1. Which form is used for Determination of Employee Work ...



1. Which form is used for Determination of Employee Work Status for Purposes of Federal Employment Taxes and Income Tax Withholding?

A. Form I-9

B. Form SS-4

C. Form SS-5

D. Form SS-8

2. What amount must an independent contractor be paid for services rendered before an employer is obligated to give them a 1099-MISC?

A. Once total reaches $600 or more

B. Total payments reach $600 or more for company’s fiscal year

C. Total payments reach $600 or more for calendar year

D. Any individual payment makes during calendar year exceeding $600

3. Qualified real estate agents and direct sellers are which of the following?

A. Statutory Employees

B. Statutory Nonemployees

C. Employees

D. Independent Contractors

4. Under the common law test, the IRS examiners are to group the evidence they gather into three general types or “categories”. Which of the following is not one of them?

A. Behavioral control

B. Financial control

C. Location of work

D. Relationship of the parties

5. Which of the following is not regulated by the FLSA?

A. Child labor

B. Overtime pay

C. Minimum Wage Rates

D. 8 hour work day

6. Agent-drivers, commission-drivers and full-time life insurance salespersons are which of the following?

A. Statutory Employees

B. Statutory Nonemployees

C. Employees

D. Independent Contractors

7. There are three parts of the ABC test, which is not one of them?

A. Business-unusual and/ or away

B. Risk of loss

C. Customarily independent contractor

D. Absence of control

8. Under the federal new hire reporting requirement how many days does an employer have after hire date?

A. 10 days

B. 20 days

C. 30 days

D. 40 days

9. What is Form I-9 used for?

A. Application for Employer Identification Number

B. Determination of Employee Work Status

C. Application for IRS Individual Taxpayer Identification Number

D. Employment Eligibility Verification

10. Under the reasonable basis test, which of the following does not support an employer’s treatment of a worker as an independent contractor?

A. Past IRS employment tax audit

B. Published IRS rulings

C. Place of work

D. Private letter rulings

11. What does FLSA stand for?

A. Federal Labor Standards Act

B. Fair Labor Standards Act

C. Federal Labor Standards Agency

D. Fair Labor Standards Agency

12. Which of the following is not covered under the FLSA?

A. Regulate how often employees must be paid

B. Mandates equal pay for equal work

C. Requires recordkeeping by employers

D. sets the minimum wage and overtime rates employees must receive for their work

13. Who enforces the Federal Wage-Hour Law?

A. Individual States

B. IRS

C. EEOC

D. DOL

14. Who enforces the equal pay provisions?

A. Individual States

B. IRS

C. EEOC

D. DOL

15. Which is not one of the White Collar Exemption?

A. Administrative

B. Executive

C. Management

D. Professional employees

16. For overtime pay. Which one is included in the regular rate?

A. Discretionary bonuses

B. Nondiscretionary bonuses

C. Gifts

D. Reimbursed expenses

17. For calculation of overtime pay. Which one is not included in the regular rate?

A. Supplemental disability payments

B. On-call pay

C. Retroactive pay

D. Vacation pay

18. A computer professional must be paid at least what per hour to be exempt from overtime requirements under the FLSA?

A. Minimum wage per hour

B. 21.55 per hour

C. 27.63 per hour

D. 29.67 per hour

19. Ryan’s regular workweek is 37.50 hours and he is paid biweekly. Ryan worked 38 hours in the first week and worked 45 hours in the second. How many hours are paid at the overtime rate?

A. 2.50

B. 5

C. 7.5

D. 8

20. What is the federal minimum wage rate?

A. 4.25

B. 5.85

C. 6.55

D. 7.25

21. So long as the employee’s tips are enough to make up the remainder of the minimum hourly wage. What is the federal minimum wage for tipped employee?

A. 2.01

B. 2.07

C. 2.09

D. 2.13

22. What is the time limit on filing an FLSA complaint with the Wage and Hour Division?

A. 1 or 2 years

B. 2 or 3 years

C. 3 or 4 years

D. 4 or 5 years

23. A “working condition” fringe benefit is?

A. Discount offered employees that’s not more than 20% of the price for services offered to customers

B. A service or an item of such small value as to make accounting for the benefit unreasonable

C. A service the employee could deduct as a business expense if he or she had paid for it

D. Services provided free or at reduced rates by an

employer in the line of business in which the employee works

24. A “de minimis” fringe benefit is?

A. Discount offered employees that’s not more than

20% of the price for services offered to customers

B. A service or an item of such small value as to make accounting for the benefit unreasonable

C. A service the employee could deduct as a business expense if he or she had paid for it

D. Services provided free or at reduced rates by an employer in the line of business in which the employee works

25. A “Qualified employee discount” is?

A. Discount offered employees that’s not more than

20% of the price for services offered to customers

B. A service or an item of such small value as to make accounting for the benefit unreasonable

C. A service the employee could deduct as a business expense if he or she had paid for it

D. Services provided free or at reduced rates by an employer in the line of business in which the employee works

26. A “No-additional-cost services” is?

A. Discount offered employees that’s not more than

20% of the price for services offered to customers

B. A service or an item of such small value as to make accounting for the benefit unreasonable

C. A service the employee could deduct as a business expense if he or she had paid for it

D. Services provided free or at reduced rates by an employer in the line of business in which the employee works

27. What is the maximum amount excluded from income by law in 2017 for employer-provided parking?

A. $125.00

B. $130.00

C. $250.00

D. $255.00

28. What is the maximum amount excluded from income by law in 2017 for Transit passes?

A. $125.00

B. $130.00

C. $250.00

D. $255.00

29. What is the maximum per round trip an employee may receive under commuting valuation method?

A. $6.00

B. $3.00

C. $1.50

D. 0.00

30. Expenses on a job-related move can be considered deductible and reimbursements for them excluded from income when what is met?

A. New workplace must be at least 50 miles farther from the employee’s old residence than the previous workplace was

B. 12 months immediately following move, must work fulltime for at least 39 weeks in the general location of the new workplace

C. At least 50 miles from old workplace then new

D. Both A and B

31. An employee’s date of birth is April 15, 1979. What age would be used for calculating group term life insurance for January 2017?

A. 27

B. 28

C. 37

D. 38

32. An employee is temporarily disabled and is being paid by a third party who is not an agent. To request federal income tax withheld from third-party sick pay, which of the following form must be completed?

A. Form W-4

B. Form W-4P

C. Form W-4S

D. Form W-5

33. On what form must wages be reported on if an employee dies after receiving a paycheck but before cashing it and the check is reissued to the employee’s personal representative?

A. Form W-2D

B. Form W-2

C. Form 1099-MISC

D. Form 1099-R

34. Wages paid after the year of death are subject to what withholding taxes?

A. Social Security, Medicare, Federal income tax and FUTA

B. Social Security, Medicare and FUTA

C. Social Security, Medicare

D. None

35. The IRS approved rate for employer provided fuel for 2017 is?

A. 5 cents per mile

B. 5.5 cents per mile

C. 53.5 cents per mile

D. 54 cents per mile

36. Which of the following is not a recordkeeping requirement for business use of company provided vehicles?

A. Trips mileage

B. Trips date

C. Trips usage of car phone

D. Business purpose of the trip

37. Wages paid after the year of death are report on which of the following form?

A. Form W-2D

B. Form W-2

C. Form 1099-MISC

D. Form 1099-R

38. The IRS standard business mileage rate for 2017 is?

A. 5.5 cents per mile

B. 57.5 cents per mile

C. 54 cents per mile

D. 53.5 cents per mile

39. What are the two types of deductible moving expenses?

A. Transportation of household goods and expenses of moving employee (and family) including meals

B. All expenses of the move are deductible

C. Transportation of household goods and expenses of moving employee (and family) not including meals

D. Hotel, meals and mileage

40. Employee’s personal use of a company provided vehicle is generally a taxable benefit. Which of the following is not one of the three special valuation methods used to determine the taxable amount?

A. Annual lease value

B. Commuting

C. Parking

D. Vehicle cents per mile

41. Under the “fixed date” method, an advance for substantiated business travel expenses can be provided no more than how many days before an expense is incurred?

A. 10 days

B. 30 days

C. 60 days

D. 120 days

42. An employee has three children and her dependent care expenses are $7,500 for 2017. The employer reimburses her the full $7,500 in 2017. How much if any is taxable?

A. $300 (only amount above 2,400 per child)

B. $2,500

C. $2,550

D. $7,500

43. What is the maximum amount of employer provided group term life insurance that can be excluded from an employee’s income?

A. One times their annual salary

B. $2,000

C. $50,000

D. $100,000

44. Which of the following is a “de minimis” fringe and is excluded from taxable earnings?

A. $25 gift certificate for Rainbow Foods

B. $25 Target gift certificate

C. $25 company check

D. Gift certificate (e.g. Ham, Turkey)

45. Which of the following is a non-taxable moving expense?

A. Meal

B. Pre-move househunting

C. Packing

D. Temporary living

46. Under the IRC, which section regulates cafeteria plans?

A. 123

B. 125

C. 127

D. 129

47. What is the maximum amount for 2017 that an employee may elect to defer to a 401 (k) or 403 (b) plan?

A. $15,500

B. $17,000

C. $17,500

D. $18,000

48. What is the maximum amount for 2017 that an employee may elect to defer to a 457 plan?

A. $15,500

B. $17,000

C. $17,500

D. $18,000

49. What is the maximum amount for 2017 that an employee may elect for FSA dependent care?

A. $2,400

B. $5,000

C. $7,500

D. No Limit

50. An employer with 120 participants offering a cafeteria plan must annually file what form?

A. Suspended in 2002 no filing needed

B. Form 5500 C/R

C. Form 5500

D. Form 5550 C/R

51. Which of the following can not be part of a cafeteria plan?

A. Group-term life insurance

B. Qualified adoption assistance

C. Cash

D. Medical Savings Accounts

52. Under a cafeteria plan, pretax contribution to a 401 (k) are subject to what federal taxes?

A. FICA, FUTA and FIT

B. FICA and FUTA

C. FICA

D. None

53. CODA stand for what?

A. Cash or Deferred Account

B. Cost of Dependent Adoption

C. Cash or Deferred Arrangement

D. Cafeteria or Deferred Account

54. Who is at risk of forfeiture in a cafeteria plan health care FSA?

A. No one is at risk

B. Employee only

C. Employer only

D. Both employee and employer

55. What does FSA stand for?

A. Federal Savings Accounts

B. Flexible Spending Arrangement

C. Fair Standards Act of 1985

D. Federal Service Agency

56. Under a 125 plan pretax deductions are subject to what federal taxes?

A. FICA, FUTA and FIT

B. FICA and FUTA

C. FICA

D. None

57. State and local government employees would participate in which of the following deferred plans?

A. 401 (k)

B. 403 (b)

C. 408

D. 457

58. Public schools employees would participate in which of the following deferred plans?

A. 401 (k)

B. 403 (b)

C. 408

D. 457

59. Which of the following employer stock purchase plans might be included in a qualified 401 (k) plan?

A. ERISA

B. ESOP

C. IRA

D. SEP

60. What does ADP stand for?

A. Automatic Deposited Paycheck

B. Automated Data Process

C. Actual Defined Pension

D. Actual Deferral Percentage

61. The defined benefit plans are generally administer by which department?

A. Human Resources

B. Payroll

C. Employment

D. Benefits

62. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 is administered and enforced by what department?

A. Internal Revenue Service

B. Fair Labor Standards Act

C. Department of Labor

D. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

63. Which of the following may not be regulated by state law?

A. How often employees must be paid

B. What employers must do with unclaimed paychecks

C. How soon employees must be paid after their employment is terminated

D. What minimum wage an employee must receive

64. What day of the week occurs 53 times in 2017?

A. Sunday

B. Monday

C. Tuesday

D. Wednesday and Thursday

65. Which of the following is not a advantage of the direct deposit system to the employer?

A. Direct deposit cannot be made mandatory in most states

B. Prevents lost and stolen checks

C. Employees do not have to take time out of their work day to cash or deposit their paycheck

D. Better control of check stock

66. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the direct deposit system to the employer?

A. Direct deposit is not a paperless system

B. Cannot dictate the bank that the employee uses

C. Do not have to file/store cashed checks and related documents

D. Loss of interest on payroll funds before paychecks clear

67. What are escheat laws?

A. Federal laws governing direct deposit

B. Federal laws governing unclaimed wages as abandoned property

C. State laws governing direct deposit

D. State laws governing unclaimed wages as abandoned property

68. An employee is married and has three children ages 5, and 10, what is the maximum income the employee can earn to be eligible for AEIC in 2017?

A. $35,353

B. $40,352

C. $40,363

D. No AEIC in 2017

69. Request for Taxpayer Identification Number and Certification is submitted on which form?

A. Form SS-4

B. Form SS-8

C. Form W-7

D. Form W-9

70. What is the 2017 social security wage base?

A. $117,000

B. $118,500

C. $127,200

D. No maximum amount

71. Verifying Social Security Numbers. The SSA has three verification methods available to employers. Which of the following is not one of them?

A. Fax

B. Phone

C. Paper list

D. Magnetic tape

72. For employee’s who do not have an SSN they can get one by submitting “Application for a Social Security Card”. Which of the following is the correct form?

A. Form SS-4

B. Form SS-5

C. Form SS-8

D. Form SSA-7004

73. When supplemental wage payment is paid separately or clearly indicated when add to regular wages. What is the flat withholding rate for 2017?

A. 25%

B. 27%

C. 28%

D. 30%

74. What is the percentage on “backup withholding” for 2017?

A. 25%

B. 27%

C. 28%

D. 35%

75. Employees who want to take advantage of advance EIC must file an Earned Income Credit Advance Payment Certificate annually. Which of the following is the correct form?

A. Form W-9

B. Form W-5

C. Form W-2

D. Not available in 2017

76. Which of the following would not be a supplemental wage payment?

A. Vacation pay

B. Backpay awards

C. Retroactive pay

D. Bonuses

77. Which of the following can an employer refuse to do?

A. Withhold an IRS levy

B. Withhold Support deduction

C. Change their name until a new social security card, with new name is presented

D. Withhold final check from employee until all company badges and keys are returned

78. A new hire does not submit payroll a W-4 by their first payday, they are married and have three children. What withholding status do you use when calculating his withholding?

A. Married with 3 allowances

B. Married with 0 allowances

C. Single with 4 allowances

D. Single with 0 allowances

79. Generally an employer must file Form 940 by what date, of the year after the FUTA liability was incurred?

A. January 31

B. February 28

C. April 1

D. April 30

80. What is the FUTA taxable wage base for 2017? It is also the SUI minimum taxable wage base.

A. $7000

B. $7500

C. $8000

D. $9000

81. What is the effective FUTA tax rate for 2017?

A. .6%

B. .8%

C. 5.4%

D. 6.0%

82. For depositing and paying FUTA tax. If due date falls on a weekend or federal/state holiday when is the payment due?

A. Add to next deposit

B. At the earliest time possible

C. One business day earlier

D. Next business day

83. How many weeks can a terminated employee collect unemployment without filing an extension?

A. 6 Months

B. 26 weeks

C. 39 weeks

D. 52 weeks

84. Which of the following is not one of methods used to determine an employer’s unemployment insurance experience rating?

A. Benefit ratio

B. Benefit-wage ratio

C. Payroll ratio

D. Reserve ratio

85. Which of the following is not one of the types of employment that are exempt from FUTA?

A. Life insurance agents who receive only

commissions

B. Tipped employees

C. Work performed by statutory nonemployees

D. Work on a foreign ship outside the U.S.

86. What is the credit percentage if an employer receives a full credit on FUTA for 2017?

A. .6%

B. .8%

C. 5.4%

D. 6.0%

87. Employers pay FUTA tax on their employee’s wages of $7,000 at a rate of 6.0%, What is the federal state credit that employers receive for paying state SUI on time?

A. There is no credit

B. .6%

C. 5.4%

D. .8%

88. Employers are assigned one of two depositor status classifications for Payroll Tax Deposit Rules. Which of the following is correct?

A. Quarterly or monthly

B. Monthly or weekly

C. Monthly or semiweekly

D. Monthly or semimonthly

89. What is the lookback period for calendar year 2017 for Payroll Tax Deposit Rules?

A. July 1, 2015 - June 30, 2016

B. January 1, 2015 - December 31, 2015

C. Company previous fiscal year

D. Lookback period is 12 months

90. What amount of employment tax liability must an employer reach before the one-day deposit rule is in effect?

A. $25,000 or more

B. $50,000 or more

C. $100,000 or more

D. $150,000 or more

91. The shortfall rule allows an employer to deposit what percentage of their payroll tax liability without a penalty?

A. Must be 100%

B. 98%

C. 95%

D. 90%

92. Which of the following form is use to report backup withholding?

A. Form 940

B. Form 941

C. Form 941c

D. Form 945

93. What happens when a monthly depositor accumulates $100,000 in tax liability on any day during a month?

A. Is a one day depositor the rest of the year

B. Remains a monthly depositor, but need to deposit on the next business day anytime accumulates $100,000 in tax liability

C. Becomes semiweekly for the rest of the year

D. Becomes semiweekly for the rest of current year and entire next calendar year, also needs to deposit on next business day

94. How long must an employer keep undeliverable copies of employee’s Form W-2?

A. Three years

B. Four years

C. Five years

D. Seven years

95. An employee is terminated on 7/1/17. The following week a request in writing was received requesting his 2017 Form W-2. How long does the employer have to send it out?

A. 10 days of the request

B. 20 days of the request

C. 30 days of the request

D. January 31, 2018

96. Who would use Form 941-M?

A. Semiweekly depositors

B. Monthly depositors

C. Both A and B

D. Employers that fail to withhold or deposit taxes or file returns on time

97. Which of the following is used to deposit withheld federal income and employment taxes?

A. Form 8809

B. Form 941

C. Form 940

D. EFTPS

98. All Copy A of Form W-2 and Form W-3 must be filed with the SSA by what date following the calendar year in which the wages were paid?

A. January 31

B. By the end of February

C. March 31

D. April 1

99. If an employer mailed their payroll tax deposits through the U.S. Postal Service, the deposits would be considered timely if postmarked at least how many days before due date?

A. One day

B. B. Two days

C. Has to be receive by due date or penalties will apply

D. As long as it has the due day or earlier no penalties apply

100. When are employers required to mail copies of Form W-4 to the IRS?

A. Claims more than 10 withholding allowances

B. Claims exempt from withholding

C. IRS request it in writing

D. Claims 10 withholding allowances and is single

101. When is an employee not subject to FICA tax?

A. Over age of 70

B. Over age of 65

C. Over age of 59 1/2

D. None of the above

102. What does OASDI stand for?

A. Old Age Survivors and Disability Insurance

B. Old Age Survivors and Disability Income

C. Old Age Severance and Disability Insurance

D. Old Age Severance and Disability Income

103. Non qualified plans go in which box on the Form W-2?

A. Box 8

B. Box 9

C. Box 10

D. Box 11

104. In which box on Form W-2 should allocated tips be reported?

A. Box 1

B. Box 1, 3 and 5

C. Box 1, 5 and 7

D. Box 8

105. An employee’s gross for the year is 30,000. In which box on Form W-2 must an employer provided dependent care assistance be included when it exceeds $5,000?

A. Box 1 and 10

B. Box 1, 3 and 5

C. Box 10

D. Box 1, 3, 5 and 10

106. Group term life insurance over $50,000 is reported in Box 12 on Form W-2. What code is also included?

A. Code A

B. Code C

C. Code L

D. Code P

107. The IRS will send an employer a federal tax levy on which of the following form?

A. Form 668-D 4 part

B. Form 668-D 6 part

C. Form 668-W 4 part

D. Form 668-W 6 part

108. Who sets the maximum amount that can be withhold from an employee’s wages for child or spousal support?

A. IRS

B. FLSA

C. CCPA

D. Individual States

109. If an employee is not supporting another child and/or spouse and is not in arrears, what is the maximum amount of disposable earnings that can be withheld?

A. 50%

B. 55%

C. 60%

D. 65%

110. An employer may charge the employee an administrative fee for processing the wage withholding order each payperiod. Who sets the maximum amount for the fee?

A. IRS

B. FLSA

C. CCPA

D. Individual States

111. What is the maximum amount an employee’s disposable earnings that can be garnished to pay a debt?

A. 25%

B. 30%

C. 65%

D. 75%

112. IRC 170(f)(8), which prohibits taxpayers from deducting charitable contributions of what amount, without substantiation of the gift and any substantial goods or services received in return?

A. $100 or more per payperiod

B. $100 or more per year

C. $250 or more per payperiod

D. $250 or more per year

113. Which of the following is subtracted from earnings to calculate disposable earnings?

A. All active deductions

B. All deductions required by law

C. Union Dues

D. Life insurance premiums

114. Which of the following requires an employee’s signature?

A. IRS levy

B. Child support withholding order

C. Federal taxes

D. Company loan repayment deduction

115. If all the following were received at the same time which one would take the highest priority?

A. Child support

B. Student Loans

C. Garnishments

D. Bankruptcy

116. How long must an employer retain an employees W-4

A. Two years after due date of the tax return

B. Three years after due date of the tax return

C. Four years after due date of the tax return

D. Five years after due date of the tax return

117. ADEA requires employer to retain records of an employee’s name, address, date of birth, occupation, pay rate and compensation for how long?

A. Two years

B. Three years

C. Four years

D. Five years

118. FLSA requires certain records to be kept by all covered employers for all employees and retained for how many years?

A. Two years

B. Three years

C. Four years

D. Two or three years

119. Form I-9 must be made available for inspection by the Department of Labor within how many days of a request?

A. Three days

B. Four days

C. Five days

D. As soon as they arrive

120. Records required by the ADEA must be kept at the employee’s worksite or a central recordkeeping location. If the records are kept at a central location how long does an employer have to turnover the records for inspection by EEOC?

A. 24 hours

B. 48 hours

C. 72 hours

D. As soon as they arrive

121. Which of the following is not an expense account?

A. Wages payable

B. Employer paid benefit costs

C. Maintenance for computers

D. Office supply costs

122. Of the following accounts which does not have a normal balance as a debit?

A. Income Distributed

B. Expense

C. Asset

D. Equity

123. Of the following accounts which is not a liability account?

A. Accounts payable

B. Contributions owed to a company benefit plan

C. Employer share of payroll taxes

D. Union dues deducted from pay but not yet paid to union

124. Which of the following account does not have a normal balance as a credit?

A. Revenue

B. Expense

C. Contributed Capital

D. Equity

125. Which of the following is not part of the balance sheet?

A. Net earnings

B. Deferred assets

C. Long term liabilities

D. Plant, property and equipment

126. Of the following which is not on the income statement?

A. Shareholder’s equity

B. Earnings per share

C. Nonoperating expenses

D. Gross margin on sales

127. Which of the following is classified as a record of original entry?

A. General ledger

B. Trail balance

C. Journal

D. Posting

128. Entering an amount on the left side of an account is called?

A. Increasing a revenue account

B. Decreasing a liability account

C. Debiting the account

D. Crediting the account

129. A journal entry containing more than one debit or more than one credit is called?

A. T-account

B. Compound entry

C. Double entry

D. Transaction

130. An accounting period is which of the following?

A. Month

B. Quarter

C. Year

D. Any length of time covered by an income statement

131. The definition of an expense is which of the following?

A. Debts of a business that have yet to be paid

B. Resources acquired by a business that are

consumed by the business

C. Purchase of goods or services consumed during the accounting period

D. Result of subtracting liabilities from assets

132. The definition of a liability is:

A. Debts of a business that have yet to be paid

B. Resources acquired by a business that are

consumed by the business

D. Purchase of goods or services consumed during

the accounting period

D. Result of subtracting liabilities from assets

133. The definition of equity is:

A. Debts of a business that have yet to be paid

B. Resources acquired by a business that are consumed by the business

C. Purchase of goods or services consumed during the accounting period

D. Result of subtracting liabilities from assets

134. For an expense that was accrued for last month what must an accounting department do the next month?

A. Adjustment entry

B. Nothing

C. An accrual reversal

D. Debit cash, credit expense

135. What is the definition of an asset?

A. Debits of a business that have yet to be paid

B. Resources acquired by businesses that are consumed by the business

C. Purchase of goods or services, or costs incurred on a one time or short term basis

D. Result of subtracting liabilities from assets

136. What does it mean when two systems are interfaced?

A. Printers, modems, external drive

B. Data reside on a server

C. Powerful personal computers

D. Sharing data needed by both

137. What is a peripheral?

A. Printers, modems, external drive

B. Data reside on a server

C. Powerful personal computers

D. Sharing data needed by both

138. What is an environment called that can transmit information over long distances at slower transmission speeds using telephone lines?

A. Network

B. Modem

C. LAN

D. WAN

139. What is not a disadvantage of a service bureau?

A. Possibly high variable costs

B. Reduction in processing delays

C. Responsibility for filing errors

D. Little time for change

140. What is an environment called where all computers are physically attached to each other and data is transmitted at high speeds over short distances?

A. Network

B. Modem

C. LAN

D. WAN

141. What is not an advantage of a service bureau?

A. New services can be added

B. Fewer research problems

C. Control over security

D. Low processing costs

142. What is not a disadvantage of an in-house microcomputer network?

A. Keep system up to date

B. Data sharing

C. Network manager needed

D. Initial installation cost

143. What is not an advantage of off the shelf software?

A. Small employers only

B. Low cost

C. Ease of use

D. Use it right away

144. What is not a disadvantage of vendor supplied software packages?

A. Improper fit

B. Specific needs may not be met

C. User group networking

D. Training

145. What is not a advantage of customized software?

A. Update responsibility

B. Increased flexibility

C. Control

D. Special needs

146. What is not part of selecting a computerized payroll system?

A. Analyze

B. Build a project team

C. RFP

D. Putting controls into the process

147. Which of the following is not part of a system edit?

A. Report with negative net pay

B. Report with active employees with no pay

C. Report with union dues payable

D. Report with employees over 40 hours

148. What should not be a part of the system documentation?

A. Schedules

B. Adjustment and corrections entry

C. Reports

D. Company policies

149. Which of the following should be part of a disaster recovery plan?

A. Arrange office equipment rental

B. Keep backup files off premises

C. Communicate the plan

D. All the above

150. Which internal control method requires employees to show identification before getting paid, also known as stopping phantom employees?

A. Rotating jobs

B. Physical payouts

C. System edits

D. Verifying

151. What is not part of the system security?

A. System access

B. Backing up data

C. Checking for adequate power

D. Secure files

152. There are four different management styles according to Hersey and Blanchard. Which of the following is known as high task/high relationship?

A. Manager controls the job and procedures; and will coach employees

B. Little control sought by the manager; good deal of mutual trust

C. Most jobs delegated; little personal contact

D. Controls staff with little feedback

153. Which of the following management theory characterizes the Japanese style?

A. Theory W

B. Theory X

C. Theory Y

D. Theory Z

154. Which of the following is not a planning concern?

A. Evaluating the costs

B. Delegating tasks

C. Defining the objectives

D. Defining time

155. Which of the following is a basic management skill that involves setting goals?

A. Staffing

B. Planning

C. Controlling

D. Directing

156. A Manager should never delegate to his or her subordinate which of the following?

A. Responsibility

B. Authority

C. Accountability

D. Reporting

157. Which of the following is not currently a popular management theory?

A. Theory Y

B. Theory X

C. Theory W

D. Situational Leadership

158. Which management skill is have the right person with the right job?

A. Staffing

B. Planning

C. Controlling

D. Directing

159. A manager who takes a negative view of his or her employees is best categorized as what management theory?

A. Theory Y

B. Theory X

C. Theory W

D. Theory Z

160. Of the following which is not one of the three “P” of management?

A. Payroll

B. People

C. Process

D. Proficiency

161. Communicating, motivating and providing guidance to ones employees belongs to which of the management skill?

A. Staffing

B. Planning

C. Controlling

D. Directing

162. During the planning and organizing process which of the following activities need not be include?

A. Subtasks

B. How each part is processed

C. Goals and objectives

D. The time frame

163. There are four communication skills managers must possess when directing employees which is not one of them?

A. Providing feedback

B. Coaching

C. Listening

D. Controlling Performance

164. There are many different types of performance evaluation systems and formats and there are several elements that are generally found within them. Which is not one of them?

A. Employees who disagree with the evaluation are allowed to challenge it

B. There are written guidelines for administering the evaluation system

C. They make subjective conclusions in very broad terms

D. Communicated clear and in writing to employees

165. Time management has four combinations of time categories. Which of the following are you in a crisis mode and putting out fires?

A. Not Urgent but Important

B. Not Urgent and Not Important

C. Urgent and Important

D. Urgent but Not Important

166. Time management has four combinations of time categories. A manager’s goal should be to prioritize duties and responsibilities so enough time is spent in which quadrant also known as Not Urgent but Important?

A. Quadrant 1

B. Quadrant 2

C. Quadrant 3

D. Quadrant 4

167. There are four different management styles according to Hersey and Blanchard. Which of the following is known as supporting or as low task/high relationship?

A. Manager controls the job and procedures; and will coach employees

B. Little control sought by the manager; good deal of mutual trust

C. Most jobs delegated; little personal contact

D. Controls staff with little feedback

168. Stephen Covey’s principle centered leadership has four interdependent dimensions which of the following is one of them?

A. Security

B. Guidance

C. Wisdom

D. All of the above

169. There are four different management styles according to Hersey and Blanchard. Which of the following is known as Directing or as high task/low relationship?

A. Manager controls the job and procedures; and will coach employees

B. Little control sought by the manager; good deal of mutual trust

C. Most jobs delegated; little personal contact

D. Controls staff with little feedback

170. What skill is not a management skill?

A. Reporting

B. Strategic planning

C. Staffing

D. Documentation

171. A U.S. citizen or resident alien who lives and works outside the U.S. is called?

A. Foreign employee

B. Expatriate

C. Alien

D. Employee

172. U.S. and foreign countries prevent double social security and Medicare taxation of U.S. employees working abroad and aliens working in the U.S.. What is it called?

A. Treaty benefits

B. Tax treaty impact

C. Tax equalization plans

D. Totalization agreements

173. Aliens who are not eligible for a social security number and must file a tax or information return, would request from the IRS an Individual Taxpayer Identification Number (ITIN). What form number is it?

A. W-7

B. W-9

C. SS-5

D. SS-9

174. Nonresident aliens must do which of the following when completing a Form W-4?

A. Check only “Single” on line 3

B. Claim only one withholding allowance on line 5

C. Must write “NRA” above the dotted line in line 6

D. All the above

175. If a person has a “Green Card” which visa number is it?

A. L-1

B. I-551

C. P-1

D. H-1

176. Which of the following would not generally be a factor indicating an employee’s domicile?

A. Physical presence

B. Where an employee votes

C. Where the employee’s immediate family lives

D. State issuing the employee’s driver’s license

177. What amount of foreign earned income can be excluded from a U.S. citizens or resident alien gross income, when working outside the U.S.?

A. $102,100

B. $101,300

C. $100,800

D. $99,200

178. What visa would a student have?

A. T-1

B. S-1

C. Q-1

D. F-1

179. Which of the following would not qualify as a foreign country under the 911 exclusion?

A. Canada

B. Spain

C. Mexico

D. Guam

180. On what income are US citizens and resident aliens subject to federal income tax?

A. World-wide income

B. U.S income

C. Foreign income

D. only amount over 102,100

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