emission is a form of decay related to beta particle decay.
C) Beta particles are less energetic compared to nuclear decay involving gamma rays.
D) A nucleus can gain a proton as a result of nuclear decay.
E) Alpha particles have the same mass as a helium-4 nuclide.
.
19. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) NH3 is a strong electrolyte.
B) Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte.
C) Ethanol acts as a strong electrolyte.
D) Sulfuric acid is a weak electrolyte.
E) Hard tap water is a non-electrolyte.
20. An atom has 32 neutrons and 23 electrons. If it is a cation with a +2 charge, what is its correct symbol?
A) Mn+2 B) Sc+2 C) Cu+2
D) Mn+2 E) Sc+2
21. Carbon tetrachloride gas decomposes in the following reaction:
CCl4(g) → C(s, graphite) + 2 Cl2(g) ∆H = +95.7 kJ; ∆S = +142.2 J/K
Calculate ∆G at 25ºC and determine whether the reaction is spontaneous.
A) +28.5 x 106 J; spontaneous
B) +28.5 x 106 J; not spontaneous
C) +92.1 x 103 J; not spontaneous
D) +53.3 x 103 J; spontaneous
E) +53.3 x 103 J; not spontaneous
22. For the following redox reaction occurring in basic solution, what are the coefficients of the chlorite ions and chlorate ions produced, respectively, when the reaction is balanced:
. 2ClO2(g) + 2OH- (aq) ( ClO2-(aq) + ClO-3(aq) + H2O (l)
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 2 C) 2 and 1
D) 1 and 1 E) 2 and 4
23. For the following redox reaction occurring in acidic solution, what are the coefficients for the sulfate ions and water molecules produced, respectively, when the reaction is balanced:
. SO3–2(aq) + MnO4–(aq) → SO4–2(aq) + Mn+2(aq)
A) 5 and 3 B) 5 and 6 C) 3 and 5
D) 4 and 4 E) 4 and 6
24. A cylinder filled with carbon dioxide expands against an external pressure of 1.58 atm, pushing a piston outward. If the initial gas volume is 0.485 L and the final volume is 1.245 L, how much work is done? Assume 101.3 J = 1 L•atm.
A) -1.18 x 10–2 J B) +1.20 J C) -1.20 J
D) -122 J E) +122 J
-END AP CHEMISTRY QUIZ-
AP European History
1. Which was NOT a characteristic of the Renaissance?
a. Emphasis on individuality.
b. Confidence in human rationality.
c. The emergence of merchant oligarchies.
d. The development of social insurance programs.
e. Emulation of classical manuscripts.
2. John Locke justified the Glorious Revolution on the grounds that:
a. Monarchs hold power by divine right.
b. Government is an unnecessary infringement on peoples' lives.
c. Government is a contract entered into between the government and its subjects.
d. Rulers are only responsible to the legislature.
e. Puritan rule is the best kind of government.
3. The chief purpose of the Congress of Vienna was to:
a. Stimulate nationalism.
b. Protect western Europe from autocratic Russia.
c. Restore the Old Regime as far as possible.
d. Preserve the basic reforms of the French Revolution.
e. Make Poland an independent state.
4. The immediate cause of World War I was the assassination of:
a. Archduke Francis Ferdinand.
b. Tsar Nicholas II.
c. Bismarck.
d. Emperor Franz Joseph.
e. Rasputin.
5. The Munich Agreement (1938) was significant because it:
a. Halted Japanese aggression in Manchuria.
b. Prevented the German annexation of the Sudetenland.
c. Brought about the creation of the Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis.
d. Represented the appeasement of the Nazis by France and Great Britain.
e. Resulted in the collapse of the French Popular Front government.
6. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the impact of the development of gunpowder on Europe's nobility?
a. gunpowder led to the end of knights in armor and jousting with lances.
b. gunpowder was so scarce and expensive that only the nobles could afford to use it.
c. gunpowder had little effect on European warfare because early weapons were so primitive as to be virtually useless.
d. gunpowder allowed kings to wage war against the nobles and subdue them.
e. none of these choices are correct.
7. Renaissance education was characterized by:
a. emphasis on developing the "complete individual".
b. tendencies to criticize the Church and openly encourage religious revolt.
c. little attention to anything but academic pursuits.
d. a hesitancy to question old teachings.
e. support of the religious reforms initiated by Savonarola in Florence.
8. Martin Luther rejected which of the following:
a. the priesthood of all believers
b. justification through faith alone
c. the Bible as the final authority of God's word
d. the spiritual life as superior to a secular life
e. financial payment for the remission of sins
9. Why did the English, Dutch, and French governments fail to begin colonization of the Americas and direct trade with the Orient until more than 100 years after Columbus discovered America?
a. their geographical positions put them at a disadvantage for trans-oceanic movement.
b. the northern countries lacked suitable ships and the advanced technology to make long voyages.
c. domestic troubles and religious controversies delayed organized action.
d. Western European bankers refused to loan monarchs money for such ventures.
e. the northerners were slow to abandon their traditional Mediterranean trade routes.
10. The single greatest cause of warfare between 1550 and 1650 was:
a. economic competition.
b. disputes over constitutional issues.
c. international disputes over territory.
d. religious rivalries.
e. growing tensions between kings and nobles.
11. In general, which of the following MOST accurately reflects the state of Europe in 1648?
a. the northwest of Europe was predominantly Protestant while the south was mostly Catholic.
b. Catholicism was triumphant everywhere in Europe.
c. Protestants were the majority population in every Western European country.
d. the Holy Roman Empire emerged as a completely Lutheran sphere of influence.
e. France lost in her struggle with the Habsburgs to become the dominant land power in Europe.
12. The economic theory of mercantilism would be consistent with which of the following statements:
a. economies will prosper most when trade is restricted as little as possible.
b. colonies are of little economic importance to the mother country.
c. a government should seek to direct the economy so as to maximize exports.
d. it is vital that a country import more than it exports.
e. tariff barriers should be avoided as much as possible.
13. A lasting effect of the Napoleonic occupation of Europe was the:
a. the decline of Russian military power.
b. stimulation of national feeling in the subject lands.
c. collapse of international trade.
d. formation of a Entente Cordiale to keep the peace.
e. sudden end of any social or economic reforms.
14. A major cause of the Industrial Revolution was the:
a. effort to eliminate child labor.
b. need for more manufactured goods for foreign trade.
c. desire for colonies.
d. increase in population.
e. racial ideas about western superiority.
15. Which of the following is the BEST reason for the beginnings of late 19th-century imperialism?
a. the need to develop manufacturing in non-industrialized nations.
b. the global competition of European nations for claims to less developed areas.
c. missionary activities to proselytize and convert the heathens.
d. the acquisition of territories promising strategic benefit.
e. national security and the need for an international balance of power.
16. The primary reason for Bolshevik success in taking over the government in November, 1917 was:
a. the overwhelming support the Bolsheviks had from the masses of the Russian people.
b. the collapse of workers' and soldiers' soviets, which had been the backbone of Provisional Government support.
c. the abdication of the Tsar and his son.
d. the inability of the Provisional Government to solve the overwhelming problems facing the Russian people.
e. the support given to Lenin and the Bolsheviks by Western democracies that wished to keep Russia in the war.
17. In the early 1920s, Germany's Weimar Republic was crippled by:
a. the election of Adolf Hitler.
b. its close identification with fascist organizations.
c. the number of elderly people it had to subsidize.
d. a lack of political leadership.
e. the economic reversals of the Great Depression.
18. Hitler's primary motivation for the invasion of the Soviet Union was:
a. to eliminate any possible resistance to German expansion in the Balkans and the Near East.
b. to block the westward expansion of Japan in Asia.
c. to knock Russia out of the war so that all his forces could be focused against the French and the British.
d. to destroy Bolshevism and acquire lebensraum for German colonization.
e. to exterminate the Slavic population, which he believed to be a threat to German mastery of Europe.
19. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization was formed in response to:
a. the events surrounding the Berlin Blockade.
b. the communist victory in the civil war in China.
c. Soviet refusal of Marshall Plan assistance for all of eastern Europe.
d. the Soviet formation of the Warsaw Pact.
e. Soviet detonation of its first nuclear device.
20. Changes affecting women in Western Europe since the 1950s include:
a. greater participation in the labor force.
b. the achievement of wage equality with men.
c. a reduction in life expectancy.
d. increasing family size.
e. declining opportunities in higher education.
-END AP EUROPEAN HISTORY QUIZ-
AP U.S. History
1. Which of the following was a cause of the Revolutionary War?
a. Colonial resentment of British attempts to expand its empire in North America
b. Popular support for the French Revolution caused many colonists to reflect on their own status as subjects of the King of England
c. Rejection of the system of the British slave trade
d. British occupation of Boston
e. Refusal of the British to allow cotton grown in the American South to be shipped to England
2. In the 1830s and ‘40s, the primary difference between Whigs and the Democrats was that:
a. The Whigs favored economic expansion while the Democrats favored a stable but smaller
economy.
b. The Democrats favored the abolition of slavery while the Whigs favored retention of the current system of slavery allowed in the Southern states, but no further expansion of slavery north of the Mason-Dixon line.
c. The Whigs favored an expanded, activist federal government while the Democrats favored a limited non-interventionist federal government.
d. The Democrats were strongly supported by evangelical Christians and supported a wide range of moral reforms while the Whigs were supported by Westerners who favored individual choice over morally based restrictions on behavior.
e. The Whigs favored limitations on westward expansion while the Democrats favored the concept of Manifest Destiny and expansion to the Pacific Ocean.
3. The fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution was important because it:
a. Prohibited slavery within the United States.
b. Guaranteed equal protection under the law for every American citizen.
c. Prohibited any state from denying an American citizen the right to vote based on race/ethnic background, color, or having previously been a slave.
d. Provided Congress with the power to establish and collect income taxes.
e. Prohibited any state from denying women the right to vote.
4. What was the federal government's attitude toward trusts during most of the Progressive period?
a. The government should not interfere with the organization of trusts or their operation.
b. Good trusts should be allowed to exist subject to proper governmental regulations.
c. The wealth that trusts created justified full government support.
d. All trusts were bad because they stifled competition.
e. Government should support large trusts and business consolidations.
5. All of the following were achieved during the New Deal EXCEPT:
a. A balanced budget.
b. Renewed confidence in banks.
c. A gradual improvement in farm conditions.
d. A gradual acceptance of labor unions.
e. A reduction in unemployment.
6. In the 1750s, the relationship between the British Empire and the American colonies was characterized by which of the following?
a. most Americans believed that the benefits of the empire far outweighed the costs.
b. the British strictly enforced colonial trade regulations
c. most Americans objected to their membership in the British Empire.
d. the British constantly intervened in American affairs.
7. The group most likely to approve of the Articles of Confederation would be:
a. former officers in the Continental army.
b. those who feared strong central government.
c. those who held U. S. government securities.
d. bankers, merchants, and financiers.
e. those who feared the dangers of unrestrained democracy.
8. Which of the following does NOT describe the Louisiana Purchase of 1803?
a. the United States purchased Louisiana from France for $15,000,000.
b. French power expanded in the Western Hemisphere.
c. Jefferson expanded the powers of the presidency.
d. the United States doubled in size.
e. the treaty of cession left some of the boundaries vague.
9. Which of the following developments did NOT occur in American society between 1815 and 1860?
a. there was a decline in the importation of slaves.
b. an active women's rights movement took form.
c. the percentage of foreign-born people living in the nation declined.
d. temperance became a major social and political issue.
e. birth control became more commonplace in middle-class families.
10. At the outset, President Lincoln held that the Civil War was being fought to:
a. end all state sovereignty.
b. carry out the goals of the abolitionist movement.
c. free the slaves.
d. preserve the Union.e. all of these choices are correct.
11. What two issues lay at the heart of Reconstruction?
a. whether the federal or state government was ultimately sovereign, and whether Africa-Americans or Native Americans were the most oppressed minority group.
b. which party would gain the ascendance, and how the government could regulate the economy.
c. the future of political and economic power for freed slaves, and the future of North-South economic and political relations.
d. rebuilding the North's shattered economy and restoring the South's shattered society.
12. Which of the following was NOT a factor in shaping Gilded Age politics?
a. politics was seen more as a way to get office rather than a way to press certain issues.
b. business remained separate from politics.
c. in national politics, neither party could keep both a majority in Congress and a president in the White House.
d. none of the presidents in this period could be described as a strong leader.
13. Which of the following characterized the economy of the 1920s?
a. an emphasis on heavy industry, such as the production of locomotives.
b. a drop in the real wages of workers.
c. increasing wealth for the agricultural sector.
d. an emphasis on cash rather than credit purchases.
e. a shift to the production of consumer goods.
14. The most enduring change that occurred in United States banking during the administration of Franklin Roosevelt was the:
a. regular and repeated use of "bank holidays."
b. federal insurance of bank deposits.
c. nationalization of the banking system.
d. abolition of branch banking in the states.
e. rigid exclusion of large banks from the provision of venture capital.
15. The United States during World War II adopted all of the following strategies EXCEPT:
a. unconditional surrender.
b. an eventual second front by invading Europe.
c. victory in the European area first.
d. support of de Gaulle's Free French forces.
e. use of atomic bombs on Germany and Japan.
16. The Marshall Plan could be understood as part of an American desire to:
a. make communism less appealing to Europeans creating economic prosperity.
b. assemble a military alliance against the Soviet Union.
c. maintain Western Europe in a state of permanent economic dependence on the United States.
d. permanently eliminate the possibility of a threat from an industrialized Germany.
e. end the nation's postwar depression by creating viable economic competitors in Europe.
17. President Kennedy's main goal in the United States' 1962 decision to blockade Cuba was to:
a. encourage Castro to reopen diplomatic relations with the United States.
b. use the CIA to overthrow the Castro government forcibly.
c. encourage the Soviet Union to stop sending soldiers and aid to Castro.
d. force the Soviet Union to remove its missiles from Cuba.
e. force the resignation of Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev.
18. Both the New Frontier and the Great Society shared the idea that:
a. foreign trade should be cut to a minimum.
b. the federal government should meet the economic and social needs of the less fortunate.
c. taxes should be raised to stimulate consumer spending.
d. key industries should be nationalized.
19. Which of the following is generally regarded as THE major accomplishment of the Nixon administration?
a. economic reforms.
b. new social programs.
c. environment regulations.
d. Supreme Court appointments.
e. détente with the Soviet Union and China.
20. "Reaganomics" was based upon which of the following theories?
a. cutting taxes would stimulate investment which would in turn increase employment and tax revenue.
b. government must "prime" the economic pump by large expenditures in order to produce prosperity.
c. the United States was an undertaxed country where taxes must be increased substantially and the money spent on public needs.
d. the government must institute wage and price controls in order to control inflation.
e. the government must turn to tight controls on the money supply in order to cut inflation.
-END AP U.S. HISTORY QUIZ-
Writing
For 1-4, determine the best way to write the following sentences. Correct answers should be stylistically adequate, as well as grammatically correct. If more than one answer choice is grammatically correct, choose the one that is best stylistically.
1) Its hot outside so I will go to the beach, for awhile.
a) As is.
b) Since it is hot outside, I will go to the beach for awhile.
c) It’s hot outside, so I will go to the beach for a while.
d) It’s hot outside, so for awhile, I will be going to the beach.
e) I will go to the beach because its hot.
2) Memories can be helpful to some and hinder others.
a) As is.
b) Memories can be helpful to some but sometimes they can hinder others as well.
c) Memories can be helpful to some but hindrance others.
d) Memories can be a help to some and hinder others.
e) Memories can be a help to some and a hindrance to others.
3) One memory may be bad and it may be best forgotten about, when trying to succeed.
a) As is.
b) When trying to succeed, one may be bad and it may best be forgotten about.
c) To succeed, one memory may be bad, so we should forget about it.
d) Sometimes we must put our bad memories aside in order to succeed.
e) Sometimes we should forget about our bad memories when they are trying to succeed.
4) The only way to stop the loss of life is to forget and forgive; start anew.
a) As is.
b) The only way to stop the loss of life is to forgive, forget, and start anew.
c) The only way to stop the loss of life is to forget and forgive, and starting anew.
d) The only way to stop the loss of life is forgetting, forgiving, and to start anew.
e) Forgetting and forgiving and starting anew is the only way to stop the loss of life.
5) A student wants to combine the following two sentences into one.
“William Clark was not officially granted the rank of captain prior to the expedition's departure. Captain Lewis more or less ignored this technicality and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.”
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way to do this?
a) William Clark was not officially granted the rank of captain prior to the expedition's departure, but Captain Lewis more or less ignored this technicality and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
b) Although William Clark was not officially granted the rank of captain prior to the expedition's departure, Captain Lewis more or less ignored this technicality and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
c) William Clark was not officially granted the rank of captain prior to the expedition's departure; Captain Lewis more or less ignored this technicality and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
d) William Clark was not officially granted the rank of captain prior to the expedition's departure, Captain Lewis more or less ignored this technicality and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.
e) All of the above are grammatically acceptable.
6) In terms of diction, identify the best of the following sentences:
a) The most important thing about someone's life is to have a positive self-esteem.
b) The most important thing a person can have is a large self-esteem.
c) The greatest asset a person can possess is high self-esteem.
d) The most important trait a person can own is a healthy ego.
e) The most essential aspect about someone’s life is having a positive self-esteem.
Use the following passage for questions 7-12.
(1) I believe that “there is no success like failure” is an accurate statement. Failure is our best teacher because it acts like a mirror and it shows us what our shortcomings are so that we can improve on them in the future and it also teaches us perseverance. Therefore, it can really be considered success and not failure at all, depending on how you look at it.
(2) For example, Thomas Edison famously failed hundreds of times trying to invent the lightbulb; an invention which has revolutionized our society. He viewed all of his failures as small successes, as he stated, “I have not discovered a way that works, but I have discovered 99 ways that don’t work.” This attitude portrayed by Edison can be learned from and has a lesson for all of us that says: don’t give up because oftentimes our greatest successes come from our greatest failures.
7) Identify the error in the second sentence of the first paragraph, if one exists.
a) A comma is missing after the word “future”.
b) It is a run-on sentence.
c) The “mirror” simile is convoluted and does not make sense.
d) The logic of the argument is flawed.
e) No error exists.
8) Choose the best rewrite of the last sentence in paragraph 1.
a) As is.
b) Therefore, we can view failures as small successes that bring us closer to our goals.
c) Therefore, it is actually success in disguise, you just don’t know it yet.
d) Therefore, it can really be considered success and not failure at all, depending on how you look at it.
e) Thus, in essence, it is actually success, but it depends on how you look at it.
9) The error (if one exists) in the first sentence of paragraph 2 is:
a) Diction-related
b) Punctuation-related
c) Logic-related
d) Style-related
e) There is no error.
10) The error (if one exists) in the second sentence of paragraph 2 is:
a) Diction-related
b) Punctuation-related
c) Logic-related
d) Style-related
e) There is no error.
11) The best way to rewrite the last sentence:
a) As is.
b) This attitude showed by Edison can be learned from and has a lesson for all of us that tells us to never give up.
c) Edison’s perseverance shows us that we can learn the lesson of not giving in to failures but instead to realize that if we just keep going we will reach success.
d) Edison’s attitude and eventual success teach us not to give up and to realize that our greatest successes often arise from our greatest blunders.
e) This attitude, as demonstrated by Edison, teaches that we should not give up, because our greatest successes arise from our greatest blunders, and it also teaches us to persevere.
12) Identify the author’s position on the value of failure.
a) The author likes failure and believes we should not be so critical of ourselves.
b) The author believes Thomas Edison is a good role model.
c) The author believes failure must be overcome at all costs.
d) The author believes that you must fail before you succeed in all cases.
e) The author believes that failure is a valuable learning tool that can be used to achieve future success.
Use the following passage to answer questions 13-17.
At some point in their lives, most people will fantasize about being famous. Images come to mind of riding around in limousines, paparazzi entourages, and the glitz and glam of big media attention. Being an object of respect and admiration to millions of people has almost universal human appeal. However, will fame really bring us happiness? If not, why is it in our nature to so arduously desire it? The truth is, many famous people are not happy – one needs only to glance at an entertainment news periodical to confirm this. We assume that we desire fame because we think it will make us happy, but the desire is actually rooted in something much more primal: genetic survival.
In today’s society, we obviously do not need to be famous to have a fair chance to live a decent and prosperous life. However, thousands of years ago, one’s position in a social hierarchy factored significantly into their life expectancy. A person’s survival was largely dependent on how accepted they were by that person’s community. Thus, we have acquired a strong evolutionary drive to be esteemed by others. As civilization has become more expansive and connected, this drive has taken on a new characterization. We no longer live in the small social communities that existed when we evolved our drive for status, but the drive for status still exists. Its modern expression is fame-seeking. (etc.)
13) The author’s intent in this passage is to:
a) Tell a story about human evolution
b) Convince the reader that fame is not necessary for happiness
c) Argue an evolutionary explanation for fame-seeking
d) Debunk the notion that famous people are usually happy
e) Explain how being famous gives people an evolutionary advantage
14) In paragraph 1, sentence 5, the word ‘arduously’ is underlined. What word would best replace it?
a) Vivaciously
b) Vicariously
c) Vehemently
d) Eccentrically
e) Bravely
15) Which sentence could best be added at the end of paragraph 1?
a) We desire fame because we are have been programmed by our evolution to seek status within our communities – a trait which used to provide a survival advantage.
b) Many famous people have achieved their status through hard work and determination.
c) Ultimately, fame can never make a person happy.
d) In order to understand this, we must first understand the scientific basis of evolution.
e) There is no evidence to suggest that fame brings happiness, but there is evidence that the converse is true.
16) In paragraph 2, sentence 2 (“However… expectancy”), there is a problem with:
a) Comma usage
b) Pronouns
c) Sentence structure
d) Diction/Word choice
e) Nothing. There are no errors in this sentence.
17) In the final sentence of the second paragraph, the correct form of (its / it’s) is used.
a) True
b) False
18) Why is it often better to use active voice rather than passive voice in a persuasive essay or speech?
a) Active voice makes less argumentative statements, and is therefore harder to argue against.
b) Active voice makes statements more clear and concise by using a simpler, more direct sentence structure.
c) Active voice incorporates the use of dialogue into an argument, which can be a powerful tool for persuasion.
d) Active voice uses more varied and precise vocabulary to enhance arguments.
e) Active voice avoids the overuse of similes and metaphors to keep arguments simple.
-END WRITING QUIZ-
Database Directions
1. Timesheets must be submitted once every:
a. week
b. two weeks
c. three weeks
d. four weeks
2. Homework should be updated in the database _______________ and homework status should be updated __________________.
a. within 48 hours of assigning it, the day it is due
b. the day it is assigned, within 48 hours of due date
c. the day it is assigned, the day it is due
d. the day it is assigned, within 48 hours of due date
3. Weekly reports are due:
a. by midnight every Saturday for two preceding weeks
b. by midnight every Saturday for the preceding week
c. every Wednesday before midnight for two preceding weeks
d. by midnight every Sunday for the preceding week
e. by midnight every Sunday for two preceding weeks
4. Which of the following is NOT true about the database?
a. It is a requirement to fill out the database fully every week.
b. The database calendar is the only place where tracking appointments is mandatory.
c. Parents and students will be given login info which will allow them to track their student’s progress through tutor updates.
d. The database helps tutors keep their appointments organized, as well as track their progress.
e. Failing to fill out the database is grounds for employment termination on a “three-strike” basis.
5. The calendar in the database must be updated as soon as an appointment with a student is made.
a. true
b. false
6. You have had appointments on Monday, Thursday and Saturday. When should you file a weekly report?
a. each day there is an appointment, before midnight
b. Sunday, before midnight
c. Saturday, before midnight
d. both a and b
7. If Clark Kester was a tutor for Tier One Tutors, what would his email address and password be?
a. clark@, kester
b. clarkkester@, ckester
c. ckester@, kester
d. clarkk@, clark
8. Once you are logged in to the database, what can be found by clicking the “Students” tab?
a. your students’ appointments
b. their homework
c. their weekly reports
d. their contact information
e. all of the above
9. Which is more important for payroll:
a. submitting a hard copy of appointments
b. updating the calendar with appointments
c. both are mandatory
10. Information about all of the following must be included in a Weekly Report EXCEPT:
a. The student’s interest level, behavior, and attention level during the session
b. What content was specifically worked on during the session
c. How the student is progressing and what you recommend to help them perform better
d. Whether or not they completed homework, and how much they did if not all of it
e. All of these must be included in a Weekly Report
-END DATABASE DIRECTIONS TRAINING QUIZ-
Tutoring Tips
1. TRUE or FALSE: Homework must be given out every tutoring session.
a. True
b. False
2. Over the course of a tutoring package, it is important to do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Give students feedback on their progress
b. Give parents updates, when appropriate, on how their children are progressing
c. Be constructively negative to the student to make them work harder
d. Alert Brian about any plan changes
3. It is appropriate to call Tier One Tutors for guidance if a student:
a. doesn’t do homework
b. misbehaves
c. doesn’t understand the way you teach
d. all of the above
4. The free-trial hour is NOT:
a. unpaid for the tutor
b. a time to begin tutoring out of the book
c. a session worth following with a homework assignment
d. a chance to assess a student’s strengths and weaknesses
5. The most important reason to have a positive attitude with your student is because:
a. they may have low self-esteem when it comes to education
b. a negative attitude may lead to less sessions
c. you don’t want to irritate their parents
d. the parents may choose a friendlier tutor if their child is offended
6. Before showing up at a tutoring session, a tutor must:
a. have a basic understanding of the subject’s fundamental concepts
b. have taken at least two years of the subject, either in high school or college
c. have a complete mastery over the material
d. have tutored the subject before
7. To ensure the student keeps up with your tutoring, be sure to :
a. speak to the student very slowly
b. explain concepts clearly and with detail
c. repeat every instruction you give twice
d. draw something visual to help them understand
8. Because many students do not take notes, the Tutor Manual recommends that you:
a. verbally review the material you went over at the end of the session for a couple minutes
b. write down some of the key points, notes or steps you went over with the student
c. make the student take a quiz on the covered material to make sure they were listening
d. a and b
e. all of the above
9. TRUE or FALSE: As an academic tutor, you must strictly adhere to our teaching style.
a. true
b. false
10. After the free-trial hour, who is responsible for setting up further appointments?
a. the tutor
b. Tier One Tutors office staff
c. Brian, co-owner of Tier One Tutors
d. Steve, co-owner of Tier One Tutors
-END TUTORING TIPS QUIZ-
Tutor Manual
1. In order to be paid on time for a given period, timesheets are due:
a. Every other Friday by midnight
b. Every other Saturday by 11 p.m.
c. Every other Tuesday by 5 p.m.
d. Every other Sunday by midnight
2. TRUE or FALSE: Weekly reports are unnecessary for the last session with a student.
a. true
b. false
3. Why is it necessary to fill out the database?
a. Students will be using it to check their scores and homework.
b. Parents will be using it to monitor their students’ progress.
c. Tier One Tutors needs the information to guide students and parents.
d. all of the above
4. If you arrive for an appointment and the client isn’t there, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Immediately cancel the appointment
b. Call the client and leave a message
c. Wait 15 minutes for the client to return
d. Call Brian, co-owner of Tier One Tutors
5. TRUE or FALSE: You need to bring your own learning materials to tutoring sessions.
a. true
b. false
6. What needs to be done within 12 hours after tutoring a new client for their free-trial hour?
a. Call the parents and ask what they thought of the results
b. Submit a timesheet for the hour
c. Call Brian and let him know how it went
d. File a student report
7. All of the following must be included on a timesheet EXCEPT:
a. Pay-period dates
b. Full name of student(s) tutored
c. Address of tutoring location(s)
d. Parent signature(s)
e. Your full name
f. Dates of each day
g. Amount of hours tutored for each session/amount remaining in student packages
8. The free-trial hour is a chance for a tutor to:
a. assess the student’s weaknesses/areas of need
b. make a good impression on the family
c. encourage a package sign-up based on the experience
d. all of the above
-END TUTOR MANUAL QUIZ-
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