1
Professor McClure believes that young children are frequently able to make morally correct decisions because humans are endowed with an inborn knowledge of basic ethical principles. The professor’s belief is most consistent with the view of:
a. Aristotle
b. Plato
c. John Locke
d. Francis Bacon
e. Democritus
1. Research participants were asked to monitor and report their own immediate sensory reactions to differently colored objects. This research involved a technique known as:
a. PRTR
b. Behavior genetics
c. Psychoanalysis
d. Massed practice
e. Introspection
2. The unreliability of introspection contributed to the waning popularity of:
a. Structuralism
b. Pragmatism
c. Empiricism
d. Behaviorism
e. Psychoanalysis
3. Contemporary psychology is best defined as the science of:
a. Conscious and unconscious mental activity
b. Observable responses to the environment
c. Behavior and mental processes
d. Thoughts, feelings, and perceptions
e. Maladaptive and adaptive behaviors
4. Efforts to discover whether the intelligence of children is more heavily influenced by their genetic dispositions or by their home environments are most directly relevant to the debate regarding:
a. Structuralism versus functionalism.
b. Rationality versus irrationality.
c. Observation versus introspection.
d. Psychoanalysis versus associationism
e. Nature versus nurture.
5. The neuroscience perspective in psychology would be most likely to emphasize that behavior is influenced by:
a. Environmental circumstances.
b. Blood chemistry.
c. Unconscious conflicts.
d. Subjective interpretations.
e. Rewards and punishments
6. Professor Crisman believes that most women prefer tall and physically strong partners because this preference enhanced the reproductive success of our female ancestors. This viewpoint best illustrate the ____ perspective.
a. Social-cultural
b. Behavioral
c. Cognitive
d. Evolutionary
e. Psychodynamic
7. Professor Lopez believes that severe depression results primarily from an unbalanced diet and abnormal brain chemistry. Professor Lopez favors a ___ perspective on depression.
a. Neuroscience
b. Social-cultural
c. Psychodynamic
d. Behavior genetics
e. Cognitive
8. Mrs. Alfieri believes that her husband’s irritability toward her results from his unconscious feelings of hostility toward his own mother. Mrs. Alfieri is interpreting her husband’s behavior from a(n) ___ perspective.
a. Evolutionary
b. Behavioral
c. Psychodynamic
d. Behavior genetics
e. Social-cultural
9. Although Paul seems bright and capable to his parents and friends, he has been failing in school. Paul agrees to speak with a psychologist, who suggests that his problems stem from internal processes such as unrealistic expectations and negative thinking. The psychologist’s view is typical of which of the following models of behavior?
a. Psychoanalytic
b. Humanistic
c. Cognitive
d. Sociobiological
e. Behavioral
10. Mrs. Thompson believes that her son has become an excellent student because she consistently uses praise and affection to stimulate his learning efforts. Her belief best illustrates a ___ perspective.
a. Behavior genetics
b. Cognitive
c. Neuroscience
d. Psychodynamic
e. Behavioral
11. In a written report of their research, psychologists specify exactly how anxiety is assessed, thus providing their readers with a(n):
a. Hypothesis
b. Independent variable
c. Operational definition
d. Standard deviation
e. Confounding variable
12. The most distinctive characteristic of the experimental method is that it
a. Studies a few people in great depth
b. Studies subjects in their natural environment
c. Is an efficient way to discover how people feel
d. Seeks to establish cause-effect relationships
e. Provides a chronological basis for reaching conclusions
13. A double-blind control is essential for which of the following?
a. A study comparing the IQ test scores of children from different educational systems
b. A study of relationships among family members
c. An experiment to determine the effect of a food reward on the bar-pressing rate of a rat
d. Assessment of a treatment designed to reduce schizophrenic symptoms
e. A survey of drug use among teenagers.
14. The case study is a research method in which:
a. A single individual is studied in great depth
b. A representative sample of people are questioned regarding their opinions or behaviors
c. Organisms are carefully observed in a laboratory environment
d. An investigator manipulates one or more variables that might affect behavior
e. A cross-section of the population is compared
15. Jeff mistakenly assumes that everybody around him enjoys listening to country music just as much as he does. Jeff best illustrates:
a. the false consensus effect
b. the hindsight bias
c. an illusion of control
d. the placebo effect
e. stereotyping
16. The function of dendrites is to:
a. Receive incoming signals from other neurons
b. Release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons
c. Coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems
d. Control pain though the release of opiate like chemicals into the brain
e. Determine when additional hormones are required in the bloodstream
17. The speed at which a neural impulse travels is increased when the axon is encased by a(n):
a. Association area
b. Myelin sheath
c. Endocrine gland
d. Glial cell
e. Synaptic vesicle
18. An action potential is generated by the movement of:
a. Glial cells
b. Hormones
c. Vesicles
d. Ions
e. Neurotransmitters
19. Sir Charles Sherrington observed that impulses took more time to travel a neural pathway than he might have anticipated. His observation provided evidence for the existence of:
a. Association areas
b. Glial cells
c. Synaptic gaps
d. Interneurons
e. Neural networks
20. Neurotransmitters are released from vesicles located in knoblike terminals on the:
a. Dendrites
b. Soma
c. Axon
d. Myelin sheath
e. Nucleus
21. Schizophrenia is most closely linked with excess receptor activity for the neurotransmitter:
a. Dopamine
b. Epinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin
e. GABA
22. An undersupply of serotonin is most closely linked to:
a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Schizophrenia
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Depression
e. Multiple Sclerosis
23. Epinephrine is to hormone as acetylcholine is to:
a. Synapse
b. Action potential
c. Endorphin
d. Neurotransmitter
e. Glial cell
24. Botulin poisoning from improperly canned food causes paralysis by blocking the release of:
a. Endorphins
b. Epinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Dopamine
e. GABA
25. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to muscles in your hands by the ___ nervous system.
a. Central
b. Peripheral
c. Parasympathetic
d. Sympathetic
e. Autonomic
26. Neural networks refer to:
a. The branching extensions of a neuron
b. Functionally interconnected clusters of neurons in the central nervous system
c. Neural cables containing many axons
d. Junctions between sending and receiving neurons
e. Neurons that connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
27. In order to identify which of Lucy’s brain areas was most active when she talked neuroscientist gave her a temporarily radioactive form of glucose and a(n):
a. CT scan
b. PET scan
c. EEG
d. MRI
e. FMRI
28. Which of the following is a brain-imaging technique that produces the most detailed picture of brain structure?
a. EEG
b. MRI
c. PET
d. CT
e. EMG
29. The part of the brainstem that controls heartbeat and breathing is called the:
a. Cerebellum
b. Medulla
c. Reticular formation
d. Thalamus
e. Pons
30. The thalamus processes information for all of the following senses EXCEPT
a. Smell
b. Hearing
c. Taste
d. Vision
e. touch
31. A brain tumor that results in obesity would most likely be located in the
a. Left frontal lobe
b. Base of the brain stem
c. Area of the hypothalamus
d. Reticular activating system
e. Somatosensory cortex
32. Severing a cat’s reticular formation from higher brain regions causes the cat to:
a. Become violently aggressive
b. Cower in fear
c. Experience convulsive seizures
d. Lapse into a coma
e. Become sexually preoccupied
33. Phineas Gage showed severe personality changes following an accident that damaged the
a. Cerebellum
b. Temporal cortex
c. Hypothalamus
d. Hippocampus
e. Prefrontal cortex
34. The language disorder in which speech flows smoothly as a nonsensical “word salad” is:
a. Broca’s aphasia
b. Wernicke’s aphasia
c. Apraxia
d. The split-brain syndrome
e. Brain lesion
35. Which of the following areas of the body has the largest number of sensory neurons?
a. Back
b. Foot
c. Ear
d. Lips
e. Wrist
36. The experience of auditory hallucinations by people with schizophrenia is most closely linked with the activation of areas in their:
a. Motor cortex
b. Wernicke’s area
c. Temporal lobes
d. Hypothalamus
e. Broca’s area
37. After he suffered a stroke, Mr. Santore’s physical coordination skills and responsiveness to sensory stimulation quickly returned to normal. Unfortunately, however, he began to experience unusual difficulty in scheduling his daily activities and solving simple problems. It is most likely that Mr. Santore suffered damage to his:
a. Cerebellum
b. Thalamus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Autonomic nervous system
e. Association areas
38. Which of the following parts of the brain is most active in decision-making?
a. Reticular formation
b. Corpus callosum
c. Hypothalamus
d. Cerebral cortex
e. Pituitary gland
39. After a severe hockey injury, Louis lost his ability to read, even though he could see well, speak fluently, and understand whatever others said. It is likely that his cortex was damaged in:
a. The angular gyrus
b. Wernicke’s area
c. The frontal lobe
d. Broca’s area
e. Somatosensory cortex
40. The benefits of brain plasticity are most clearly demonstrated in:
a. Children who have had a cerebral hemisphere surgically removed
b. Individuals with Alzheimer’s disease
c. Adults with aphasia
d. Elderly stroke patients
e. People free of any disease or brain damage
41. The human genome is the complete
a. Set of human sexual characteristics regulated by the X and Y chromosomes
b. Range of traits that contribute to reproductive success
c. Sequence of nucleotides organized as coiled chains of DNA
d. Sequence of DNA organized within the chromosomes
e. Cascade of interactions between genetic predispositions and surrounding environments
42. Human genetic diversity consists of the variations in the sequence of our
a. Nucleotides
b. Synapses
c. Memes
d. Gender schemas
e. Hormones
43. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to predict that
a. Fathers are more protective of their children than mothers
b. Mothers are more protective of their children than fathers
c. People are the most romantically attracted to those who are the most genetically dissimilar to themselves
d. Genetic predispositions have little effect on our social relationships
e. Children are not likely to be abused by their biological parents
44. Men judge women as especially attractive if they appear __________ and women judge men as especially attractive if they appear __________.
a. Mature; mature
b. Youthful; youthful
c. Mature;’ youthful
d. Youthful; mature
e. Successful; mature
45. A child’s temperament is likely to be
a. Difficult to observe
b. Stable over time
c. A product of parenting style
d. A reflection of their gender schemas
e. Changing according to stages of development
46. For children from impoverished environments, stimulating educational experiences during early childhood are most likely to
a. Facilitate the development of nucleotides
b. Decrease their emotional attachment to their own parents
c. Have no discernable effect on subsequent academic performance
d. Prevent the degeneration of activated connections between neurons
e. All of the above
47. It has been suggested that our sensitivity to peer influence is genetically predisposed because it has facilitated the process of human mating. This suggestion best illustrates
a. Gender schema theory
b. Freudian psychology
c. Molecular genetics
d. An evolutionary perspective
e. Behavior genetics
54. A cluster of behaviors expected of those who occupy a particular social position is a
a. Norm
b. Role
c. Schema
d. Meme
e. Culture
55. Gender identify refers to
a. One’s biological sex
b. The sense of being male or female
c. The set of expected behaviors for males and females
d. How masculine a boy is or how feminine a girl is
e. A person’s identification with the parent of the opposite sex
56. Gender role refers to
a. One’s biological sex
b. The sense of being male or female
c. The set of expected behaviors for males and females
d. The sense of being homosexual or heterosexual
e. How masculine a boy is or how feminine a girl is
57. The practice of covering your mouth when you yawn best illustrates the impact of
a. Genetic predispositions
b. Roles
c. Gender schemas
d. Personal space
e. Norms
58. Genetic influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by comparing __________ with __________,
a. Identical twins raised together; identical twins raised apart
b. Fraternal twins raised together; fraternal twins raised apart
c. Identical twins raised together; fraternal twins raised together
d. Identical twins raised apart; fraternal twins raised together
e. Fraternal twins raised apart; fraternal twins raised together
59. Our selective exposure to those life experiences that are best suited to our unique temperaments best illustrates the interaction of
a. Roles and norms
b. Nature and nurture
c. Schemas and memes
d. Neural connections and maturation
e. Gender and ethnicity
60. The smallest unit of meaning in a language are
a. Phonemes
b. Phenomes
c. Morphemes
d. Morphines
e. Pheromones
61. In the Harlow study of emotional attachment, infant monkeys were placed in a cage and given both a “wire” mother and a “cloth” mother. Researchers then moved a bottle of milk from one mother to the other while introducing various stimuli to see if the monkey would form attachment to either of the “mothers.” In this experiment, the independent variable is
a. The placement of the bottle of milk
b. The “wire” mother versus the “cloth” mother
c. The preference of the infants for the “wire” mother
d. The preference of the infants for the “cloth” mother
e. The preference of the infants for the source of milk
62. In the above example, the dependent variable is
a. The placement of the bottle of milk
b. The “wire” mother versus the “cloth” mother
c. The various stimuli introduced to the infant monkeys
d. The preference of the infants for the “cloth” mother
e. The preference of the infants for the source of milk
63. All of the following are stages in the development of language that children of virtually every culture go through EXCEPT
a. Babbling
b. Grammatical speech
c. Telegraphic speech
d. One-word sentences
e. Introductive speech
64. The rules that govern the placement of words and phrases in a sentence are called
a. Semantics
b. Grammar
c. Syntax
d. Phonemes
e. Morphemes
65. Piaget proposed that children develop knowledge by
a. Constructing reality out of their own experiences
b. Participating in traditional learning environments
c. Responding to physiological changes
d. Modeling various cultural influences
e. Drawing on genetically predisposed knowledge
66. 14-mont-old toddler is placed in an unfamiliar situation with the child’s mother, who then leaves the room for a time. When the mother returns, the child squirms and tries to get away from the mother when picked up, but also seems distressed when placed back on the floor. Mary Ainsworth would consider this evidence of which of the following?
a. Hyperactivity
b. Narcissistic personality type
c. Resistant or ambivalent attachment style
d. Avoidance
e. Secure attachment style
67. Which Piagetian stage of cognitive development is characterized by mastery of conservation tasks?
a. Sensorimotor
b. Preoperational
c. Concrete operations
d. Formal operations
e. Tertiary circular reactions
68. The rules of grammar are rules of
a. Phonemes
b. Morphemes
c. Semantics
d. Syntax
e. Pragmatics
69. A baby looks under the sofa for a ball that has just rolled underneath it. According to Piaget, the baby’s action shows development of
a. Conservation of mass
b. Reversibility
c. Object permanence
d. Logical thinking
e. Metacognition
70. Mary Ainswothr’s Strange Situation paradigm is typically used to test young children’s
a. Ego strength
b. Intelligence
c. Reaction time
d. Incidental learning
e. Attachment
71. Noam Chomsky’s view of language proposes that
a. There is an inherent language acquisition device
b. Thinking is merely subvocal language
c. Different levels of language ability are hereditarily determined
d. Language acquisition can be explained by social modeling
e. Language is learned principally through verbal reinforcement
72. The most well-adjusted and socially competent children tend to come from home where parents employ which of the following parental styles?
a. Minimal supervision
b. Authoritarian
c. Authoritative
d. Indulgent
e. Permissive
73. Our readiness to learn walking at about age 1 represents the development of
a. The cerebellum
b. The cerebral cortex
c. Object permanence
d. Reflexive balance
e. Sensorimotor skills
74. If research suggested that a prenatal mother’s use of an artificial sweetener caused harm to the fetus, the artificial sweetener would be considered a(n)
a. FAS
b. Forma of DNA
c. Depressant
d. Teratogen
e. Neurotransmitter
75. The rooting reflex refers to a baby’s tendency to
a. Withdraw a limb to escape pain
b. Turn the head away from a cloth placed over the face
c. Look longer at human faces than at inanimate objects
d. Be startled by a loud noise
e. Open the mouth in search of a nipple when touched on the cheek
76. Habituation refers to the
a. Awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived
b. Decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed
c. Adjustment of current schemas to make sense of new information
d. Interpretation of new information in terms of existing schemas
e. Biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience
77. Four-year-old Karen can’t remember anything of the first few months of her life. This is best explained by the fact that
a. The trauma of birth interfered with the subsequent formation of memories
b. Most brain cells do not yet exist at the time of birth
c. Experiences shortly after birth are a meaningless blur of darkness and light
d. Many neural connection that underlie memories are only beginning to form shortly after birth
e. Early memories are repressed
78. Mr. And Mrs. Batson can’t wait to begin toilet training their one-year-old daughter. The Batson most clearly need to be informed about the importance of
a. Imprinting
b. Habituation
c. Fluid intelligence
d. Maturation readiness
e. Object permanence
79. The body structures that enable reproduction are the
a. Primary sex characteristics
b. Secondary sex characteristics
c. Teratogens
d. Sex-linked genes
e. Gender schemas
80. According to Erikson, adolescence is to identity as late adulthood is to
a. Integrity
b. Autonomy
c. Generativity
d. Intimacy
e. Trust
81. Sixteen-year-old Brenda questions her parents’ values but does not fully accept her friends’ standard either. Her confusion about twhat she really wants and values in life suggests that Brenda is struggling with the problem of
a. Autonomy
b. Identity
c. Initiative
d. Integrity
e. Generativity
82. Physical abilities such as muscular strength, reaction time, sensory keenness, and cardiac output reach their peak during
a. Late adolescence
b. Early adulthood
c. Puberty
d. Late adulthood
e. Middle adulthood
83. Alzheimer’s disease involves a deterioration of neurons that produce
a. Dopamine
b. Estrogen
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin
e. Epinephrine
84. Three-month-old Andrew was obviously startled by the first ring of the telephone, but with each subsequent ring he seemed to become less reactive. This best illustrates the process of
a. Accommodation
b. Assimilation
c. Conservation
d. Habituation
e. Imprinting
85. Giulio’s bag of marbles is twice as heavy as Jim’s. If it takes 5 extra marbles to make Jim’s bag feel heavier, it will take 10 extra marbles to make Giulio’s bag feel heavier. This best illustrates:
a. the opponent-process theory
b. accommodation
c. frequency theory
d. sensory adaptation
e. Weber’s law
86. Sensory adaptation refers to:
a. the process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural impulses.
b. Diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus
c. The process of selecting, organizing, and interpreting sensory information
d. Changes in the shape of the lens as it focuses on objects
e. The heightening of one sense to compensate for a decrease in another one
87. The constant quivering movements of our eyes are necessary in order to:
a. facilitate the process of accommodation
b. illuminate the entire retina
c. minimize sensory adaptation
d. do all of the above
e. enable the ganglion cells to efficiently fire
88. The process by which our sensory systems convert stimulus energies into neural messages is called:
a. Accommodation
b. sensory adaptation
c. transduction
d. parallel processing
e. sensory interaction
89. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Weisel consist of:
a. nerve cells in the brain
b. rods and cones
c. bipolar cells
d. ganglion cells
e. olfactory receptor cells
90. The ability to simultaneously process the pitch, loudness, melody, and meaning of a song best illustrates:
a. sensory interaction
b. kinesthesis
c. accommodation
d. subliminal perception
e. parallel processing
91. Of the four distinct skin senses, specialized receptor cells have been identified for the sense of:
a. pressure
b. pain
c. warmth
d. cold
e. hot
92. The opponent-process theory is to our sense of color as the gate-control theory is to our sense of:
a. pitch
b. smell
c. equilibrium
d. kinesthesis
e. pain
93. When there is a conflict between bits of information received by two or more senses, which sense tends to dominate the others?
a. Hearing
b. Vision
c. Smell
d. Touch
e. none of the above; the senses work together as equal partners
94. The cocktail party effect provides an example of:
a. perceptual constancy.
b. Perceptual set.
c. Selective attention.
d. The phi phenomenon.
e. Perceptual adaptation.
95. The principles of connectedness and closure best illustrate that:
a. sensations are organized into meaningful patterns (Gestalt)
b. perception is the direct product of sensation
c. cultural experiences shape perception
d. visual information is especially likely to capture our attention
e. perceptual systems use the Geon theory to build a three dimensional world
96. Holding two index fingers in front of the eyes can create the perception of a floating finger sausage. This best illustrates the effect of:
a. Convergence
b. relative clarity
c. retinal disparity
d. interposition
e. visual capture
97. The ability of newly hatched chicks to perceive depth best serves to support the views of:
a. Locke
b. Kant
c. Freud
d. Aristotle
e. Watson
98. Which of the following cues do artists use to convey depth on a flat canvas?
a. Convergence
b. Continuity
c. Interposition
d. Closure
e. all of the above
99. Which of the following cues is most essential to the perception of depth in the visual cliff?
a. texture gradient
b. interposition
c. stroboscopic movement
d. connectedness
e. stereopsis
100. The sequentially flashing Christmas tree lights appeared to generate pulsating waves of motion. This best illustrates:
a. Stroboscopic movement
b. retinal disparity
c. the phi phenomenon
d. visual capture
e. perceptual adaptation
101. Although college textbooks frequently cast a trapezoidal image on the retina, students typically perceive the books as rectangular objects. This illustrates the importance of:
a. Interposition
b. size constancy
c. linear perspective
d. shape constancy
e. binocular cues
102. Of two identical horizontal bars in the Ponzo illusion, the bar that is ___ in the visual field appears to be ___ because it appears to be farther away.
a. higher; shorter
b. lower; shorter
c. higher; longer
d. lower; longer
e. none of the above; the Ponzo illusion deals with arrows
103. Consciousness is to subconsciousness as ___ is to ___.
a. monism; dualism
b. serial processing; parallel processing
c. narcolepsy; sleep apnea
d. latent content; manifest content
e. delta wave; alpha wave
104. Studies of daydreaming indicate that:
a. for most people, daydreaming is a rare occurrence
b. older adults spend more time daydreaming than do younger adults
c. among college students, women’s daydreams have more athletic content than do men’s
d. individuals who are prone to violence, delinquency, and foul language have fewer vivid fantasies
e. none of the above, day dreams are insignificant in consciousness
105. Those who emphasize that mood fluctuations may be indicative of seasonal affective disorder are highlighting the importance of:
a. the menstrual cycle
b. dissociation
c. REM sleep
d. Biological rhythms
e. Narcolepsy
106. False sensory experiences that occur in the absence of appropriate sensory stimulation are called:
a. night terrors
b. dreams
c. psychedelics
d. dissociations
e. hallucinations
107. The rhythmic burst of brain activity that occur during Stage 2 sleep are called:
a. alpha waves
b. paradoxical sleep
c. sleep spindles
d. delta waves
e. K complexes
108. Which of the following is a circadian rhythm?
a. The ebb and flow of an individual’s emotions during a 24 hour period
b. Jet lag experienced after an airline flight from Los Angeles to Tokyo
c. A cycle of biological functioning that lasts about 25 hours with no light cues
d. The series of five stages that people go through during a normal night’s sleep
e. The systematic alternation between alpha waves and delta waves during the different sleep stages
109. Sigmund Freud referred to dreaming as the
a. key to the kingdom
b. place where the rubber hits the road
c. royal road to the unconscious
d. height of the sublime
e. ego-defense mechanisms
110. REM sleep is called paradoxical sleep because:
a. our heart rate is slow and steady, while our breathing is highly irregular
b. we are deeply asleep but can be awakened easily
c. our nervous system is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move
d. it leads to highly imaginative dreams that are perceived as colorless images
e. internal and external states are in equilibrium
111. The human sleep cycle repeats itself about every:
a. 30 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 2 ½ hours
d. 4 hours
e. 60 minutes
112. During a heated argument with his teenage daughter, Mr. Reid suddenly lapsed into a state of REM sleep. Mr. Reid apparently suffers from:
a. Narcolepsy
b. Insomnia
c. sleep apnea
d. REM rebound
e. Sleepwalking
113. Mr. Oates always sleeps restlessly, snorting and gasping throughout the night. It is most likely that Mr. Oates suffers from:
a. sleep apnea
b. narcolepsy
c. night terror
d. insomnia
e. sleep talking
114. Greg remembered a recent dream in which his girlfriend suddenly grabbed the wheel of his speeding car to prevent him from driving off the edge of a cliff. Greg’s therapist suggested that the dream might be a representation of the girlfriend’s frantic efforts to save the couple from sexual disaster. According to Freud, the therapist was attempting to reveal the ___ of Greg’s dream.
a. REM content
b. Circadian rhythm
c. Latent content
d. Manifest content
e. EEG pattern
115. Evidence suggests that we consolidate our memories of recent life events through:
a. Dissociation
b. sleep apnea
c. night terrors
d. REM sleep
e. Sleep cycles
116. Which theory suggests that dreams are mental responses to random bursts of neural stimulation?
a. dissociation theory
b. social influence theory
c. activation-synthesis theory
d. Freud’s dream theory
e. Crick-McCarley Theory
117. Twenty-eight-year-old Theodore has an irrational fear of dogs. His therapist hypnotizes him and asks him to mentally relive his earliest childhood experience with a dog. The therapist is making use of:
a. posthypnotic amnesia
b. age regression
c. retrograde amnesia
d. temporal dissociation
e. the hidden observer
118. In Hilgard’s studies of pain sensitivity, the hidden observer reported experiences typically associated with:
a. the Freudian unconscious
b. paradoxical sleep
c. slow-wave sleep
d. normal consciousness
e. motivational conflict
119. The need to take larger and larger doses of a drug in order to experience its effects is an indication of:
a. Withdrawal
b. Dissociation
c. Resistance
d. Tolerance
e. narcolepsy
120. The discomfort and distress that follow the discontinued use of certain drugs is called:
a. Intolerance
b. Narcolepsy
c. Withdrawal
d. Retraction
e. dissociation
121. In large doses, alcohol is a ___; in small amounts, it is a ___.
a. depressant; stimulant
b. stimulant; depressant
c. hallucinogen; depressant
d. stimulant; stimulant
e. depressant; depressant
122. Pavlov's research on classical conditioning was important because:
a. it highlighted the role of cognitive processes in learning
b. so many different species of animals, including humans, can be classically conditioned.
c. it demonstrated an essential difference between animal and human learning.
d. of all the above reasons.
e. none of the above reasons, Pavlov's research is no longer relevant
123. Because Mr. Barron demonstrates appreciation only for classroom performance that is flawless, his students have become poor and unmotivated learners. Mr. Baron most clearly needs to be informed of the value of
a. Generalization
b. Modeling
c. Shaping
d. Latent learning
e. Spontaneous recovery
124.
Negative reinforcement is most clearly illustrated by which scenario?
a. A student’s disgustingly sarcastic jokes cease when his roommate lends him some bash
b. A campus “street dog” barks in appreciation when food handouts are given to him
c. A child is spanked for sassing her parents
d. A student earns the lowest grade on a test and is given an F
e. A child is forbidden to watch television for a week
125. In a well-known experiment, preschool children pounded and kicked a large inflated Bobo doll that an adult had just beaten on. This experiment served to illustrate the importance of
a. Negative reinforcement
b. Punishment
c. Classical conditioning
d. Observational learning
e. Spontaneous recovery
126. Makayla developed an intense fear of flying five years ago when she was in a plane crash. The fact that today she can again fly without distress indicates that her fear had undergone
a. Spontaneous recovery
b. Extinction
c. Generalization
d. Discrimination
e. Acquisition
127. Receiving delicious food is to escaping electric schock as __________ is to __________.
a. Positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer
b. Primary reinforcer; secondary reinforcer
c. Immediate reinforcer; delayed reinforcer
d. Reinforcement; punishment
e. Partial reinforcement; continuous reinforcement
128. Someone who contributes money to her church every Sunday donates according to a _____ reinforcement schedule.
a. Fixed-interval
b. Variable-interval
c. Fixed-ratio
d. Variable-ratio
e. Partial
129. For several years Ruth played softball for the sheer enjoyment of the game. Her loss of intrinsic interest in playing after being recruited by a professional team for $100 a game best illustrates:
a. The overjustification effect
b. Spontaneous recovery
c. Intermittent reinforcement
d. Latent learning
e. Respondent behavior
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