SPECTRUM



CSAT 2017

Directions (Questions nos. 1 to 20): Read the passages given below and answer the items that follow.

PASSAGE – 1

Every civilized community consists of a small class of rulers corrupted by too much power and a large class of subjects corrupted by too much passive and irresponsible obedience. So, it is very difficult for an individual to achieve that non-attachment which is the distinguishing mark of the ideally excellent human being and where, there is not at least a considerable degree of non-attachment in activity, the ideal society of the prophets cannot be achieved. A desirable social set up is one which delivers us from avoidable evils. A bad social order is one which leads us into temptations which, if matters were more sensibly disposed, would never happen. Our best efforts must be directed towards the process by which too much power and too much passive obedience can be avoided.

Q 1. According to the passage, the distinguishing mark of an excellent human being is his

(a) non-attachment

(b) freedom from corruption

(c) freedom from temptation

(d) passive obedience

Q 2. According to the passage, the statement which is not true is that

(a) a bad social order leads us to temptations

(b) the ideal society of the prophets cannot be achieved

(c) we must direct our best efforts to create a society of prophets

(d) a good social order is one which saves us from evil

Q 3. It is understand from the passage that in order to achieve an ideal society

(a) all its members must be civilized and cultured

(b) the society should practice the theory of non attachment in all its activities

(c) the advice of the prophets should be considered

(d) concentration of too much power with an individual should be avoided

Q 4. The negative effects of a bad social order is

(a) absence of non-attachment

(b) too much passive obedience

(c) irresponsible behaviour of rulers

(d) succumbing to temptation

Q 5. According to the passage, a desirable social set-up is one which delivers us from

(a) avoidable evils

(b) unavoidable risks

(c) external circumstances

(d) None of these

PASSAGE – 2

An important link for travel, trade and connectivity is aviation. Full service carriers attract passengers with the overall quality of their services while low cost airlines compete on cost. They offer bare-bone services, fly more sectors a day and operate from smaller secondary airports that have lower charges. These may be very far from the city centres costing passengers more time and money to get into town. Some services are aimed at eliminating the problems of connecting flights. They tend to avoid head on competition with each other and prey on full services airlines. Staff are usually less well paid, more intensively used and in shorter supply as compared to full-services airlines. There are numerous examples of this in other countries. Easy Jet operates from major airports and Jet Blue offer live programmes for free.

In India 70% of the operating costs of low cost airlines are same as that of full service carriers, leaving just 30% to juggle with, to gain an overall advantage over full service carriers. Many of these costs like fuel are above global levels. Exorbitant State and Central Government taxes are the main culprits. Air Deccan envisions that their air fares will match rail fares – unattainable because of the economics of scale that the railways enjoy. Few secondary airports and fares falling faster than their costs have hurt low cost airlines more than others, as they have to achieve higher fleet utilization. Allowing low cost lines to utilize non metro airports at lower charges during off-peak hours while providing full service airlines peak hour at higher rates could help.

Low cost airline can also aid economic development and the current situation has been the right time to launch India’s low cost revolution, though in their efforts to achieve economics of scale and greater market share, they have been reckless and have gone deep into the red. India is still waiting second generation low cost of airlines to deliver the goods.

Q 6. According to the passage, the primary purpose of low-cost airlines is to

(a) provide connectivity at low rates

(b) enhance the economic development

(c) reduce the passenger pressure on the railways

(d) avoid congestion at the city airports

Q 7. The author’s view about Indian low-cost airlines is that

(a) they benefit from certain exemptions on taxes and duties

(b) they are based on global second generation models

(c) they have a major advantages with only 70% of the operating cost being the same as full service airlines

(d) they are loss making enterprises as their efforts to expand have been hasty

Q 8. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage?

I. Indian low-cost carriers through launched at the right time have been mismanaged.

II. Jet Blue is one of the premier full service air carriers in the world.

III. Business for low cost carriers is good enough to allow them to compete with railways.

(a) Only I

(b) I and II

(c) Only II

(d) II and III

Q 9. Which of the following measures can boost the low-cost carrier business?

(a) Increasing rail fares to allow low-cost carriers a chance to compete

(b) Government should own a stake in low cost airlines

(c) Preference for low-cost carriers during peak hours at major airports

(d) Developing of adequate secondary airports

Q 10. According to the passage, the growth of low cost airlines in India has been hampered by

I. Inadequate airport infrastructure.

II. Attracting and retaining staff in spite of higher pay packages.

III. Costs of providing additional quality services.

(a) Only III

(b) I and II

(c) Only I

(d) None of these

Q 11. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?

(a) The low-cost airline industry have very recently come to India

(b) Full service airlines operate from secondary airports to meet the costs of free services

(c) Indian low-cost airlines have not been able to make even a marginal cost

(d) None of the above

Q 12. A benefit of low-cost airlines is

(a) they operate away from crowded cities

(b) their fares are more economical

(c) decrease in fares despite a rise in costs

(d) efficient bare minimum services at affordable rates

Q 13. Why are low-cost airlines in India currently experiencing difficulties?

(a) Over-ambitious plans for expansion

(b) Recession in global airline industry

(c) Lack of favourable economic conditions

(d) None of these

Q 14. What are the problems of the staff in low-cost airlines compared to full service airlines?

I. Less well paid.

II. More intensively used.

III. Shorter supply

(a) Only I

(b) II and III

(c) Only III

(d) I, II and III

Q 15. According to the passage, low-cost airlines can

I. Aid economic development

II. Help in providing full services.

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(c) I and II

(d) None of these

PASSAGE – 3

Environment is the surrounding around us. It refers to all of the external factors affecting an organism. These factors may be other living organisms, that is biotic factors or non-living variables, that is abiotic factors, such as temperature, rainfall, day length, wind and ocean currents. Ecosystem is formed by the interactions of organisms with biotic and abiotic factors. Even minute changes in factor in an ecosystem can influence whether a particular plant or animal species will be successful in its environment or not.

Organisms and their environment constantly interact and both are changed by this interaction. Like all other living creatures, humans have clearly changed their environment but they have done so generally on a grand scale than have all other species. Some of these human induced changes, like destruction of the world’s tropical rain forests to create farms or grazing land for cattle etc. have altered the climatic patterns. These altered climatic patterns, in turn have changed the way animals and plants are distributed in different ecosystems.

Q 16. The above passage talks about everything except

(a) environment refers to all the internal and external factors affecting an organism

(b) organisms and their environment constantly interact

(c) environment consists of both living and non-living things

(d) the interaction of organisms with biotic and abiotic factors form an ecosystem

Q 17. The theme of the passage is

(a) even minute changes in environment can influence an ecosystem

(b) changed climatic patterns have altered the way animals and plants are distributed in different ecosystems

(c) interaction is at the heart of organisms relationship with their environment

(d) to show the effect of human-induced changes in the environment

Q 18. Non-human species change their environment in

(a) a model way

(b) a usual way

(c) an extraordinary way

(d) an exceptional way

Q 19. According to the passage, ecosystem comprises of

(a) biotic and abiotic factors

(b) biotic and abiotic factors and their interaction

(c) organisms and interactions of organisms with biotic factors

(d) biotic factors, abiotic factors, organisms and interactions of organisms with biotic and abiotic factors

Q 20. According to the passage, the effects of interaction between organisms and their environment is

(a) very minute to be noticed

(b) change in climatic patterns

(c) not significant

(d) positive

Q21 fijVk f;Zy e'Jh e[ofjs eo p?m/ ns/ ;zrs T[;B{z vzB bkt/-

(A) r[Bkjrko (B) gkgh

(C) sBykjhnk (D) ;Bw[Zy.

Q22 u'yk fuo s/ E'VQk-E'VQk toB tkbk whAj

(A) ;'ek (B) tkSV

(C) MVh (D) p/w";wh.

Q23 Òr[Z;kÓdk ;wkB noEe ôpd j?-

(A) eq'X (B) ôKsh

(C) Bowh (D) r[;?bk

Q24 Òj[fônkoÓ dk ;wkB noEe ôpd j?-

(A) fYZbV (B) uso

(C) BbkfJe (D) ew÷'o.

Q25 ihDk d{Go eoBk-

(A) n"yk r[÷kok eoBk (B) fdB r[÷koB/ n"y/ j' ikD/

(C) pj[s phwko j'Dk (D) ihtB õsw j' ikDk.

Q26 joøB w"bk j'Dk-

(A) pj[s u[;s j'Dk (B) fJZe ezw ftZu gqthB j'Dk

(C) pj[s ubke j'Dk (D) jo ezw ftZu T[;skd j'Dk.

Q27 jKvh T[pb/ sK nkgD/ ezY/ ;kV{-

fejVk tke fJ; nykD d/ noE B{z do;Kdk j?-

(A) ow/ô n?t/A fBZehnK fBZehnK rZbK s/ fyZM s/ nkgDk jh y{B ;kVdk j?.

(B) p[ZY/ fgU B/ nkgD/ pZfunK B{z p[bk e/ fejk[ g[Zso'! nkg; ftZu gq/w Bkb fojk eo'. w/ok dh gsk.

(C) ftB'd sK gb gb s/ ozr pdbdk j? T[; Bkb rZb eoB dk e'Jh bkG BjhA.

(D) ;[Bhsk B/ nZi g/e/ ikDk ;h sK ;Z; dh y[ôkwd eo ojh ;h. nZr/ fgZS/ T[;B{z d' gb th u?B BjhA b?D fdzdh.

Q28 ykD/ S'b/ veko pdkwK d/-

fejVk tke fJ; nykD d/ noE B{z do;Kdk j?-

(A) rohp ;[o/ô B/ w;K fJXo'A T[Xo'A T[Xko cV e/ ;p÷h dh o/jVh brkT[Dh ô[o{ ehsh go oZp dh eoBh ebQ T[;dh o/jVh jh u'oh j' rJh

(B) thDk j'ohA w;K xo dk r[÷kok eod/ B/ s/ nZi efj ojh ;h n;hA j[D eko yohd b?Dh j?.

(C) s/o/ efjD dk eh j? s{z sK pj[s e[M efjzdk J/A go w?A sK i' uzrk bZr/rk T[jh eoKrk.

(D) ;[Bhsk B/ id'A w/o/ e'b'A g?;/ T[Xko b?D/ ;B sK w/o/ xo d/ eJh uZeo wko/ go j[D edh fdykJh th BjhA fdZsh.

Q29 ihtK s/ aaaaaaaaaaaaaaeo'-

(A) dfJnk (B) ÷[bw

(C) tko (D) fJjBK ftZu'A e'Jh BjhA.

Q30 rKaaaaaaaaaaaaayKdh s/ fwZmk d[ZX fdzdh j?-

(A) o['Nh (B) gkDh

(C) xkj (D) e[M BjhA.

Q31 j/m fby/ tkeK ftZu'A rbs tke dZ;'.

(A) s[;hA ;Zu efjzd/ j'.

(B) XhnK gokfJnk XB j[zdk j?.

(C) ewbihs xo Bz{ ;zGkb b?Adh j?.

(D) eJh fsqwsK B{z p'bDk th BjhA nkT[Adk.

Q32 j/m fby/ tkeK ftZu'A rbs tke dZ;'.

(A) T[;B/ yZNh bZ;h ghsh.

(B) e[VhJ/ s{z feskp feT[A BjhA gVQdh.

(C) jkEh Bz{ sp/b/ ftZu pzBQ'.

(D) w?A o'Nh BjhA ykXk.

Q33 ôy;hns dk w[Zy-fuzBQ gq;zBsk j?. fi;d/ nzdo gq;zBsk j't/, T[jh fe;/ d{i/ B{z gq;zB eo ;edk j?. gq;Bsk J/;/ bJh ô[G ôrB ;wfMnk iKdk j? feT[Afe fi; fjod/ ftZu gq;zBsk j?, T[ZE/ ;kVk BjhA j' ;edk-;kVk pVh e[ôrB nt;Ek j?. ;kVk nkgD/ nkg ftZu Go';k BjhA oZydk, db/o BjhA j[zdk, fjzws s'A esoKdk j?. fJj fBôkBhnK jhDsk dhnK jB. J/;/ bJh fiZE/ ;kVk j[zdk j?, T[ZE/ eo'X th jz[dk j? s/ fiZE/ fJj d't/A j'D, T[ZE/ c/o e'Jh Gbh rZb BjhA ofj ;edh. fJj d't/A ôy;hns d/, fto'Xh jB. ôy;hns d/ nfGbkyh B{z pV/ isBK Bkb fJjBK s'A õpodko ofjDk ukjhdk j?. fJj Y/o fuo sZe tb tbk e/ nkT[Ad/ ofjDr/, go id sZe n;hA fJjBK dh ;[jps s'A ôowKd/ ojKr/, fJj ;kv/ T[Zs/ ekp{ BjhA gk ;ed/. id'A th fJj nk ikD, nkgD/ nkg e'b'A ôow ykU, fijVk T[Zuh ôy;hns dk nkdoô s[;K ;kjwD/ oZfynk j'fJnk j?, T[jdk u/sk eoe/ eq'X d{o eo fbnk eo'. j"bh-j"bh nt;Ek pdbdh ikJ/rh s/ fJZe fdB n?;k nk ikJ/rk id'A fe;/ dh ;cbsk s[jkB{z ghVs BjhA eo/rh, Bk fe;/ T[Zs/ e'qX nkt/rk.

(A) ôy;hns

(B) ôy;hns d/ nfGbkyh

(C) gq;zBsk

(D) ôy;hns dk nkdoô.

Q34 xo fJZNK iK tZfNnK d/ pD/ e'm/ B{z BjhA efjzd/. ÒxoÓ s'A Gkt T[j EK j?, fiZE/ wB[Zy d/ fgnko s/ ;ZXoK gbdhnK jB, fiZE/ pugB ftZu wK, G?D s/ Gok e'b'A bkv fbnk j[zdk j?, fiZE/ itkBh ftZu ;ko/ ijkB B{z rkj e/, bskV e/, yZNh ewkJh eoe/ w[V nkT[D B{z ih eodk j?. fiZE/ p[Ykg/ ftZu ofj e/ ;ko/ ihtB d/ Mw/fbnK s'A fwbh ftjb B{z nkokw Bkb eZND ftZu fJT[A ;[nkd nkT[Adk j? fit/A pugB ftZu wK dh M'bh ftZu nkT[Adk ;h. xo wB[Zy d/ fBZih tbtfbnK s/ fynkbK dk e/Ado j[zdk j?. wB[Zy dk nkouD pDkT[D ftZu fiZE/ ;wkie s/ w[beh nkb/-d[nkb/ dk n;o ezw eodk j?, T[ZE/ xo dh uko-dhtkoh ns/ fJ;d/ nzdo d/ jkbks dk n;o th xZN ezw BjhA eodk, ;r'A wB[Zy dk nkuoD cpdk jh xo ftZu j?. fJj T[; dhnK o[uhnk ns/ ;[GkT dk ;KMk j?. eJh tkoh id w?A fe;/ ;ZiD B{z e'M/, ;Vhnb iK fyZM{ ;[Gkn tkbk t/ydk jK, sK w?A fdb ftZu efjzdk jK, fJ; ftuko/ B{z xo dk fgnko BjhA fwfbnk j'Dk.

(A) xo

(B) xo dk fgnko

(C) fgnko s/ ;ZXoK

(D) xo dh uko-dhtkoh.

Q 35. Find the value of x in the Venn-diagram.

(a) 45

(b) 50

(c) 60

(d) 65

Q 36. From a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, one card is draw at random. What is the probability that the drawn card is a black 6?

(a) [pic]

(b) [pic]

(c) [pic]

(d) [pic]

Q 37. A dice is thrown. What is the probability of getting a 4?

(a) [pic]

(b) [pic]

(c) [pic]

(d) [pic]

Q 38. The radius of the large circle is equal to the diameter of the small circle. If the areas of the small circle is 13 m2, what is the area of the shaded region?

(a) 55 m2

(b) 48 m2

(c) 39 m2

(d) 26 m2

Q 39. A cube has 1.5 cm side, the surface area of cube is

(a) 3.375 cm2

(b) 13.5 cm2

(c) 6.75 cm2

(d) 9 cm2

Q 40. The radius of the cylinder whose lateral surface area is 704 cm2, and height 8 cm, is

(a) 6 cm

(b) 4 cm

(c) 8 cm

(d) 14 cm

Q 41. A metal sheet 0.27 cm long, 8 cm broad and 1 cm thick is melted into a cube. The difference between surface of the two solids is

(a) 284 cm2

(b) 286 cm2

(c) 296 cm2

(d) 280 cm2

Q 42. A child walked 5 m to cross a rectangular field diagonally. If the breadth of field is 3 m, its length is

(a) 4 m

(b) 3 m

(c) 10 m

(d) 6 m

Q 43. In the figure given below, AB is parallel to CD. What is [pic]XOY?

(a) 80°

(b) 90°

(c) 95°

(d) 100°

Q44 ft;ky d/ s/÷ j' oj/ fdB ns/ s/÷ j' ojh rowh ekoB y/sK dh ozrs jh pdb iKdh j?. eDeK fiBQK d/ f;ZN/ u/so ftZu Go iKd/ jB, ;'B/ ozrhnK j' iKdhnK jB. u/so d/ d{Xhnk dkD/ ft;ky dhnK X[ZgK, bZrD Bkb gZe e/ ghv/ j' iKd/ jB. fJjh ;wK j[zdk j? eDeK dhnK tkYhnK dk, feT[Afe nZX ft;ky s'A fgZS'A f÷nkdk y[ôe X[ZgK ekoB e;ho ;[Ze e/ G[o iKd/ jB ns/ dkD/ MVB bZr g?Ad/ jB. gzikp ftZu eDeK B{z tZY e/, GohnK pzBQ e/, fJjBK GohnK B{z X[Zg ftZu ;[ZeD fdZsk iKdk j?. e?B/vk ftZu X[ZgK J/BhnK s/÷ BjhA j[zdhnK, fJ; bJh yb'shnK eDeK j"bh-j"bh ;[Ze e/ jh gedhnK jB. f÷nkdk s/÷ X[ZgK ftZu tkYh eoBh th n"yh j' iKdh j? ns/ fdjkVhdko u"yk ezw BjhA Bp/V ;edk. yb'shnK eDeK T[Zs/ whAj g? ikt/ iK nuBu/s rV/ g? ikD sK ø;b spkj j' iKdh j?. fJ; bJh gzikph fe;kB B[z nkgDh ø;b ;w/ND dh ekjb jz[dh j?.

(A) ft;ky dhnK X[ZgK

(B) gzikph fe;kB

(C) eDe dh tkYh

(D) y/sK dh ozrs

Q 45. Mr. Akash travels 200 m towards South-East of his house where, he took a cup of coffee. Now, he turns right and travels straight till he arrives exactly South of his house, where he took a cup of tea and returns straight to his house. How long he had travelled?

(a) 200 (3 + [pic]) m

(b) 200 (1 + [pic]) m

(c) 200 (2 + [pic]) m

(d) 250 (2 + [pic]) m

Directions (Question nos. 46 to 50): Study the following graph to answer the questions.

Q 46. For how many years is the per cent rise more than 100?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Five

(d) None of these

Q 47. What is the average of the per cent rise over the given years?

(a) 110

(b) 105

(c) 100.5

(d) 92.5

Q 48. For how many years is the per cent rise lower than the average of the per cent rive over the given years?

(a) Two

(b) One

(c) Five

(d) Three

Q 49. For which of the given years is the per cent rise the least?

(a) 2000

(b) 2004

(c) 2006

(d) None of these

Q 50. If the production in 1998 was 10,000 units, how much is the production in 2002?

(a) 35280 units

(b) 64680 units

(c) 46200 units

(d) None of these

Q 51. K is brother of J. M is sister of K. P is brother of N. N is daughter of J. S is father of M. Who is uncle of P?

(a) J

(b) M

(c) K

(d) S

Directions (Question nos. 52 to 56): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Eight friends Savita, Radhika, Amita, Nisha, Rani, Jyoti, Meeta and Anjali are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Savita is second to the right of Anjali, but is not a neighbour of Amita. Nisha is third to the left of Amita but is not next to Savita. Jyoti is second to the right of Rani and third to the left of Meeta.

Q 52. Who is second to the left of Anjali?

(a) Radhika

(b) Rani

(c) Amita

(d) Meeta

Q 53. Who is to the immediate right of Nisha?

(a) Jyoti

(b) Radhika

(c) Meeta

(d) Jyoti or Radhika

Q 54. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani?

(a) To the immediate right of Anjali

(b) To the immediate left of Anjali

(c) To the immediate right of Savita

(d) Next to Jyoti

Q 55. Which of the following pairs represent the immediate neighbours of Nisha?

(a) Jyoti and Radhika

(b) Savita and Jyoti

(c) Radhika and Meeta

(d) Radhika and Jyoti

Q 56. Who is to the immediate left of Savita?

(a) Jyoti

(b) Anjali

(c) Rani

(d) Meeta

Q 57. Shown below are two curves for the number of customers in a shop. On the basis of the nature of curves shown below, which of the following shows high business of the shop?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) Either A or B

(d) Cannot be predicted

Q 58. Below in the question are given two Statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes. One of these Statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the Statements and decide, which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two Statements.

Give your answer as

(a) If Statement I is the cause and Statement II is the effect.

(b) If Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect.

(c) If both the Statements I and II are the effects of independent cause.

(d) If both the Statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

I. The production of wheat during the current year brokes the all past records.

II. The production of wheat last year was much less than the production in the previous year.

Q 59. You are the owner of a small iron factory. One day, while you were working, you heard a lot of noise coming from the workshop. You saw that an iron pole had fallen on the two labourers. They were seriously injured. What would you do?

(a) Call the police to control the situation

(b) Call the union leader and talk to him

(c) Give immediate medical attention to the injured and take him to the hospital

(d) Calls his family members and ask them to take him to the hospital

Q 60. You are as IPS Officer. You and one of your fellow officers have gone for an investigation. While leaving the scene, you notice that your fellow officer is picking up something from the house and slipping it into his pocket. You will

(a) report the matter to the superior officer

(b) warn your fellow officer to keep the article back else you will report to the senior officer

(c) try to ignore the act

(d) holler at your fellow officer at the scene and remind him of his duty

Q 61. You are working on an important project. Because of a personal work, you want to take leave. You will

(a) meet the boss and seek concurrence

(b) send a note through his secretary

(c) take leave and inform him next day

(d) go without asking for permission

Q 62. You are working in a finance company. You have been given a target for achieving, but you have not been given adequate resources. What will you do?

(a) Leave the target and tell your boss to appoint someone else for the job

(b) Use the limited resources and try to achieve the target and demand necessary resources when needed

(c) Demand resources before starting the work

(d) Tell your subordinate to finish the target

Q 63. You are working in a manufacturing sector. Your boss is trying to make you understand some difficult project, but you are unable to comprehend many parts of it. You will

(a) Keep on nodding your head, without understanding

(b) Ask him to explain it again to you in a very polite way

(c) Remain aloof from the discussion

(d) Make your boss feel that you have understood everything

Q 64. Your superior is a very dedicated person. He is a tough task matter and strictly adheres to work schedules. But, he has been unexpectedly away for a week now and as a result the department’s performance is starting to dip. You will

(a) suggest to organize a meeting

(b) make sure that your responsibilities are covered

(c) assume some extra responsibilities

(d) do nothing as it is not your job to look up to the department’s performance

Q 65. You are the team leader and you realize that the performance of your team members may slip to stress and monotony of the job. What will you do?

(a) reward them often

(b) give them the authority to make their own decisions

(c) make clear the penalties for bad performance

(d) communicate your assessment of their performance often and help them overcome their shortcomings

Directions (Question nos. 66 to 75): Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE – 1

No life is perfect. We all must face all kinds of challenges in life. Think that this very moment somewhere in the world, there could be parents who are crying because of the death of their children. There could be people who have met with some accident and lying on the operation table for treatment and recovery. There could be people who are suffering from depression due to big losses in their business. So, in a way there are problems of all sorts in life. No one gets through life without experiencing the bitter taste of such unwelcome happenings at some point of time in life.

But, we have power to rise above our pleasant external circumstances. We can always feel strong and positive when we faced with different kinds of problems. We can use our stumbling blocks as stepping stones to our greatest success in life, provided we always remembers that nothing in the world is permanent. Just, as our happiness is not going to be with us all the time in our life, it has to come to an end one day or the other-similarly our frustrations, failures and all kinds of physical and emotional pains are not going to be with us all the time.

Life is a cycle in which joys and sorrows, success and failures form the spokes needed to support and run the wheel. Do not you know that the day is always followed by the night and vice versa? So, believing in this law of impermanence in life strongly will alone provide us with the necessary courage to fight these unpleasant enemies of our life successfully and remain calm and quiet even in the hour of our trial.

Q 66. The author of this passage wants to talk about

(a) all kinds of suffering in human life

(b) the imperfection in human life

(c) man’s helplessness in facing various challenges in life

(d) man’s power to rise above the unpleasant external circumstances and use them as the stepping stone to his success and happiness in life

Q 67. The author wants readers to always remember that

(a) life is not a bed of roses

(b) joys and sorrows are God’s creations

(c) nothing in this world is permanent, and joys and sorrow are a part of life cycle

(d) man gets joys and sorrows in life as a result of his ‘karma’ in his past life

Q 68. What do ‘day’ and ‘night’ stand for in the passage?

(a) Happiness and sorrow

(b) Joy, success and sorrow, failure

(c) Life and death

(d) None of these

PASSAGE – 2

Listening intently to someone is one of the best ways to honour that person and forge a deep human connection. When you listen top someone not just with your mind but with your being, it sends them a message: “I value what you have to say and I am humble enough to listen to your words.” Accordingly, only a few of us are good at listening.

I will sit down next to someone on an airplane, at the start of a six hour flight and they will still be talking by the time we land without having even asked me my name or where I am from and what I do or the books I have read. It tells me not only that they lack what scientists call “sensory activity”, but that they were probably not taught how to listen to others properly. Most people’s idea of listening is waiting until the other person has finished speaking before answering. And the sad fact is that while one person is talking most of us are rehearsing our replies.

New York attorney general Eliot Spitzer has a line that I love: “Never talk when you can nod.” You effectiveness as a human being will absolutely soar if you get this one right. Listen twice as much as you speak. Become a world class listener. Get widely interested in what others have to say to you. And just watch how people respond. They will fall in love with you.

Q 69. According to the writer, the best way to honour a person and establish a deep relation with him or her is

(a) speaking to the person

(b) listening intently to the person

(c) value the ideals of the person

(d) None of these

Q 70. What message do you send to a person when you listen to them not only with mind but with every fibre of your being?

(a) You value what he has to say

(b) You are not interested in listening

(c) He is wasting your time by his boring talks

(d) You want a partner for discussion

Q 71. According to the passage, most people’s ideas of listening is

(a) a healthy discussion

(b) rehearsing replies in between

(c) waiting until the other person has finished speaking

(d) None of the above

Q 72. The word ‘rehearsing’ is used to mean

(a) helping

(b) practicing

(c) interfering

(d) adding

PASSAGE – 3

It was an irony the government probably missed. Recently, the UN said that increased access to technology that allows parents to know the sex of their fetus has left Asia short of 117 million women, mostly in China and India. Within days, there were reports that the Planning Commission was relaxing the ban on sex selection tests in rural areas, that it was proposing a programme to ‘adopt’ female fetuses and give incentives to families and health workers to deliver female babies. The proposal looks as an insult to the 10 million dead female babies we have lost in the last 35 years. ‘Is having a girl child an economic decision of the family?’ Contrary to the official focus on improving the child sex ratio in rural areas, the real problem is in the urban areas. The 2011 census figures showed that while the sex ratio in rural areas is 919 girls per 1000 boys, in urban areas it’s 902. Female foeticide is an organized murder. Parents do it because they don’t want daughters; the doctors do it for money and the government looks at it as a birth control pill.

Q 73. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) increase the sex ratio in urban areas

(b) highlight the misuse of technology

(c) promote more funds for female birth

(d) make the government realize its policies

Q 74. The sentence ‘is having a girl child an economic decision’ means

(a) girl child is required for economic growth

(b) girl child is a matter of grave concern

(c) economic decisions will reflect female birth

(d) having a girl child will be for monetary gains

Q 75. ‘Female foeticide is an organized murder’.

A. It is done intentionally

B. It is planned

C. It is programmed

(a) A and B only

(b) B only

(c) A only

(d) All of the above

ANSWERS

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (a)

6. (a)

7. (d)

8. (a)

9. (d)

10. (c)

11. (b)

12. (d)

13. (a)

14. (d)

15. (a)

16. (a)

17. (d)

18. (d)

19. (d)

20. (b)

21. (c)

22. (c)

23. (a)

24. (b)

25. (b)

26. (d)

27. (a)

28. (b)

29. (a)

30. (c)

31. (d)

32. (d)

33. (a)

34. (b)

35. (c)

36. (b)

37. (c)

38. (c)

39. (b)

40. (d)

41. (b)

42. (a)

43. (d)

44. (c)

45. (c)

46. (d)

47. (d)

48. (d)

49. (c)

50. (b)

51. (c)

52. (d)

53. (b)

54. (a)

55. (d)

56. (d)

57. (a)

58. (c)

59. (c)

60. (b)

61. (a)

62. (b)

63. (b)

64. (a)

65. (d)

66. (d)

67. (c)

68. (b)

69. (b)

70. (a)

71. (b)

72. (b)

73. (b)

74. (d)

75. (d)

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