1
1. How many white blood cells are in normal urine analysis?
(a) 20-30
(b) 10-12
(c) 4-6
(d) 15-20
2. What normal level of blood urea?
(a) 1,1-3,0
(b) 3,8-11,3
(c) 4,3-10,3
(d) 3,3-8,3
3. What types of proteinuria do you know?
(a) glomerular, tubular, mixed
(b) interstitial, pelvical, uxtaglomerular
(c) capsular, peripheral, plural
(d) renal, prerenal, subrenal
4. What amount of red blood cells are in normal urine analysis?
a) 0-1-2
(b) 7-10
(c) 3-4-6
(d) 0-1
5. After it leaves the glomerulus, the filtrate empties into the:
distal convoluted tubule
loop of Henle
proximal convoluted tubule
collecting duct
6. The distal convoluted tubule is an important site for:
active secretion of ions
active secretion of acids and other materials
selective reabsorption of sodium ions from the tubular fluid
a, b, and c are correct
7. The endocrine structure that secretes renin and erythropoietin is the:
juxtaglomerular apparatus
vasa recta
Bowman's capsule
adrenal gland
8. The primary purpose of the collecting system is to:
transport urine from the bladder to the urethra
selectively reabsorb sodium ions from tubular fluid
transport urine from the renal pelvis to the ureters
make final adjustments to the osmotic concentration
and volume of urine
9. A person is in fluid balance when:
the extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid are isotonic
there is no fluid movement between compartments
the amount of water gained each day is equal to the
amount lost to the environment
a, b, and c are correct
10. The primary components of the extracellular fluid are:
lymph and cerebrospinal fluid
blood plasma and serous fluids
interstitial fluid and plasma
a, b, and c are correct
11. All the homeostatic mechanisms that monitor anc ai
the composition of body fluids respond to changes.
in the intracellular fluid
in the extracellular fluid
inside the cell
a, b, and c are correct
12. The most common problems with electrolyte balance
caused by an imbalance between gains and losses at
calcium ions
chloride ions
potassium ions
sodium ions
13. The urinary system regulates blood volume and pressure by:
a) adjusting the volume of water lost in the urine
b) releasing erythropoietin
c) releasing renin
d) a, b, c are correct
14. The balance of solute and water reabsorption in the renal medulla is maintained by the:
(a) segmental arterioles and veins
(b) lobar arteries and veins
(c) vasa recta
(d) arcuate arteries
15. The higher the plasma concentration of aldosterone, the more efficiently the kidney will:
a) conserve sodium ions
b) retain potassium ions
c) stimulate urinary water loss
d) secrete greater amounts of antidiuretic hormone
16. When pure water is consumed:
(a) the extracellular fluid becomes hypertonic with respect to the intracellular fluid
(b) the extracellular fluid becomes hypotonic with respect to the intracellular fluid
(c) the intracellular fluid becomes hypotonic with respect to the plasma
(d) water moves from the intracellular fluid into the extracellular fluid
17. Increasing or decreasing the rate of respiration alters pH by:
lowering or raising the partial pressure of carbon dioxide
lowering or raising the partial pressure of oxygen
lowering or raising the partial pressure of nitrogen
a, b, and c are correct
1) What part of human body you can see at plain urography ?
a) Thorax and abdomen
b) Pelvic cavity
c) Body part since 12 ribs by pubic bone
d) Retroperitoneal space
2) What main symptoms do you see at plain urography ?
a) Stone’s shadow
b) Foreign body
c) Metastases of prostatic gland cancer
d) Lumbar muscle shadow absence
e) All answers are right
3) What organs of urinary system are seen at plain abdominal radiograph?
a) kidneys, ureters, and bladder
b) urethra, prostatic gland, testicular duct
c) spermatic cord, seminal vesicle, epididymis
d) prostatic gland, cavernous body of penis
e) scrotum, urachus, glans penis
4) How you must to prepare the patient to plain abdominal radiograph?
a) No preparation is needed
b) To give cleansing enema
c) To introduce a flatus tube
d) To give somebody a stomach wash out
e) To apply cupping glasses
5) What contrast agent for intravenous urography do you know?
a) Barium sulfatis
b) Magnesium sulfatis
c) Bilignost
d) Urographin
e) Iodlipol
6) What contrast agent don’t use for intravenous urogram today?
a) Ultravist
b) Omnipaque
c) Triombrast
d) Sergozin
e) Urographin
7) How to calculate the dose contrast agent for intravenous urography?
a) 1.0 ml/kg (up to 100 ml) for adults
b) 1.0 - 2.0 ml/kg for children
c) 2.0 - 3.0 ml/kg for newborns
d) All answers are right
8) What investigation most accessible among urologic imaging?
a) Magnetic resonance imaging
b) Computed tomography
c) Ultrasound imaging
d) Radioisotope imaging
e) Videocystometry
9) What is the contraindication for retrograde pyelogram?
a) Urinary stone disease
b) Macrohematuria
c) Acute prostatitis
d) Acute pyelonephritis
e) Anuria
10) What nonidiosyncratic reactions to contrast material do you know in this list?
a) nasal congestion
b) urticaria
c) laryngeal edema
d) bronchospasm
e) nausea, vomiting
11) What idiosyncratic reactions to contrast material do you know in this list?
a) bronchospasm
b) cardiac arrhythmias
c) depressed cardiac function
d) local pain
e) vasomotor instability
12) How to determine patient’s sensitivity to iodine containing preparations?
a) Under tongue test
b) Scarification test
c) Intravenous test
d) Conjunctiva test
e) Subcutaneus test
13) What drug is antidote to iodine containing preparations?
a) Sodium thiosulfatis
b) Adrenalin
c) Noradrenalin
d) Dophamine
e) Unithiol
14) What phase of renal arteriography don’t right?
a) angiographic phase
b) cortical phase
c) nephrographic phase
d) ureteric phase
e) urographic phase
15) Pyelonephritis – it is шnflammatory unspecific process caused by :
e) viruses
f) bacteria
g) priones
h) toxins
16) What forms of pyelonephritis do you know ?
f) acute
g) intermittent
h) tertiary
i) continuous
17) What synonym of complicated pyelonephritis is happen ?
f) primary
g) obstructive
h) secondary
i) active
j) latent
18) What ways of infections introductions in kidneys does exist?
f) droplet
g) contact
h) ascended
i) peroral
j) hematogenic
19) What main reasons of complicated pyelonephritis are list?
f) pneumonia
g) furuncle
h) urinary stone disease
i) pregnancy
j) maxillary sinusitis
20) Try to denominate clinic local symptoms of pyelonephritis
f) nausea
g) fever
h) artralgia
i) myotonia in back
j) headache
21) When the patient with acute pyelonephritis can to have normal urine analysis?
e) 48-72 hours after development of a disease
f) that's impossible
g) if present full obstruction of ureter
h) always in cases of secondary pyelonephritis
i) always in cases of primary pyelonephritis
22) What does main symptoms of pyelonephritis in urine analysis?
f) proteinuria
g) epithelial hialinal cylinders
h) leucocyturia
i) bacteriuria
j) microhaematuria
23) What symptoms of primary pyelonephritis in the plain urography does concern?
f) shadow of foreign body
g) stone shadow
h) contour of lumbar muscle is absent
i) amputation of calyx
24) What main symptom of complicated pyelonephritis in the intravenous urography does concern?
f) contour of kidneys shadow is absent
g) decreasing of the kidney capacity
h) squeezing or amputation of one or two calyces
i) contour of lumbar muscle is doubling
25) Cystitis – it is inflammatory process in :
i) Gall bladder
j) Urinary bladder
k) Anal canal
l) Seminal vesicle
26) What main symptom data of cystitis do you know ?
j) pollakiuria
k) emesis
l) cephalalgia
m) diplopia
27) What symptom data is never present with uncomplicated acute cystitis?
k) incontinence
l) fever
m) urge urination
n) painful urination
28) What is the main common causative agent of female acute cystitis?
k) Enterococcus
l) Pseudomonas
m) Escherichia coli
n) Proteus
29) How you must to take correct urine for the bacteriological analysis?
k) by catheterization
l) by suprapubic aspiration
m) from an average portion
n) from first portion
30) What antibacterial drug you will prefer for treatment uncomplicated acute cystitis?
k) Laevomycetin
l) Streptomycin
m) Acyclovir
n) Augmentin
31) What form of prostatitis absent in classification?
j) Acute abacterial prostatitis
k) Acute bacterial prostatitis
l) Chronic bacterial prostatitis
m) Chronic abacterial prostatitis
n) Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis
32) What the most frequent site of pain localization in patient with prostatitis?
k) Penis
l) Urinary bladder
m) Prostate/perineum
n) Lower back
33) What manipulation is contraindicated for patients with acute prostatitis?
j) Digital rectal examination
k) Kidney palpation
l) Prostatic massage
m) Back massage
34) Epididymitis is the inflammation of?
j) bladder
k) prostatic gland
l) epididymis
m) urethra
35) What main the theories of the pathogenesis of urinary stone disease ?
m) Randall’s theory
n) Rokitansky theory
o) Theory of the supersaturation
p) Theory of the precipitation
36) What variants of the stone composition do you know ?
n) stalactite
o) whewellite
p) stalagmite
q) urate
r) phosphate
37) What main causes of urinary stone disease specify?
o) monotony meals
p) motion
q) immobilization
r) humid maritime climate
38) What is the color of urate stone?
o) black
p) orange
q) blue
r) brown
39) What is the most strong stone among different stone composition ?
o) struvite
p) carbonate
q) phosphate
r) protein
40) What symptom is not typical for the patient with urinary stone disease ?
o) vomiting
p) nausea
q) hematuria
r) anuria
s) aphasia
41) What diseases are need for differential diagnosis with urinary stone disease?
o) Acute appendicitis
p) Acute cholecystitis
q) Acute inflammation of uterus adnexa
r) Acute antritis
42) What the stones are X-Ray-negative?
o) urate
p) phosphate
q) oxalate
r) protein
43) What diseases may be cause of urate nephrolithiasis?
n) pellagra
o) osteoarthrosis
p) podagra
q) lues
44) What complications of the urinary stone disease do you know ?
n) arterial hypertension
o) epistaxis
p) breathlessness
q) renal failure
46. If a newborn has urinary excretion through the umbilicus, this fact can testify about:
1. Maldevelopment of the urethra.
2. Anomaly of the ureter.
3. Abnormality of the kidneys.
4. Anomaly of the urachus.
2. What the anomaly is characterized by absence of the bladder
1. Agenesis of the bladder.
2. Hypertrophy of the bladder.
3. Extrophy of the bladder.
3. What the anomaly is shown by urination in two stage?
1. Hypospadias.
2. Extrophy of the bladder.
3. Diverticulum of the bladder.
4. Agenesis of the bladder.
4. What methods are used for diagnosis of the diverticulum of bladder?
1. Cystoscopy.
2. Cystography.
3. Urethrography.
4. Retrograde ureteropyelography.
5. What is called congenital absence of anterior bladder wall?
1. Hypospadias.
2. Атрофия.
3. Extrophy.
4. Hypoplasia.
5. Agenesis.
6. Who are born more often with extrophy of the bladder ?
1. Boys.
2. Girls.
7. What main symptom have patients with extrophy of the bladder?
1. Urethrorragia.
2. Imperative feeling of urination.
3. Urinary retention.
4. Permanent urinary incontinence.
8. What is the main symptom of the contracture urinary bladder neck?
1. Urinary incontinence.
2. Urinary retention.
3. Urinary difficulty.
4. Residual urine.
9. Which methods are used for diagnostics of urethral valve?
1. Voiding cystourethrography.
2. Urethroscopy.
3. Urethral calibration by olive pointed.
4. Plain urography.
5. Radiorenographic study.
10. What disease is shown by painful erection in urination time?
1. Contracture of urinary bladder neck.
2. Hypertrophy of seminal hillock.
3. Epispadia.
4. Hypospadias.
11. What examination doctor must to administer for diagnostic of congenital urethral orifice stricture?
1. Plain urography.
2. Radiorenographic study.
3. Urethral calibration.
4. Voiding cystourethrography.
12. What examination doctor must to administer for diagnostic of the bladder diverticulum?
1. Radiorenographic study.
2. Plain urography.
3. Intravenous urography.
4. Cystography.
5. Urethrography.
13. Try to choose the definition of hypospadias :
1. Anomaly of posterior urethral wall.
2. Absence of anterior urethral wall.
3. Absence of anterior bladder wall.
4. Stricture of external urethral opening.
14. How many forms of hypospadias do you know?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
1. What amount of urine is concern about oliguria ?
1. 2000 ml
2. 1500 ml
3. 1000 ml
4. 600 ml
5. 150 ml
2. What exploratory method is the most reliable for diagnostics postrenal anuria ?
1. Intravenous urography
2. Pneumoretroperitoneum
3. Ureteral catheterization
4. Angiography
5. Kidney’s scanning
6. Plain urography
3. What drugs contraindicate for patients with obstructive acute renal failure before pass of urine restoration?
1. Cordiamin
2. Lasix
3. Penicillin
4. Glucose
5. Сalcium gluconatis
4. Call normal measure blood potassium
1. - 3.5 millimole /l
2. - 6.3 millimole /l
3. - 8.0 millimole /l
4. - 2.0 millimole /l
5. - 5.0 millimole /l
5. What diseases are able the cause of postrenal acute renal failure?
1. Haemolytic shock
2. The poisoning of nephrotoxic substances
3. Bacterial shock
4. Acute glomerulonephritis
5. The occlusion of both ureteres by stones
6. Thromboembolism of renal artery
7. Acute pyelonephritis
6. Urgent surgical operation is indicate for patients with such forms of acute renal insufficiency as:
1. Prerenal
2. Renal
3. Postrenal
4. Pararenal
7. The principles of the treatment oligoanuric stage of acute renal insufficiency are:
1. Stimulation of diuresis
2. Lowering of protein catabolism and azotemia
3. Intensify of hydration
4. Introduction of potassium solution
5. Prophylaxis of complications
8. What symptom is characterized for second stage of acute renal insufficiency?
1. polyuria
2. dysuria
3. macrohematuria
4. amount of urine more than 500 ml
5. oliguria or anuria
9. What is the main symptom of acute renal insufficiency?
1 Cylinderuria
2. Leukocyteuria
3. Proteinuria
4. Polyuria
5. Olygoanuria
6. Haematuria
10. What stages of chronic renal insufficiency do you know?
1. Latent
2. Manifest
3. Terminal
4. Intermittent
5. Initial
6. Compensate
The reasons of renal colic are:
a) stone of bladder
b) stone of ureter
c) stone of urethra
d) stone of kidney
e) stone of prostate
2. The reason of gross hematuria during and after renal colic is:
a) rupter of fornix vein
b) traumatization of ureter mucosae
c) traumatization of pelvic mucosae
d) venous stasis in bladder
3. What is the best method of investigation for differentiation renal colic from different acute diseases of abdomen?
a) ultrasound of kidney
b) intravenous urography
c) urine analysis
d) blood analysis
e) test Nechiporenko
4. What emergencies don’t belong to urological?
a) renal colic
b) gross hematuria
c) acute appendicitis
d) rupture of spleen
e) acute retention of urine
f) anuria
5. What diseases aren’t the reason of acute retention of urine?
a) benigh prostatic hyperplasia
b) cancer of prostate
c) stone of ureter
d) stricture of urethra
e) stone of bladder
f) cancer of colon
6. What catheters are usually used for removing the urine from bladder?
a) Nelaton
b) Foley
c) Pezzer
d) Malecot
e) Timan
7. What must be done by urologist in case of uneffective urethral catheterization of urine?
a) suprapubic punction of bladder
b) nephrostomy
c) cystostomy
d) pyelostomy
e) inserting of ureteral stent in kidney
8. What investigation must be done at first in case of gross hematuria?
a) computed tomography
b) intravenous urography
c) cystoscopy
d) renal angiography
e) magnetic resonance imaging
9. What diseases aren’t the reason of bleeding from genitourinary organs?
a) tumor of bladder
b) papillar tumor of pelvis
c) stone of the prostate
d) torsion of testis
e) rupture of kidney
10. What diseases aren’t the reason of postrenal anuria?
a) stones of both ureter
b) stones of uretere one (one functional) kidney
c) ligation of both ureters during radical hysterectomy
d) stone of bladder
e) stricture of urethra
11. What investigations must be done at first by urolologist to exclude the postrenal anuria?
a) ultrasound of kidneys
b) retrograde cystography
c) catheterization of both ureter
d) plain urography
e) magnetic resonans imaging
12. What diseases don’t atutude to acute scrotum?
a) acute epydidimitis
b) torsion of testis
c) lipoma of scrotum
d) rupter of testis
e) varicocele
13. What drug is used for reducing hematuria in patient with stone of kidney?
a) nospa
b) dicinon
c) penicillin
d) kanefron
e) doxazozin
14. What procedure must be done by urologist in case of uneffective realese of paraphimosis?
a) catheterization of bladder
b) cutting of paraphimosis or circumcision
c) frenulotomy
d) hydrocelectomy
15. What must be done by urologist in case of acute scrotum in boys 3-10 years old?
a) inspecting for the patient
b) immobilization of scrotum
c) urgent operation – scrototomy and inspection of testis and epydidimis
d) concervative treatment –antibiotics
1. Who more frequently aches with the kidney tumours:
a. women.
b. men.
2. Which percentage the kidney tumors in adults people meets among all neoplasms:
a. 40 - 50%
b. 25 - 30%
c. 15 - 20%
d. 2 - 3%
e. 0,1 - 0,2%
3. Which kidney tumours often seen:
a. malignant.
b. benign.
4. Which percentage the malignant parenchymal kidney tumours meets in adult peoples?
a. 5-10%
b. 15-20%
c. 30-40%
d. 50-60%
e. 90-98%
5. On which system the malignant parenchymal tumours of the kidney are classified:
a. MTS
b. UPS
c. TNM
d. XMT
6. What sizes of the kidney tumour at the first stage:
a. up to 1 сm.
b. up to 2 сm.
c. up to 3 сm.
d. up to 5 сm.
e. up to 7 сm.
7. What are the main ways of metastasis of paranchemal kidney cancers?
a. hematogenous.
b. lymphogenous .
c. through the ureteric wall.
8. Name the triad of most characteristic symptoms of parenchymal kidney cancer.
a. frequent urination, flank pain, hematuria.
b. flank pain, high body temperature, leukocytosis.
c. hematuria, pain in lumbar parcel, palpation of tumours.
d. lekocytosis, hematuria, proteinuria.
9. Name the characteristic laboratory symptoms of the kidney tumours:
a. increase ESR.
b. anemia.
c. increase the level of alkaline phosphatase.
d. increase the level of acidic phosphatase.
e. hematuria.
f. hyperazotemia
10. Name the most trustful method in diagnosis of the parenchymal kidney tumours of little sizes.
a. contrast urography.
b. KUB.
c. retrograde urography.
d. angiography.
e. ultrasound
11. What is the relative density of the normal kidney parenchyma in computer tomography?
a. 0 – 10 Hounsfield unit.
b. 10 – 20 Hounsfield unit.
c. 30 – 40 Hounsfield unit.
d. 50 – 60 Hounsfield unit.
12. Name the most informative methods of investigation in case of kidney parenchymal tumours.
a. KUB.
b. retrograde urography.
c. MRI
d. computed tomography.
e. ultrasounds.
13. Which is the basic method of treatment the kidney tumours?
a. chemotherapy.
b. hormonotherapy.
c. operational.
14. At which sizes on the kidney tumours can be carry out the enuoculoresection?
a. up to 4 см.
b. up to 6 см.
c. up to 8 см.
d. up to 7 см.
15. Which kidney tumour meets frequently in children
a. Willms tumour.
b. Addison’s tumour .
c. Rufsing’s tumour.
d. Breker’s tumour.
16. Name the characteristic symptom of the ureteric tumour
a. Shivasio.
b. Willm’s tumour.
c. Rufsing’s tumour.
d. Breker’s tumour.
17. Most likely papillary tumour of the kidney metastasises to:
a. The urinary bladder.
b. lungs.
c. bons.
d. brain.
18. Which operation performed for patient with papillary cancer of the kidney pelvic.
a. nephrectomy.
b. nephrectomy with urinary bladder resection
c. nephrectomy with suprarenal gland removal.
19. Which stage of the urinary bladder cancer, in consideration of T correlated with superficial tumours
a. Tо
b. Tis
c. T1
d. T2
e. T3
f. T4
20. Name the most characteristic clinical manifestation of the urinary bladder cancer.
a. dysuria.
b. polyuria.
c. oliguria.
d. blood in urine.
21. Name the most characteristic labratoty symptom of the urinary bladder cancer
a. hematuria.
b. cylinderuria
c. proteinuria.
d. leukocytouria
22. Name the most characteristic radiological symptom of the urinary bladder cancer
a. defect filling with clear cut contour.
b. defect filling with unequal contour
c. extravasations.
23. Which methods of investigation are most informative in the urinary bladder cancer.
a. KUB.
b. contrast urography.
c. cystoscopy.
d. ultrasound.
24. Which methods of investigation are trustful for making the diagnosis of the urinary bladder cancer.
a. cytology of urine.
b. regulatory polybiopsy.
c. contrast urography.
d. retrograde urography.
25. Name the basic methods of treatment of the superficial malignant tumours of the urinary bladder.
a. radial therapy.
b. radical cystectomy.
c. chemotherapy.
d. BCG
e. TUR of tumour.
26. What amount of urine is concern about oliguria ?
1. 2000 ml
2. 1500 ml
3. 1000 ml
4. 600 ml
5. 150 ml
27. What exploratory method is the most reliable for diagnostics postrenal anuria ?
1. Intravenous urography
2. Pneumoretroperitoneum
3. Ureteral catheterization
4. Angiography
5. Kidney’s scanning
6. Plain urography
28. What drugs contraindicate for patients with obstructive acute renal failure before pass of urine restoration?
1. Cordiamin
2. Lasix
3. Penicillin
4. Glucose
5. Сalcium gluconatis
29. Call normal measure blood potassium
1. - 3.5 millimole /l
2. - 6.3 millimole /l
3. - 8.0 millimole /l
4. - 2.0 millimole /l
5. - 5.0 millimole /l
30. What diseases are able the cause of postrenal acute renal failure?
1. Haemolytic shock
2. The poisoning of nephrotoxic substances
3. Bacterial shock
4. Acute glomerulonephritis
5. The occlusion of both ureteres by stones
6. Thromboembolism of renal artery
7. Acute pyelonephritis
31. Urgent surgical operation is indicate for patients with such forms of acute renal insufficiency as:
1. Prerenal
2. Renal
3. Postrenal
4. Pararenal
32. The principles of the treatment oligoanuric stage of acute renal insufficiency are:
1. Stimulation of diuresis
2. Lowering of protein catabolism and azotemia
3. Intensify of hydration
4. Introduction of potassium solution
5. Prophylaxis of complications
33. What symptom is characterized for second stage of acute renal insufficiency?
1. polyuria
2. dysuria
3. macrohematuria
4. amount of urine more than 500 ml
5. oliguria or anuria
34. What is the main symptom of acute renal insufficiency?
1 Cylinderuria
2. Leukocyteuria
3. Proteinuria
4. Polyuria
5. Olygoanuria
6. Haematuria
35. What stages of chronic renal insufficiency do you know?
1. Latent
2. Manifest
3. Terminal
4. Intermittent
5. Initial
6. Compensate
36. What special examinations don’t use for estimation the injuries to the kidney?
a) computed tomography
b) intravenous urography
c) ultrasound of kidneys
d) retropnevmoperitoneum
e) retrograde urethrography
37. What are the major injuries to the kidney?
a) parenchymal laceration extending into collecting system
b) subcapsular hematoma
c) paranephral hematoma
d) multiple lacerations, resulting in a “shattered” kidney
e) avulsion of the main renal artery
38. What are the the minor injuries to the kidney?
a) parenchymal laceration extending into collecting system
b) subcapsular hematoma
c) paranephral hematoma
d) multiple laceration, resulting in a “shattered” kidney
e) avulsion of the main ranal artery
39. What are the early and late complications of injuries to the kidney?
a) hemorrage
b) urinary extravasation with abscess formation
c) acute retention of urine
d) acute pyelonephritis
e) hypertensions
40. When nephrectomy are usually performed in case of injuries to the kidney?
a) in case of the minor injuries
b) in case of the major injuries
c) in case of retroperitoneal hematoma
d) in case of retroperitoneal urinoma
41. What damages don’t concern to injuries to the ureter?
a) ligation
b) resection
c) cutting
d) devascularisation
e) retrocaval ureter
42. What symphtoms don’t concern to injuries to the ureter?
a) anuria
b) acute retention of urine
c) retroperiotoneal urinoma
d) renal colic
e) urethrorragia
43. What operations may be a reason of injuries to the ureter?
a) hysterectomy
b) resection of sigma
c) colporraphy
d) colporexy and colposuspension of anterior surface of vagina to pubic bone
e) urethroplastic
44. What are the complications of injuries to the bladder?
a) peritonitis
b) pelvic urohematoma and abscess
c) torsion of testis
d) paraphimosis
45. What operation must be performed on 5-th day after hysterectomy with ligation of ureter?
a) nephrectomy
b) percutaneous punction nephrostomy
c) deligation
d) transplantation of kidney
46. What operation are usually performed in case of intraperitoneal rupture of bladder?
a) cystostomy
b) bladder is closed by absorbable sutures, cystostomy, drainage of peritoneum
c) urethral drainage of bladder
d) drainage of peritoneum
47. What operation are usually performed in case of extraperitoneal rapture of bladder?
a) urethral catheterizations of bladder
b) drainage of peritoneum
c) bladder is closed by absorbable sutures, cyctostomy, drainage of pelvic
d) drainage of pelvic
e) drainage of perineum
48. What symptoms don’t coucern to injuries to the urethra?
a) acute retention of urine
b) urethroragia
c) urogematoma of perineum
d) anuria
e) renal colic
49. What operation must be performed in case of rupture to the posterior urethra and pelvic fractures?
a) primary sutures of urethra
b) cystostomy, drainage of pelvic
c) drainage of pelvic
d) cystostomy
e) drainage of perineum
50. What is the best method of diagnostic the injures to the bladder?
a) intravenous urography
b) retrograde cystography
c) computed tomography
d) urethrography
51. What is the best method of diagnosis injuries to the urethra?
a) intravenous urography
b) retrograde urethrography
c) computed tomography
d) plane urography
52. What treatment is needed for the patient with penile fracture?
a) conservative
b) surgical
c) immobilisation of penis
d) observation
53. What treatment is needed for the patient with rupture of testis?
a) surgical
b) conservative
c) immobilization of testis
d) observation
54. What is the agenesis of kidney?
a) small kidney
b) renal fusion
c) absent of kidney
d) pelvic kidney
e) hypoplasia of kidney
55. What is the polycystic kidney disease?
a) evidence cysts only in one of the both kidneys
b) evidence cysts of various sizes in both kidneys
c) evidence one cyst in one functional kidney
56. What are the complications of polycystic kidney disease?
a) hypoplasia of kidney
b) chronic pyelonephritis
c) chronic renal failure
d) acute retention of urine
e) acute renal failure
57. When does the operation is performed (indicated) on patients with polycystic kidney disease?
a) in case of terminal renal failure
b) in case of big cysts and pain in one of both kidneys and without renal failure
c) in case of purulent cysts in one of the both kidneys
d) in case of severe anemia
58. What is the Weigert - Meyer Law?
a) duplication of the kidney associated with duplication of ureter
b) ureter to the upper segment located inferiorly in bladder than ureter draining the lower segment
c) hydronephrosis associated with anomalies male genitalia
d) kidney cyst associated with liver cyst
59. What is the ureterocele?
a) duplication of the ureter
b) hydronephrosis associated with hydroureter
c) enlarged of terminal portion of ureter
d) diverticula of ureter
60. What is the simple and best method of surgical treatment ureterocele?
a) resection of bladder
b) resection of ureter
c) transurethral resection of ureterocele
d) transurethral cutting of ureterocele
61. What are the reasons of hydronephrosis?
a) stricture of ureteropelvic junction
b) displasia of ureteropelvic junction
c) beningh prostatic hyperplasia
d) vessel to the lower part of the kidney
e) stricture of bladder neck
62. What is the best operation on patient with hydronephrosis?
a) pyeloureteroplasty for Anderson-Hynes
b) Foley Y-V plasty
c) Pelvic flap procedures
d) Dilation of pyeloureteral segment
63. What is the best method of diagnosis the nephroptosis?
a) plain urography
b) intravenous urography in stand and lying position
c) computed tomography
d) renal arteriography
64. What is the retrocaval ureter?
a) enlarge ureter
b) ectopic ureteral orifice
c) abnormalitie of ureteral position when ureter becomes entrapped behind the vena cava
d) obstruction of the ureteropelvic junction
65. What is the obstructed megaureter ?
a) ectopic ureteral orifice
b) ureteral duplication
c) anomalia of ureter which includes the obstruction of the ureterovesical junction and dilated ureter
d) dilated of low part of the ureter
66. What is the site of developing the prostate cancer?
a) transition zone
b) fibromuscular stroma
c) peripheral zone
d) central zone
67. What grading system is used for prostate cancer?
a) Whitemore-Jewett
b) Gleason
c) Robinson
d) Charriere
68. What is the tumor marker of prostate cancer?
a) level of alkaline phosphatase in plasma
b) prostate-specific antigen in plasma
c) level of hyaluronic acid in plasma
d) level of creatinine in plasma
69. What is the normal level of prostate — specific antigen in plasma?
a) 20 ng/ml
b) 15 ng/ml
c) 10 ng/ml
d) to 4 ng/ml
70. Which of below methods is the basic for detecting of prostate cancer?
a) digital rectal examination
b) transrectal ultrasound
c) prostate biopsy
d) level of prostate – specific antigen in plasma
71. What methods are used for staging of prostate cancer?
a) digital rectal examination
b) transrectal ultrasound
c) computer tomography of prostate and pelvic lymph nodes
d) urine analysis
72. What diseases are similar symptoms as the prostate cancer?
a) benign prostatic hyperplasia
b) stricture of urethra
c) renal colic
d) bladder stone
e) sclerosis of bladder neck
73. What is the basic method of treatment prostate cancer on stage T1-T2?
a) brachytherapy
b) cryosurgery
c) radiation therapy
d) radical prostatectomy
74. What is the complete androgen blockade?
a) administration of LHRH and orchiectomy
b) orchiectomy
c) administration of antiandrogen and orchiectomy
d) radical prostatectomy
75. What is the marker of failure complete androgen blockade therapy?
a) level of creatinine in plasma
b) prostate-specific antigen in plasma
c) level of hyaluronic acid in plasma
d) level of blood urea nitrogen
76. What is the basic method of treatment metastatic prostate cancer?
a) radical prostatectomy
b) complete androgen blockade
c) cryosurgery
d) cystostomy
77. What are the complications of prostate cancer?
a) acute retention of urine
b) pneumonia
c) ureteric obstruction
d) spinal cord compression
e) renal colic
78. Which of drug does not us for treatment of renal colic?
a) nospa
b) diclofenac
c) baralgin
d) verosperon
e) kanephron
79. What procedure must be performed at first for treatment renal colic in case of unsucessfull drugs therapy?
a) nephrostomy
b) pyelostomy
c) catheterisation of ureter
d) percutaneons punction nephrostomy
e) nephrectomy
80. What chance have the ureteral calculi 4-5 mm in size to spontaneous passage?
a) 20-30%
b) 30-40%
c) 40-50%
d) 70-80%
81. Which of dissolution agent are now used to dissolve the stone of kidney?
a) furosemidum
b) festali
c) blemoreni
d) fluoroquinolones
82. What method of treating the stone of kidney to 2 cm in size without hydronephrosis is more optimal?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) percutaneous nephrolithotripsy
c) pyelolithotomy
d) ureteroscopic ureterolithotripsy
83. What method of treating the staghorn stone of kidney is more optimal ?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) percutaneous nephrolithotripsy
c) pyelolithotomy
d) nephrolithotomy
84. What method of treating the stone of kidney to 2 cm in size complicated hydronephrosis and acute pyelonephritis is more optimal?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) percutaneous nephrolithotripsy
c) pyelolithotomy, nephrostomy
d) nephrolithotomy
85. What methods of treating the stone of distal part of ureter to 1 cm in size are more optimal?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) ureteroscopic ureterolithotripsy
c) ureterolithotomy
d) couservative treatment
86. What method of treating the stone of distal part of ureter to 1 cm in size complicated acute pyelonephritis is more optimal?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) ureteroscopic ureterolithotripsy
c) ureterolithotomy
d) percutaneous nephrostomy
87. What methods of treating the stone of distal part of ureter to 0,5 cm in size complicated acute pyelonephritis are more optimal ?
a) inserting the stent in kidney
b) percutaneous nephrostomy
c) ureterolithotomy
d) ureteroscopic ureterolithotripsy
88. What are the reasons of bladder stones?
a) benig prostatic hyperplasia
b) cancer of prostate
c) stricture of urethra
d) bladder neck contracture
e) chronic prostatitis
89. What methods of treatment are used in patients suffering from bening prostatic hyperplasia and bladder stone?
a) open prostatectomy with removing the bladder stone
b) cystolithotripsy with transurethral resection of prostate
c) cystolithotomy
d) cystolithotripsy
90. In the genesis of BPH plays the deciding role:
a. Hypofunction of the testis.
b. chronic prostitis.
c. disorders with sexual facility.
d. dysfunction of the anterior lobe of hypophysis.
91. Which are the basic symptoms of the 1st stage of BPH:
a. Constipation.
b. Nocturia.
c. Imperative urge.
d. Rapid urination.
92. Which are the basic symptoms of the 2nd stage of BPH:
a. dysuria, polyuria.
b. urinary incontinence.
c. accelerated urination.
d. rapid urination.
93. Which is the basic symptoms of the 3rd stage of BPH:
a. paradoxical ischuria.
b. chronic emptying delay.
c. urination in morning dysuria.
d. incontinence.
94. What is used for the reliable diagnosis of BPH:
a. Normal x-rays (KUB).
b. Cystoscopy.
c. Urethral dilatation.
d. Digital examination.
95. What is the reliable diagnostic method BPH:
a. Digital examination.
b. Ascending cystography.
c. Cystoscopy.
d. TRUE (transurethral ultrasound examination) of prostate.
96. What is the radical method for the treatment of BPH:
a. TUPR.
b. Prostatectomy.
c. Hyperthermia.
97. What is the radical method for the treatment of BPH:
a. Using Omnic
b. Thermotherapy.
c. Hyperthermia.
d. Prostatectomy.
98. What is the early post operative complication of BPH:
a. Acute pyelonephritis.
b. Acute prostatitis.
c. Tamponade of urinary bladder.
99. What gives the digital rectal examination in BPH:
a. Smooth contour of the prostate.
b. Pain during palpation.
c. Uneven contour.
100. What stimulates the BPH:
a. Testosterone.
b. Dehydrotestosterone.
c. Progesterone.
d. Sinestrol.
101. Which of drug does not us for treatment of renal colic?
a) nospa
b) diclofenac
c) baralgin
d) verosperon
e) kanephron
102. What procedure must be performed at first for treatment renal colic in case of unsucessfull drugs therapy?
a) nephrostomy
b) pyelostomy
c) catheterisation of ureter
d) percutaneons punction nephrostomy
e) nephrectomy
103. What chance have the ureteral calculi 4-5 mm in size to spontaneons passage?
a) 20-30%
b) 30-40%
c) 40-50%
d) 70-80%
104. Which of dissolution agent are now used to dissolve the stone of kidney?
a) furosemidum
b) festali
c) blemoreni
d) fluoroquinolones
105. What method of treating the stone of kidney to 2 cm in size without hydronephrosis is more optimal?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) percutaneous nephrolithotripsy
c) pyelolithotomy
d) ureteroscopic ureterolithotripsy
106. What method of treating the staghorn stone of kidney is more optimal ?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) percutaneous nephrolithotripsy
c) pyelolithotomy
d) nephrolithotomy
107. What method of treating the stone of kidney to 2 cm in size complicated hydronephrosis and acute pyelonephritis is more optimal?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) percutaneous nephrolithotripsy
c) pyelolithotomy, nephrostomy
d) nephrolithotomy
108. What methods of treating the stone of distal part of ureter to 1 cm in size are more optimal?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) ureteroscopic ureterolithotripsy
c) ureterolithotomy
d) couservative treatment
109. What method of treating the stone of distal part of ureter to 1 cm in size complicated acute pyelonephritis is more optimal?
a) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
b) ureteroscopic ureterolithotripsy
c) ureterolithotomy
d) percutaneous nephrostomy
110. What methods of treating the stone of distal part of ureter to 0,5 cm in size complicated acute pyelonephritis are more optimal ?
a) inserting the stent in kidney
b) percutaneous nephrostomy
c) ureterolithotomy
d) ureteroscopic ureterolithotripsy
111. What are the reason of bladder stones?
a) benig prostatic hyperplasia +
b) cancer of prostate
c) stricture of urethra
d) bladder neck contracture
e) chronic prostatitis
112. What methods of treatment are used in patients suffering from bening prostatic hyperplasia and bladder stone?
a) open prostatectomy with removing the bladder stone
b) cystolithotripsy with transurethral resection of prostate
c) cystolithotomy
d) cystolithotripsy
113. What organs are primary sites of tuberculous infection in the genitourinary tract?
a) testis
b) bladder
c) kidney
d) epididymis
e) prostate
114. What are the complications of tuberculosis of kidney and ureter?
a) hydronephrosis
b) stricture of ureter
c) calcifications of kidney
d) acute retention of urine
e) pneuvmonia
115. What are the complications of tuberculosis of the bladder?
a) acute retention of urine
b) microcystis
c) vesico-ureteral reflux
d) ulcer of bladder
e) pneumonia
116. What is the specific pathologic sign of the tuberculosis of the kidney parenchyma?
a) stone
b) area of cheesy material (caseaton)
c) sclerosis
d) hypoplasia of kidney
117. Clinical findings of tuberculosis of the genitourinary tract are:
a) chronic cystitis that refuses to respond to adequate therapy
b) acute retention of urine
c) gross or microscopic hematuria
d) leukocyturia without bacteria in a methylene blue stain or culture of the urinary sediment
e) nontender, enlarged epididymis
f) pneumonia
118. Which of below symptoms are not concern to tuberculosis of kidney and ureter?
a) abscess cavities that connect with calyces
b) single or multiple ureteral strictures
c) absence of function of the kidney
d) defect of filling of the pelvic cavity
119. Which of below drugs do not use for treatment tuberculosis of the genitourinary tract?
a) isoniazid
b) rifampicin
c) ethambutol
d) ampicillin
e) streptomycin
120. X-ray findings of the tuberculosis of the kidney are:
a) stone of kidney
b) stricture of pyelo-ureter segment
c) necrotizing papillitis
d) cavities in renal parenchyma
e) calcifications of kidney
121. What operations are usually performed on patients with destructive stages of tuberculosis of the kidney-polycavities tuberculosis?
a) transplantation of kidney
b) cuting and dranaige of cavities
c) resection of kidney
d) nephrectomy
e) plastic pyelo-ureter segment
122. What operations are performed in patient with tuberculouse pyonephrosis?
a) transplantation of kidney
b) nephrectomy
c) plastic of pyelo-ureter segment
d) nephrostomy
e) pyelostomy
122. What are the indications to nephrectomy in patient with tuberculosis of kidney?
a ) tuberculosis pyonephrosis
b) polycavities tuberculosis with intoxication
c) calcification of kidney
d) stone of one calycer of kidney
123. The symptoms of tuberculosis of epididymitis are:
a) painless or painful swelling of epididymitis
b) tender enlarged epididymitis with high temperature of body
c) painless, hard enlarged testis
d) painless, soft swelling one of the half scrotum.
124. For nonobstructive pyelonephritis is more specific:
a) stricture of pyeloureter segment.
b) chronic retention of upper urinary pathways in patient with bening prostatic hypertrophy
c) absent of urostasis of upper urinary pathways
d) stone of ureter
125. What are the stages of inflammatory process in kidney?
a) active, latent inflammation, remission or clinical recovery
b) initial, compensation, intermittent, terminal
c) compensation, subcompensation, terminal
126. What are the stages of chronic renal failure?
a) latent, compensation, intermitten, terminal
b) compensation, subcompensation, terminal
c) latent, recurrent, anemic, hypertonic.
127. Which of antibiotical drugs are not recommended to use in patients on chronic pyelonephritis?
a) fluoroquinolones
b) amynoglycosides
c) nitrofurantoin
d) β-lactomase inhibitors
e) penicillins
128. Which of complications are not typical for chronic pyelonephritis?
a) chronic renal failure
b) arterial hypertension
c) anemia
d) urinary incontinence
129. What are the reasons of pyelonephritis?
a) stricture of ureter
b) stone of kidney or ureter
c) hot climate
d) stricture of pyeloureteral segment
e) big weight of patient
f) disorders of liver
130. What is the differention between infected hydronephrosis and pyelonephrosis?
a) enlarging size of kidney
b) function of kidney is saving in patient with infected hydronephrosis
c) infected urine in kidney pelvis
d) high temperature and back pain
131. Which of methods aren’t used for diagnosis of pyelonephrosis?
a) plain and intravenous urography
b) ultrasonography of kidney
c) biopsy of liver
d) computed tomography scanning
e) urethrography
f) retrograde ureterography
132. What is the basic method of treatment of pyonephrosis?
a) resection of kidney
b) transplantation of kidney
c) nephrectomy
d) plastic of pyeloureter segment
e) pyelolithotomy
133. In patients with primary paranephritis the kidney is…
a) infected
b) healthy
c) ectopic
d) duplicated
134. According to the topic paranephritis is divided…
a) anterior, posterior
b) anterior, posterior, upper, lower, total
c) upper, lower
d) underliver, pavacolic, pelvic
135. Which methods are used for diagnosis of paranephritis ?
a) ultrasonography of kidney and retroperitoneal space
b) computer tomography
c) magnetic resonance imaging
d) angiography of kidney
e) plain urography
136. Which of methods must be used at first for diagnosis of primary paranephritis ?
a) culture of urine
b) plain urography
c) ultrasonography
d) angiography of kidney
e) urethrography
137. The basic method of treatment the primary parenephritis is…
a) nephrectomy
b) resection of kidney
c) transplantation of kidney
d) drainage of paranephritis
e) nephrostomy
138. In patient with pyonephrosis must be perfomed next operation…
a) pyelolithotomy
b) transplantation of kidney
c) resection of kidney
d) plastic of pyeloureter segment
e) nephrectomy
139. What is the purpose of using of catheterization of bladder?
а) diagnostic reason
b) to diagnose the stone of ureter
c) therapeutic reason
d) to diagnose the stone of kidney
e) to diagnose the ureterocele
140.What scale is usually used by urologists to find out the number of the catheter?
a) Foley
b) French or Charrier
c) Robinson
d) Roser
e) Storz
141.What is the diameter of uretheral catheter №18 F ?
a) 9 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 36 mm
d) 3 mm
142.What kind of urethral catheter has a balloon on the tip?
a) Nelaton
b) Foley
c) Robinson
d) Timan
e) Roser
143.What is the length of the ureter?
a) 10-15 cm
b) 15-20 cm
c) 20-25 cm
d) 25-30 cm
e) 35-40 cm
144.What is the length of the male urethra?
a) 5-10 cm
b) 10-15 cm
c) 15-20 cm
d) 25-30 cm
e) 10 cm
145.What catheter is usually used for suprapubic drainage of bladder ?
a) Malecot
b) Pezzer
c) Nelaton
d) Robinson
e) Timan
146.What catheter is usually used for hemostasis during prostatectomy?
a) Malecot
b) Pezzer
c) Nelaton
d) Robinson
e) Foley
147.What is the name of instrument for dilating the stricture of the urethra?
a) two – way Foley catheter
b) urethral sound
c) cystourethroscope
d) flexible cystoscope
e) resectoscope
148.What investigation must be performed for diagnostic stricture of urethra?
a) cystometrogram
b) cystoscopy
c) calibration of urethra (insertion of urethral sounds through the urethra)
d) urethtral catheterization
e) transrectal ultrasonography
149.What complications do observe after catheterization of the bladder?
a) hydrocele
b) urethritis
c) urethtral fever
d) stone of bladder
e) stricture of ureter
150.What is the components of cystoscope?
a) sheath
b) sheath, bridge
c) bridge
d) sheath, bridge, two interchangeable lenses with 300 and 700 viewing angles
e) two interchageoble lenses
151.What kind of cystoscopes do you know?
a) simple cystoscope
b) catheterization cystoscope
c) operative cystoscope
d) resectoscope
e) laser cystoscope
152.What are the contrindications for cystoscopy?
a) acute urethritis
b) acute cystitis
c) acute prostatitis
d) trauma of urethra
e) tumor of bladder
f) stone of bladder
153.What coudition are needed for performing of cystoscopy?
a) volume of bladder more than 70 ml
b) solution in bladder must be clear
c) urethra is without of stricture
d) residual urine in bladder more then 200 ml
e) bladder stone is less than 2cm
154.What is the purpose of catheterization of ureter?
a) drainage of pelvis
b) to perform the retrograde ureteropielography
c) to show the rentgennegative stone of ureter
d) drainage of bladder
e) drainage of urethra
155.What catheter is used for internal drainage of renal pelvis?
a) Foley
b) Pezzer
c) Malecot
d) Stent
e) Robinson
156.What diagnostic procedure should be performed for verification of prostatic cancer?
a) transrectal ultrasound of prostate
b) needle biopsy of the prostate
c) cystourethroscopy
d) urethroscopy
e) plain urography
157.What approaches of needle biopsy of the prostate do you know?
a) transrectal
b) transperineal
c) transinquinal
d) transbladder
e) transurethral
158.What disease is not a reason of kidney pain?
q) stone of ureter
r) ligation of ureter
s) stone of bladder
t) cloudy of blood in ureter
159. What disease is not a reason of bladder pain?
s) acute cystitis
t) overactive bladder
u) stone of bladder
v) acute retention of urine due bening prostatic hyperplasia
w) papilloma of bladder
160.What disease is not a reason of scrotal pain?
s) torsion of testis
t) torsion of the appendix epididymis
u) acute inflammation of epididymis
v) trauma of testis
w) hypoplasia of testis
161.What symptom does not concern to changes in urine volume?
s) anuria
t) oliguria
u) pyuria
v) polyuria
w) oligoanuria
162.What symptom does not concern to irritative symptoms?
s) dysuria
t) stranguria
u) nocturia
v) anuria
w) urgency
163.What disease is not a reason of irritative symptoms?
t) cystitis
u) acute prostatitis
v) overative bladder
w) stone of kidney
x) large bladder tumor
164.What disease is not a reason of bladder outlet obstructive symptoms?
s) bening prostatic hyperplasia
t) cancer of prostate
u) stone of ureter
v) tumor of bladder neck
w) posterior urethral stricture
165.What symptoms do not concern to the incontinence?
s) stress urinary incontinence
t) overflow incontinence
u) oliguria
v) urgency incontinence
w) enuresis
166.What symptoms of changes in the gross appearance of the urine do concern to the inflammation of the upper and low urinary tract?
r) pneumaturia
s) chyluria
t) pyuria
u) hematuria
v) colored urine
167.What disease is not a reason of hematuria?
r) bladder fumor
s) stone of bladder
t) hydrocele
u) stone of kidney
v) acute bloody cystitis
168.What disease is not a causes of scrotal swelling?
f) carcinoma of testis
g) hydrocele
h) epididymitis
i) hernia
j) cryptorchidism
169.What procedure does not concern to the physical examination of kidney?
f) inspection
g) palpation
h) auscultation
i) percution
j) angiography of kidney
170.What disease does not concern to the enlarge of prostate?
f) bening prostatic hyperplasia
g) sclerosis of prostate
h) cancer of prostate
i) acute prostatitis
j) abscesses of prostate
171.What disease is not a cause of PSA elevation?
f) prostate cancer
g) bening prostatic hyperplasia
h) prostatitis
i) sclerosis of prostate
172.What kind of anuria do you know?
a) renal
b) prerenal, renal, postrenal, arenal
c) prerenal, renal, postrenal
d) postrenal
e) renal, postrenal
173.What disease does not concern to the postrenal anuria?
a) stones of both kedney
b) stones of both ureters
c) ligation of both ureters during gynecologic operation
d) stone of bladder
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