AP Economics
UNIT 3 TEST BANK
Chapter 6 – Public Opinion and Political Action
6.1 - The questions in this section appear only in this printed Test Bank and in the Computerized Test Bank.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Public opinion refers to
a. the distribution of the population’s beliefs about politics and policy issues.
b. the distribution of elected officials’ beliefs about politics and policy issues.
c. the distribution of media elites’ beliefs about politics and policy issues.
d. the distribution of voters’ beliefs about politics and policy issues.
e. All of the above.
2. The distribution of the population’s beliefs about politics and policy issues is called
a. demography
b. ideology
c. public opinion
d. the public agenda.
e. the US census
3. Public opinion is defined in the text as
a. opinions which are expressible in public, as opposed to the more truthful private opinions which most individuals are reluctant to state publicly.
b. beliefs about government held by a majority of people.
c. opinions solicited from a random sample of the public.
d. the distribution of the population’s beliefs about politics and policy.
e. widely held beliefs about the public’s role in politics and policy.
4. The first census in the United States was conducted in
a. 1900
b. 1790
c. 1970
d. 1850
e. 1800
5. The Supreme Court’s 1999 ruling in Department of Commerce v. US House of Representatives
a. held that sampling could not be used to determine the number of congressional districts each states is entitled to
b. left open the possibility that sampling could be used to adjust the census count for purposes other then determining the number of congressional districts each states is entitled to.
c. permitted the use of sampling in all cases, to make the decennial census an easier tasks.
d. prohibited all sampling techniques for the purposes of conducting the census.
e. a and b.
6. The most recent wave of immigration since World War II has consisted primarily of
a. Africans.
b. Hispanics and Asians.
c. northwestern Europeans.
d. southern and eastern Europeans.
e. refugees from communist countries.
7. Over the course of post-colonial American history, the major immigrant groups have shifted from
a. Eastern Europeans to Western Europeans to Asians.
b. Hispanics and Asians to Eastern Europeans to Africans.
c. Africans to Native Americans to Hispanics.
d. Western Europeans to Eastern Europeans to Hispanics and Asians.
e. Western Europeans to Hispanics to Eastern Europeans.
8. The peak period of immigration from Eastern Europe was
a. immediately after independence.
b. during the period of industrialization around the turn of the 20th century.
c. during World War II.
d. during the period of communist rule in Eastern Europe from 1945 to 1989.
e. since the end of communist rule in 1989.
9. The phrase that refers to the United States as a mixture of cultures, ideas, and peoples is
a. melting pot.
b. minority majority.
c. immigrant society.
d. ethnic socialization.
e. reapportionment.
10. The 2000 census indicated that the largest minority population is comprised of
a. illegal immigrants.
b. African Americans.
c. Asian Americans.
d. Hispanics.
e. Native Americans.
11. Who were the "reluctant immigrants"?
a. African Americans.
b. Hispanic Americans.
c. Asian Americans.
d. Southern and Eastern Europeans.
e. Irish Americans.
12. Approximately what percentage of Whites live below the poverty line?
a. two
b. ten
c. fifteen
d. twenty-four
e. thirty
13. African Americans comprise what proportion of the American population, approximately?
a. 30 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 12 percent
d. 20 percent
e. 5 percent
14. Hispanics comprise approximately what percent of the American population?
a. 13 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 23 percent
d. 18 percent
e. 28 percent
15. The Simpson-Mazzoli Act
a. required employers to document the citizenship of their employees.
b. granted amnesty to all illegal aliens.
c. required all immigrants to register with the Immigration and Naturalization Service.
d. placed a limit on the number of Mexican immigrants allowed in the United States per year.
e. placed the number of legal immigrants allowed into the country each year at 800,000.
16. The largest racial/ethnic minority group in the United States is
a. African Americans.
b. Asian Americans.
c. Native Americans.
d. Hispanics.
e. African Americans and Hispanics are tied in size.
17. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Hispanics are primarily concentrated in the rural areas.
b. In the 2000 Census, the Hispanic population outnumbered the African-American population.
c. The number of African American elected officials has increased by over 600 percent since 1970.
d. about 24 percent of African Americans currently live under the poverty line.
e. none of the above
18. The Simpson-Mazzoli Act
a. represented a crackdown on illegal aliens by requiring that employers document the citizenship or legitimate immigrant status of workers or face criminal penalities. .
b. requires that states keep their polls open for at least ten hours on election day in order to facilitate participation.
c. established federal guidelines and regulations for taking public opinion polls.
d. reformed the jury procedures in felony cases, particularly the unanimous verdict requirement.
e. required that the homeless be counted in the 1990 census.
19. The ________ Act required that as of 1987, employers document the citizenship or legal immigrant status of their employees, or face criminal penalties for failing to do so.
a. National Origins
b. Simpson-Mazzoli
c. National Labor Relations
d. Hatch
e. Immigrant Employment
20. California’s Proposition 187
a. cut illegal immigrants off from public services such as education and health programs.
b. prevented state law enforcement from cooperating with federal enforcement of immigration laws.
c. automatically sentenced illegal immigrants to the death penalty for murder.
d. was supported by the courts.
e. became a model for other states’ immigration laws.
21. With regard to immigration, Americans
a. support immigration as central to our national mission as the world’s “melting pot.”
b. treat all immigrants as equally welcome.
c. have recently been especially hostile to immigrants from Latin America.
d. in several states have enacted policies to undermine federal laws treating immigrants harshly.
e. have found courts strong allies in denying public services to illegal immigrants.
22. Demographic changes in the United States population could translate to political consequences through the process of
a. political socialization.
b. political acculturation.
c. reapportionment.
d. political assimilation.
e. none of the above
23. Between 1990 and 2000,
a. states in the Southwest were losing population.
b. the Sunbelt continued to experience rapid population growth.
c. the Midwest became the fastest-growing region in the country.
d. the Frostbelt had begun to gain population again.
e. the Pacific Coast states were the fastest-growing region of the country.
24. ________ occurs after every census to reallocate the 435 seats in the United States House of Representatives, reflecting shifts in the population of the states and, thus, how many seats each state is allotted.
a. Equalization
b. Restructuring
c. Political socialization
d. Reapportionment
e. Demography
25. Reapportionment
a. can dramatically shift political power between the regions.
b. affects how much federal aid population groups can receive.
c. changes the states’ number of representatives in the United States Senate.
d. has most recently increased congressional representation for New England.
26. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Between 1950 and 2000, the size of California’s House representation increased from 23 to 53 seats.
b. Between 1950 and 2000, the size of California’s House representation declined from 53 to 23 seats.
c. Between 1950 and 2000, the size of New York’s House representation increased by 1/3.
d. Both b and c.
e. Both a and c.
27. Nationwide, the fastest growing age group is composed of
a. those under 13 years old.
b. one-year-olds.
c. those between 13-21 years old.
d. those over 65 years old.
e. those between 21-30 years old.
28. The process through which an individual acquires his or her particular political orientations is known as
a. political orientation.
b. demography.
c. political socialization.
d. political ideology.
e. political indoctrination.
29. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. As people become more socialized with age, their political orientations grow weaker.
b. As people become more socialized with age, their political orientations grow stronger.
c. Governments aim their socialization efforts primarily at the young.
d. Americans obtain most of their political socialization from their families and their teachers.
e. All of the above are false.
30. The most obvious intrusion of the government into America’s socialization is through
a. political parties.
b. the family.
c. schooling.
d. the mass media.
e. criminal laws.
31. As one becomes more socialized with age, one’s political orientations
a. become less important.
b. change as one’s position in the aging order changes their life conditions.
c. grow firmer.
d. lack commitment.
e. fluctuate more.
32. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Average school age children spend more time each week watching TV than they spend at school.
b. The older children get, the more television displaces parents as the chief source of information.
c. Today’s young Americans are more likely than older Americans to read newspapers.
d. Today’s young Americans are more likely than older Americans to pay attention to the news.
e. Both a and b.
33. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Aging increases political participation.
b. Aging increases strength of party attachment.
c. Politics is learned behavior.
d. Older Americans are less likely than young Americans to vote.
e. All of the above are false.
34. Because it would be prohibitively expensive to ask every citizen his or her opinion on a whole range of issues, polls rely on what is called a(n) ________ of the population.
a. extraction
b. sample
c. census
d. slice
e. demography
35. Sampling error describes
a. how many samples a survey estimate is based on.
b. what percentage of the sample provided answers to the questions.
c. how close a sample estimate is to the real population value.
d. how often a sample statistic is correct.
e. how many samples are incorrect.
36. Random sampling is considered
a. desirable, but not necessary, for an accurate poll of public opinion.
b. an unsophisticated way of measuring public opinion, but one that sometimes yields accurate results.
c. highly unreliable, but the cheapest way to measure public opinion.
d. the key to the accuracy of opinion polls.
e. a dangerous way to measure public opinion.
37. In 1936, the Literary Digest wrongly predicted the defeat of President Franklin Roosevelt, having polled over two million people. The problem was
a. they polled too few people.
b. it used exit polling rather than entry polling and conducted the poll too far in advance of the election.
c. they polled too many people who were not an accurate representation of the American electorate.
d. they polled too many people.
e. they failed to take into account that people sometimes lie in polls, and did not take precautions to prevent this.
38. The 1936 Literary Digest poll underestimated the vote for President Franklin Roosevelt by 19 percent because
a. the sample was drawn from telephone books and motor-vehicle records at a time when telephones and cars were luxuries for the relatively well-off.
b. the literary intelligentsia as a group never did like Roosevelt.
c. the sample was too small.
d. not enough women were interviewed.
e. people did not tell the truth.
39. A relatively small proportion of people who are chosen as representative of the whole is called a
a. quota.
b. population.
c. census.
d. sample
e. cohort.
40. Public opinion polls are only estimates because
a. samples of fewer then one million people are too small.
b. all surveys have a sampling error.
c. pollsters sometimes have to make educated guesses about the results.
d. random digit dialing has replaced person-to-person interviewing.
e. samples are not representative.
41. Samples of public opinion today are usually selected through
a. voter registration lists.
b. cities and towns throughout the country believed to be “bellwethers,” which accurately represent the entire nation.
c. selective respondent profiles.
d. random digit dialing.
e. phone books.
42. Which of the following statements about public opinion polling is FALSE?
a. Public opinion polling started in 1932 with George Gallup.
b. Sample sizes are getting smaller, not larger.
c. The amount of public opinion polling has increased in recent years.
d. Public opinion polling is a uniquely American phenomenon.
e. A sample of 1,500 people is enough to relatively accurately reflect the universe of American people.
43. Critics of polling think
a. it gives politicians the wrong information.
b. it makes politicians more concerned with following than leading.
c. the public’s opinion should not be taken into account.
d. it could lead to a tyranny of the minority.
e. Both b and d.
44. A disadvantage of telephone public opinion surveys is
a. that they cost more than face-to-face surveys.
b. that they have a lower response rate than face-to-face interviews.
c. that some individuals do not own phones.
d. that they have a lower response rate than mail interviews.
e. both b and c
45. An exit poll is taken
a. just prior to the election, in order to get a last reading of the public’s views.
b. to measure an officeholder’s popularity as he or she is leaving office.
c. as people leave supermarkets, shopping malls, sporting events, or movies, and are thus available for interviews.
d. on election day, by interviewing voters as they leave the polling place.
e. all of the above
46. Which of the following is NOT true about exit polls?
a. People are asked how they voted rather than how they plan to vote.
b. Most people are contacted by the random digit dialing method.
c. They are used by the media to project election winners before most votes have been counted except in close races.
d. They have been criticized in presidential elections for declaring a winner before voting is completed in the West.
e. They are being used more today than they were in the 1970s.
47. Compared to simply asking should the country stay in Iraq, asking poll respondents whether the country should stay in Iraq in spite of the casualties would most likely result in
a. greater support for staying in Iraq.
b. fewer people answering the question but make little difference in the answers that they give.
c. more people answering the question but make little difference in the answers that they give.
d. greater opposition to the war.
e. little change in the poll responses.
48. One way that polling has become more reliable in the Internet age has been through
a. conducting polls directly on popular web sites.
b. allowing the public to review poll questions as they are posted on the web.
c. sending emails rather than random digit dialing.
d. eliminating the problem of people responding to a poll more than once.
e. all of the above.
49. Thomas Jefferson
a. trusted people’s good sense.
b. believed that education would enable them to take the tasks of citizenship ever more seriously.
c. founded the University of Virginia to help created educated and informed citizens.
d. had very different views about the wisdom of common people from Alexander Hamilton.
e. all of the above.
50. According to Russell Neuman, the paradox of mass politics is that the American political system works as well as it does given
a. the fact that elected officials tend to ignore public opinion.
b. the inaccuracy of public opinion polls giving politicians false information about what people want.
c. the inability of people to express their opinion on issues and candidates.
d. that most people do not even know what basic values they want upheld.
e. the discomforting lack of public knowledge about politics.
51. In general, liberal ideology supports
a. a strong central government that sets policies to promote equality.
b. individuals responding generously to each other to solve society’s problems without looking to government to do so.
c. a small, less active government that gives freer reign to the private sector.
d. public and government ownership of the means of production.
e. strong local and state governments that are closer to the people.
52. When people are asked about their ideology, an approximately equal number answer conservative and
a. moderate.
b. liberal.
c. highly religious.
d. as group benefits voters.
e. no group was equal to conservative in terms of ideology.
53. What is central to the ideology of the Republican Party?
a. The American government has become too wide ranging.
b. The American government doesn't do enough for its citizens.
c. The American government is based on too little political participation.
d. The size of the American government is not a particularly important issue to most people.
e. An ideal democratic society would have more participants than the one which liberals envision.
54. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Americans consistently choose the ideological label of liberal over conservative.
b. Americans consistently choose the ideological label of conservative over liberal.
c. Young people are more likely than older people to be conservative.
d. Both a and c.
e. Both b and c.
55. Younger Americans are
a. Less likely to be conservative than older Americans.
b. More likely to be conservative than older Americans.
c. Less likely to vote than older Americans.
d. More likely to vote than older Americans.
e. Both a and d.
56. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. African American are more liberal than the national average.
b. African Americans are conservative than the national average.
c. Hispanics are less conservative than whites.
d. Both b and c.
e. Both a and c.
57. Which of these groups tends to be more conservative?
a. Groups with political clout.
b. Women
c. Younger voters.
d. African Americans
e. Hispanics
58. Which of the following is TRUE about most liberals in American politics?
a. They favor keeping taxes and government spending low.
b. They believe we should guard carefully the rights of defendants in criminal cases.
c. They are supportive of prayer in public schools.
d. They oppose abortion.
e. None of the above
59. A political figure who is in favor of increased military spending, supported freedom of choice on abortion, opposed affirmative action programs, wanted to tax the rich more, and felt the courts should stop coddling criminals would be a
a. socialist.
b. mixture of liberal and conservative.
c. liberal.
d. conservative.
e. populist.
60. Conservatives would tend to favor each of the following EXCEPT
a. affirmative action.
b. low taxes.
c. increased military spending.
d. free-market solutions.
e. the right to life.
61. Compared to men, women are more likely to
a. oppose higher levels of military spending.
b. support spending on social services.
c. be indifferent to issues of government spending.
d. support military intervention around the world.
e. both a and b
62. The term gender gap refers to
a. greater success of men than women when running for office.
b. greater poverty of women than of men.
c. stable pattern where women tend to be more likely than men to vote Democratic.
d. higher political contributions made by women than of men.
e. none of the above.
63. The regular pattern by which women are more likely to support Democratic candidates than are men is known as
a. the feminine mystique.
b. the gender gap.
c. reverse discrimination.
d. affirmative action.
e. liberal bias.
64. Compared to older Americans, young people are more likely to support conservative positions on
a. Social Security and education.
b. education and health care.
c. health care and national security.
d. national security and immigration.
e. immigration and Social Security.
65. Compared to older Americans, young people are
a. more likely to identify themselves as conservative.
b. more likely to identify themselves as moderate.
c. less likely to identify themselves as moderate.
d. more likely to identify themselves as liberal.
e. unlikely to differ ideologically.
66. According to the classic study, The American Voter, most Americans fell into the category of
a. group benefits voters.
b. ideologues.
c. no-issue-content voters.
d. anti-ideologues.
e. nature-of-the-times voters.
67. The American Voter study on ideological sophistication among voters in the 1950s showed that only a small percentage of Americans
a. had no coherent political ideology.
b. identified with groups reflecting their own interests.
c. had a coherent political ideology.
d. had ever taken a government or civics course.
e. linked their own economic well-being with the party in power.
68. According to the categories used in the classic study, The American Voter, those who voted for a party out of routine, or judged candidates strictly by their personalities were classified as
a. group benefits voters.
b. nature-of-the-times voters.
c. ideologues.
d. personalistic voters.
e. no-issue-content voters.
69. According to Morris Fiorina,
a. American voters are in the midst of a major political culture war.
b. most American voters are not in the midst of a major political culture war, but rather is surrounded by a culture war between a small group of liberal and conservative elites.
c. differences between conservatives and liberals among the citizenry have never been greater.
d. Americans really are ideological, contrary to what The American Voter argued several decades ago.
e. Both a and c.
70. Ideological groups differ with regard to their feelings toward homosexuality in that
a. liberals and conservatives have become more polarized on the issue in the past 20 years.
b. liberals are the only group that does not view homosexuals unfavorably today.
c. conservatives are the only group that views homosexuals unfavorably today.
d. liberals’ views have become more favorable at a much faster rate than other groups in the past 20 years.
e. conservatives are the only group to have significantly changed their views in the past 20 years.
71. What percentage of Americans voted in the 2006 midterm elections?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
e. 60
72. Sidney Verba and his colleagues found that while voter turnout declined between 1967 and 1987,
a. writing letters to the editor and contacting government officials increased.
b. participating in non-political activities increased.
c. protesting and giving money to candidates increased.
d. contacting government officials and giving money to candidates increased.
e. none of the above
73. Which of the following is typical of most adult Americans when it comes to political participation?
a. A majority of Americans will participate in a protest such as a demonstration, strike, or sit-in at least once in their lives.
b. Most will participate in all twelve major kinds of political activities at some point in their lives.
c. Most will vote in an election, but only a minority of people do more than that politically.
d. Most have never voted in an election.
e. Most will vote in an election and do one or two other political activities, usually contacting local officials, joining a political club, or donating money to a candidate.
74. Civil disobedience involves
a. non-violent protests to achieve desired results.
b. consciously breaking a law thought to be unjust.
c. working within the laws to achieve objectives.
d. rioting and violence to achieve desired results.
e. a and d only
75. One of the reasons why the participation gap between minority groups and the national average is no longer enormous is because
a. minorities have a group consciousness that gives them an extra incentive to vote.
b. the education and income levels of minorities are no longer significantly lower than those of whites.
c. large numbers of minorities are now running for important political offices.
d. education and income are no longer considered good predictors of voting behavior.
e. minorities now outnumber whites so that there is no gap.
76. There is evidence that when incomes and educational levels are equal
a. members of the majority tend to be more politically active than minorities.
b. members of minority groups tend to participate more than members of the majority.
c. Hispanics participate more than whites and African Americans participate less than whites.
d. Hispanics, African Americans, and women tend to be less politically active than white males.
e. the political participation of members of minority groups and the majority are also equal.
77. To say that Americans are ideological conservatives, but operational liberals is to say that Americans
a. oppose big government in principle, but want it to more in practice.
b. favor big government in principle, but want it to do less in practice.
c. favor divided government.
d. oppose divided government.
e. believe, following Reagan, that government is the source of their problems.
78. Many political scientists see Americans as ideological conservatives but
a. operational liberals.
b. politically naive.
c. politically impotent.
d. actually liberals.
e. liberals when it comes to issues such as the national defense.
6.2 - The questions in this section also appear in the student Study Guide available with the textbook.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. ________ is the distribution of the population’s beliefs about politics and policy issues.
a. Random sampling
b. Direct mail
c. Political socialization
d. Public opinion
e. Political ideology
2. An issue that became controversial regarding the 1990 census was
a. inclusion of immigrants.
b. cost of the census.
c. the undercount of minority groups.
d. the overcount of urbanites.
e. none of the above
3. According to the chart on p. 205 (“My State: Immigrants as a percentage of state populations”), the states with the highest immigrant population as a percentage of total population include
a. California and Texas.
b. California and New Jersey.
c. California and Arizona.
d. Texas and Hawaii.
e. California and Oklahoma.
4. According to the chart on p. 205 (“My State: Immigrants as a percentage of state populations”), the states with the lowest immigrant population as a percentage of total population include
a. Alaska and Idaho.
b. Utah and Wyoming.
c. Utah and New Mexico.
d. Minnesota and Massachusetts.
e. California and Oklahoma.
5. According to Figure 6.1 on p. 210,
a. by the middle of the twenty-first century, Whites will comprise about 48% of the US population.
b. the fastest growing minority group is Hispanic.
c. African Americans will not substantially increase their share of the population.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above
6. Approximately what percent of African Americans live below the poverty line?
a. 28
b. 42
c. 24
d. 6
e. 17
7. Reapportionment occurs after every census to reallocate seats in
a. the Senate.
b. the president’s cabinet.
c. the Supreme Court.
d. the House of Representatives.
e. both the House of Representatives and the Senate.
8. Which of the following can be concluded from Figure 6.2 on p. 210?
a. Compared to 1940, there has been tremendous population growth in California, Texas, and Florida.
b. The national population is scattered more widely in 2000 than it was in 1940.
c. The states with the largest populations in the 1940s remain the states with the largest populations in 2000.
d. The national population is concentrated more narrowly in 2000 than it was in 1940.
e. Both a and b.
9. According to Figure 6.2 on p. 210, the states with the greatest population growth (as a percentage of the national population) between 1940 and 2000 included
a. California and Alabama.
b. Massachusetts and Alaska.
c. Hawaii and Alaska.
d. Texas and Florida.
e. Connecticut and Rhode Island.
10. According to Figure 6.2 on p. 210, between 1940 and 2000 the percentage of the national population that lived in the Rocky Mountain states
a. grew in nearly all states.
b. grew only in Colorado and Arizona.
c. stayed more-or-less the same.
d. shrank only in Colorado and Arizona.
e. shrank in nearly all states.
11. According to Figure 6.2 on p. 210, the states with the greatest population loss (as a percentage of the national population) between 1940 and 2000 included
a. Mississippi and Alabama.
b. Massachusetts and Alaska.
c. Hawaii and Alaska.
d. Texas and Florida.
e. Connecticut and Rhode Island.
12. Most Americans learn about government and politics through
a. an informal learning process.
b. high school civics courses.
c. university political science classes.
d. direct explanation from their parents.
e. newspapers.
13. Many studies have attributed the relative lack of political knowledge of today’s youth to
a. their high levels of media consumption.
b. their tendency to follow politics by watching television.
c. poor political socialization in the educational system.
d. The Daily Show.
e. their lack of traditional media consumption.
14. A recent study suggested that there was a genetic component to political views because
a. identical twins were more likely to share political views than non-identical twins.
b. the majority of people share the same political views as their parents.
c. people who shared a particular genetic mutation were more likely to support conservatives.
d. they were able to manipulate people’s political views through genetic modification.
e. they were able to make a group of human clones that all supported the libertarian party.
15. Alexander Hamilton believed all of the following about the people EXCEPT that
a. the people are a great beast.
b. education would enable them to take the tasks of citizenship ever more seriously.
c. people had little capacity for self-government.
d. that Thomas Jefferson was wrong about the good sense of the people.
e. none of the above; Hamilton believed all of these statements.
16. Compared to older Americans, young people are more likely to
a. oppose gays in the military.
b. support increased military spending.
c. support government policies that reduce income differences.
d. oppose spending to protect the environment.
e. oppose more spending on education.
17. A key reason for the change in the views of Americans on homosexuality is that
a. Americans across the political spectrum have embraced the idea of gay rights.
b. Americans across the political spectrum have been horrified by violence against homosexuality.
c. conservatives have found convincing the view that terrorist attacks against the country are divine punishment for tolerance of homosexuality.
d. the Supreme Court ruled that homosexuality is protected by the Constitution in 2008.
e. young people have expressed more favorable ratings toward gays and lesbians within each ideological group.
18. Which of the following can be concluded from Figure 6.3 on p. 228?
a. People with higher incomes are more likely to donate money to campaigns, to contact politicians, to attend public meetings and to sign petitions that individuals at lower income levels.
b. People at lower income levels are more likely to sign petitions and attend meetings than to contact politicians or donate money to campaigns.
c. There is little relationship between income and political participation.
d. Both a and b.
e. None of the above.
6.3 - These questions also appear in MyPoliSciLab, the Website that accompanies the textbook.
Pre-Test
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The science of human populations is called
a. polling.
b. anthropology.
c. popuology.
d. demography.
e. the census.
2. By constitutional requirement, the government conducts the United States Census every
a. two years.
b. year.
c. five years.
d. presidential election year.
e. ten years.
3. The term “minority majority” refers to the fact that
a. the majority in America has always been a collection of minority ethnic groups.
b. minority groups have been able to impose their will upon the majority.
c. America will soon cease to have a White majority and together the minority groups will become a majority.
d. African Americans are the largest minority group in the United States.
e. Hispanic Americans will soon become the largest minority group in the United States.
4. Over the last fifty years, much of America’s population growth has occurred
a. on the East Coast.
b. east of the Mississippi River.
c. north of the Mason-Dixon line.
d. in the West and South.
e. in the Midwest.
5. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Citizens over the age of 65 comprise the fastest growing age group in the US.
b. Social Security is among the government’s least expensive public policies.
c. The fertility rate has dropped substantially since the 1960s.
d. Today, the typical American woman bears 2.1 children.
e. In 1940, there were 42 workers per retiree; today there are three.
6. Political socialization is defined as
a. the distribution of the population’s beliefs about politics and policy issues.
b. the various political roles that individuals play in society.
c. a coherent set of values and beliefs about public policy.
d. the process through which an individual acquires his or her particular political orientations.
e. the activities used by citizens to influence the selection of political leaders or the policies they pursue.
7. The family’s role in political socialization is central because
a. parents tend to purposively guide their children’s political orientations.
b. of children’s tendencies to rebel against parents and their beliefs.
c. the family puts emphasis on formal political education.
d. of its monopoly on time and emotional commitment.
e. all of the above
8. According to many observers, “the new parent” in the socialization process has become
a. schools.
b. interest groups.
c. the mass media.
d. political.
e. friends and peers.
9. Scientific public opinion polling was first begun in 1932 by
a. George Gallup.
b. the Democratic party.
c. Louis Harris.
d. the Associated Press.
e. Henry Luce.
10. Random sampling in public opinion polling operates on the principle that
a. which answers to include in aggregate poll results must be selected by chance in order to maximize accuracy.
b. everyone should have an equal probability of being selected.
c. the questions to be asked of a given respondent must be selected randomly so that all respondents are asked the same question the same number of times.
d. the larger the number of people who are polled, the greater accuracy of the poll.
e. both B and C
11. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of modern polling?
a. Careful attention to polls is unwise, as polls only reflect the passive attitudes of voters.
b. Politicians use polls to follow the crowd rather than to assert bold leadership.
c. Polls can distort the election process by creating a bandwagon effect, where people want to follow the crowd.
d. Polls are subject to very wide margins of error, yet are treated as accurate measurements of public opinion.
e. All of the above
12. Public opinion analysts agree that the level of public knowledge about politics is
a. pretty good.
b. dismally low.
c. constantly fluctuating.
d. fair.
e. surprisingly sharp and sophisticated.
13. A ________ is a coherent set of values and beliefs about public policy.
a. policy agenda
b. political ideology
c. demography
d. public opinion
e. political socialization
14. Which of the following is TRUE of most conservatives in American politics?
a. They favor free market solutions to problems rather than looking to the government for regulating business.
b. They believe less should be spent on the military budget.
c. They are in favor of affirmative action programs.
d. They are opposed to prayer in public schools.
e. They oppose high levels of foreign aid.
15. Americans age 18-29 are
a. more likely to favor investing Social Security funds in the stock market than are older Americans.
b. less likely to support increased military spending than are older Americans.
c. more likely to support government policies to reduce income differences than are older Americans.
d. more likely to support increased government spending on the environment than are older Americans.
e. All of the above.
16. Ideology is determined more by _______ than by religious denomination.
a. religiosity
b. religious sect
c. gender
d. age
e. race
17. When people vote according to the nature of the times,
a. partisan identification becomes an even stronger influence on aggregate voting.
b. they are not voting wisely.
c. they are more interested in the overall condition of the country than ideology and judge presidents by those conditions.
d. they are not making rational choices.
e. their opinions are not clearly heard.
18. In the presidential election of 2004, ________ of Americans voted.
a. 60 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 39 percent
d. 80 percent
e. 45 percent
19. Which of the following is an example of civil disobedience?
a. Accidentally failing to pay income tax on taxable income.
b. the Supreme Court throwing out a congressional statute on the grounds of its unconstitutionality
c. Petitioning the government to legalize the possession of marijuana and other controlled substances
d. Consciously breaking a city’s law by purposely blocking entrance to a legally operating abortion clinic.
e. All of the above.
20. Which of the following is TRUE in regard to the voting habits of African Americans?
a. They have always voted about as much as Whites despite legal barriers.
b. The gap between their voter turnout and that of Whites has widened considerably over the past thirty years.
c. Members of this group are less likely to vote the higher their income.
d. Members of this group are more likely to vote than Whites of the same income level.
e. None of the above.
21. What provides support for the theory that America is ruled by a small, wealthy elite?
a. The fact that people with higher incomes are more likely to participate in the political process in ways that do not require financial resources.
b. The fact that wealthier people can afford to run for political office.
c. The fact that people with higher incomes tend to be more conservative.
d. The fat that people with higher incomes tend to vote more often for local candidates.
e. The fact that citizens of higher income will only participate when they also have achieved higher levels of education.
22. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Fifty percent of the people in the U.S. believed, in 1980, that government was too big.
b. A plurality of people in the U.S. believe that the government should spend more on education, health care, aid to cities, protecting the environment, and crime.
c. Americans are ideological conservatives but operational liberals.
d. Both a and b are true.
e. All of the above are true.
23. American voters can be said to do a good job in their democratic role because
a. choosing performance over policy holds public officials accountable.
b. the United States is a democracy in name only.
c. the United States is a republic, not a democracy.
d. they are among the most informed voters in the world.
e. they have the highest rate of voter turnout in the world.
Post-Test
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Normally, American public opinion reveals conflicting attitudes and ambivalence.
b. Immediately after 9/11, American public opinion was nearly unanimous on responding immediately and by force to the terrorist attacks.
c. More than 80% of Americans viewed 9/11 as an act of war.
d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above.
2. One of the most valuable methods for understanding demographic changes in America is the
a. Statistical Abstract of the United States.
b. public opinion poll.
c. census.
d. turnout in presidential elections.
e. Internal Revenue Service statistical tax abstracts.
3. According to the 2000 census, what percentage of the nation’s population is constituted by immigrants?
a. Five
b. Eight
c. Eleven
d. Twenty
e. Twenty-five
4. The _________ refers to the emergence of a non-Caucasian majority, as compared with a White, generally Anglo-Saxon majority.
a. melting pot
b. minority majority
c. immigrant population
d. population explosion
e. majority minority
5. Today, Asian Americans are often seen as
a. potential spies and saboteurs.
b. little different from most minorities.
c. not subject to significant discrimination.
d. the superachievers of the minority majority.
e. unfit for holding political offices.
6. During the 2008 elections, the Republican and Democratic parties agreed
a. that an amnesty for illegal immigrants was necessary.
b. that an amnesty for illegal immigrants would encourage more illegal immigration.
c. that illegal immigrants played an important role in the health of the national economy.
d. that illegal immigrants were a major drain on the national economy because they receive public services without paying taxes.
e. on very little about immigration.
7. One can predict how the majority of young people will vote simply by knowing
a. the political leaning of their parents.
b. the political leaning of their friends.
c. their race.
d. the political leaning of their teachers.
e. their age.
8. One of the effects of growing older on political learning and political behavior is that
a. political participation increases with age.
b. people become more liberal with age.
c. interest in politics decreases with age.
d. the strength of one’s party attachment declines with age.
e. political ignorance increases with age.
9. In public opinion polling, a sample as small as about ________ people can faithfully represent the “universe” of Americans.
a. 10,000
b. 1,500
c. 20,000
d. 5,000
e. 50,000
10. The key to the accuracy of public opinion polls is
a. political ideology.
b. polygraphs.
c. sampling error.
d. the larger the size of the sample, the better.
e. random sampling.
11. According to some critics, public opinion polls may weaken democracy by
a. drowning out election issues with a steady flood of poll results.
b. undermining the bandwagon effect and encouraging voters to support candidates without regard for the opinions of others.
c. predicting the wrong winner in a close election.
d. misleading politicians with delayed and outdated information about changing opinions of the public.
e. all of the above.
12. Poll results can vary widely if
a. a question is altered, even slightly.
b. it is based on exit polls.
c. random sampling is used.
d. the sample is too large.
e. political socialization is not considered.
13. A political ideology is
a. the process through which an individual acquires his or her political skills.
b. a relatively small proportion of people who are chosen as representative of the whole.
c. the distribution of the population’s beliefs about politics and policy issues.
d. the set of courses that a political science student must complete to attain a degree.
e. a coherent set of values and beliefs about public policy.
14. Liberals tend to
a. support lower taxation.
b. favor maintaining peace through strength.
c. support lower government spending.
d. support school prayer.
e. none of the above
15. The most liberal religious group in America are
a. Christian Right.
b. Jews.
c. Catholics.
d. Protestants.
e. Muslims.
16. If the exact same methods are used to update the analysis of The American Voter study, one finds
a. there are more no-issue-content voters than group benefit voters in 2000.
b. a dramatic increase in the number of authoritarian personalities since 1956.
c. only some increase in the percentage of ideologues in 2000 compared to 1956.
d. half as many nature-of-the-times voters in 2000 than in 1956.
e. ideologues became a plurality in 2000.
17. The most common form of political participation in the United States is
a. voting in presidential elections.
b. voting in local elections.
c. belonging to a political party.
d. writing letters to public officials.
e. working on a political campaign.
18. Political participation includes
a. all the activities used by citizens to influence the selection of political leaders or the policies they pursue.
b. all the activities used by citizens to influence the selection of political leaders but not the policies they pursue.
c. all the activities used by citizens to influence the selection of political leaders and the policies they pursue.
d. only voting in a Democracy.
e. all legal means of expressing one’s views.
19. Which of the following groups would be LEAST likely to vote in a typical election?
a. middle-class minority voters
b. poor white voters
c. rich white voters
d. poor minority voters
e. rich minority voters
20. One of the reasons why the participation gap between minority groups and the national average is no longer large is because
a. minorities are now the majority, and their average is the national average.
b. the education and income levels of minorities are no longer significantly lower than that of whites.
c. large numbers of minorities are now running for important political offices.
d. education and income are no longer considered good predictors of voting behavior.
e. minorities have a group consciousness that gives them an extra incentive to vote.
21. President Ronald Reagan argued that
a. the national government should be abolished, with the states taking over in a very loose confederation system.
b. government was not the answer to the nation’s problems, government was the problem.
c. the nation’s problems required more, not less, government action.
d. the states did not have enough resources to solve their problems, therefore their role should be sharply reduced and the national government should take over many of the major functions of state governments.
e. although government had grown too fast, it should remain about the same size.
Chapter Exam
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Demography refers to
a. the science of human populations.
b. the science of public opinion.
c. the science of democracy.
d. the US census planning process.
e. Constitutional rules governing reapportionment of Congress.
2. The United States Constitution requires that the government conduct an” actual enumeration” of the population every
a. ten years.
b. 25 years.
c. year.
d. five years.
e. presidential election year.
3. Governments throughout the world use schools to help with the ________ of young people.
a. random sampling
b. political socialization
c. voter registration
d. civil disobedience
e. demography
4. The level of confidence about a public opinion poll is referred to as
a. the confidence index.
b. sampling error.
c. the sample.
d. random sampling.
e. demographic certainty.
5. Concerns about reliance of pollsters on telephone surveys have recently been caused by
a. decreased chances of finding people at home.
b. increased use of random digit dialing.
c. increased non-listing of phone numbers.
d. increased use of cell phones.
e. a decrease in no-call lists.
6. The procedure for conducting ____________ includes randomly-selected voting places around the country and asking every tenth person how they voted.
a. absentee balloting
b. a referendum
c. preventing voting fraud
d. reapportionment
e. an exit poll
7. Public opinion polls have shown that
a. most people can name their representatives, but do not know how they generally vote in Congress.
b. people are more likely to recognize slogans from TV commercials than famous political figures.
c. most people are well-informed about politics, but know little about geography.
d. only during an international crisis are people able to locate specific countries involved in the crisis.
e. political knowledge is higher now than it was forty years ago.
8. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Liberals generally encourage less military spending; conservatives are more likely to support maintain higher levels of military strength.
b. Liberals seek to tax the rich more; conservatives seek to maintain the free market and tax the rich less.
c. Liberals are more likely to favor military intervention around the globe; conservatives are less willing to commit troops to action.
d. Liberals generally believe that we can solve the problems that cause crime; conservatives believe that we should stop “coddling criminals.
e. Liberals tend to support Affirmative Action; conservatives tend to oppose it.
9. Which of the following statements regarding religion and ideology is FALSE?
a. Jews are more likely to be more conservative than liberal.
b. The ideological gap between Catholics and Protestants is smaller than the gender gap.
c. Born-again Christians are the most conservative demographic group.
d. People who have no religious affiliation are more liberal then conservative.
e. None of the above is false.
10. The authors of The American Voter would agree with each of the following statements EXCEPT
a. It is a misnomer to speak of election results as indicating a movement of the public either left or right.
b. For most people, the terms liberal and conservative are not as important as they are for the political elite.
c. People who think in ideological terms are most likely to switch parties from one election to the next.
d. Eisenhower’s two election victories represented a shift in the conservative direction during the 1950s.
e. None of the above
11. According to the chart of p. 224 (“A Generation of Change”),
a. Public support for gays and lesbians has increased since the 1980s.
b. Public support for gays and lesbians has declined sine the 1980s.
c. Among all groups (liberals, moderates, conservative), public support for gays has increased since the 1980s.
d. Support for gays and lesbians is reflective of a political culture war in which liberals and conservatives are completely opposed to one another.
e. Both a and c.
12. Martin Luther King’s views on civil disobedience were influenced by
a. Malcolm X.
b. Susan B. Anthony.
c. St. Augustine.
d. Mahatma Gandhi.
e. none of the above.
13. During the 1960s, political protests
a. were always non-violent.
b. aimed to overthrow the government.
c. led to the killings of students at Kent State University and Jackson State in 1970.
d. were welcomed by the majority of Americans as a legitimate form of protest.
e. were a very rare form of political participation.
Chapter 8 – Political Parties
__________________________________________________________
8.1 - The questions in this section appear only in this printed Test Bank and in the Computerized Test Bank.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which statement about political parties in the US is NOT true?
a. Parties require formal membership.
b. There has been a recent decline of parties and a resultant upsurge of Independents.
c. Each party has a national office.
d. Party leaders often disagree about policy.
e. Parties endorse candidates for pubic office.
2. The battle between the two major political parties—Democrats and Republicans—for control of public offices is called
a. party polarization.
b. party competition.
c. bipartisanship.
d. nonpartisanship.
e. pork barrel politics.
3. Elected officials who call themselves member of a party constitute the
a. the party-in-government.
b. the party-out-of-power.
c. the party-in-the-electorate.
d. the party as an organization.
e. national party committee.
4. A political party is best defined as
a. a group of men and women organized for the sole purpose of influencing public policy.
b. an organized team of men and women with a political agenda.
c. any group of men and women with a formal membership and a political or social purpose stated in their by-laws.
d. a team of men and women seeking control of the governing apparatus by gaining office in a duly constituted election.
e. a coalition of interests trying to influence government policies for their benefit.
5. The people who keep the party running between elections and make its rules are members of which “head” of the party?
a. party-in-the-electorate
b. permanent party
c. party as an organization
d. party-in-government
e. party-in-the-states
6. The “party-in-government” refers to
a. registered party voters who hold civil service jobs in the government and are influencing policy.
b. winning candidates who become the main spokespersons for the party that nominated them.
c. coalitions of interests and ideologies that support a party’s candidates.
d. party workers who hold patronage jobs in the government and can influence policy.
e. party members who perpetuate the party, make its rules, and keep it running.
7. The political “party-in-the-electorate” is defined as people who
a. vote for the candidates from one party.
b. register as members of a party.
c. work for a party’s candidates.
d. identify with a party.
e. walk door-to-door to meet the voters and personally campaign for their party’s candidates.
8. Almost all definitions of political parties have which of the following in common?
a. Parties have formal organizations.
b. Parties have a mass following.
c. Parties try to win elections.
d. Parties are run by elites.
e. Parties have limited policy agendas.
9. Which is a linkage institution?
a. Supreme Court
b. Executive Office of the President
c. Congress
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
10. A party’s endorsement to officially run for office as the candidate of that party is called a(n)
a. ballot.
b. ticket.
c. nomination.
d. confirmation.
e. appointment.
11. American political parties tend to take middle-of-the-road stands on major issues
a. only because the party’s candidates are so afraid of alienating those on different sides of issues.
b. while the public tends to have stronger opinions.
c. in spite of evidence that more extreme positions generate more excitement and likelihood for electoral victory.
d. because most of the American electorate are centrist.
e. because most of the American electorate do not have political opinions.
12. The theory that seeks to explain political processes and outcomes as consequences of purposive behavior is called the
a. rational-choice theory.
b. behavioral theory.
c. means-ends theory.
d. cognitive theory.
e. goals theory.
13. Which of the following statements about the American electorate is FALSE?
a. A few voters are extremely liberal or extremely conservative.
b. The majority of Americans fall in the middle of extreme liberalism and extreme conservatism.
c. Two-thirds of Americans believe that there are important differences between the two major political parties.
d. Most Americans believe that there are few differences of importance between Republicans and Democrats.
e. Both a and b are false.
14. Since 1952
a. The number of Americans identifying as Republicans has declined.
b. The number of Americans identifying as Democrats has declined.
c. The number of Americans identifying as Independent has declined.
d. The number of Americans identifying as Republicans has increased.
e. Both b and d.
15. Party identification refers to
a. voters’ perceptions of what Republicans and Democrats stand for.
b. citizens’ self-proclaimed preference for one party or another.
c. a commitment to either liberalism or conservatism.
d. an ideology, or worldview.
e. citizens’ general voting preference.
16. According to Anthony Downs’ model, a rational party will adopt the policy position that is:
a. closest to the views of a majority of voters.
b. closest to the actual needs of the nation.
c. proposed by its senior members in Congress.
d. consistent with previous successful elections.
e. closest to the president’s views.
17. Successful parties rarely stray from the __________ opinion(s).
a. midpoint
b. more conservative
c. more liberal
d. president’s
e. most divisive
18. In recent elections, the trends in party identification in the United States have been
a. an increase in the percentage of Democrats and a decline in the percentage of Independents.
b. an increase in the percentages of Democrats and Republicans and a decline in the percentage of Independents.
c. an increase in the percentage of Democrats and a decline in the percentage of Republicans.
d. a decrease in the percentage of Democrats and an increase in the percentage of Independents.
e. a fairly constant percentage of Democrats, Republicans, and Independents.
19. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. A majority of young voters, age 18 to 24, consider themselves Independent, that is, unidentified with either the Democratic or Republican parties.
b. A majority of young voters, age 18 to 24, identify with the Democratic party.
c. A majority of young voters, age 18 to 24, identify with the Republican party.
d. More young voters, age 18 to 24, identify as Democrats than as Republicans.
e. Both b and c.
20. A party machine is a kind of local party organization that
a. threatens the efficiency of state and national party organizations.
b. specializes in computerized mass mailings both to raise funds and influence voters on behalf of their candidates.
c. uses specific and material inducements to win party loyalty and power.
d. remains strong in most large American cities.
e. has recently come to depend heavily on ethnic group support.
21. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Urban party machines are no longer very active as a rule.
b. Progressive reforms that paced jobs under the merit system weakened the discretion and power of political machines.
c. Regulations concerning fair bidding on government contracts weakened the discretion and power of political machines.
d. Ethnic integration weakened the relevancy of political machines.
e. All of the above.
22. What was one of the reasons that urban party machines are no longer very active?
a. Progressive reforms that placed jobs under the merit system weakened the machines’ power.
b. Regulations concerning fair bidding on government contracts were struck down.
c. Ethic integration became less prevalent.
d. Progressive regulations were struck down by the Supreme Court.
e. All of the party bosses died out.
23. The void created by the decline of urban political machines
a. has been partially filled by a revitalization of county party organizations, particularly in affluent suburbs.
b. has been partially filled by a revitalization of national party organizations.
c. has limited the scope of government reform legislation.
d. remains to be filled by some other institution or organization.
e. Both b and c.
24. Primaries that allow voters to decide on Election Day whether they want to participate in the Democratic or Republican contests are called
a. open primaries.
b. closed primaries.
c. blanket primaries.
d. political primaries.
e. party machine primaries.
25. If you are registered as a Democrat, you can vote in a(n)
a. Democratic closed primary
b. Republican closed primary
c. open primary
d. blanket primary
e. a, c, and d.
26. If you are registered as a Republican, you can vote in a(n)
a. Democratic closed primary.
b. Republican closed primary.
c. open primary.
d. blanket primary
e. b, c, and d.
27. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. About one third of all states have a provision on their ballots that enables voters to vote for all of one party’s candidates with a single act.
b. Straight-ticket voting makes support of party organization more important to candidates running for office.
c. Straight-ticket voting makes support of party organization less important to candidates running for office.
d. Both a and b are true.
e. Both a and c are true.
28. American national parties are best described as
a. controlled from the bottom (local level) up.
b. loose aggregations of state parties.
c. bicameral in nature.
d. centralized organizations based in Congress.
e. powerful, centralized organizations based in Washington, D.C.
29. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. State parties are on the upswing throughout the country.
b. State parties are on the downswing throughout the country.
c. State parties’ budgets have increased dramatically since the late 1970s.
d. Today, almost all state parties have permanent physical headquarters and professional staff.
e. all of the above
30. Since the 1960s, which kind of party is on the upswing?
a. State parties
b. National parties
c. Party machines
d. Open primary parties
e. City parties
31. Each party holds a national convention every
a. six years.
b. year.
c. four years.
d. five years.
e. two years.
32. The supreme power within each of the parties is
a. the state party organizations.
b. the president.
c. the Supreme Party Court.
d. the national convention.
e. the national committee.
33. When asked about the most important challenge of running party organizations, the national party chairmen of both parties replied
a. “organization.”
b. “competent staff.”
c. “money.”
d. “finding good candidates.”
e. “time”.
34. The party national committees
a. select the party’s presidential candidate.
b. are composed of each party’s members of Congress.
c. meet once every four years.
d. write and approve the party’s platform.
e. keep the party operating between conventions.
35. The day-to-day activities of the national party are the responsibility of the
a. congressional party leaders.
b. national chairperson.
c. president.
d. national committee.
e. national convention.
36. Which of the following campaign promises were kept?
a. Lyndon Johnson’s promise that he would not “send American boys to do an Asian boy’s job.”
b. George Bush’s proclamation, “read my lips—no new taxes.”
c. Bill Clinton’s promise of a tax cut for the middle class.
d. Ronald Regan’s promise that he would balance the budget by 1984.
e. None of the above.
37. A study of major party platforms by Gerald Pomper found that the parties broke their promises
a. ten percent of the time.
b. half the time.
c. two-thirds of the time.
d. over ninety percent of the time.
e. a third of the time.
38. A party era begins, or is made more certain, with
a. the defeat of an incumbent president.
b. a critical election.
c. the founding of a new major party.
d. party competition.
e. a congressional election.
39. An example of a critical election is
a. the displacement of the majority Republicans with the Democrats during the Great Depression of the 1930s.
b. the emergence of the Republican party during the Civil War.
c. the election of George W. Bush following the 1994 Republican takeover of the House of Representatives.
d. all of the above.
e. both a and b.
40. A critical election involves and accelerates a process called
a. partisan transformation.
b. electoral examination.
c. proportional representation.
d. party realignment.
e. democratic rejuvenation.
41. Party realignments in the United States
a. occur when a party makes dramatic changes in its positions on issues.
b. involve the death of one party and the birth of a brand new one.
c. are slight adjustments of political allegiance among voters in at least one region of the country.
d. happen after most presidential elections, and occasionally in-between.
e. are rare events in the United States, usually associated with a major national crisis or trauma, in which one party’s majority domination is replaced with another’s.
42. The first party system in the United States consisted of the
a. Democrats and Whigs.
b. Federalists and Whigs.
c. Democrats and Republicans.
d. Federalists and Democratic-Republicans.
e. Democratic-Republicans and Whigs.
43. The dominant political party in America’s first party system was the
a. Democratic-Republicans.
b. Whigs.
c. Republicans.
d. Democrats.
e. Federalists.
44. Who created the first National Bank and, with it, the beginnings of our party system?
a. Alexander Hamilton
b. James Madison
c. Thomas Jefferson
d. Andrew Jackson
e. John Adams
45. Which of the following is FALSE about the Federalist Party?
a. It was the nation’s shortest-lived party.
b. It quickly faded following John Adam’s failed reelection bid in 1800.
c. It was comprised by a group of professional politicians.
d. It was crushed by the Democratic-Republicans.
e. It was created, in part, by Alexander Hamilton’s efforts to establish a national bank.
46. The first American political party evolved
a. from the supporters of George Washington’s first campaign for president.
b. out of Thomas Jefferson’s efforts to get the Declaration of Independence adopted.
c. out of public disgust over the duel between Aaron Burr and Alexander Hamilton, leading to calls to solve conflicts through peaceful party competition.
d. during the Constitutional Convention.
e. out of Alexander Hamilton’s efforts to get Congress to establish a national bank.
47. Which among the following was not a Democratic-Republican during our nation’s first party system?
a. Alexander Hamilton
b. Thomas Jefferson
c. James Madison
d. James Monroe
e. None of the above; all were Democratic-Republicans
48. Andrew Jackson was the first president identified as a(n)
a. Independent.
b. Democrat.
c. Republican.
d. Democratic-Republican.
e. Whig.
49. In the second party system in United States history, the election contests were between which two major parties?
a. Democrats and Whigs
b. Democrats and Republicans
c. Federalists and Whigs
d. Republicans and Whigs
e. Federalists and Anti-Federalists
50. During the second party system in United States history, Martin Van Buren argued that
a. political parties were harming the country because they promoted factionalism, petty bickering, and disunity.
b. the Whigs should be the sole party, as they were the only legitimate representatives of the people.
c. the Democrats should be the sole party, as they were the only legitimate representatives of the people.
d. the Republicans should be the sole party, as they were the only legitimate representatives of the people.
e. a governing party needed a loyal opposition party to represent parts of society that it could not.
51. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Andrew Jackson founded the modern American political party.
b. Jackson was initially a Democratic-Republican, but his party became known as the Democratic Party soon after he became president.
c. Jackson’s causes included broadening political opportunity for average citizens.
d. Jackson was an especially charismatic leader.
e. All of the above.
52. The Whig party
a. was named after the wigs that the early aristocrats such as George Washington wore.
b. dominated the second American party era between 1828 and 1856.
c. forged a coalition of westerners, southerners, and new immigrants.
d. believed in broadening political opportunity, eliminating vestiges of elitism, and mobilizing the masses.
e. was only able to win the presidency when it nominated aging, but popular, military heroes.
53. Which of the following contributed to the emergence of the Republican Party in the 1850s?
a. Increasing divisions of slavery, which split the Whigs and Democrats.
b. Public reaction to Dred Scott v. Sandford.
c. Divisions in Congress regarding the extension of slavery to new states and territories.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
54. The Republican party began as the
a. party of big business interests.
b. principal anti-slavery party.
c. principal pro-slavery party.
d. party of states’ rights and silver money.
e. party of the New Deal.
55. The Republicans had a long period as the country’s dominant majority party, which ended
a. in 1992.
b. in 1980.
c. with the Civil War.
d. in 1932.
e. in 1896.
56. What was the issue that brought the Democrats to power in 1932?
a. The Great Depression
b. World War I
c. Slavery
d. Silver Coinage
e. Vietnam
57. The New Deal coalition made the ________ party the minority party for decades.
a. Socialist
b. Federalist
c. Whig
d. Republican
e. Democratic
58. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. African Americans identify overwhelmingly identify with the Democratic Party.
b. Jews identify overwhelmingly identify with the Republican Party.
c. Most White Evangelicals identify with the Republican Party.
d. A majority of Americans age 65 and older identify with the Democratic Party.
e. A majority of Americans under the age of 30 identify with the Democratic Party.
59. Which of the following statements about the coalitions of the two major parties is FALSE?
a. A majority of Hispanic voters identify as Democrats.
b. A majority of women identify as Republicans.
c. A majority of men identify as Republicans.
d. A majority of older Americans over the age of 65 identify as Democrats.
e. A majority of young Americans under the age of 30 identify as Democrats.
60. Which president’s policy program was called the New Frontier?
a. John F. Kennedy
b. Richard Nixon
c. Lyndon Johnson
d. Franklin D. Roosevelt
e. Ronald Reagan
61. In elections since 1968,
a. the Democrats have dominated both the presidency and the Congress.
b. the Republicans have dominated both the presidency and the Congress.
c. party control of both Congress and the presidency has shifted from one party to the other at least every other election.
d. the Democrats have dominated the presidency, while the Republicans have dominated Congress.
e. the Republicans have dominated the presidency, while the Democrats have dominated the Congress.
62. In 1968 the Democratic party was torn apart over
a. the failure of President Johnson’s War on Poverty.
b. the sudden evaporation of the New Deal coalition.
c. the abandonment of the Democratic party by African Americans.
d. President Johnson’s Vietnam War policies.
e. the severity of the mid-60’s recession.
63. What was the major factor that led to the Democrats’ loss of power in 1968?
a. President Johnson’s Vietnam policies.
b. The assassination of JFK.
c. The beginning of the Cold War.
d. The end of World War II.
e. The Civil Rights Movement.
64. What sort of realignment has occurred in the current party era?
a. a Southern realignment
b. a rural/urban realignment
c. a cultural realignment
d. an entire realignment
e. an age-based realignment
65. When one party controls the White House and the other party controls one or both houses of Congress, it is known as
a. divided party government.
b. a critical election.
c. a party realignment.
d. a coalition.
e. the three headed political giant.
66. Which of the following is among the most important widespread political changes that have occurred over the past generation?
a. A partisan realignment in the South, shifting a majority of congressional seats from the South to the Republicans.
b. A partisan realignment in the South, shifting a majority of congressional seats to Democrats.
c. A partisan realignment in the South, in which a majority of congressional seats are now identified as Independent, that is, neither Democratic nor Republican.
d. A party dealignment, marked by drastically lower voting participation rates than in earlier decades.
e. The declining relevance of the South in national politics.
67. Party dealignment is evidenced by
a. the 1992 election of a president and Congress of the same party.
b. the recent pattern of one-party control.
c. a renewed commitment to America’s two major political parties.
d. the recent pattern of divided government.
e. the Republican takeover of Congress in 1994.
68. Loyalty to a political party has ________ over the past thirty years.
a. increased slightly
b. increased significantly
c. decreased
d. remained about the same
e. virtually disappeared
69. Over the past thirty years, there has been a marked rise in
a. support for both the major and minor parties.
b. support for the Democratic party.
c. support for both the Democratic and Republican parties.
d. support for minor parties.
e. people unaffiliated with either party.
70. In 2000, Green party candidate Ralph Nader forced more attention on ________ issues and drew away a small percentage of votes from Al Gore.
a. budgetary
b. environmental
c. health
d. national security
e. welfare
71. An example of a splinter party would be
a. the Prohibitionist party.
b. the Poor Man’s party of 1952.
c. the Libertarian party.
d. Ross Perot’s United We Stand.
e. George Wallace’s American Independents.
72. Which of the following is not or was NOT a third party?
a. The Progressive Party
b. The States’ Righters Party
c. The American Independents Party
d. The Green Party
e. None of the above; all were third parties.
73. Which third party ultimately cost Al Gore the presidency in 2000?
a. The Green Party
b. The Free Soilers
c. The Progressive Party
d. The Populist Party
e. The American Independents
74. The American two-party system promotes
a. the organization of political parties around special interests.
b. the weakness of centrist positions on policy issues.
c. moderation in conflict and ambiguous policy positions.
d. greater conflict, but clear policy choices.
e. competitive elections.
75. The primary consequence of a two party system is
a. moderation of political conflict.
b. excess of political conflict.
c. clear and strong stands on the part of the parties.
d. promotion of unconventional views.
e. all of the above
76. Advocates of the ________ believe that parties should present distinct, comprehensive programs for governing the nation and carry them out.
a. differentiation approach
b. McGovern-Fraser Commission
c. responsible party model
d. rational-choice theory
e. party realignment
77. Which of these is NOT part of the responsible party model?
a. The minority party must promote the majority party’s platform.
b. The parties must present distinct, comprehensive programs for governing the nation.
c. Each party’s candidate must be committed to its program and have the discipline to carry it out.
d. The majority party must implement its programs.
e. The majority party must accept responsibility for the performance of the government.
8.2 - The questions in this section also appear in the student Study Guide available with the textbook.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Political party is
a. less interested in winning elections than in particular public policy.
b. a group of people who agree on everything and organize annually to win elections.
c. a narrow interest group seeking advantage through elections.
d. a team of men and women with similar beliefs seeking legitimate control of the government through elections.
e. an organization devoted to implementing policy in the public interest.
2. Which of the following do you need to do to become a Republican or Democrat?
a. Formally join the party.
b. Prove that you’ve voted for the party.
c. Add your name to a mailing list.
d. Give money.
e. All you need to do is believe that you belong to the party of your choice.
3. Rational-choice theory asserts that
a. the parties should not be expected to differentiate themselves in any way.
b. more extremist party positions give the public a sense that things can really be changed, and usually win elections.
c. the wise party selects policies in which it truly believes, and gives the voters a chance to vote them up or down on principle.
d. the wise party selects policies that are widely favored.
e. none of the above
4. In 2004, Americans were most likely to consider themselves ________, and least likely to consider themselves ________.
a. Independents; Democrats
b. Republicans; Democrats
c. Independents; Republicans
d. Democrats; Independents
e. Democrats; Republicans
5. Which of the following is evident in Figure 8.2?
a. The number of people identifying as Democrats has declined since 1952.
b. The number of people identifying as Republicans has remained fairly stable since 1952.
c. The number of people identifying as Independents has increased since 1952.
d. a, b, and c.
e. There has been little change in Americans’ party identification since 1952.
6. Voting with one party for one office and the other party for another office is know as
a. ticket splitting
b. treason.
c. party competition.
d. party identification.
e. a rational choice.
7. Power in the major United States political parties is
a. fragmented among local, state, and national party organizations.
b. concentrated in the state parties, with national and local organizations playing only minor roles.
c. hierarchically distributed from the national to local levels.
d. centralized in national party organizations.
e. concentrated in party machines at the local level.
8. From the late-nineteenth century through the New Deal years, many of America’s largest cities were dominated by
a. party machines.
b. the Socialist party.
c. the Communist party.
d. mayors who refused to allow elections.
e. super delegates who controlled everything.
9. What are patronage jobs?
a. Jobs given for political reasons rather than for merit or competence.
b. Jobs in the national convention.
c. Jobs given on the basis of merit rather than for political reasons.
d. A description of anyone who worked in the Daley administration in Chicago.
e. Jobs with managed volunteers.
10. In blanket primaries,
a. voters may choose on election day which party primary they want to participate in.
b. only voters who have registered in advance with the party can vote.
c. voters may vote for candidates from either party.
d. voters may vote for multiple candidates.
e. none of the above
11. The chairperson of the party that controls the White House is normally selected by
a. members of the party in Congress.
b. a committee of state chairpersons.
c. the president.
d. closed primary.
e. none of the above
12. The policy positions stated in party platforms are
a. of some importance because they are unambiguous statements of where a party stands.
b. intended to get a candidate elected, not to be implemented.
c. of little importance because only 10 to 25 percent of the positions are acted upon by government.
d. very important because nearly three-fourths of them result in policy action when the party is in power.
e. never important because less than one-third of them result in policy action when the party is in power.
13. The last Federalist president was
a. Alexander Hamilton.
b. John Adams.
c. Andrew Jackson.
d. Abraham Lincoln.
e. Thomas Jefferson.
14. The debate between the gold standard and free silver occurred during which time period?
a. 1860-1928
b. 1968-present
c. 1796-1824
d. 1932-1964
e. 1828-1856
15. The New Deal coalition was responsible for electing and reelecting
a. Socialist party candidates.
b. Democrats.
c. Republicans.
d. Whigs.
e. Democratic-Republicans.
16. Which of the following was NOT part of Nixon’s “Southern Strategy”
a. Emphasizing states’ rights.
b. Emphasizing law and order.
c. Emphasizing a strong military posture.
d. Breaking the Democrat’s long-hold over Southern Conservatives.
e. Overturning Brown v. Board of Education.
17. From 1968 to 1992,
a. the Republicans dominated the presidency while the Democrats dominated Congress.
b. a realignment occurred that destroyed the New Deal coalition.
c. the Republicans became the majority party.
d. the Republicans dominated the federal government while the Democrats dominated state governments.
e. the Democrats experienced a slow, “creeping ascendance” that culminated in their gaining control of the entire government with the election of Bill Clinton.
18. The “responsible party” model holds that parties should
a. not use wedge issues that cause the other party’s supporters to fight with each other during the campaign.
b. avoid making promises.
c. keep to middle-of-the-road positions.
d. present clear alternatives to voters.
e. avoid ideological stands.
19. The key problem with parties today is
a. that the parties are no longer the main source of political information, attention, and affection.
b. their decentralized structure.
c. their inability to acquire adequate funding.
d. their inability to formulate coherent policy.
e. their reliance on the winner-take-all system.
8.3 - These questions also appear in MyPoliSciLab, the Website that accompanies the textbook.
Pre-Test
Multiple Choice Questions
1. What was especially notable about the congressional elections of 1994?
a. The Republicans took control of the House of Representatives after 40 years of Democratic control.
b. The Democrats won control of the House of Representatives after 12 years of Republican control.
c. A record number of women were elected to Congress.
d. A record number of African Americans were elected to Congress.
e. Both c and d.
2. Who said, “If I could not go to heaven but with a party, I would not go there at all”?
a. Thomas Jefferson
b. Benjamin Franklin
c. George Washington
d. George Bush
e. Bill Clinton
3. What is required for membership in an American political party?
a. An annual membership fee.
b. A commitment to a minimum of two years of volunteer work on behalf of the party.
c. A member card, identifying you as a member of the party.
d. Nothing is required other than a claim to be a member.
e. a, b, and c.
4. Which of the following is or was NOT a political party?
a. National Rifle Association
b. Republicans
c. Democrats
d. Whigs
e. Greens
5. The key spokespersons for political parties come from which of its major components?
a. the party-in-the-electorate
b. the party as an organization
c. the party-out-of-power
d. the leaders-of-the-party-organization
e. the party-in-government
6. Political parties perform all of the following tasks EXCEPT
a. pick policymakers and run campaigns.
b. enforce rigid adherence to their policy positions.
c. advocate public policies.
d. coordinate policymaking.
e. give cues to voters.
7. Compared to 1952, recent polls on party identification have shown that
a. more people today identify themselves as Democrats.
b. there are more Independents than there are Democrats or Republicans.
c. the percentage of Democrats has increased only slightly, while the percentage of Republicans has declined.
d. both the percentages of both Democrats and Republicans in the country have increased.
e. none of the above
8. Voters’ perceptions of what the Republican and Democratic parties stand for refer to
a. party identification
b. party-in-the-electorate
c. party image
d. ideology
e. partisanship
9. Ticket-splitting refers to
a. switching membership in political parties.
b. the procedure used to conduct computerized, automated vote counting.
c. voting with one party in one presidential election, and another party in the next presidential election.
d. voting for one party for one office, and another party for other offices.
e. voting for a party other than the one you identify with.
10. In terms of organizational structure, American political parties are
a. organized more by regions of the country than at the state or national level.
b. decentralized and fragmented.
c. tightly controlled organisms that exert tremendous control over candidates.
d. operated on the principle of democratic centralism: Local and state organizations control the national organizations.
e. centralized and hierarchical.
11. _____ was once the main political party organization in America.
a. The urban political party
b. Patronage
c. The national convention
d. The coalition
e. The critical election
12. At one time, urban party machines depended heavily on
a. ethnic support groups.
b. national committees.
c. other cities
d. states
e. the United States President.
13. In open primaries,
a. voters may choose on election day whether they want to participate in the Democratic or Republican contests.
b. voters may vote for candidates from either party.
c. only voters who have registered in advance with the party can vote.
d. voters may vote for multiple candidates.
e. none of the above
14. What is the primary duty of the national party chairperson?
a. Hiring staff
b. Raising money
c. Paying bills
d. Attending to the daily duties of the party.
e. All of the above.
15. Every political party depends upon a ________ , meaning a set of individuals or groups supporting it.
a. system of patronage
b. coalition
c. set of super delegates
d. power base
e. linkage institution
16. Which of the following statements about party positions, as detailed in the Republican and Democratic 2008 Party Platforms, are FALSE?
a. Republicans believe at unborn children have a fundamental right to life; Democrats support a woman’s right to choose.
b. Republicans support greater federal involvement in education and and more federal funding for teacher pay; Democrats believe in more state and local control over education by shifting more federal funding to block grants..
c. Republicans oppose tax hikes; Democrats believe in increased taxes for families making more than $250,000.
d. Republicans support the Defense of Marriage Act; Democrats oppose the Defense of Marriage Act.
e. Republicans believe in keeping American forces in Iraq until victory; Democrats favor ending the war in Iraq and removing combat brigades within 16 months.
17. Which of the following statements about party realignment is FALSE?
a. Party realignments are typically associated with a major crisis or trauma.
b. Party realignments were associated with the Civil War and with the Great Depression.
c. Party realignments transform the party system.
d. Party realignment involves a reconfiguration of the demographic groups supporting the parties.
e. Party realignments occur often in American political life.
18. Critical elections result in the
a. widespread public questioning of the American election process accompanied by calls for its reform.
b. displacement of the minority party by the majority party.
c. formation of new political parties.
d. successful bid by a third political party.
e. formation of new coalitions for each political party.
19. The Democratic-Republicans were also known as the
a. Jeffersonians.
b. Madisonians.
c. Whigs.
d. Federalists.
e. Hamiltonians.
20. The Republicans emerged as a powerful political party in the
a. 1890s.
b. 1790s.
c. 1930s.
d. 1850s.
e. 1820s.
21. The election of 1896 is considered a watershed because it
a. entrenched western farmers and silverites in the Republican party.
b. shifted the party coalitions and entrenched the Republicans in power for another generation.
c. gave Republicans control of the South.
d. marked the rise of the Populist party, which dominated American politics until the Depression.
e. brought the industrial working classes and Wall Street interests together into the Democratic fold.
22. The Republicans lost the election of 1932 primarily due to
a. the nomination of a popular war hero by the Democrats.
b. Hitler’s election as chancellor of Germany and the Republicans’ failure to prevent it.
c. rising political and economic instability in Europe.
d. the failure of the Republicans to hold onto the support of urban industrialists.
e. President Herbert Hoover’s handling of the Depression.
23. Which of the following groups was NOT part of the New Deal coalition?
a. African Americans
b. Southerners
c. members of labor unions
d. wealthy New Englanders
e. Catholics and Jews
24. What was Nixon’s “Southern Strategy”?
a. By winning over Southern conservatives on states’ rights, law and order, and a strong military posture, Nixon hoped to break the Democratic Party’s dominance in the South.
b. His focus on law and order appealed to everyone except Southern voters who he didn’t see as necessary to win an election.
c. In a last gasp of the party machine, Nixon promised positions throughout his administration to Southern supporters.
d. Nixon’s civil rights record appealed to Southern Blacks and he leveraged this for their support.
e. Nixon spent most of his time campaigning in the South.
25. Ross Perot’s candidacies for president in 1992 and 1996 were an example of what type of third-party campaign?
a. A split-level party
b. A party espousing an extreme ideological position
c. A splinter party
d. A party serving as an extension of one individual’s candidacy
e. None of the above
26. In many other democracies, the system of awarding seats in the national legislature, unlike in the United States, is one of
a. single-member districts.
b. intellectual merit alone.
c. winner-take-all.
d. virtual representation.
e. proportional representation.
27. In what way do weak political parties affect the scope of government?
a. They make it difficult for politicians to help their constituents.
b. They allow presidents to expand the scope of foreign policy, while they decrease the domestic scope of government.
c. Being weak, they are unable to counteract the power of government so the scope of government grows.
d. Since it is harder for them to enact legislation, it is hard for them to either expand or decrease the scope of government.
e. They have had no real effect on the size and power of government.
Post-Test
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The Democrats won control of the House of Representatives in 2006 after 12 years of being in the minority.
b. The Republicans won control of the House of Representatives in 2006 after 12 years of being in the minority.
c. The Republicans took control of the House of Representatives in 1994 after 40 years of Democratic control.
d. Both a and c.
e. None of the above.
2. In the description of political parties as “three-headed political giants,” which of the following is NOT considered one of those three heads?
a. the party-in-government
b. the party-out-of-power
c. the party-in-the-electorate
d. the party as an organization
e. none of the above
3. Which of the following is TRUE of political parties in the United States?
a. To be a member of a party, all you have to do is claim to be one.
b. Parties require dues.
c. They are more powerful than their European counterparts.
d. Parties issue membership cards to all members.
e. Party members agree on all major issues or they will be expelled from the party.
4. As ________, political parties serve the role of translating inputs from the public into outputs from policymakers.
a. coalitions
b. superdelegates
c. political converters
d. machines
e. linkage institutions
5. Which of the following can be concluded from Figure 8.1?
a. A majority of Americans place themselves in the middle, between extreme liberal or conservative views.
b. Most Americans are extremely liberal.
c. Most Americans are extremely conservative.
d. A majority of Americans place themselves somewhere between perceptions of the Democratic and Republican parties.
e. Both a and d.
6. Which group is most likely to engage in ticket splitting?
a. Democrats
b. Republicans
c. Independents
d. Northeasterners
e. Southerners
7. Americans over the age of 65 are
a. More likely to identify as Republicans than as Democrats.
b. More likely to identify as Democrats than as Republicans.
c. More likely than are young Americans, age 18 to 24, to identify as Independents.
d. Less likely than are young Americans, age 18 to 24, to identify as Independents.
e. Both b and d.
8. Patronage
a. is commonly used by political parties today.
b. is an incentive given by national party offices.
c. is the deference that elected officials give to their campaign contributors in making policy decisions.
d. is based on merit and competence.
e. was an inducement of jobs and financial rewards given for political reasons by party machines.
9. Closed primaries
a. depress voter turnout.
b. encourage party loyalty.
c. discourage party loyalty.
d. cost less than open primaries.
e. have fewer undercounts.
10. Keeping the party operating between conventions is the job of the
a. national committee.
b. regional offices.
c. elected officials.
d. congressional leadership.
e. majority or minority whip.
11. Who among the following was NOT a national party chairperson?
a. Bob Dole
b. George H. W. Bush
c. Howard Dean
d. Bill Clinton
e. None of the above; all were party chairpersons.
12. Gerald Pomper’s research on party platforms has shown that
a. in general, the president’s party has fulfilled three-fourths of its promises in the form of policy action.
b. about 10% of the president’s party promises were ignored altogether.
c. party platforms are excellent predictors of a party’s actual performance in office.
d. both a and b.
e. all of the above.
13. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. America has always had a two-party system.
b. Minor party candidates rarely have a chance of winning major office.
c. Most other democratic nations have multi-party system.
d. A majority of voters in the US identify with the party in power, making it easier for this party to win a majority of the elections.
e. All of the above.
14. A party era refers to
a. a period of history in which there is one dominant majority party that wins most elections.
b. the period between two elections, during which the two parties are assessed as to how powerful they are relative to each other.
c. a period of years during which a party is born and begins to run candidates for office.
d. the life span of a party from its beginning to end (e.g., the Whigs).
e. a period of time during which there is one dominant majority party that wins all elections.
15. Realignments are typically associated with
a. a major reorganization of the executive branch.
b. the creation of new states.
c. one party winning the presidency while the other controls Congress.
d. a major crisis or trauma in the nation.
e. changes in election laws.
16. At the beginning of party development in the United States,
a. parties tried to defeat each other in elections.
b. there were many small parties, each representing a narrow interest.
c. we had a one-party system where one powerful party dominated the government and blocked the creation of new parties.
d. parties sought to destroy each other.
e. parties were merely the personal following of certain charismatic individuals.
17. The election of 1828 that brought Andrew Jackson to the presidency was significant because it
a. began the ascendancy of the New Deal coalition around the Democratic party.
b. marked the rise of the Whigs.
c. was the first time the Republican party controlled Congress.
d. forged a new political coalition.
e. marked the beginning of the dominance of northern industrialists.
18. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. The Republicans ruled for 60 years after the Civil War.
b. Abraham Lincoln was a Republican.
c. After the Civil War, the South was controlled by the Democratic Party; the northeast by the Republican Party.
d. After the Civil War, the South was controlled by the Republican Party; the northeast by the Democratic Party.
e. b and d.
19. Who was described by The New York Tribune as “in league with the devil” in the 1896 presidential election?
a. William Jennings Bryan
b. Abraham Lincoln
c. Hannibal Hamlin
d. William McKinley
e. Dred Scott
20. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the New Deal coalition?
a. Roosevelt was the first president to enthusiastically support unions and, as a result, he earned their support.
b. The New Deal coalition did little to win the support of Jews and Catholics.
c. Large cities, such as Philadelphia and Chicago became bastions of Democratic support during the New Deal.
d. A majority of African Americans supported FDR and the Democrats even those their loyalties historically had been with the Republicans.
e. Poor voters overwhelmingly supported FDR.
21. Between the 1930s and the 1960s, people attracted to the Democratic party included
a. Protestants and Jews.
b. urban working classes and intellectuals.
c. northerners and the rich.
d. farmers and rural dwellers.
e. the college-educated and business owners.
22. Who was the first president of the twentieth century to move into the White House without his party having control of both houses of Congress?
a. Richard Nixon
b. Franklin Roosevelt
c. Bill Clinton
d. George W. Bush
e. John F. Kennedy
23. According to political scientist researcher Morris Fiorina
a. The percentage of states with unified party control of the governorship and state legislature has increased over the past 60 years.
b. The percentage of states with unified party control of the governorship and state legislature has decreased over the past 60 years.
c. The increasing number of states with divided party control may be reflective of partisan dealignment.
d. The increasing number of states with divided party control may be reflective of second Republican realignment.
e. Both c and d.
24. Which of the following is TRUE about most third-party campaigns in American history?
a. They almost never win office.
b. They succeed about 25 percent of the time.
c. They usually become major political parties over time.
d. They have been most successful at promoting party dealignment.
e. They frequently are successful.
25. The weakening of party control over American politics
a. is in part due to the increasing influence of the media.
b. is leading to a multiparty system in this country.
c. threatens democracy.
d. threatens the very existence of political parties.
e. leads to fewer differences between party platforms.
Chapter Exam
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The “Contract with America” refers to
a. Republican promises for reform following the 1994 GOP takeover of the House.
b. Democratic promises for reform following the 2006 takeover of the House.
c. The brainchild of Dick Armey and Newt Gingrich.
d. An attempt on the part of Republicans to offer Americans a positive program for reshaping policy and reforming how Congress works.
e. a, c, and d.
2. The largest segment of an American political party is described as
a. the party-out-of-power.
b. the party-in-the-electorate.
c. the party-in-government.
d. the party volunteers.
e. the party organization.
3. Linkage institutions
a. help link the three branches of government together to achieve coherent policies.
b. are used to implement public policies.
c. link political parties to the government.
d. translate inputs from the public into outputs from the policymakers.
e. link the president to members of his/her party in Congress, so they can coordinate their policies in government.
4. The upsurge of partisan independence among Americans since 1952
a. has come mostly at the expense of the Republicans.
b. has not harmed either party.
c. has come mostly at the expense of the Democrats.
d. has occurred mostly among minor party identifiers.
e. has harmed both parties equally.
5. Party machines in large cities relied primarily on ________ to reward friends and punish enemies.
a. local judges
b. patronage
c. city police departments
d. the civil service merit system
e. third parties
6. In closed primaries,
a. voters may vote for candidates from either party.
b. voters may choose on election day which party primary they want to participate in.
c. only voters who have registered in advance with the party can vote.
d. voters may vote for multiple candidates.
e. none of the above
7. Which is primarily responsible for crafting the political party’s platform and for formally nominating its candidates for president and vice president?
a. National convention
b. National committee
c. Party-in-the-electorate
d. Party-in-government
e. Primary committee.
8. Which of the following are indications of a critical election?
a. Existing fissures in political party coalitions begin to fracture.
b. New issues appear and divide the electorate in new ways.
c. Parties form new, enduring coalitions.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
9. The first party system (1796-1824) was characterized by
a. professional politicians running for office.
b. the dominance of the presidency by the Federalist party.
c. the dominance of the Republican party.
d. the dominance of the northern capitalist states.
e. the dominance of the Democratic-Republican party.
10. The Depression of the 1930s gave rise to what is called
a. econo-politics.
b. party competition.
c. the Era of Divided Government.
d. the New Deal coalition.
e. the Republican resurgence.
11. Since 1968, American politics has been characterized by
a. divided government.
b. the New Deal coalition.
c. Republican control of both the Congress and presidency.
d. Democratic control of the presidency and Republican control of Congress.
e. Democratic control of both the Congress and presidency.
12. People gradually moving away from both parties is referred to as
a. partisan drift.
b. coalition politics.
c. realignment.
d. dealignment.
e. alignment.
13. Which of the following statements about third parties in the United States is FALSE?
a. Third parties often bring new issues to the political agenda.
b. Third parties are a rare phenomena in American history.
c. Third parties have brought new groups into the electorate.
d. Third-party candidates almost never win office in the United States.
e. Third parties have had important effects on American politics.
14. Who among the following did NOT run as a third party candidate?
a. David Duke
b. Ralph Nader
c. Ross Perot
d. Teddy Roosevelt
e. George Wallace
15. Why is the responsible party model an ideal model for political parties, according to the model’s advocates?
a. In a democracy, candidates say what they mean to do if elected and, once elected, office holders should do what they promised to do.
b. The responsible party model restricts the political terrain to two parties.
c. A two party system that operates according to the responsible party model makes it more difficult to convert policy promises into governmental policy.
d. Party members would be individually responsible for their actions.
e. Both a and b.
Chapter 10 – Interest Groups
__________________________________________________________
10.1 - The questions in this section appear only in this printed Test Bank and in the Computerized Test Bank.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. While turnout in elections has generally declined since 1960, participation in interest groups has increased dramatically.
b. Just as turnout in elections has generally declined since 1960, so too has participation in interest groups declined.
c. The openness of the American political system encourages interest groups.
d. The National Rifle Association (NRA) is an example of a prominent interest group.
e. Organizing to promote interests is an essential part of democracy.
2. American political parties differ from interest groups in that parties
a. are policy specialists.
b. are policy generalists.
c. are policy-driven.
d. do not take positions on policy issues.
e. have a narrower scope than interest groups.
3. One of the main differences between American political parties and interest groups is that
a. interest groups are concerned with more issues.
b. interest groups concentrate on only one policy arena.
c. political parties run candidates for office.
d. interest groups limit their membership.
e. political parties are policy specialists.
4. Pluralism is a(n) ______ theory of politics.
a. elite
b. group
c. individual
d. liberal
e. rational
5. The pluralist theory of American politics maintains that
a. the extensive organization of competing groups is evidence that influence is widely dispersed among them.
b. the proliferation of interest groups results in political stagnation.
c. the largest interest groups will come to dominate policymaking.
d. although groups often do not play by the rules of the game, they do represent the American public at large.
e. the slogan on our money, e pluribus unum, is accurate in the sense that out of the many competing groups in America, a single unified American purpose has been forged.
6. A pluralistic interpretation of interest group politics would maintain that
a. all groups are subject to corrupt practices and tactics involving violence.
b. the degree of organization of a group has no effect on its ability to influence policy.
c. all legitimate groups can affect public policy by means of one political resource or another.
d. when groups compete the public interest is not served.
e. the overemphasis on groups in America has submerged the value of the individual and lead to government policies that suppress individual interests.
7. The idea that interest group activity brings representation to all is associated with
a. elite theory.
b. pluralist theory.
c. hyperpluralist theory.
d. democratic theory.
e. republicanism.
8. The idea that just a few groups have all the power is associated with
a. elite theory.
b. pluralist theory.
c. hyperpluralist theory.
d. democratic theory.
e. syndicalism.
9. A theory of government and politics contending that societies are divided among classes and that an upper class elite rules is called
a. elite theory
b. liberalism
c. republicanism
d. hyperpluralism
e. pluralism
10. The presence and power of multinational corporations in policymaking illustrates
a. elite theory.
b. pluralist theory.
c. hyperpluralist theory.
d. democratic theory.
e. global unity theory.
11. Elite theorists emphasize the power of
a. subgovernments.
b. business leaders.
c. congressional staff members.
d. public interest lobbies.
e. presidents.
12. Elitist views of interest groups emphasize that
a. groups are essentially equal in their power and thus cancel each others' influence on policymakers.
b. a system of interlocking directorates reinforces the power of the few dominant groups.
c. group competition weakens the ability of any one group to dominate.
d. because there are so many groups, their effect on policy is insignificant.
e. the leaders of powerful interest groups tend to think they are superior to the average citizen and thus they demand special privileges from government not accorded the rest of society in order to maintain themselves as a privileged elite.
13. Elite theory suggest that
a. power is held by large corporations.
b. the concentration of power in the hands of the few disproves pluralist theory.
c. America’s oil companies are a prime example of the power of multinational corporations.
d. honest lobbying is a problem because it benefits the few at the expense of the many.
e. all of the above.
14. Proponents of the elite theory of politics would argue that the interest group with the most power consists of
a. economic interests.
b. the middle class.
c. energy and environmental groups.
d. consumer and public interest lobbies.
e. labor unions.
15. Interest group liberalism is associated with which of the following criticisms?
a. In an effort to please and appease every interest, agencies proliferate, conflicting regulations expand, programs multiply, and the budgets skyrocket.
b. Real power is held by relatively few people, key groups, and institutions that get nearly all they want from government.
c. Interest groups win some and lose some, but no group wins or loses all the time, and democratic government is well served by their competition.
d. The framers of the Constitution intended that groups serve to bargain for various interests in American society, and this has proven a wise and relatively fair, open system.
e. The interest group system is dominated by liberal interest groups who have been successfully pushing an agenda that has made it hard for the police to fight crime, contributed to declining moral values and bankrupted the government with giveaways to welfare receipients.
16. Another term for subgovernment is
a. iron triangle.
b. interest group.
c. multinational corporation.
d. faction.
e. political party.
17. The criticism that government refuses to make tough choices between X or Y, instead pretending there is no need to choose and trying to favor both is most often made by ________ theorists.
a. pluralist
b. hyperpluralist
c. elitist
d. hyperelitist
e. rational choice
18. The idea that too many groups are getting too much of what they want is associated with
a. elite theory.
b. pluralist theory.
c. hyperpluralist theory.
d. democratic theory.
e. proliferation theory.
19. Interest group liberalism refers to
a. government freedom to favor some interest groups over others.
b. government's excessive deference to interest groups.
c. the liberal political ideology of most interest groups.
d. the proliferation of the number of interest groups.
e. the strong tendency of interest groups to back the Democratic party and not the Republican party and that keeps the Democratic party in power.
20. All subgovernments have the same goal of
a. protecting the public interest.
b. attacking the government head-on.
c. protecting their self-interest.
d. electing the most qualified people to office.
e. to join the main government.
21. The hyperpluralist complaint that interest group politics create subgovernments refers to
a. the cooperative efforts of interest groups and government to promote groups’ interests.
b. the power of interest groups in determining government policies.
c. the overwhelming influence of interest groups in local governments.
d. the use of paid lobbyists on congressional committees and subcommittees.
e. the network of groups within the American political system that continually work against each other.
22. A hyperpluralist interpretation of group politics would maintain that
a. groups weak in one resource can substitute other resources to influence policy decisions.
b. groups have become so powerful that government ends up aiding every possible interest.
c. the fact that there are numerous groups proves nothing, because groups are unequal in power.
d. groups provide a key linkage between people and government.
e. All of these are true.
23. The network comprised by the Retail Tobacco distributes of America the Department of Agriculture, and the House Tobacco Subcommittee are an example of an
a. iron triangle.
b. subgovernment.
c. a or b.
d. interest group.
e. multinational corporation.
24. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Smaller interest groups are more likely to achieve their goals than are larger interest groups.
b. Less intensive groups are more likely to achieve their goals than are more intensive groups.
c. Size matters not in the success of interest groups.
d. Financial resources make little difference in the success of interest groups.
e. All of the above.
25. The problem faced by groups when people do not join because they can benefit from the group’s activity even within joining is called the ________ problem.
a. free-rider
b. single-interest
c. pluralist
d. hyperpluralist
e. perennial
26. The free-rider problem refers to the difficulty with which
a. large groups have in activating all their potential members.
b. single-issue groups have when another problem is added to their agenda.
c. actual groups have in collecting dues from members.
d. small groups face in raising enough money to influence policy.
e. potential groups try to receive their share in collective goods.
27. Which of the following matters could NOT be explained by Mancur Olson’s law of large groups?
a. The problems of public interest lobbies.
b. Why small groups are easier to organize.
c. Why large groups are less effective than small groups.
d. The successes of the Consumers Union.
e. Why potential members have incentives to free-rider.
28. According to Olson's Law of Large Groups,
a. the larger the group, the further it will fall short of providing an optimal amount of a collective good.
b. the smaller the group, the further it will fall short of providing an optimal amount of a collective good.
c. the more levels of authority within a group, the more faith its members will have in it.
d. the more levels of authority within a group, the less faith its members will have in it.
e. the larger the group, the more likely it is to win.
29. Consumer organizations suffer from
a. elite dominance.
b. class action suits.
c. Olson's Law of Large Groups.
d. right-to-work laws.
e. hyperpluralism.
30. Which of the following groups has the largest potential membership?
a. National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
b. National Organization for Women
c. American Medical Association
d. Air Transport Association of America
e. American Political Science Association
31. Which of the following groups most likely claims the smallest share of its potential members?
a. National Consumers League
b. United States Savings and Loan League
c. Tobacco Institute
d. Air Transport Association
e. American Medical Association
32. A "collective good" refers to
a. goods and services that are publicly owned.
b. benefits that accrue to the group that sought them.
c. something of value that benefits both the actual and potential members of a group.
d. a public policy that is in the public interest.
e. goods and services collected for the needy.
33. An example of a collective good is
a. food.
b. employment.
c. clean air.
d. housing.
e. all of the above
34. An advantage for small groups is that
a. free-riders can be forced out of the organization, creating more unity.
b. it is easier to reconcile divergent interests in small groups.
c. there is more at stake for each member, making it easier to organize and activate all members.
d. collective goods do not have to share with the big interests.
e. they are able to "hide" in the political process so that opposing groups are not able to organize against them.
35. Selective benefits refer to
a. goods that the government distributes to interest groups.
b. goods that interest groups distribute to the government
c. goods that a group can restrict to those who pay membership dues or otherwise join an organization.
d. goods that interest groups distribute to the wider society.
e. goods, such as membership fees, that individual members distribute to interest groups.
36. The primary way that large groups overcome Olson’s law is through
a. mandatory membership.
b. reducing membership fees.
c. selective benefits.
d. centralizing.
e. decentralizing.
37. Goods such as publications, discounts, and group insurance rates are examples of
a. selective benefits.
b. free-riders.
c. collective goods.
d. subgovernments.
e. membership requirements.
38. In the context of the study of interest groups, “intensity” refers to
a. a psychological advantage that can be enjoyed by small and large groups alike.
b. another way a large potential group can be mobilized.
c. a collective good.
d. a free-rider.
e. a and b.
39. A group with a narrow interest that dislikes compromise and single-mindedly pursues it own goal is a(n)
a. single-issue group.
b. free-rider.
c. political party.
d. iron triangle.
e. subgovernment.
40. “A communication, by someone other than a citizen acting on his own behalf, directed to a governmental decision maker with the hope of influencing his decision” is called
a. litigating.
b. electioneering.
c. lobbying.
d. free-riding.
e. collecting benefits.
41. One of the major indictments of the American interest group system is that it
a. provides too much representation.
b. distracts government officials.
c. is biased toward the wealthy.
d. stifles the expression of new interests.
e. is dominated by single-issue groups.
42. The historic Tax Reform Act of 1986 is a good example of
a. the fact that big interests usually win in American politics.
b. the fact that big interest don’t always win in American politics.
c. how difficult it is for large groups to provide an optimal level of a collective good.
d. how easy it can be for groups to overcome the free-rider problem through selective benefits.
e. the power of single issue groups.
43. The law regulating whether an organization or firm should register their employees as lobbyists is the
a. Lobbying Disclosure Act of 1995.
b. Communications Act of 2000.
c. U.S. Senate Secretary’s Registry of Lobbyists.
d. Washington Representatives.
e. McCain-Feingold Act of 2002.
44. Political Action Committees are primarily a means used by interest groups for
a. lobbying.
b. electioneering.
c. litigation.
d. policymaking.
e. political action.
45. Interest groups seeking to exert influence on the electoral process can honestly and openly funnel money into the campaign coffers of their supporters through
a. lobbying.
b. electioneering.
c. Political Action Committees.
d. subgovernments.
e. electronic banking.
46. The most successful tactic that civil rights and environmental groups have used to influence policy is
a. litigation.
b. electioneering.
c. lobbying.
d. media advertising.
e. protest demonstrations.
47. In 1977, flight attendants won a(n) ________ against the airline industry's regulation that all stewardesses had to be unmarried.
a. amicus curiae brief
b. writ of habeas corpus
c. bill of attainder
d. class action lawsuit
e. administrative appeal
48. In "going public" interest groups
a. extend membership to a broader range of people.
b. use advertising and public relations to enhance their image.
c. bring class action suits against their opponents.
d. issue stock.
e. open their decision-making meetings to the general public.
49. Interest groups employ the strategy of “going public”
a. because public opinion may ultimately make its way to policymakers.
b. so they can benefit from and use public opinion when possible.
c. to help improve their own reputations as meaningful forces among the public.
d. to create good will among the American public.
e. all of the above.
50. Right-to-work laws are most strongly supported by
a. unemployed citizens.
b. business groups.
c. union officials.
d. the feminist and civil rights movements.
e. illegal immigrants.
51. A state law forbidding requirements that workers must join a union to hold their jobs is called a _________law.
a. right-to-work
b. union shop
c. class action
d. electioneering
e. selective benefit
52. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Most of the states with right-to-know laws are in the South.
b. Most of the states with right-to-know laws are in the Northeast.
c. Most of the states with right-to-know laws are in the Pacific Northwest.
d. The highest rates of unionization are found in the South.
e. Both a and d.
53. The highest concentration of right-to-work laws in the United States is in the
a. South.
b. Northeast.
c. West.
d. Southwest.
e. All of the above; right-to-work laws are evenly spread throughout the US.
Answer: a
Bloom’s Level: Knowledge
Page Reference: 367
54. Which of the following is NOT an example of a labor union?
a. AFL-CIO
b. AARP
c. International Brotherhood of Teamsters
d. National Educational Association
e. All of the above.
55. The “K Street Project” refers to
a. the encouragement on the part of Democratic congressional leaders to encourage business interest groups and PACs to hire Democrats.
b. the encouragement on the part of Republican congressional leaders to encourage business interest groups and PACs to hire Republicans.
c. efforts on the part of labor groups to repeal the Taft-Hartley Act.
d. efforts on the part of business groups to repeal the Taft-Hartley Act.
e. both a and c.
56. Environmental groups
a. are an example of an economic interest group.
b. grew dramatically after the first Earth Day in 1970.
c. support nuclear power as a clean alternative to coal mining.
d. have had very little influence on Congress and state legislatures.
e. tend to avoid energy issues, while concentrating on the preservation of wilderness.
57. The first Earth Day in April 1970 helped to spur on a number of
a. environmental groups.
b. agricultural groups.
c. Native American groups.
d. geology and geography education groups.
e. none of the above.
58. That successful lobbying efforts by consumer groups benefits all consumers, and not just group members, is an example of overcoming
a. interest group liberalism.
b. electioneering.
c. lobbying.
d. a free-rider problem.
e. Olson's Law of Large Groups.
59. The Fair Share program is an effort by the
a. National Organization of Women to renew the fight for the Equal Rights Amendment.
b. National Association for the Advancement of Colored People to negotiate agreements with businesses to increase minority hiring and the use of minority contractors.
c. National Organization of Women to get equal pay for comparable work.
d. National Association for the Advancement of Colored People to desegregate private clubs.
e. American Taxpayers' Union to raise the wages and cut the taxes of lower- and middle-income people.
60. In addition to fighting segregation and discrimination, civil rights interest groups have also focused on
a. broader economic problems.
b. the environment.
c. transportation.
d. housing quality.
e. gender equality.
61. According to Robert Salisbury, the increase in lobbying activity has resulted in
a. greater clout for business and industry groups.
b. less democracy.
c. less clout overall for interest groups.
d. government by minority interests.
e. elitist policymaking.
62. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. In the context of interest groups, individual interest groups fighting to sustain government programs make it difficult for politicians to reduce the scope of government.
b. In the context of interest groups, individual interest groups fighting to sustain government programs make it easy for politicians to reduce the scope of government.
c. The expanding scope of government creates space and incentive for more interest groups to form.
d. Both a and c.
e. Both b and c.
63. Lobbying can be viewed as a legislative subsidy because
a. without lobbyists to supplement their income, no one would want to serve in Congress.
b. lobbyists bear the expenses of gathering information and crafting political strategies that Congress would otherwise bear.
c. lobbyists’ salaries are paid by Congress.
d. lobbyists are the key to getting subsidies for business and the wealthy.
e. all of the above.
64. PACs are defended for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that
a. PAC money goes to candidates with whom the PAC already agrees.
b. Politicians admit that PACs expect something in return for their contribution
c. PACs allow groups to compete in the money game that would be too small to do so as individuals.
d. PACs expand the sphere of participation.
e. government cannot provide enough campaign funds for all candidates.
65. Economic groups are primarily concerned with
a. regulations.
b. subsidies.
c. taxes.
d. globalization.
e. all of the above.
66. Labor unions are weakest in states with
a. agricultural economies, such as the Midwest.
b. industrial economies, such as the Northeast.
c. states in the region most likely to have right-to-work laws.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.
67. States with the highest levels of union membership include
a. Arizona and New Mexico.
b. Alabama and Mississippi.
c. Michigan and Ohio.
d. Alaska and Hawaii.
e. California and Ohio.
68. In a system with over 4,000 PACs, 25% of contributions came from
a. exactly two: the AARP and the NRA.
b. approximately 50.
c. approximately 250
d. approximately 500.
e. approximately 1000.
10.2 - The questions in this section also appear in the student Study Guide available with the textbook.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The term interest group can be generally defined as
a. an organization that seeks a collective good, the achievement of which will not specifically or materially benefit the membership or activists of the organization.
b. a group that has a narrow interest, dislikes compromise, and single-mindedly pursues its goal.
c. all people who share some common interest regardless of whether they join an organization promoting that interest.
d. an organization of people with similar policy goals entering the political process to try to achieve those aims.
e. an organization of people who share a common interest who run candidates in elections sympathetic to that interest.
2. The successes of civil rights and women's rights groups in redirecting the course of public policy, once they were organized, is pointed to as evidence to support the ________ theory that American politics is open and not a problem.
a. pluralist
b. hyperpluralist
c. elite
d. hyperelitist
e. free market
3. The ________ theorists argue that the power of the few is fortified by an extensive system of interlocking directorates, and that wealthy corporations prevail when it comes to major decisions by government.
a. pluralist
b. hyperpluralist
c. elitist
d. hyperelitist
e. pyramid
4. A theory of government and politics suggesting that groups are so strong that government is weakened is
a. liberalism
b. republicanism
c. pluralism
d. hyperpluralism
e. elitism
5. Subgovernments are
a. networks of groups within the American political system that exercise power over specific policy areas.
b. composed of key interest groups leaders, government agencies in charge of administrative policy, and congressional committees all interest in particular policy areas.
c. also known as iron triangles.
d. both a and b.
e. all of the above.
6. E. E. Schattsneider’s remark that “pressure politics is essentially the politics of small groups…Pressure tactics are not remarkably successful in mobilizing general interests,” suggests that
a. small groups have organizational advantage
b. large groups have organizational advantage.
c. interest groups have organizational advantage over elites.
d. elites have organizational advantage over interest groups.
e. both b and c.
7. The free-rider problem refers to the difficulty of
a. small groups in raising enough money to influence policy.
b. groups in organizing all their potential members.
c. actual groups in collecting dues from members.
d. potential groups in receiving their share in collective goods.
e. all taxpayers having to pay for public services and payments that go only to the poor.
8. According to the Center for Responsive Politics, the greatest total amount spent on lobbying from 1998 to 2007 was by the _________ industry.
a. music
b. automobile
c. real estate
d. education
e. pharmaceuticals
9. Groups that engage in electioneering
a. seek to mobilize group members in support of a candidate.
b. aid candidates financially.
c. provide testimony and endorsements.
d. get members to work for a candidate.
e. All of the above.
10. Which of the following is NOT true about Political Action Committees?
a. There are far more PACs now than there were in 1974.
b. Most PAC money goes to challengers rather than incumbents.
c. Some PACs contribute to both challenger and incumbent, playing it safe.
d. Only a handful of candidates have completely resisted the lure of PAC money.
e. PACs contribute before and after elections.
11. ________ are written arguments submitted to the courts in support of one side of a case.
a. Class action lawsuits
b. Litigations
c. Amicus curiae briefs
d. Public interest lobbies
e. Opening arguments
12. The union shop
a. outlaws union membership as a condition of employment.
b. offers low-cost consumer goods to union members.
c. requires new employees to join the union representing them.
d. is supported by business groups.
e. is a business owned by a union, has a tax-exempt status, and is not allowed to collect profits.
13. Right-to-work laws
a. guarantee full employment.
b. outlaw union membership as a condition of employment.
c. require employees to join the union representing them.
d. offer government jobs to unemployed workers.
e. require welfare recipients to work for their welfare checks.
14. The Taft-Hartley Act of 1947
a. banned soft money in campaigns.
b. permitted states to adopt right-to-work laws.
c. dealt a severe blow to the labor movement.
d. reenergized the labor movement.
e. both b and c.
15. Labor unions’ ability to shape public policy has
a. increased dramatically.
b. decreased.
c. stayed the same
d. become irrelevant.
e. become less strategically targeted.
16. Which of the following is an example of an environmental interest group?
a. Audubon Society
b. AFL-CIO
c. AARP
d. Green Party
e. Both a and d
17. Public interest lobbies are those organizations that
a. emphasize equal rights and equality of opportunity in America.
b. eschew the subgovernment system and operate within view of the public, often through town meetings.
c. have large memberships, usually a million or more.
d. seek a collective good, the achievement of which will not selectively and materially benefit members or activists.
e. focus exclusively on public expenditures directed toward Social Security.
18. The National Organization for Women
a. was first formed in the nineteenth century to help women gain the right to vote.
b. was primarily responsible for ratification of the Equal Rights Amendment.
c. is no longer a formidable force for women's rights.
d. now works for the enactment of individual statutes (laws) to protect women's rights rather than a constitutional amendment.
e. is a counter-interest group formed by Phyllis Schlafly to oppose the Women's Liberation Movement and the Equal Rights Amendment.
19. Lobbyists’ success most commonly depends on
a. their mastery of information and skill in deploying it.
b. the amount of campaign money they can distribute.
c. the strength of their personal connections.
d. being on the right side of an issue.
e. none of the above.
20. After Republican members of Congress encouraged PACs to hire Republican managers in 1994, the percentage of contributions that went to Republicans
a. increased across all types of groups.
b. increased by approximately 20 points outside of labor groups.
c. stayed about the same.
d. reflected a major decline in contributions.
e. decreased for all groups.
10.3 - These questions also appear in MyPoliSciLab, the Website that accompanies the textbook.
Pre-Test
Multiple Choice Questions
1. According to James Madison in Federalist Paper No. 10, the way to prevent any one group from having too much power is to
a. eliminate most groups.
b. increase the scope and number of groups.
c. strictly regulate them.
d. make them unconstitutional.
e. none of the above
2. An organization of people with similar policy goals entering the political process to try to achieve those aims is called
a. a political party.
b. a political action committee.
c. an interest group.
d. a collective.
e. a political corporation.
3. Interest groups differ from political parties because
a. parties use technology more effectively.
b. groups tend to be policy specialists while parties tend to be policy generalists.
c. the groups’ main arena is the electoral system.
d. parties seek many access points in government,
e. parties use technology less effectively.
4. A theory of government and politics emphasizing that politics is mainly a competition among groups competing for preferred policies is called
a. pluralism
b. hyperpluralism
c. elite theory
d. liberalism
e. republicanism
5. _______ is an extreme or perverted form of pluralism.
a. Elitism
b. Hyperpluralism
c. Liberalism
d. Republicanism
e. Classism.
6. The group theory of politics offered by pluralist theorists argues all of the following EXCEPT
a. groups provide a key link between people and government.
b. no one group is likely to become too dominant.
c. groups are all of equal strength.
d. groups usually play by the rules of the game.
e. different groups win at different times.
7. Elitist theorists argue that
a. groups weak in one resource can use another, and all legitimate groups are able to affect public policy by one means or another.
b. the fact that there are numerous groups proves nothing, because most groups are extremely unequal in power.
c. the government has treated all interest group demands as legitimate, and unwisely chosen to advance them all.
d. the larger the group, the further it will fall short of providing an optimal amount of a collective good.
e. governments should be controlled by a select group of well-educated, cultured, wealthy persons who understand the laws of economics and can run the most efficient government.
8. A network of agencies, interest groups, and Congressional committees which exercises power over specific policy areas are is called a(n)
a. single-issue group
b. subgovernment
c. interlocking directorate
d. potential group
e. rational actor
9. All people who might be group members because they share some common interest make up a(n)
a. actual group.
b. potential group.
c. collective group.
d. interest group.
e. probable group.
10. Part of Olson's Law of Large Groups is the argument that
a. the larger the potential group, the less likely potential members are to contribute.
b. the larger the potential group, the more likely potential members are to contribute.
c. potential group size does not have any measurable affect on the willingness of potential members to contribute.
d. an actual group and a potential group are virtually the same when it comes to effectiveness.
e. the smaller the group the less likely the potential members are to contribute.
11. An advantage of single-issue groups is their
a. financial resources.
b. pool of potential members.
c. pool of actual members.
d. intensity.
e. diversity.
12. Which of the following is NOT a way in which an interest group can help a member of Congress?
a. Obtaining group support for the politician's reelection
b. Introducing legislation in Congress
c. Providing valuable information on specialized policy areas
d. Helping with political strategy
e. Assisting with the cost of traveling between their home district and Washington, D.C.
13. Lobbyists are useful and helpful to members of Congress in that they
a. are an important source of information.
b. can help politicians develop political strategies for passing legislation.
c. can help politicians formulate campaign strategies.
d. are a source of innovation.
e. All of the above.
14. Direct group involvement in the electoral process is called
a. free-riding.
b. electioneering.
c. providing selective benefits.
d. litigating.
e. disclosure.
15. ________ enables a group of similarly situated plaintiffs to combine similar grievances into a single suit.
a. An amicus curiae brief
b. A public interest suit
c. Olson's Law of Large Groups
d. A class action lawsuit
e. A collective civil suit
16. Economic groups
a. are those which require individuals to pay dues to be members.
b. consist only of corporations, rather than individuals, as members.
c. are those groups interested in wages, prices, and profits.
d. lobby on behalf of all consumers.
e. are those groups that provide information to Congress.
17. Right-to-work laws ________ the union shop.
a. take a neutral stance toward
b. require
c. legalize
d. outlaw
e. regulate
18. Business PACs
a. have so far been associated only with multinational corporations.
b. are the most visible of Washington lobbies.
c. have increased more dramatically than any other category of PACs.
d. have not been as effective as labor and consumer PACs.
e. contribute more to Democrats than to Republicans.
19. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The U.S. ranks very high compared to other democracies in terms of the percentage of the adult population that belongs to an environmental organization.
b. The U.S. ranks very low compared to other democracies in terms of the percentage of the adult population that belongs to an environmental organization.
c. U.S. membership in environmental organizations is approximately 5 million total members across all groups.
d. U.S. membership in environmental groups is less than 1 million.
e. Both a and d.
20. The ________ is the oldest and largest of the African-American groups which have fought for equality at the polls, in housing, on the job, in education, and in all other facets of American life.
a. Urban League
b. Congress of Racial Equality
c. National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
d. Rainbow Coalition
e. National African-American Organization
21. In 1973, Congress responded to consumer advocacy groups by creating the
a. Environmental Protection Agency.
b. Consumer Product Safety Commission.
c. Federal Communications Commission.
d. Securities and Exchange Commission.
e. Catastrophic Health Care Act.
22. James Madison’s solution to the problems posed by interest groups was to
a. create a wide open system.
b. make it impossible for groups to form.
c. limit freedom of expression.
d. create a system of proportional representation.
e. limit freedom of association.
23. In what way is the growth of the scope of government partially responsible for the proliferation of interest groups?
a. Many groups have “come to Washington out of need and dependence rather than because they have influence.”
b. The more areas in which the federal government is involved, the more interest groups have developed to try to influence policy in those areas.
c. Whenever a major interest group objects strongly to proposed legislation, policymakers will bend over backward to try to accommodate that group.
d. PAC money is overwhelmingly distributed to incumbents seeking re-election.
e. Both a and b.
Post-Test
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The case involving Eli Lilly and Company illustrates how
a. little influence special interests actually have on Congress.
b. special interests can still bribe members of Congress.
c. special interests' campaign contributions can influence congressional action.
d. Congress can regulate the activities of special interests.
e. the increasing importance of multinational corporations.
2. Which of the following is NOT typical of American interest groups?
a. They frequently look to the bureaucracy or the judicial process to achieve their policy goals.
b. They run their own slate of candidates for office in many parts of the country.
c. Most have a handful of key policies to push, and are policy experts in those areas.
d. Unlike political parties, they are not faced with the constraint of trying to appeal to everyone.
e. They mostly represent diffuse, non-economic interests.
3. According to ________ theorists, interest groups compete and counterbalance one another in the political marketplace.
a. elitist
b. hyperelitist
c. pluralist
d. hyperpluralist
e. free market
4. Pluralists argue that lobbying
a. is dominated by wealthy corporations and the wealthiest individuals and is a danger to the democratic system.
b. is open to all and is therefore not to be regarded as a problem.
c. by so many interest groups who get what they want indicates that the relation between groups and government has grown too cozy.
d. must be suspended until tighter regulations can be put into place to protect the public interest.
e. has no effect on policymaking.
5. Which of the following statements about the elite theory perspective on groups is FALSE?
a. Real power is held by relatively few groups.
b. The power of the few is fortified by an extensive system of interlocking directorates.
c. The real game of group politics is the one played by the corporate elites.
d. Groups provide an effective check on elite power.
e. Groups do not provide an effective check on elite power.
6. Interest group liberalism is promoted through networks of
a. ideologically liberal interest groups and not conservative groups.
b. one group winning and another losing in the competition for government action or funding.
c. subgovernments.
d. hyperpluralists.
e. all of the above
7. Subgovernments are composed of key interest group leaders interested in policy X, the government agency in charge of administering policy X, and the ________ handling policy X.
a. congressional committees and subcommittees
b. federal courts
c. public relations officers
d. political candidates
e. local governments
8. According to Fortune magazine, which of the following factors affects the success of interest groups?
a. Size
b. Intensity
c. Financial resources
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
9. Clean air and a raised minimum wage are all examples of
a. collective goods.
b. potential problems.
c. free-rider problems.
d. single-issue interest groups.
e. selective benefits.
10. The free-rider problem refers to
a. unrelated amendments being added to a piece of legislation in order to bypass usual procedures.
b. potential members of a group failing to join the actual group, as they know they will receive the same benefits whether they are active members or not.
c. legislators who face no election opponents, and thus are automatically reelected.
d. mass transit scofflaws who endanger government aid to subways, buses, and commuter trains by not being officially counted.
e. welfare fraud and the costs it imposes on government and taxpayers.
11. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The smaller the group, the more serious the free-rider problem.
b. The bigger the group, the more serious the free-rider problem.
c. The smaller the group, the more likely it will fall short of providing an optimal amount of a collective good.
d. Both a and c.
e. Both b and c.
12. Single-issue groups
a. include members with narrow, uncompromising interests.
b. have had little effect on the outcomes of elections.
c. mainly focus on the issue of abortion.
d. are not taken seriously because they lack a large constituency.
e. tend to focus on their specific economic interest rather than on collective social issues.
13. “The Virginia 21” refers to
a. twenty-one iron triangles in the state of Virginia.
b. Virginia’s most powerful twenty-one interest groups.
c. Virginia’s most powerful twenty-one elites corporations.
d. a single-issue group in Virginia that lobbies the state legislature to increase spending on higher education.
e. The 21 selective benefits a famous interest group in Virginia provides to its members.
14. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic interest group strategies in America?
a. Lobbying
b. Running candidates for office
c. Litigation
d. Electioneering
e. Appealing to the public
15. One of the most common functions of lobbyists is to
a. provide information and ideas to members of Congress.
b. recruit former officeholders to help with public relations.
c. convert members of Congress to the point of view the lobbyists represent.
d. actually introduce new legislation.
e. raise funds for preferred political candidates.
16. Many interest groups involve themselves in ________ to help get those they consider to be the right people into office or to keep them there.
a. lobbying
b. electioneering
c. litigation
d. policymaking
e. recruitment
17. Most PAC money goes overwhelmingly to incumbents because incumbents
a. need more money due to the restraints of being in office.
b. have already been "bought off" by interest groups.
c. have already become friends and supporters of lobbyists.
d. are the most likely to be able to return the investment.
e. have the need for large amounts of money to maintain themselves in power.
18. Class action lawsuits
a. consist of written arguments submitted to the courts in support of one side of a case.
b. consist of lawsuits brought to the courts by one particular social class in society.
c. enable a group of similarly situated plaintiffs to combine similar grievances into a single suit.
d. enable organized interests groups to sue the federal government over a particular issue.
e. ask a court to take action against a particular group to stop them from injuring another group financially.
19. Which of the following statements about interest groups going public is FALSE?
a. Interest groups carefully cultivate their public images.
b. Interest groups market not only their stand on issues but their reputations as well.
c. More and more organizations have launched expensive public relations efforts.
d. The public relations of most groups tend to be characterized by hard sell and bias.
e. All of the above are false.
20. The Taft-Hartley Act permits _______, which outlaw union membership as a condition of employment.
a. right-to-work laws
b. union shops
c. non-labor PACs
d. public interest lobbies
e. economic interest groups
21. One of the reasons that "business" does not always get what it wants is
a. business groups often have different interests and want different things.
b. it has limited resources to spend on influencing government policy.
c. it has often used ineffective lobbying techniques.
d. it is a relatively "weak" cluster of interest groups.
e. none of the above
22. Environmental groups have been most successful at
a. stopping strip mining.
b. halting the trans-Alaskan pipeline.
c. thwarting the expansion of the nuclear power industry.
d. stopping the development of commercial supersonic aircraft.
e. protecting the reefer toad and other endangered species.
23. Common Cause is an example of
a. a public interest lobby.
b. a subgovernment.
c. interest group liberalism.
d. a single-issue group.
e. a for-profit lobby.
Chapter Exam
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Since the 1960s, the number of interest groups has
a. remained constant.
b. risen rapidly.
c. declined slightly.
d. declined sharply.
e. fluctuated up and down as new issues developed and others faded away.
2. Which of the following is an example of an interest group?
a. The Republican Party
b. The Congressional Black Caucus
c. The Democratic Party
d. Congress
e. The National Rifle Association
3. Which of the following statements about pluralism is TRUE?
a. Pluralist theory rests on many centers of power in American politics.
b. Groups serve as a key linking institution in pluralist theory.
c. Pluralists assume that no single group will become too powerful.
d. The extensive organization of competing groups provides evidence that power is widely dispersed among them.
e. All of the above are true.
4. ________ theorists are impressed by how insignificant most organized interest groups are.
a. Pluralist
b. Hyperpluralist
c. Elitist
d. Pluralist and hyperpluralist
e. Deconstruction
5. Interest group liberalism holds that
a. the fact that there are numerous interest groups proves nothing, because groups are extremely unequal in power.
b. interest groups win some and lose some, but no group wins or loses all the time.
c. when one interest group throws its weight around too much, its opponents are likely to intensify their organization and thus restore balance to the system.
d. virtually all pressure group demands are legitimate and the job of government is to advance them all.
e. the role of government is to leaven the natural inequalities of the free market system and that entails paying more attention to the needs of economically weak interest groups and less attention to economically powerful groups.
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the major elements of the subgovernment system at the national level?
a. Interest group
b. Congressional committee
c. Federal court
d. Federal agency
e. Bureaucrats
7. A(n) ________ group is composed of all people who might be group members because they share some common interest.
a. potential
b. interest
c. actual
d. single-issue
e. hidden
8. ________ helps to explain why public interest lobbies have relatively small proportions of actual members.
a. The free-rider problem
b. Special interest liberalism
c. The rise of political action committees
d. Tougher regulation of all lobbyists
e. Olson's Law of Large Groups
9. A single-issue group is one that is all of the following EXCEPT
a. focused on narrow interest.
b. unwilling to compromise.
c. organizes on the national level only.
d. single-mindedly in pursuing its goal.
e. intensely committed to a policy goal.
10. The text identifies two types of lobbyists,
a. regularemployees and hired consultants.
b. policy experts and legal specialists.
c. attorneys and non-attorneys.
d. those based in Washington, D.C., and those based elsewhere.
e. "old school" and "modern style" lobbyists.
11. Political action committee (PAC) money goes overwhelmingly to
a. Independents.
b. challengers.
c. incumbents.
d. Democrats.
e. Republicans.
12. An amicus curiae brief is
a. one which enables a group of similarly situated plaintiffs to combine similar grievances into a single suit to pursue a remedy for past wrongs.
b. an oral or written appeal of a court decision made by an interest group which is party to the particular case.
c. an oral or written appeal of a court decision made by an interest group not party to a particular case.
d. a written argument submitted to the courts in support of one side of a case.
e. the written statement of a court's decision in a case explaining the reasons for the decision.
13. The union shop
a. serves as the headquarters of an organized labor group.
b. sells only goods made by laborers affiliated with a union.
c. requires that all employees in a unionized business join the union.
d. is a retail store whose employees are unionized.
e. both B and D
14. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. In 1956, 33 percent of the nonagricultural workforce belonged to a labor union; since then, the percentage has declined to 13 percent.
b. In 1956, 13 percent of the nonagricultural workforce belonged to a labor union; since then, the percentage has increased to 33 percent.
c. Low wages in other countries have diminished the American job market.
d. Both a and c.
e. Both b and c.
15. Organizations seeking a collective good that may not benefit them directly are called
a. commodity associations.
b. protest groups.
c. public interest lobbies.
d. single-issue groups.
e. altruistic lobbies.
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