RCS 4240



RCS 4240

FINAL EVALUATION

On my honor, I have neither given nor received unauthorized aid in doing this assignment”

Print Name:_____________________ Signature:___________________________

Please use the scantron sheet provided in class. Please return the scantron sheet plus the first page only of this final evaluation when you come to class on April 23.

1. The Americans with Disabilities Act of what year addressed potential areas of discrimination, mandated when employment testing should be done, and described how testing must relate to the essential functions of the job.

a. 1994

b. 1992

c. 1990

d. 1988

2. Vocational assessment is a comprehensive, __________process of evaluating an individual’s physical, mental, and emotional abilities, limitations, and tolerances in order to identify an optimal outcome for the person with a disability or handicap.

a. transdisciplinary

b. time-limited

c. powered testing

d. interdisciplinary

3. These are close simulations of actual industrial operations that are no different in their essentials from what a potential worker would be required to perform on an ordinary job.

a. situational assessments

b. work samples

c. paper/pencil instruments

d. vocational training

4. What is the first step and the vital link to all successful rehabilitation activities according to Power?

a. observations

b. client assessment

c. situational assessment

d. judgments

5. What depends on the extent to which individuals find adequate outlets for their abilities, interests, and personality traits according to Super?

a. work satisfaction

b. employability

c. placeability

d. work skills

6. What refers to someone who possesses the requisite skills and work personality?

a. work satisfaction

b. employability

c. placeability

d. work skills

7. What refers to the perceived attractiveness of an applicant to an employer according to Sinick?

a. work satisfaction

b. employability

c. placeability

d. work skills

8. What can be a pitfall of the assessment process?

a. adequate safeguards to ensure privacy

b. frequent or inaccurate labels

c. broad concept of individual’s abilities

d. test as mediocre predictor of future successes

9. What movement in rehabilitation suggests a more active role for the rehabilitation counselor in evaluation functions?

a. supported employment

b. transitional planning

c. case management

d. independent living

10. One of the evaluator’s roles is described as the development of appropriate contingencies for training, eventual job placement, or both. This role is that of:

a. coordinator

b. planner

c. counselor

d. assessor

11. Tests should be administered under what conditions that were established in their standardization?

a. similar

b. normal

c. same

d. nominal

12. This criterion refers to the client’s physical and emotional condition, including endurance capabilities for evaluation involvement.

a. motivation

b. expectations

c. stability

d. awareness

13. Frequently the selection of assessment approaches and the choice of specific psychometric tests depends on a person’s

a. achievement

b. work history

c. aptitude

d. learning style

14. Always communicate test results in whose level of understanding.

a. counselor

b. client

c. coordinator

d. case manager

15. What type of client usually incurring a disability after years of satisfying work, generally are younger (30-45), has a strong work ethic and through work has gained a sense of stability and identity?

a. restorer-achiever

b. ambivalent client

c. secondary gainer

d. angry -resister

16. These clients make no pretense about their desire to return to work. Usually they go through an assessment procedure because they are required to do so.

a. angry-resister

b. isolated worker

c. secondary gainer

d. ambivalent client

17. This client is typified by having been institutionalized for many years. The de-institutionalization movement in mental health has facilitated the return of many to the community. Having been in institutions has created dependency problems and inhibits the assessment process.

a. ambivalent client

b. secondary gainer

c. angry-resister

d. isolated worker

18. This type of disability creates special concerns and needs in the assessment process. Behavior and emotional difficulties result from specific damage and feelings of frustration having to cope with this. This is most closely associated with

a. mental illness

b. traumatic brain injury

c. spinal cord injury

d. cerebro vascular accident

19. This type of client has a disability that is complex and controversial. There is lack of consensus regarding it. Manifestation varies over time based on age and developmental stage and specific setting. Assessment needs to address a number of areas.

a. seizure disorder

b. mental illness

c. specific learning disability

d. traumatic brain injury

20. Farley and Rubin define this as a conversation between a counselor and a client with a definite mutually acceptable purpose.

a. intake interview

b. counseling session

c. feedback session

d. group counseling session

21. This type of interviewing includes location of office, where counselor sits and number of distracters.

a. personal

b. contextual

c. group

d. ergonomic

22. Carkuff and Anthony identified four communicative skills generally listed in this order:

a. Observing, attending, listening, responding

b. Listening, responding, listening, observing

c. Attending, observing, listening, responding

d. Responding, listening, observing, attending

23. To create a mutually understanding climate, seasoned interviewers tend to begin with

a. closed questions

b. structured interview

c. open-ended questions

d. direct questions

24. During the interview the rehabilitation worker should identify contradictions in what the client is saying. This is known as:

a. timing of reinforcement

b. effective confrontation

c. use of silence

d. controlling the interview

25. When dealing with this population the interviewer should be quite literal and explicit when talking to the client.

a. amputee

b. spinal cord injury

c. carpel tunnel syndrome

d. traumatic brain injury

26. What item of client functioning does one assess when observing nonverbal behaviors; listen to client as he/she talks; ask: How are you feeling now?

a. general appearance

b. way of communicating

c. mental process and context

d. mood and affect

27. What refers to the group of people on whom an assessment procedure has been standardized and from whom the scores on a particular test have been obtained to determine level performance?

a. random sample

b. population

c. norm

d. probability

28. What validity is representativeness of test items?

a. content

b. face

c. construct

d. criterion-related

29. What validity is more theoretical and refers to the degree the instrument measures the hypothetical characteristic

a. content

b. face

c. construct

d. criterion-related

30. What measurement property measures consistency of performance?

a. validity

b. reliability

c. coefficient alpha

d. standard error of measure

31. A substantial reliability correlation would be

a. 0.20 to 0.39

b. 0.40 to 0.59

c. 0.60 to 0.79

d. 0.80 to 1.00

32. According to Bolton a validity coefficient of 0.43 is

a. below average

b. average

c. above average

d. outstanding

33. Approximately what percent of the population is included under the bell shaped curve from – 3 ( to 1 (?

a. 68

b. 84

c. 49

d. 34

34. A T score of 60 equates to what SD under the bell-shaped curve?

a. +2(

b. +1(

c. –1(

d. –2(

35. This is an integral part of evaluation

a. predilection

b. prediction

c. presupposition

d. predisposition

36. According to Super what type of interest is this: The evidence of participation in our activity, occupation, or task that can be observed by others.

a. expressed

b. manifest

c. tested

d. rational

37. This points to a potential level of skill or attainment

a. interests

b. abilities

38. What type of instrument was developed in mid 1920s as a facilitative response to an established premise which linked occupational interest with job satisfaction

a. aptitude

b. achievement

c. interest

d. work values

39. Which instrument is appropriate for persons with low reading skills

a. WRIOT

b. SVIB

c. SDS

d. CDMS

40. Which instrument was developed on a hexagonal scheme of realistic, investigative, artistic, social, conventional and enterprising

a. CDMS

b. CAI

c. SDS

d. SVIB

41. Which instrument has limited usage with 2 years preparation beyond high school

a. CAI

b. RFVII

c. OVIS – II

d. SDS

42. This area of assessment is an exploration of a client’s capability to solve problems, adapt to new situations, and show competence when confronted with new learning demands

a. intelligence

b. aptitude

c. interests

d. achievement

43. This particular intelligence test is applicable for persons with mental retardation

a. Quick Test

b. PPVT-III

c. Shipley Institute of Living Scale

d. SIT-R

44. An individual with an IQ in the range of 110-119 is considered to be classified as

a. low average

b. average

c. high average

d. superior

45. This test has 3 major scale scores with 14 sub tests

a. 16PF

b. Halstead-Reitan

c. WAIS-III

d. Revised Beta III

46. This test involves no reading and is designed for illiterate clients

a. SIT-R

b. Beta-III (II)

c. RPM

d. OT

47. This test has been developed specifically for Adult Blind

a. K-BIT

b. WAIS-III

c. PPVT-III

d. HAPTIC

48. For those with disabilities the relationship between this construct and career development play an important role in vocational evaluation approaches

a. personality

b. aptitude

c. achievement

d. intelligence

49. The vocational functioning area of successful job performance can best be measured by this instrument involving the personality trait: toward-self

a. 16 PF??

b. MMPI-Z

c. MBTI

d. TSCS-(2)

50. This instrument is the most widely used personality inventory and consists of 567 items

a. MBTI

b. TSCS-2

c. MMPI-2

d. EPPS

51. This clinical scale of the MMPI-2 has 40 items showing abnormal suspiciousness and delusions of grandeur or persecution

a. psychasthenia

b. paranoia

c. schizophrenia

d. depression

52. A work sample that is replicated directly from a specific job in industry is known as what type of work sample

a. trait

b. simulated

c. actual

d. virtual

53. Work samples are usually

a. criterion-referenced

b. norm-referenced

54. When a commercial work sample system is not helpful this type of work sample is sometimes used to reflect jobs in the local labor market

a. in-school

b. in-yard

c. in-jail

d. in-house

55. This work sample system provides 10 tests of perception and dexterity to measure gross and fine dexterity, visual and tactile discrimination, and retention of details

a. Micro Tower

b. Talent Assessment Program

c. VALPAR

d. McCarron-Dial

56. This work sample was demonstrated in class as a measure of manual dexterity by taking nuts, bolts, and washers apart and reassembling on a wooden jig using screwdriver and a variety of wrenches

a. Bennett Hand-Tool Dexterity Test

b. Crawford Small Parts Dexterity Test

c. Pennsylvania Bi-Manual Work Sample

d. Purdue Pegboard

57. Computers have become popular in the rehabilitation process for conducting

a. job analysis

b. labor market surveys

c. job matching

d. work samples

58. This computer program is highly integrated, modular family of software products for assessment, work hardening, work sample scoring and database applications

a. APTICOM

b. TAP

c. SIGI

d. VALPAR (2000)

59. This system provides interactive assistance in career decision-making. It has six interrelated subsystems that provide value clarification and disseminate occupational and educational information.

a. SIGI

b. APTICOM

c. VALPAR (2000)

d. TAP

60. This book contains definitions of jobs with a few traits/characteristics associated with each

a. Classification of Jobs

b. Dictionary of Occupational Titles

c. Occupational Outlook Handbook

d. Handbook of Job Analysis

61. This model places a person on a job and then the person receives specific training

a. traditional vocational rehabilitation model

b. supported employment model

c. situational assessment

62. This approach is one of the forms supported employment can take: consists of a small group (commonly eight individuals) trained and supervised together in the midst of an ordinary mainstream work environment.

a. bench work approach

b. mobile crew approach

c. enclave-approach

d. individual placement approach

63. The development of this helped stimulate the growth of way of assisting assessment.

a. macro computer

b. secretary

c. microcomputer

d. technician

64. The most fair, reliable, and useful way to evaluate an individual with severe disabilities is in the

a. evaluation center

b. actual work setting

c. taking of paper/pencil tests

d. work samples

65. Work samples taken directly from business are designated as

a. simulated

b. trait

c. cluster trait

d. actual

66. Work samples that key in on one characteristic are designated as

a. simulated

b. trait

c. actual

d. on-site

67. This type of assessment is essentially the observation of a person in a work situation.

a. work sample

b. situational assessment

c. on-the-job training

d. sheltered workshop

68. In preparing the client for assessment the professional should be alert for signs of this

a. hesitancy/ambiguity

b. anger/gaiety

c. frivolity/seriousness

d. serendipity/awkwardness

69. What is the first thing that a report should do?

a. give recommendations

b. list test results

c. answer specific questions

d. name jobs

70. The vocational and rehabilitation process in the sector of human service is based on models developed by what system?

a. federal-state

b. private

c. insurance

d. public-private

71. What is the key ingredient in the entire process of working with an injured worker?

a. initial interview

b. accurate job analysis

c. follow-up

d. appropriate and timely evaluation

72. The rehabilitation professional must determine whether the industrially injured worker is prepared

a. to reenter work or is even motivated to consider RTW

b. to reenter work or is even postulated to consider RTW

c. to consider work or is even accommodated for RTW

73. In conducting the interview, which one below is an important and significant occupational job factor?

a. kind of job client would like to have

b. client’s transportation needs

c. client’s learning capabilities and speed of learning

d. will client be able to get job

74. What is best situation for client in returning to work?

a. same job, same employer

b. different job, same employer

c. same job, different employer

d. different job, different employer

75. The client’s emotional response to disability follows a continuum on the average. Which one below best shows this continuum?

a. anger, denial, realization, adjustment

b. realization, anger, denial, adjustment

c. denial, anger, adjustment, realization

d. denial, anger, realization, adjustment

76. What is necessary for effective client planning? Choose the most appropriate according to Powers?

a. involvement of client, involvement of referral, involvement of doctor

b. involvement of client, knowledge of job market, secondary gainer

c. involvement of client, knowledge of job market, acquisition of specific competencies

77. In collecting and organizing evaluation information Powers suggests the use of this aptitude test.

a. General Aptitude Test Battery

b. Differential Aptitude Tests – Fifth Ed.

c. Career Ability Placement System

d. Detroit Tests of Learning Ability

78. The personality type test, Kiersey Temperment Scale, taken in class followed the same profile as this instrument

a. MMPI-2

b. Work Values

c. Eyseneck Personality Inventory

d. Myers-Briggs Personality Inventory

79. Accommodations for work situations are based on the

a. general tasks

b. essential functions

c. undue hardship

d. job title

80. Approximately what percentage of accommodations cost nothing?

a. 65%

b. 55%

c. 45%

d. 25%

81. The first step in career development is:

a. Decision-making

b. Preparation

c. Resources

d. Awareness

82. To find out what a person wants to do, what type of instrument would you give?

a. Personality

b. Achievement

c. Interest

d. Aptitude

83. An individual who is given the opportunity to go beyond the normal confines of the test administration to show what he/she can do has been given what type of test?

a. Extended test

b. Timed test

c. Powered test

d. Energized test

84. SVP codes between 3 – 5 represent jobs that are considered to be:

a. Unskilled

b. Semi-skilled

c. Skilled

d. Skilled –Beyond

85. an environmental condition defined as 1/3 of the work day is designated by what term below:

a. frequently

b. not present

c. constantly

d. occasionally

86. What type of test would be given to measure’s a client’s potential?

a. Intelligence

b. Personality

c. Aptitude

d. Achievement

87. What two physical demands are needed in 90% of all jobs?

a. Crouching and feeling

b. Climbing and kneeling

c. Lifting and pulling

d. Handling and reaching

88. What is the definition of Light Work?

a. Lifting in excess of 100 lbs. Occasionally and in excess of 50 lbs frequently

b. Lifting up to 20 lbs occasionally and up to 10 lbs. frequently

c. Lifting up to 50 lbs occasionally and up to 25 lbs frequently

d. Lifting up to 100 lbs occasionally and up to 50 lbs frequently

89. What book contains definitions of almost all jobs in the labor market?

a. Occupational Outlook Handbook

b. Classification of Jobs

c. Dictionary of Occupational Titles

d. Guide to Occupational Exploration

90. Descriptive statistics includes measures of central tendency. Which one of the following is an example of a measure of central tendency?

a. Standard deviation

b. Mean

c. Variance

d. Measurement of error

91. In the candle exercise used in class what area below was of secondary importance?

a. Giving advice

b. Interpretation

c. Observation

d. Making response

92. In the aptitude area, what does K stand for?

a. Motor coordination

b. Clerical

c. Finger dexterity

d. Numerical

93. Which of the following describes basic job duties that an employee must be able to perform, with or without reasonable accommodations?

a. Work details

b. Essentials functions

c. Worker’s duties

d. Job tasks

94. The dependability, consistency, and precision of an assessment procedure refers to:

a. Variability

b. Normal curve

c. Validity

d. Reliability

95. A labor market survey should answer which one of the following?

a. Are there jobs of general nature in the local economy

b. Are there jobs that exist and are they available locally

c. Are essentials functions detailed

d. Are there jobs hat exist and are they available nationally

96. Where is it best to find information on the Department of Labor on the Internet?

a.

b. links.asp

c.

d. k12.

97. A physical demand is defined as 2/3 of the workday and is designated by which term below?

a. Frequently

b. Not present

c. Constantly

d. Occasionally

98. What would be a pitfall in the vocational evaluation process?

a. Safeguards

b. Labeling

c. Broad focus

d. Omni-dimensional

99. Which one of the following books contains most of the codes when using the D.O.T.?

a. Classification of Jobs

b. Occupational Outlook Handbook

c. Guide to Occupational Exploration

d. Handbook on Job Analysis

100. In the aptitude area, what does C stand for?

a. Clerical

b. Color Discrimination

c. Motor Coordination

d. Spatial

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