Francis Marion University



Lecture Exam 3 Don’t forget to put your name! Name _________________________

Muscle Physiology

1. A somatic motor neuron

A) releases what neurotransmitter into the synapse with skeletal muscle? ________________________

B) What receptor for that neurotransmitter does skeletal muscle have? __________________________

_____2. With respect to motor units, how is the motor unit arranged if power, not precision, is required?

A. One motor neuron innervates (stimulates) many muscle fibers

B. One motor neuron innervates (stimulates) a few muscle fibers

C. Many motor neurons innervate (stimulate) a single muscle fiber

D. None of the above

3. What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction, with respect to actin and myosin?

__________________________________________________

4. What is the primary function of ADP in muscle contraction, with respect to actin and myosin?

__________________________________________________

5. What is a bundle of muscle myofibrils called? _______________________

6. Provide three qualities of red muscle fibers that differ from white muscle fibers:

A) __________________________________________________

B) __________________________________________________

C) __________________________________________________

7. Muscle _____________ is a term that describes muscle contractile force produced by repeated low-frequency stimulation, which produces a cumulative increase in force (but not maximal force capable) until a plateau of force is reached, but muscle fibers have time to relax in between stimuli (muscle force returns to baseline in between stimuli).

8. Muscle _____________ is a term that describes muscle contractile force produced by the highest frequency of stimulation, which produces the highest possible force a muscle is capable of, but it leads to muscle fatigue and failure.

9. The isoform of phosphocreatine that, when elevated in the blood, indicates brain damage is _________________

10. The mnemonic RICE stands for _________, _________, _________, _________.

11. A muscle disorder involving inflammation and progressive muscle weakness, especially of muscles near the trunk of the body is _________________________.

12. An autoimmune disorder that results in antibodies attacking and destroying cholinergic receptors on muscle fibers, preventing muscle contractions is called ____________________________.

13. A muscle disorder associated the loss of motor neurons and is hypothesized to result from a loss of antioxidants (superoxide dismutase) and a buildup of glutamate neurotransmitters in the synapses of neuromuscular junctions is called ___________________________.

____14. The muscle spindle apparatus senses muscle ________.

A. contraction B. tension C. stretch D. damage

____15. The golgi tendon organ senses muscle _______.

A. contraction B. tension C. stretch D. damage

16. Which of the four spinal reflexes is involved in preventing damage to the tendons during strong muscle contractions?

_____________________

17. Which of the four spinal reflexes functions to stimulate the primary action muscle while simultaneously inhibiting the opposing muscle, and acts only on one body side? _____________________

18. Which of the four spinal reflexes functions to, if you step on a tack, to lift up (bend) the injured leg (on one body side) while straightening (extending) the other leg on the opposite body side? _____________________

Take your time with this! Stop. Think, & work it out. What needs to happen if you step on a tack with the right foot?

______19. The double reciprocal innervation reflex, which occurs when you step on a tack with your right foot, causes:

A. Contraction of the right quadriceps and relaxation of the right hamstring muscles, and simultaneous contraction

of the left quadriceps and relaxation of the left hamstrings muscles.

B. Contraction of the right quadriceps and relaxation of the right hamstring muscles, and simultaneous

relaxation of the left quadriceps and contraction of the left hamstring muscles.

C. Relaxation of the right quadriceps and contraction of the right hamstring muscles, and simultaneous

relaxation of the left quadriceps and contraction of the left hamstring muscles.

D. Relaxation of the right quadriceps and contraction of the right hamstring muscles, and simultaneous

contraction of the left quadriceps and relaxation of the left hamstring muscles.

E. Contraction of the right quadriceps and contraction of the right hamstring muscles, and simultaneous

contraction of the left quadriceps and contraction of the left hamstring muscles.

____20. What is the correct sequence of events, starting from what a somatic motor neuron releases to muscle contraction?

[STOP, THINK, and write it out!]

1) Na+ ion channels in the receptor on the muscle fiber open to allow Na+ inside.

2) The action potential travels down T-tubules to sarcoplasmic reticulum.

3) ACh is released from neuron into the synapse.

4) An action potential forms in muscle fiber.

5) ACh binds to nicotinic cholinergic receptors.

6) Ca+2 binds to troponin.

7) Myosin heads bind to active sites and form crossbridges.

8) Ca+2 is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum.

9) Tropomyosin moves off active sites on actin.

10) Actin and myosin slide past each other, sarcomeres shorten, and muscle fiber contracts.

A. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 9, 7, 10 D. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 8, 6, 9, 10, 7

B. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2, 8, 6, 9, 7, 10 E. 5, 1, 4, 2, 3, 8, 9, 6, 7, 10

C. 3, 5, 4, 1, 2, 8, 6, 9, 7, 10

Cardiovascular Physiology

_____21. With respect to the distribution of blood within the body tissues, which of the following contains the greatest blood volume at any particular time?

A. The heart. B. The lungs. C. Arteries D. Veins E. The brain.

22. Regarding cardiac cycle heart sounds, the “dub” or S2 sound represents the closure of which two valves in the heart?

___________________________ & ___________________________

23. Regarding cardiac cycle heart sounds, the “lub” or S1 sound represents the closure of which two valves in the heart?

___________________________ & ___________________________

24. Where in the heart’s conduction system is electrical impulse when it is within the walls of the ventricles?

_____________________

_____25. Cardiac output is increased by ALL of the following: [STOP, THINK, and write it out!]

A. ( venous return, ( end diastolic volume, ( stroke volume, ( contractility, and ( heart rate.

B. ( venous return, ( end diastolic volume, ( stroke volume, ( contractility, and ( heart rate.

C. ( venous return, ( end diastolic volume, ( stroke volume, ( contractility, and ( heart rate.

D. ( venous return, ( end diastolic volume, ( stroke volume, ( contractility, and ( heart rate.

E. ( venous return, ( end diastolic volume, ( stroke volume, ( contractility, and ( heart rate.

_____26. With respect to factors that influence stroke volume of the heart, which of the following statements is false?

[STOP, THINK, and write it out!]

A. Stroke volume increases as end diastolic volume increases.

B. Stroke volume increases as heart contractility increase.

C. Stroke volume increases as total peripheral resistance in arteries increases.

D. Stroke volume increases as total peripheral resistance decreases.

E. Stroke volume decreases as end diastolic volume decreases.

27. What is the pathological heart murmur resulting from an autoimmune attack, often resulting from a strep infection, which scars heart valves leaving them stiff, inflexible, and prone to leaking? _____________________

28. Heart pacemaker muscle cells depolarize (contract) when what two ion channels open? _________________

29. Heart pacemaker muscle cells repolarize (rest) when what ion channel opens? ______________________

_____38. All of the following are negative inotropic agents that work as a treatment for tachycardia EXCEPT

A. Na+ channel blockers. B. Ca+2 channel blockers. C. Atenolol. D. Digitalis E. Propranolol

_____39. All of the following are positive inotropic agents that work as a treatment for bradycardia EXCEPT

A. Dobutamine B. Na+ channel blockers C. MAO-I’s D. Digitalis E. Epinephrine

40. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole is known as the _______________________

41. According to the Frank-Starling Law of the heart, as end diastolic volume increases and the ventricles stretch, what happens to their contractile strength (contractility)? ___________________________

42. Increased blood osmolarity (such as drinking a 5% salt solution!) will what hormone to be secreted? ____________

43. If blood pressure is increased above normal which of the following could occur, which two things will happen to bring it back down to normal?

A) the “quick fix” is __________________________________________________________________

B) the hormonal fix is _______________________________________________________________

44. If blood pressure is lower than normal which of the following could occur, which two things will happen to bring it back up to normal?

A) the “quick fix” is __________________________________________________________________

B) the hormonal fix is _______________________________________________________________

45. Regarding diabetes insipidus:

A) What is the hormonal problem? _____________________

B) What are the clinical symptoms? ________________________________

_____46. The end effects of aldosterone on the kidney tubules and the body water balance is:

[STOP, THINK, and write it out!]

A. ( salt reabsorption, ( water reabsorption, ( urine volume, and ( blood volume and pressure.

B. ( salt reabsorption, ( water reabsorption, ( urine volume, and ( blood volume and pressure.

C. ( salt reabsorption, ( water reabsorption, ( urine volume, and ( blood volume and pressure.

D. ( salt reabsorption, ( water reabsorption, ( urine volume, and ( blood volume and pressure.

E. ( salt reabsorption, ( water reabsorption, ( urine volume, and ( blood volume and pressure.

47. _______________ anemia involves lack of dietary vitamin B12.

48. _______________anemia results from bone marrow problem, which can occur with chemotherapy treatment.

49. _______________ anemia can occur in a newborn as a result of mixing of blood between an Rh- mother and an Rh+ fetus.

50. Which “first responder” WBCs are found in the blood in the greatest frequency? _______________________

51. The WBC seen with chronic inflammation due to parasites is ______________________________

52. The elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman, due to placental hormones, is called _________________.

53. If a woman is 50 kg, what range of normal blood volume should she have? ___________ to ____________L

54. Jaundice in a patient is a sign of what problem? __________________________

55. A person with blood type O can receive what types of blood in a transfusion? ______________

56. A person with blood type AB can receive what types of blood in a transfusion? _________________________

57. A person with blood type A has

A) what antigens? ______________ B. What antibodies? _______________

58. Which vacutainer tube (color) contains the anticoagulant EDTA? _______________________

Using figure showing blood typing agglutination tests, answer questions 49 & 50.

59. What would be the correct blood type for “Test 1”? __________

60. What would be the correct blood type for “Test 2”? __________

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