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A&P II Online 2020 Exam 21) The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) internal respiratory tract. D) alveoli of the respiratory tract. E) respiratory mucosa. 2) Exposure to ________ generally causes a rapid increase in the rate of mucus production in the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. A) noxious vapors B) unpleasant stimuli C) allergens D) debris or pathogens E) All of the answers are correct.3) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from A) genetic mutation in cilia production. B) laryngospasms. C) thick secretions that are difficult to transport. D) lack of neural control of respiration.E) reduced mucus secretions in the trachea. 4) The nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx constitute the ________ portion of the airway. A) conducting B) exchange C) respiratory D) sinus E) primary5) Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium A) Clostridium difficile. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D) Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus. E) Tuberculin plumonae.6) Which of the following is false about the pharynx?A) It is shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems.B) The nasopharynx is superior.C) The oropharynx connects to oral cavity.D) The laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening.E) Solids, liquids, and gases pass through.7) Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system?A) pharynxB) tracheaC) larynxD) bronchiE) alveoli8) Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following except A) filtering the air. B) warming the air. C) humidifying the air. D) housing tonsils. E) housing olfactory receptors. 9) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by theA) hard palate.B) soft palate.C) cribriform plate.D) internal nares.E) pharyngeal septum.10) The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. A) nasopharynx B) trachea C) oropharynx D) larynx E) nasal cavity 11) Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can A) move the cricoid cartilage. B) close the glottis.C) constrict the trachea. D) move food from the larynx to the esophagus.E) assist in breathing during exercise.12) Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song, she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she produces is A) low pitched and loud. B) high pitched and loud. C) low pitched and soft. D) high pitched and soft. E) medium pitched and soft. Figure 23-1 The Upper AirwaysUse Figure 23-1 to answer the following questions:13) What is the function of the structures labeled "12"? A) cause air to swirl within the respiratory passageway B) improve warming of incoming air C) create narrow passages D) help olfaction E) All of the answers are correct. 14) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) internal nares B) esophagus C) glottis D) oropharynx E) laryngopharynx 15) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) olfactory organ B) oropharynx C) nasopharynx D) internal nares E) nasal sinus 16) The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal cartilages. A) 1.0 cm; 15-20B) 1.0 cm; 10-15 C) 2.5 cm; 15-20 D) 2.5 cm; 40-50 E) 4.5 cm; 60-80 17) Which of the following statements about the trachea is false? A) It is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) Tracheal cartilages prevent tracheal collapse.C) It contains many mucous glands. D) It alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system. E) It is reinforced with D-shaped cartilages.18) The ________ branch from the trachea at the carina.A) terminal bronchioles B) secondary bronchi C) tertiary bronchi D) primary bronchi E) alveolar ducts 19) The following is a list of some airways. What is the order in which air passes through them?1. secondary bronchus2. bronchioles3. alveolar ducts4. primary bronchus5. respiratory bronchiole6. alveoli7. terminal bronchioleA) 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6 B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6 C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6 D) 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6 E) 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6 20) Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a clot or similar obstruction is A) emphysema. B) COPD. C) anoxia. D) pulmonary embolism. E) pneumothorax. 21) Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in A) a loss of surfactant. B) an increased rate of gas exchange. C) decreased surface tension in the alveoli.D) expansion of alveoli. E) All of the answers are correct.22) Asthma is A) a collapsed lung resulting from insufficient production of surfactant. B) due to an excessive stimulation of smooth muscle in bronchioles. C) an obstructive tumor targeting primarily the terminal bronchioles.D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli. E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 23) Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch?A) right lungB) left lungC) right primary bronchusD) left primary bronchusE) diaphragm24) When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that A) they are equal. B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric. C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary. D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary. E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric. 25) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is A) greater than intraalveolar pressure. B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere. C) less than intrapulmonic pressure. D) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere. E) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere. 26) What occurs if intrapulmonic pressure is 763 mm Hg? A) hyperventilation B) exhalation C) pause in breathing D) apnea E) inhalation 27) The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the intrapleural space. A) pleurisy B) pneumonia C) pneumothorax D) pulmonary edema E) emphysema 28) Pulmonary ventilation refers to the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. C) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space. D) movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells. E) utilization of oxygen. 29) ________ = respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space) A) Vital capacity B) Respiratory minute volume C) Pulmonary ventilation rateD) Alveolar ventilation rate E) External respiration rate 30) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs isA) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.D) greater than intraalveolar pressure.E) less than intrapulmonic pressure.31) While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through the skin and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe is probably suffering from A) a collapsed trachea. B) an obstruction in the bronchi. C) a pneumothorax. D) decreased surfactant production. E) a bruised diaphragm. Figure 23-2 Mechanics of VentilationUse Figure 23-2 to answer the following questions:32) Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled "1"? A) rectus abdominis B) internal intercostals C) external intercostals D) diaphragm E) both rectus abdominis and external intercostals33) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "3"? A) P outside = P inside B) P outside > P inside C) P outside < P inside D) P outside + P inside E) P outside - P inside 34) Venae cavae are the largest of what type of vessel?A) arteryB) arterioleC) capillaryD) venuleE) vein35) Relative to the lumen, which of the following vessels has the thickest tunica media?A) arteriesB) arteriolesC) capillariesD) venulesE) veins36) Factors that increase the risk of atherosclerosis include which of the following?A) high cholesterolB) lack of exerciseC) smokingD) obesityE) All of the answers are correct.37) What structure do RBCs move through single-file?A) arteryB) arterioleC) capillaryD) venuleE) vein38) What vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply?A) arteriesB) arteriolesC) capillariesD) venulesE) veins39) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in theA) artery.B) arteriole.C) capillary.D) venule.E) vein.40) Blood pressure is lowest in theA) arteries.B) arterioles.C) capillaries.D) venules.E) veins.41) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except A) increased sympathetic stimulation. B) elevated levels of epinephrine. C) vasodilation. D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques. E) elevated hematocrit. 42) Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space? A) Blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from the capillary to the interstitial space. B) Blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from the interstitial space to the capillary. C) The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure. D) The hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement. E) The net filtration pressure is usually zero. 43) Which of the following opposes the flow of blood back to the heart? A) vascular resistance B) peripheral veins have valves to prevent backflow of blood C) muscular pumps squeeze veins and move blood toward the heart D) blood pressure E) blood pressure gradient from arteries to veins 44) When carotid and aortic baroreceptors reduce their output, A) heart rate increases. B) heart rate decreases. C) stroke volume increases. D) both heart rate and stroke volume increase.E) the heart rate will decrease to lower blood pressure.45) Vickie has a tumor that secretes excess amounts of the hormone aldosterone. Because of the elevated level of hormone, she exhibits A) decreased blood volume. B) increased blood pressure. C) increased body stores of sodium ion. D) polycythemia. E) both an increase in blood pressure and an increase in stored sodium ion.46) Which of the following changes does not occur during exercise compared to rest?A) Cardiac output is higher. B) Heart blood flow is higher. C) Skin blood flow is lower.D) Abdominal viscera blood flow is lower.E) Kidney blood flow is lower.47) ADH and aldosterone secretion are part of the body's long-term compensation for A) a heart attack. B) hypertension. C) a serious hemorrhage. D) prolonged exercise. E) a heavy meal. 48) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following exceptA) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure. B) inhibition of EPO secretion. C) activation of ADH secretion. D) activation of aldosterone secretion. E) increased thirst and water intake. Answer: BLearning Outcome: 21-4Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension49) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to theA) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) lungs. D) aorta. E) systemic circuit. 50) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________. A) deoxygenated; left atrium B) oxygenated; right lung C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava D) deoxygenated; right atrium E) oxygenated; left atrium 51) The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood into the liver. A) hepatic artery B) gastric vein C) myenteric capillaries D) hepatic portal vein E) superior mesenteric vein Figure 21-1 ArteriesUse Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions:52) Identify the artery labeled "16." A) axillary B) inferior mesenteric C) celiac D) superior mesenteric E) splenic 53) Identify the artery labeled "12." A) axillary B) inferior mesenteric C) celiac trunkD) superior mesenteric E) splenic 54) Identify the artery labeled "1." A) axillary B) brachiocephalic trunk C) common carotid D) ascending aorta E) brachial 55) Identify the arteries labeled "9." A) axillary B) brachiocephalic C) common carotid D) aorta E) brachial 56) Identify the artery labeled "6." A) common iliac B) internal iliac C) external iliac D) abdominal aorta E) femoral 57) Identify the vein labeled "9." A) axillary B) brachial C) cephalic D) basilic E) median cubital 58) Identify the vein labeled "15." A) axillary B) brachial C) radial D) basilic E) ulnar 59) Identify the vein labeled "10." A) inferior vena cava B) superior vena cava C) aorta D) pulmonary E) thoracic 60) Which of the following is not a cardiovascular modification present during fetal development?A) ductus arteriosusB) ductus venosusC) foramen ovaleD) ligamentum arteriosumE) They are all present in the fetus.61) The resistance to blood flow of the entire cardiovascular system is known as A) severe combined constriction.B) vasomotion.C) vasoconstriction.D) total peripheral resistance.E) systemic resistance.62) The term ________ refers to the pressure in the arterial side of the circulatory system. A) pulse pressureB) arterial pressureC) atrial pressureD) blood pressureE) colloid osmotic pressure63) The bronchial arteries branch from the ________ to supply the lung airways. A) pulmonary arteriesB) thoracic aortaC) pulmonary veinsD) pleural arteriesE) brachiocephalic trunk64) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the brain from the anterior direction is the ________ artery.A) basilar B) middle cerebral C) vertebral D) internal carotid E) All of the answers are correct. 65) The blood vessel that branches to form a right common carotid and a right subclavian artery is the A) ascending aorta.B) aortic arch.C) brachiocephalic artery.D) thoracic aorta.E) axillary artery.66) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the cerebral arterial circle from the posterior is the ________ artery.A) basilar B) middle cerebral C) vertebral D) internal carotid E) posterior cerebral Answer: ALearning Outcome: 21-7Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge67) Lymphocytes provide an adaptive or specific defense known as the A) phagocytic response. B) adaptive defense. C) immune response. D) lymphocytic response. E) inflammation of tissues. 68) The lymphatic system does all of the following except A) helps maintain normal blood volume. B) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes. C) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid. D) transports lipids from the digestive tract. E) fights infection. 69) Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following except that they A) have no basement membrane. B) have only a tunica interna. C) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles. D) are smaller in diameter. E) are frequently irregular in shape. 70) All of the following are true of the thymus gland except that it A) activates B cells. B) reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life. C) involutes after puberty. D) produces T cells. E) lies in the anterior mediastinum. 71) The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T 72) Lymphocytes A) are actively phagocytic. B) destroy red blood cells. C) respond to antigens. D) are primarily found in red bone marrow. E) decrease in number during infection. 73) The term lymphadenopathy refers to A) a congenital lack or malformation of lymph nodes. B) a chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes. C) accumulations of lymph in the tissue space. D) the lack of lymphocytes in peripheral circulation. E) increased numbers of circulating lymphocytes. 74) Stem cells that will form B cells or NK cells are found only in the A) red bone marrow. B) liver. C) spleen. D) thymus. E) kidneys. 75) The white pulp of the spleen is populated by A) lymphocytes. B) trabeculae. C) arteries. D) veins. E) fibrous connective tissue. 76) Lymphocyte production and maturation involves A) bone marrow. B) thymus tissue. C) peripheral lymphatic tissues. D) stem cells.E) All of the answers are correct. 77) Which of the following statements about lymph flow in a node is false? A) Lymph enters in an afferent lymphatic. B) Lymph first enters the subcapsular space. C) Lymph flows past dendritic cells. D) The efferent lymphatic exits at the hilum. E) The afferent lymphatic enters at the hilum. 78) If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of A) B lymphocytes. B) NK cells. C) T cells. D) neutrophils. E) red blood cells. Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph NodeUse Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions:79) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) efferent lymphatic vessel B) venule C) arteriole D) afferent lymphatic vessel E) lymphatic nodule 80) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) deep cortex B) capsule C) subcapsular space D) trabeculae E) outer cortex 81) Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled "4." A) T cells B) B cells C) erythrocytes D) platelets E) All of the answers are correct. 82) Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include A) sebaceous glands. B) mucus. C) epithelia. D) epidermal layers. E) All of the answers are correct. 83) A sample of John's blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John A) is feeling achy. B) is producing T lymphocytes. C) has a sore throat. D) is running a fever. E) has swollen lymph nodes. 84) Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) immunological surveillance. D) skin defenses. E) fever. 85) Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity. A) naturally acquired active B) natural passive C) passively acquired D) automatically acquired E) innate 86) Hormones of the immune system include all of the following except A) interleukins. B) interferons. C) natriuretic factor. D) thymosins. E) tumor necrosis factor. 87) Which of the following about MHC proteins is false? A) bind complement B) allow the body to differentiate its own cells from foreign cells C) function in antigen presentation D) fall into two major classes E) are found on all nucleated cells 88) Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only A) when plasma cells are releasing antibodies. B) in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes. C) when cytotoxic T cells are inhibited. D) when NK cells are activated. E) during infections. 89) The binding of an antibody to an antigen can result in all of the following except A) neutralization of the antigen. B) agglutination or precipitation. C) complement activation and opsonization. D) release of perforin. E) All of the answers are correct. 90) Each IgG has ________ binding sites for attachment to antigenic determinants.A) 1 B) 2C) 4D) up to 8E) as many as a 100091) In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person A) has just recovered from mumps. B) was recently infected with mumps. C) is allergic to mumps. D) is immune to mumps. E) is relying on passive immunity. 92) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) cytotoxic T D) helper T E) suppressor T 93) Which of the following is not a characteristic of AIDS?A) has killed at least 1/2 million people in the United StatesB) is spread most often through sexual contactC) attacks the T helper (CD4) cellsD) is declining worldwideE) almost always eventually fatal94) The ________ lymphatics leave the lymph node at the hilum.A) ascendingB) lateralC) afferentD) descendingE) efferent95) Lymphatic tissues are connective tissues dominated by A) mast cells.B) plasma cells.C) fibroblasts.D) monocytes.E) lymphocytes.96) Phagocytic cells that are permanent residents of specific tissues and organs are called A) monocytes.B) neutrophils.C) leukocytes.D) fixed macrophages.E) local macrophages.97) ________ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time. A) SecondaryB) PrimaryC) MemoryD) ResponderE) Transponder98) CD8 markers are to ________ T cells as CD4 markers are to ________ T cells. A) suppressor; cytoxicB) cytoxic; helperC) helper; suppressorD) NK; cytoxicE) plasma; NK99) When large numbers of antibodies encounter their antigenic targets, they interact to form a three-dimensional structure known as a(n) A) agglutination aggregate.B) immune complex.C) defense group.D) complement division.E) detoxification unit.100) The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called A) opsonization.B) activation.C) agglutination.D) precipitation.E) neutralization.101) Put the following layers of the digestive tract wall in order from the lumen to the deepest layer.1. lamina propria4. digestive (mucous) epithelium2. muscularis externa5. serosa3. submucosa6. muscularis mucosaeA) 5, 2, 3, 6, 1, 4 B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5 C) 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5 D) 5, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3 E) 1, 4, 3, 6, 2, 5 102) The activities of the digestive system are regulated by A) hormones. B) parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons. C) the contents of the digestive tract. D) intrinsic nerve plexuses.E) All of the answers are correct.103) Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and folds. A) mucosa B) submucosa C) submucosal plexus D) muscularis mucosa E) adventitia 104) Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the A) mucosa. B) submucosa. C) muscularis. D) adventitia. E) serosa. 105) A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following except in the A) anal canal. B) esophagus. C) stomach. D) oropharynx. E) oral cavity. 106) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver? A) falciform ligament B) greater omentum C) mesentery proper D) lesser omentum E) diaphragm 107) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would A) increase intestinal motility. B) decrease intestinal motility. C) increase gastric secretion. D) decrease gastric secretion. E) interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion. 108) ________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity. A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) Six to Ten 109) A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx prematurely is theA) uvula. B) pharyngeal arch. C) palatoglossal arch. D) palatopharyngeal arch. E) epiglottis. 110) The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called A) enamel. B) cementum. C) dentin. D) pulp. E) periodontium. 111) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands wouldA) occur when too much protein is ingested. B) cause mumps. C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. D) prevent emulsification of lipids. E) inhibit the secretion of saliva from other glands.112) In most cases, the mumps is a viral infection of the ________ glands.A) mandibular B) sublingual C) parotid D) submandibular E) lingual 113) Which of the following is not a function of the tongue? A) manipulation to assist with chewing B) mechanical processing C) passing food across occlusal surfaces D) secretion of mucins E) All of these are functions of the tongue.114) Functions of teeth include A) tearing. B) crushing. C) cutting. D) clipping. E) All of the answers are correct. 115) ________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping. A) Canines B) Bicuspids C) Cuspids D) Incisors E) Molars 116) ________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding. A) Molars B) Cuspids C) Eye teeth D) Canines E) Dentins 117) The epithelium lining the oropharynx isA) simple squamous.B) simple cuboidal.C) simple columnar.D) stratified squamous.E) pseudostratified squamous.118) Muscles known as the pharyngeal constrictors function in A) mastication. B) moving the tongue. C) swallowing. D) esophageal peristalsis. E) opening the cardiac sphincter. 119) Parietal cells secrete A) pepsinogen. B) gastrin. C) mucus. D) hydrochloric acid. E) enteropeptidase. 120) The portion of the stomach that is superior to the junction between the stomach and the esophagus is the A) cardia. B) pylorus. C) fundus. D) antrum. E) body. 121) The pylorus empties into theA) ileum. B) colon. C) cecum. D) jejunum. E) duodenum. 122) During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, A) the stomach responds to distention. B) secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells. C) increased production of gastric juice occurs. D) the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying. E) production of gastric juice slows down. 123) All of the following are true of the intestinal phase of gastric digestion except that it A) precedes the gastric phase. B) functions to control the rate of gastric emptying. C) involves both neural and endocrine reflexes. D) helps ensure that the functions of the small intestine proceed with relative efficiency. E) begins when chyme enters the small intestine. 124) All of the following are true of the lining of the stomach except that it A) has a simple columnar epithelium. B) is covered by a thick, viscous mucus. C) is constantly being replaced. D) contains gastric pits. E) recycles bile. 125) Match the gastric phase on the left (1-3) with the correct description on the right (4-6): 1. intestinal phase4. prepares stomach for arrival of food2. gastric phase5. stomach empties and decreases secretions3. cephalic phase6. stomach secretes juice and mixes food into chyme A) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and 6 B) 1 and 6; 2 and 4; 3 and 5 C) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6 D) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and 4 E) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4 126) A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in A) a lower pH during gastric digestion. B) a higher pH during gastric digestion. C) decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells. D) increased protein digestion in the stomach. E) decreased gastrin production. Figure 24-1 The Stomach (dissected)Use Figure 24-1 to answer the following questions:127) What is the function of the structure labeled "6"? A) strains materials entering the stomach B) regulates gastric emptying C) mixes stomach juice into food D) controls contraction of stomach muscles E) prevents food from entering the esophagus 128) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) longitudinal muscle layer B) circular muscle layer C) oblique muscle layer D) submucosa E) rugae 129) The villi are most developed in the A) stomach. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) gallbladder. E) cecum. 130) Which of the following enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine? A) the circular folds B) the villiC) the microvilli D) intestinal movements E) All of the answers are correct. ................
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