St Johns PE A-Level



A Level PE – Revision Questions – Neuromuscular functionThe area between one Z line and the next Z line is called what? – sarcomereIn muscle fibre types what does FOG stand for? - fast oxidative glycolyticHow does the type of muscle contraction in the quadriceps change during the upward and downward phases of a squat? – isotonic concentric during upward phase, isotonic eccentric during downward phaseState 3 long term benefits of training on the muscular system – muscular hypertrophy, increased number of muscle fibres (hyperplasia), increased stores of PC, ATP, glycogen and triglycerides in muscles, increased capillary supply to muscles, increased number of mitochondriaMuscle fibres are made up of repeated units known as what? – myofibrilsName the two protein filaments which are found in every sarcomere. – actin and myosinWhen a muscle contracts what happens to the Z lines? – they move closer togetherWhat is the I band and what happens to it when a muscle contracts? – it’s the area of actin not overlapping myosin and it decreases when a muscle contractsWhat is the H zone and what happens to it when a muscle contracts? – it’s the area of myosin not overlapping with actin and it decreases or disappears when a muscle contractsWhat is a neuromuscular junction? - place where motor neurone links to muscle fibre (at the motor end plate)What is the name of the protein that winds around actin? – tropomyosinWhere are calcium ions involved in muscle contraction stored whilst a muscle is at rest? – sarcoplasmic reticulumWhat happens when calcium ions enter the synaptic knob? – acetylcholine is released to help initiate a muscle contractionDescribe the all or nothing law – all the muscle fibres within a motor unit either contract or do not contract, there is no partial contractionName the globular protein which calcium ions bind with to move tropomyosin and free up the actin binding sites. – troponinWhat is formed when actin and myosin bind together? – crossbridgesWhat name is given to the action of myosin pulling on actin during a muscle contraction? – the powerstrokeWhat term is given to the process by which muscle fibres increase in size due to training? – hypertrophyOne benefit of power training is that there will be an increase in the number of enzymes which break down ATP and PC. Which component of fitness would this benefit the most? – speedOne benefit of training is increased muscle elasticity. State one benefit of this for the performer. – decreased risk of injury, increased range of movementHow does increased capillary density as a result of training benefit a performer? – faster/increased gas exchange therefore can provide more O2 to musclesIncreased myofibril hypertrophy as a result of training would most benefit which component of fitness? – strength (accept power)Which type of muscle fibres have lower levels of anaerobic enzymes? – slow twitchWhich type of muscle fibres have the largest number of capillaries? – slow twitch (to deliver more O2 for aerobic energy production)Which muscle fibres have the largest number of mitochondria? – slow twitch (this is where Krebs cycle and ETC occur)Where does Kreb’s cycle and the Electron Transport Chain occur? – in mitochondriaWhere does glycolysis occur? – cytoplasmWhich muscle fibres have the largest number of myoglobin? – slow twitchWhich muscle fibre type fatigues the most quickly? – fast twitch type IIxWhich type of muscle fibres produce the most force with the most speed? - fast twitch type IIxWhat is the full term for type IIa fibres? – fast oxidative glycolytic fibresWhat is the full term for type IIx fibres? – fast glycolytic fibresTrue or false: fast twitch fibres produce energy mostly through anaerobic pathways. – trueWhich fibres type would be best for a 100m sprinter? – fast twitch type IIxTrue or false: fast twitch fibres have greater stores of ATP than slow twitch. – trueWhat is a motor unit? – a motor neurone and all of the muscle fibres connected to itDefine motor neurone. – nerves that carry information from the central nervous system (CNS) to the skeletal musclesTrue or false: fast twitch fibres have larger motor neurones? – trueTrue or false: slow twitch fibres are able to relax more quickly than fast twitch? – falseHow does being smaller/thinner benefit slow twitch fibres? – less diffusion distance and less weight/mass to physically carry during competition such as marathonHow do a large amount of myoglobin benefit slow twitch fibres? – greater supply of O2Roughly what percentage of fast twitch fibres does the average person have? – 50%True or false: endurance training can help convert type IIx fibres into type IIa fibres but cannot change fast twitch fibres into slow twitch fibres? – trueFor which types of sport may Type IIa fibres be the best? – team sports/games activities which involve a mix of aerobic and anaerobic demandsWhat term can be defined by ‘another stimulus is applied before the motor unit (muscle) relaxes completely, resulting in more tension’. – wave summationWhat term can be defined by ‘when stimuli are at a high frequency there is no time for relaxation between impulses so muscle tension is maintained’. – tetanusA motor neurone does not activate a single muscle fibre, but a group of muscle fibres (all of the fibres that it is connected to); what does this define? – the all or nothing lawTrue or false: a motor unit can have a mix of slow and fast twitch fibres. – false (all the same type in each unit)Define multiple unit summation and explain when it would be used – it is when the brain sends signals to activate more motor units, used when a greater strength of contraction is requiredDefine spatial summation and explain why/when it occurs? - The recruitment of motor units within a muscle is rotated to avoid fatigue. Used during endurance (submaximal) activitiesMotor neurones pass messages from where to where? – From the central nervous system (brain) via the spinal cord to the muscle fibresWhat happens when calcium ions enter the synaptic knob? – acetylcholine is released.What is the role of acetylcholine in the initiation of a muscle contraction? – it spreads across the synapse forming a bridge along which the nerve impulse (action potential) can pass into the muscle fibreState 3 of the 5 stages of muscle contraction. – resting, excitation, contraction, recharge, relaxation.Which of the 5 stages of muscle contraction does the sliding filament theory relate to? – the contraction stageA Level PE – Revision Questions – Diet and nutritionSugar, rice and bread are good sources of which nutrient? – carbohydratesRoughly, what percentage of our diet should come from carbohydrates? – 60%Which nutrient helps with growth and repair of cells? – proteinWhich nutrient aids gastrointestinal functioning? – fibreDefine glycaemic index. - the rate at which the glucose from the food is broken down and absorbedDefine glycaemic load. - an estimate of how much a food will affect blood glucose levelsTo decrease recovery time and reduce the risk of injury and fatigue it is best to eat foods with a high glycaemic index and load shortly after completing exercise. What is the time known as? – the two hour window of opportunityMilk is an excellent drink to have immediately after training because of its mix of which nutrients? Protein and carbohydrates (and water)Food should be eaten 3-4 hours before activity, explain how much carbohydrates, fat and fibre should be in this meal? – high carb (enhance glycogen stores), low fat (slows the rate at which food is digested), moderate in fibre (to help digestive processes)Define the term ‘positive energy balance.’ – when energy intake is greater than energy expenditure and the result is a gain in weightExcess glucose is stored as glycogen in muscles and liver. What is excess glycogen stored as? – fatDefine the term ‘negative energy balance.’ – when energy expenditure is greater than energy intake and the result is a loss in weightWhat is basal metabolic rate (BMR)? - the minimum amount of energy required to keep our body functioningTrue or false: your basal metabolic rate takes into account your physical activity levels. – falseGive an example of when two players in the same sports team may have different optimal weights. – best example is rugby when a prop would have a higher optimal weight and winger a lower optimal weightRoughly what percentage of our body is made up of water? – 60%State 2 factors which would affect the rate at which we would lose water during exercise. – exercise duration and intensity levels, environmental temperature and humidity, body size and fitness levelsTrue or false: dehydration will lead to difficulties in controlling body temperature. – true (as blood flows more slowly and vasoconstriction/vasodilation becomes difficultDuring sweating we lose water (fluid) and what else? – electrolytesGlucose osmolality of the drink is the same as blood defines which type of sports drink – isotonicGlucose osmolality of the drink is greater than blood defines which type of sports drink – hypertonicGlucose osmolality of the drink is lower than blood defines which type of sports drink – hypertonicWhat type of sports drink could be referred to as ‘the thirst quencher?’ – hypotonicWhich type of sports drink is emptied into the stomach the most quickly? – hypotonicWhich type of sports drink is good for sports at low intensity or sports that require quick energy release but not in high quantities? – hypotonicWhy might an athlete use a hypotonic drink during a marathon run and what else might they require alongside this? – used because it rehydrates them the most quickly, would also need another source of carbohydrates as hypotonic drinks have little glucoseWhat type of sports drink could be referred to as ‘the energy booster?’ – hypertonicWhich type of sports drink is emptied into the stomach slowly and could therefore potentially cause stomach problems? – hypertonicWhich type of sports drinks is good for post-workout replenishment of energy levels? – hypertonicWhich sports drink is the preferred choice for most athletes due to the balance of energy supply, speed of energy supply and rehydration capacity? – isotonicTrue or false: hypotonic drinks are able to rehydrate us more quickly than water. – trueWhat is the danger in replacing fluids lost through sweat with water? – could lead to electrolyte inbalance as fluid is replaced but salts are notState 3 problems in using water as opposed to a sports drink during exercise. – electrolyte inbalance, can cause bloating, doesn’t provide any energy, increases urination, no taste so might not drink as muchWhich components of a healthy diet are the most important to consume during a marathon? – carbohydrates and waterWhich 3 components are essential for post exercise recovery? – carbohydrates, protein and waterDuring what period are muscles said to be primed to accept nutrients that can stimulate muscle repair, muscle growth, and muscle strength? The 2-hour window of opportunityTrue or false: chocolate milkshake is possibly the best post-workout choice? – true (perfect mix of fluid, protein and carbohydrates)Name the process by which an athlete will increase the percentage of carbohydrates in their diet in the lead up to an event in order to increase muscle glycogen stores. – carbo-loadingFor carbo-loading what considerations would an athlete need to give to the percentage of carbohydrates in their diet and the daily total number of calories that they are taking in for the 2-3 days leading up to an event? – percentage of energy gained through carbs would increase to around 85-95%, total calorie intake would remain the same to avoid risk of bloating/stomach problemsWhich supplement is likely to enable a performer to work at maximal levels for longer? – creatine (increases PC stores)What is a possible drawback of taking a creatine supplement? - water retention, vomiting, muscle cramps and diarrhoeaIn what way would a protein supplement help an athlete? – allow them to train harder and more often through greater growth and repair of musclesWhat are the drawbacks of taking protein supplements? – liver and kidney damage, also potentially pointless as dietary protein may be enoughTrue or false: herbal remedies will benefit sports performance levels. – neither, some help and some don’tState a benefit of caffeine for a sportsperson. – increased alertness and reactions, increases the body’s use of fats therefore increasing ATP supply for aerobic activityHow does bicarbonate of soda benefit anaerobic activity and state one drawback ? – buffers lactic acid/ maintain pH levels, drawback include stomach cramps and vomitingHow does drinking beet juice benefit endurance performance? – it’s a vasodilator and increases the O2 supply to musclesA Level PE – Revision Questions – Preparation and TrainingDefine VO2 max. - Maximum volume of oxygen that can be utilized in one minuteDefine strength. - The force developed in a muscle during a contractionDefine agility. - The ability to change direction with speedDefine reaction time. - Time taken for a performer to respond to a stimulusDefine submaximal aerobic fitness. - The ability to maintain a high percentage of VO2 max for a prolonged period of timeDefine anaerobic capacity. - The amount of energy obtained from anaerobic sourcesDefine speed. - Time taken to move a body (part or whole) through a movementDefine coordination. - The ability of the body to link movements together, either with other movements or in relation to an external objectDefine flexibility. - The range of movement available at a jointDefine maximal strength. - The force that can be developed in a single maximal contractionDefine power and state how it is calculated. - The rate at which force is produced (speed x strength)Define balance. - The ability to maintain your centre of mass over a base of supportDefine exercise economy. - Energy required to maintain a constant velocity of movementDefine local muscular endurance. - The ability of a muscle to sustain repeated contractionsTrue or false: maximal aerobic fitness and VO2 max are the same. – trueState 3 tests for VO2 max. – 12 min Cooper run, MSFT, yo yo testThe Wingate Test and RAST can be used to assess which component of fitness? – anaerobic capacityState a test for maximal strength. – one rep max or grip/leg and back dynamometerThe 30m sprint test is used to assess speed. What other component can affect the results? – reaction timeOther than the Illinois agility test state a test for agility. – T-test or 3 cone test.State a test for coordination. – Anderson wall toss testThe stork stand test is used to assess which component of fitness? – balanceWhich test can be used to assess flexibility? – sit and reach testTrue or false: there are no tests available for exercise economy? – trueState 2 sub-maximal tests which can be used to estimate VO2 max. – Harvard step test and Rocjport walk test.State a test for local muscular endurance. – sit up multi-stage fitness testWhat does RPE stand for? – rate of perceived exertion (as part of the Borg scale) used to determine exercise intensityWhat word is used for the process by which a fitness test must be completed? – protocolDefine reliability in terms of fitness testing. – how repeatable the results areDefine validity in terms of fitness testing – whether or not the test tests only the component that it is meant to (and isn’t affected by other components)Other than the standing broad jump and the sergeant jump how can power be tested? – Margaria Kalaman testWhen is the clock started and stopped during the Margaria-Kalaman test? – started when performer steps on 3rd step, stopped when they step on 9th step.How many 35m sprints are done in the RAST? – sixThe Cunningham and Faulkner test is used to assess which component of fitness? – anaerobic capacityAt what speed and what incline is a treadmill set for the Cunningham and Faulkner test? – 8mph and 20% incline (performer keeps going for as long as they can)How long does the Wingate test last? – 30sTrue or false: the Wingate test and the Cunningham and Faulkner test are both completed on a cycle ergometer (exercise bike). – false, the Wingate is but the other one is on a treadmillHow does the yo-yo test differ from the MSFT? – it involves 10m of walking (active recovery) at the end of each 40m run.True or false: The MSFT is generally said to be more appropriate for team sport (games) players in assessing their VO2 max than the yo-yo test. – false, the yo-yo test is more valid as it mimics sprints and then breaks in playName the 2 types of yo-yo test, one with 10s of active recovery at the end of each 40m run and the other with only 5s recovery. - Intermittent recovery test (YYIRT) with 10s and Intermittent endurance test (YYIET) with 5s recovery.How long does the a person have to perform continuous steps for in the Harvard step test and how many times is heart rate measured afterwards? – 5 mins and 3 pulse rate measurementsHow far does a performer walk in the Rockport walk test? – one mileTrue or false: maximal fitness tests such as the MSFT are likely to give more accurate results than submaximal tests such as the Harvard step test? – true (although they can be affected by motivation)State 3 factors that could affect the results of any fitness test. – ensuring correct protocol is followed, sufficient practice time allowed, sufficient warm up completed, accurate measurements/timing, no adverse affects from weatherFor which type of sportspeople would the Wingate test probably be more suitable than the RAST for determining anaerobic capacity? – cyclistsWhat are the advantages of ‘field tests’ such as the MSFT and the yo-yo test for assessing VO2 max as opposed to laboratory tests in which a performers O2 expenditure and blood lactate levels are analysed? – field tests are cheaper and can test multiple people at onceWhen a fitness test has been completed what are the results generally compared against? – normative dataMAOD is a measurement associated with anaerobic capacity. What does MAOD stand for? – maximum accumulated oxygen deficitName an activity in which gas analysis would be difficult? – anything not done on a treadmill, rower or exercise bike (e.g. football, swimming etc)State 3 ways in which a fitness circuit can be altered? – change exercises, change work period, change rest period, change number of lapsState 4 advantages of circuit training. – cheap, set up anywhere/little space needed, adaptable for specific sports, adaptable for specific muscle groups, can accommodate large numbers,.Define continuous training and state which component of fitness it is best for. - Long duration training where intensity remains constant throughout with no rest or break. Improves staminaOther than continuous training what other method is particularly suited to improving cardiovascular fitness? – fartlekState 3 ways in which interval training can be altered.- duration of exercise period, intensity of exercise, duration of rest, number of reps per set, number of sets per workoutState the 2 main ways in which flexibility training is divided. – static and dynamic mobility trainingState 3 types of static stretching. – static, active, passive, PNFWhat does PNF stand for? – proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitationWhat type of muscle contraction is done during PNF? – isometric (no movement)What is the difference between static stretching and passive stretching? – static stretching involves the individual holding their own limb in the stretched position, passive stretching uses a partner or apparatus to hold the stretched position.Define active stretching. - Slow stretching without assistance. Only the strength of the opposing (antagonist) muscles are used to hold the positionWhat is the best form of mobility training for improving flexibility? – PNFWhat is the difference between static and dynamic stretching? – static is without movement, dynamic is with movementWhat name is given to stretches done with rapid, aggressive movements? – ballistic stretchingWhich components of fitness are likely to be focussed on during weight training? – strength, power, muscular endurance (maybe speed)How would an individual alter their reps/sets and weight lifted to focus on either strength or muscular endurance? – for strength it should be near max weight with low reps (6), for muscular endurance it should be 40-60% one rep max and high reps (20-30).What are the two main types of weight training? – free weights and machine weightsGive 4 advantages of free weights over machine weights? – cheaper, can do at home, greater range of exercises, use multiple muscle groups, include fixator muscles, can increase weight in smaller increments, use less spaceWhat method of training includes parachutes and is designed to improve strength and speed? – resistance trainingWhich method of training uses bungee cords and is designed to improve speed by training nerve cells to fire impulses more quickly? – assisted trainingWhich method of training uses jumping, bounding and hopping exercises designed to improve power? – plyometricsWhich method of training uses ladders and mini hurdles and is designed to improve speed? – SAQ (speed, agility, quickness)Which method of training is focussed on improving core strength? – functional stability trainingWhat is cross training? - Training in two or more sports in order to improve fitness and performance in a main sport‘the relevance of the choice of exercise to the activity to be improved’, relates to which principle of training? – specificityIn what 4 ways can progressive overload be applied? – FITTWhat does FITT stand for? – frequency, intensity, time, typeState 2 ways in which overtraining can occur. – training too hard, training too often, not allowing enough rest/recovery timeState 3 problems associated with overtraining. – fatigue, increased risk of injury, demotivation, reduced performance levelsWhich principle of training relates to ‘use it or lose it’? – reversibilityState 3 reasons why reversibility may occur. – training stops due to injury, demotivation, end of seasonWhich principle of training is missing from here: SPOR? – individual needsState 3 ways of measuring exercise intensity. – Borg scale, heart rate method, Karvonen method, 1 rep maxFor someone aged 20 yrs old what is their aerobic training zone in bpm? 120-160bpm (60-80% max HR which is 220-age)What percentage of max heart rate is the anaerobic training zone (also known as ‘training zone)? – 80-90%In the Karvonen theory what is heart rate reserve (also called heart rate range)? – max HR-resting HRHow is the necessary heart rate calculated using the Karvonen theory? - (heart rate reserve x training percentage) + resting heart rateThe Borg scale measures intensity between 0-20. What does 15 represent? – hard trainingGive one advantage and one disadvantage of the Borg scale. – cheap, easy to use, but only an estimate/less accurateState 3 types of technology that can be used to help measure exercise intensity. – pedometer, heart rate monitor, GPS, fitbit, mobile apps such as strava or mapmyrunWhat height does an athlete need to be above to gain the benefits associated with altitude training? – 1500mWhich component of fitness will be most affected at altitude? – VO2 maxTrue or false: you will cross your lactate threshold sooner at altitude. – trueRoughly how many weeks does it take to acclimatise to altitude? – 2 (accept 3)How else can an athlete gain the benefits of altitude training without actually going to altitude? – hypobaric chambers and altitude tentsTrue or false: there are no negatives associated with altitude training. – false (there are lots)In terms of live high/low and train high/low what combination is thought to be most effective for gaining maximum benefits from altitude training? – live high, train lowWhat term is given to any treatment or recovery aid which uses cold? – cryotherapyFor sports massage to aid recovery muscles should always be rubbed in which direction and why? – towards the heart to assist the removal of waste productsTrue or false: compression clothing is meant to work by aiding venous return and increasing cardiac output? – trueWhat does this define: Dividing your overall training programme into parts or periods that are designed to achieve different goals. – periodisationName each phase of a year/season for periodisation (not microcycle etc) and state the main focus for each phase. – preparation phase (focus is on fitness training), competition phase (focus is on tactics and match preparation), transition phase (focus is on rest and recovery)Previously called pre season, peak season and post season what are these 3 stages of periodisation now known as? – preparation phase, competition phase, transition phaseName the 3 cycles that training can be broken down into as part of periodisation. – microcycles, mesocycles, macrocyclesWhat is tapering and when would a sportsperson use it? - reducing the amount of training (or intensity) prior to competitionWhat is peaking? - making sure that both body and mind are at their best for competition (not fatigued and not over-rested/out of practice)A Level PE – Revision Questions – Injury Prevention and RehabilitationThe two main types of injury are acute and overuse injury; define these two terms. – acute injuries happen rapidly with the injury occurring at a specific moment, overuse injuries develop over time from repetitive movementsGive 2 examples of an overuse injury. - Patellar tendonitis, achilles tendonitis, tennis elbow, golfers elbow and shin splintsGive 3 examples of acute injuries. – sprains, strains, fractures, dislocations, cuts/abraisonsDefine a sprain and give an example. - A ligament injury caused by a wrenching or twisting action (e.g. a twisted ankle)Define a strain and give an example. - A pulled or torn muscle (e.g. pulled hamstring).What is the function of cartilage and where is it found? – found at the ends of bones, prevents damage from bones rubbing togetherWhat is haematoma? - A local accumulation of blood in a tissue (also known as bruising)The achilles tendon can become separated partially (tear) or fully torn. What is a full separation known as? – ruptureWhat type of movement is likely to lead to a ruptured Achilles tendon? – an explosive movement (such as jumping or the start of a sprint)Name 2 of the 4 ligaments found in the knee joint. – anterior cruciate, posterior cruciate (these are the two main ligaments in this joint), medial collateral, lateral collateralWhat is the function of ligaments? – connect bone to bone and provide stability/prevent unwanted movementWhat letter does the ACL and PCL in the knee joint look like? – an XAn ACL injury is normally caused by which type of movement? – a twisting action while feet remain planted (studs stuck in ground)A PCL injury is normally caused by what type of movement? – impact to front of knee or knee hyperextensionWhat is the immediate treatment of an ACL or PCL injury? – RICE or POLICEWhy is dislocation of the shoulder a more common injury than hip dislocation? – the socket in a hip joint is deeper than in the shoulder jointTrue or false: a fracture is not the same as a broken bone. – false (it’s the same thing)Define tendinitis. - when the tendon becomes inflamedDefine tendinopathy. - is when the tendon deteriorates over time without any inflammationState 3 ways in which injuries can be prevented. – joint support, physical conditioning, correct footwear, protective clothing/equipment, warm up, correct technique, following rulesState 3 examples of protective equipment. – mouth guards, shin pads, body armour, helmets, knee pads etcState 2 injuries that can be caused by incorrectly fitting footwear. - Shin splints, hip injuries, lower back pain, Achilles tendonitis, blisters, runner’s kneeA persons’ normal foot position can be one of 3 positions. One is neutral, name the other two. – Pronated and supinated.Training to prevent injury is known by what word (made up from two other terms) – prehabilitationWhat does POLICE stand for? – protection, optimal loading, ice, compression, elevationWhat are ‘soft tissues’? – ligaments, tendons, muscles (anything but bone)Why is POLICE sometimes said to enable a performer to recover more quickly than RICE? – Optimal loading encourages recovery through increased circulation to the injured areaState one type of injury where POLICE is probably better than RICE. – pulled muscles (due to the potential for muscle wastage)What does DOMS stand for? – delayed onset of muscle sorenessWhat is a hyperbaric chamber? – a chamber in which oxygen is at a higher pressure than normalWhat is the kinetic chain? – The idea that a weakness in one area can cause an injury in anotherRehabilitation using equipment such as balance boards and balance balls (focussed on strengthening stabilising muscles) is an example of what type of rehabilitation? – proprioceptive retrainingWhich method of recovery aids venous return and as a result removes lactate, increases muscle oxidation and reduces exercise induced muscle damage (EIMD)? – compression clothingA Level PE – Revision Questions – Movement analysis and muscular-skeletal systemName 3 bones in the leg. – tibia, fibula, femur, patellaName 3 bones in the arm. – radius, ulna, humerusWhich bones articulate at the shoulder joint? – scapula and humerus form ball and socket(and clavicle)Define adduction. - Moving towards the midline of the bodyDefine extension. - Increasing angle of a jointDefine rotation. – a twisting actionDefine circumduction – a circular motionWhich muscles cause flexion and extension at the shoulder joint? – flexion is pectoralis major and anterior deltoid, extension is posterior deltoidWhich muscles cause abduction and adduction at the shoulder joint? – abduction is deltoids, adduction is latissimus dorsiWhich bones articulate at the hip joint? – femur and pelvisWhich muscles cause flexion and extension at the hip joint? – flexion is psoas major, extension is gluteus maximusWhich muscle is the prime mover/agonist for extension at the elbow joint? – tricepsWhich muscles are agonists for extension at the knee joint? – quadricepsWhich bones articulate at the knee joint? – tibia, femur Which muscle is the agonist for dorsi flexion at the ankle joint? – tibialis anteriorWhich muscle is the prime mover at the ankle joint when pushing off the blocks for a sprint start? – gastrocnemius (and soleus)Name the 5 regions of the vertebral column in the correct order. – cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyxWhich muscle is the prime mover at the knee joint for the driving leg when pushing off the blocks at the start of a 100m race? – quadricepsWhich muscle is the prime mover at the elbow joint during the upward phase of a push up? – tricepsWhich muscle is the prime mover at the hip joint when moving the leg back to kick a conversion in rugby? – gluteus maximusWhich muscle is the prime mover at the shoulder joint when moving the arm back during the run up in javelin? – posterior deltoidDefine antagonist. - A muscle that opposes an agonist for a given movement and prevents overstretching of the agonistDefine the term ‘origin’ in movement analysis. - Position where muscle connects to the stationary bone in a movementDefine the term ‘insertion’ in movement analysis. - Position where muscle connects to the moving bone in a movementWhere is the origin for the bicep during the upward phase of a bicep curl? – scapulaWhat is a fixator muscle? - A muscle which allows the prime mover to work more efficiently by stabilising the bone where the prime mover originatesName and define the 3 types of muscle contraction. – isometric (no movement), isotonic concentric (muscle shortens as it contracts), isotonic eccentric (muscle lengthens as it contracts)What type of movements are isotonic eccentric contractions associated with? – downward movements controlling against the effects of gravity (e.g. landing a jump, downward part of bicep curl)In which muscle would an isotonic eccentric contraction occur when landing a jump? – quadricepsName the 3 phases of the stretch shortening cycle? – isotonic eccentric contraction (during downward phase), amortization phase (moment between eccentric and concentric contraction), isotonic concentric contraction (upward phase)The stretch shortening cycle is closely associated with which method of training? – plyometricsName and define the 3 parts of a lever. – fulcrum (the point about which the lever rotates), resistance (the load that is being moved), effort (the force applied by the muscle)Which part of a lever is in the middle for each type of lever? First class is fulcrum, second class is resistance, third class is effortWhat type of lever is found in the neck and used for nodding your head? – first class leverWhich type of lever allows for the most weight to be lifted with the minimum effort? – second classA bicep curl is an example of which type of lever? – third classWhat is the effort arm and the resistance arm? – distance from effort to fulcrum and distance from resistance to fulcrumWhat advantage does a long resistance arm and short effort arm give? – allows greater range of motion and speed of movement such as in a third class leverWhat advantage does a longer effort arm and shorter resistance arm allow? – more weight lifted for less effortUsing equipment such as a tennis racket allows a performer to increase the length of which aspect of a lever? – the resistance arm (therefore allowing greater range and speed of movement)Define the term ‘inertia’ - reluctance to change the state of motionName and define newton’s first law of motion - The law of inertia. ‘an object will remain at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force.’Name and define newton’s second law of motion - The law of acceleration. ‘The acceleration of an object by a force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the force, in the same direction as the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.’ (F = M A)Name and define newton’s third law of motion - The law of action / reaction. ‘for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.’Define centre of mass – the point where all the mass of an object appears to be concentratedState an everyday object that has it’s centre of mass outside of the object. – anything circular (sellotape)Define stability – the ability to keep the centre of mass over the base of supportState 2 ways in which a person could increase their stability – move their centre of mass closer to the ground, keep their centre of mass over their base of support, widen the base of support, increase their massWhich high jump technique results in a performers centre of mass going below their body (and maybe below the bar) – Fosbury flopDefine ‘force’ - a push or a pull, it changes the state of motion of an objectHow many Newton’s are in 1kg? – 10NHow many values does a scalar have? – oneForce, acceleration, velocity and momentum are all examples of what? – vectorsWhat is a net force? – the resulting force when 2 or more forces act on an objectState the 4 aspects of a warm up. – pulse raiser, stretching/mobility exercise, skills specific practice, psychological preparationWhat is meant by thermo-regulation? – controlling body temperatureA Level PE – Revision Questions – BiomechanicsDefine angular velocity. – the rate at which an object rotates.Define angular momentum. – the amount of motion a body has during rotationHow is angular momentum calculated? – angular velocity x moment of inertiaHow is moment of inertia calculated? – mass x distance from axisDefine moment of inertia.- resistance to change of motion when rotatingThe relationship between velocity and pressure which acts on a body as it passes through fluid/air is known as what? – the Bernoulli effectDefine displacement. – the shortest line measurement between two pointsHow is speed calculated? – distance divided by time takenHow does velocity differ from speed? – velocity is a vector as it includes direction as well as sizeDefine acceleration. – rate of change in velocityHow is acceleration calculated? – (final velocity minus initial velocity) divided by time takenDefine the ‘Conservation of angular momentum’ - The principle that the angular momentum of an object remains constant as long as no external force (moment of torque) acts on that objectWhat is a ‘moment’ – a turning forceTucking in during a somersault will cause what to happen to moment of inertia? – it will decrease (causing angular velocity to increase)How can an ice skater decrease their moment of inertia? – tuck their arms inWhat term is given to the flight path that a projectile will follow when not affected by air resistance and spin? – parabolic curveState 3 factors that will affect the distance that a projectile will travel. – angle of release, speed of release, height of releaseWhen a projectile is only affected by gravity what is the optimum angle for maximum horizontal distance? – 45 degreesThe optimum angle of release for maximum distance is 45 degrees but in sport it is generally better to have a lower angle of release, why is this? – greater the angle of release the greater the amount of force required to overcome weight and thus speed of release is reduced.What is meant by attack angle? – the optimum angle of release for a sporting situationTwo shot putters throw a shot with exactly the same force at an angle of 35 degrees. One is 6ft tall and the other is 4ft, who wins? – the taller personState 2 factors that could result in a projectile not following a true parabolic curve? – high speed, large cross sectional areas, not a smooth surfaceThe Magnus effect will change the flight path of a tennis ball doing what? – spinningWhen performing a topspin shot the air at the top of the ball will slow down, what will this do to the pressure? – cause it to increaseWhen performing a topspin shot in table tennis what effect will friction have on the ball when it hits the table? – it will skim off at a low angleWhy is it good for a golfer to apply some backspin to a shot? – causes the ball to float and travel further and ensures it has a more controlled landing (stops dead rather than skimming forwards)Name the theory by which a tennis player or footballer is able to put curve on a serve or a free kick. – Magnus effectTrue or false: drag force and air resistance are essentially the same thing. – trueName a sport in which streamlining is vital. – many answers; e.g. swimming, bobsleigh, cyclingState 3 factors that affect the amount of air resistance which acts on an object. – velocity, cross sectional area, shape, surfaceName the swimsuit that was banned for giving swimmers too great a streamlining and buoyancy advantage. – LZR swimsuitState a type of training in which a person would use increased air resistance to aid the training – resistance training using a parachuteA Level PE – Revision Questions – Cardio-respiratory SystemWhat is the scientific term for the windpipe? – tracheaWhat does VE represent? – minute ventilation (amount of air breathed in and out per minute)What happens to air pressure in the thoracic cavity change for expiration to occur and how does this happen? – intercostal muscles relax to lower ribs down and in, diaphragm relaxes and raises, this decreases size of thoracic cavity and therefore increases pressureWhat is the scientific term for the voicebox? – larynxWhat term is given to a resting heart rate below 60bpm - bradycardiaWhich gas is the most abundant in the atmosphere? – nitrogenDefine cardiac output – amount of blood leaving left ventricle per minuteWhich blood vessels generally carry deoxygenated blood? – veinsTogether the aortic valve and the pulmonary valve are known as what? – semilunar valvesWhich types of blood vessel carry blood at the highest pressure and velocity? - arteriesWhat does bpm stand for? – beats per minuteWhich blood vessel does blood travel in to from the left ventricle? - aortaThe redistribution of blood around the body is often referred to as which two-word term? – vascular shuntingName the 3 main types of blood vessels – arteries, veins, capillariesWhich gas makes up roughly 21% of the atmosphere? – oxygenWhat term is given to the amount of blood returning to the heart? – venous returnWhich valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle? – tricuspidTrue or false, arteries carry blood away from the heart? – trueWhich blood vessels vasoconstrict and vasodialte during vascular shunting? - arteriolesTrue or false, at rest expiration is an active process. – false, it’s passive (active during exercise)Through which blood vessels does vasoconstriction and vasodilation occur? – arteriolesDuring exercise vascular shunting will occur. State a place to which blood flow will increase and one where it will decrease. – increase to working muscles, decrease to digestive systemIn which part of the lungs does gas exchange occur? – alveoliWhat is the function of valves? – prevent backflow of bloodWhich blood vessels contain valves and why? – veins to assist in returning blood back to the heartWhat is expiratory reserve volume? - volume of air that can be expired after tidal volumeHow is maximum heart rate calculated? – 220-ageWhat valve prevents the backflow of blood between the left ventricle and the left atrium? – bicuspidWhat term is given to the condition where arteries can become blocked due to high cholesterol levels? - atherosclerosisDefine heart rate – number of beats per minuteWhen there is a difference between neighbouring or adjoining pressures what is created? – a pressure gradient (or concentration gradient)The narrowing of arterioles to reduce blood flow is known as what? - vasoconstrictionTrue or false – arteries have a smaller lumen than veins? - trueWhich valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle? – bicuspid/mitralIn which type of blood cell is haemoglobin found? – red blood cellsName the two atrioventricular valves – bicuspid and tricuspidWhich valve prevents the backflow of blood into the right ventricle? – pulmonary valveWhich blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs? – pulmonary arteryThe blood pressure when the heart is relaxing is known as what? – diastolic pressureHow many chambers are there in the heart? – 4Which valve prevents blood flowing back into the left ventricle? – aortic valveState a benefit of warming up for the skeletal system – increased production of synovial fluid for increased range of motionWhat happens to the air pressure in the thoracic cavity in order for inspiration to occur? – it decreasesDefine stroke volume – amount of blood leaving left ventricle per beatFrom where to where does the tricuspid valve prevent the backflow of blood? – the right ventricle to the right atriumWhich lifestyle choice is most likely to result in bronchitis - smokingIn which blood vessels does gas exchange occur? - capillariesHow is cardiac output calculated? stroke volume x heart rateWhat term is given to an irregular heart rate? - heart arrhythmiaWhich type of blood cells carry oxygen? – red blood cellsWhich blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart? – pulmonary veinDefine breathing frequency? – number of breaths per minuteThe amount of air breathed in or out in one breath is called what? – tidal volumeThe letter Q is used to represent what? – cardiac outputWhat happens to air pressure in the thoracic cavity change for inspiration to occur and how does this happen? – intercostal muscles contract to lift ribs up and out, diaphragm contracts and flattens, this increases size of thoracic cavity and therefore decreases pressureHow does breathing rate, tidal volume and minute ventilation change during exercise? All increaseWhich blood vessels have the thickest walls and why? – arteries due to the high pressure in which they carry bloodWhat term is given to haemoglobin when it is carry oxygen? - OxyhaemoglobinWhat happens to heart rate, stroke volume and cardiac output following long term training? – resting heart rate decreases, stroke volume increases (due to cardiac hypertrophy), maximum cardiac output increases (resting cardiac output would remain the same)What is inspiratory reserve volume? - volume of air that can be inspired after tidal volumeThe widening of arterioles to increase blood flow is known as what? - vasodilationThe maximum amount of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration is the definition for which term? – vital capacityDefine minute ventilation – amount of air breathed in and out per minuteWhat term is given to the space inside a blood vessel through which blood passes? – lumenThrough which blood vessel does blood travel before reaching the right atrium? - vena cavaWhich blood vessels contain valves? – veinsHow is minute ventilation calculated? – tidal volume x breathing frequencyName the small hairs that filter out dust particles from air as it passes through the respiratory system? – ciliaWhat term is given to an increase in size of heart following endurance training? – cardiac hypertrophy120/80 is a normal score for what? – blood pressureBronchitis brought on by smoking affects which system of the body? - respiratoryThe bronchi branch off into smaller…what? – bronchiolesWhich gases are involved in gaseous exchange? - O2 and CO2Name 2 mechanisms which assist in venous return. – skeletal muscle pump, respiratory pump, valvesWhat is the condition hypertension related to? – high blood pressureWhat is the scientific term for the windpipe? – tracheaHow is total lung capacity calculated? - Vital capacity plus residual volumeDefine residual volume. - Amount of air left in lungs after a maximal expirationHow is vital capacity calculated? - TV + IRV + ERV‘The pressure a gas exerts within a mixture of gases’ defines what term? – partial pressureState 3 factors that ensure gas exchange is done efficiently at the alveoli. – large surface area of alveoli, moist surface, diffusion gradient, short distance to capillary, partially permeable membrane, slow flow of blood, readiness of haemoglobin to take on O2.What detects changes in blood acidity levels? – chemoreceptorsWhat detects movements in the joints and muscles? – proprioceptorsWhat states that ‘The greater the venous return, the greater the strength of contraction (stroke volume)’ – starling’s lawName the 4 phases of the cardiac cycle. – atrial diastole, ventricular diastole, atrial systole, ventricular systoleDescribe what happens to blood and valves during ventricular diastole. - The bicuspid and tricuspid valves (atrio-ventricular valves) open and blood passes from the atria into the ventricles. (semi-lunar vales remain closed)Describe what happens to blood and valves during ventricular systole. - The semi-lunar valves open and the atrio-ventricular valves close. Both ventricles contract forcing blood into the aorta and the pulmonary artery.Define the terms EDV and ESV and use them to form a calculation for stroke volume. – End diastolic volume (amount of blood in ventricles prior to contraction), end systolic volume (amount of blood left in ventricles after contraction). SV = EDV-ESVWhere is the electric impulse for a heartbeat initiated? – Sino atrial node (SAN)Why does the electric impulse travel slowly from the SAN to AVN? – to allow time for the atria to contract and blood to fully pass from atria to ventricles.The electric impulse in the heart travels down what (found in septum) after leaving the AVN? – bundle of HisWhen the electric impulse in the heart travels through the Purkinje fibres what happens? – the ventricles contractWhen the central nervous system (CNS) sends messages to the heart, through which branch does it send them to slow the heart and which to speed it up? – down parasympathetic branch to slow it down, down sympathetic branch to speed it upWhen speeding up heart rate a message is sent from the CNS in the brain via the sympathetic nervous system. Where does it send its message to? – SANThrough which nerve does the parasympathetic branch send messages to the heart? – vagus nerveWhich hormone can cause heart rate to speed up before physical activity begins? – adrenalineOne function of a warm up is to decrease the viscosity of blood, what effect will this have on blood flow? – it will speed upState 3 long term effects of aerobic training on the cardiac system - Increase in max HR (due to hypertrophy), Increase SV, Decrease resting HR, Bradycardia, Increase in potential cardiac output during exerciseState 3 long term effects of aerobic training on the vascular system. - Increase red blood cells (and haemoglobin), Increased tolerance for lactic acid, Increased capilliarisation, Increase in VO2 maxWhy does vasoconstriction and vasodilation occur during a warm up? – to enable blood shunting in redistributing blood to the working musclesTrue or false: blood pressure and velocity are highest in veins. – false, they’re highest in arteriesWhy do Arteries have a small lumen? - Maintains a high blood pressureWhy do Arteries have thick, elastic walls? - Allows them to carry blood at high pressure/velocity without damageWhy do Veins contain valves? - Helps to return blood to the heart against the effects of gravityWhy do Capillaries have very thin walls? - Allows for gas exchange at alveoli and muscle cellsWhy is Blood flow at capillaries very slow? - Allows time for gas exchange to take placeThe force that blood exerts on the walls of blood vessels is the definition for what? – blood pressureState 2 causes of the Bohr shift. – decreased pH, increased CO2 levels, increased body temperatureSummarise the effect of the Bohr shift in one sentence. – during exercise haemoglobin gives its oxygen up to myoglobin more readily so more O2 gets to the musclesWhat does a-vO2 difference stand for? - aterio-venous differenceState 4 lifestyle choices that would effect the cardiovascular system. – poor diet, sendentary lifestyle, alcohol intake, smokingThe formation of blood clots as a result of poor lifestyle choices is also known as what? – thrombosisState 4 general problems that the cardiovascular system can suffer from as the result of poor lifestyle choices. - Blocked blood vessels, Stiffening of blood vessels, Reduced blood flow, Increased blood pressure/ hypertension, Increase HR, decreased SV, Heart has to contract more forcefully to do the same work, stroke/ heart attack/other CV diseases ,Formation of blood clots/ ThrombosisA Level PE – Revision Questions – Energy SystemsState 2 advantages of aerobic system – very efficient as it produces 38 ATP per glucose molecule, almost limitless energy supply, no fatiguing byproducts, can use fat as energy sourceName the 3 phases of aerobic energy production. – glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport chainWhere does Kreb’s cycle and Electron transport chain occur? – mitochondriaHow long does it take to resythesise 50% of PC during the fast component of EPOC? – 30 secondsHow many ATP are produced per molecule of glucose in the aerobic energy system? - 38Which two substances combine to form lactic acid? Hydrogen and pyruvateState 3 things that happen during the fast component of EPOC? – ATP resynthesized, PC resynthesized, myoglobin resaturated with oxygenHow long does ATP in the muscles supply energy for? – 2 or 3 secondsIn the absence of enough O2 what will hydrogen bind with? – pyruvate (to form lactic acid)True or false, oxygen must be present in order to use glucose to produce ATP? – false (lactic acid system)State 2 advantages of the lactic acid system. – produces energy quickly, doesn’t require O2, few chemical reactions, provides more ATP that PC systemWhich energy system would be most important for a 100m race? – ATP-PC systemWhere does glycolysis occur? – cytoplasmHow many anaerobic energy systems are there? 2What is formed when coenzyme A combines with pyruvate? - Acetyl coenzyme AWhich energy system would be most important for a 400m race? – lactic acid systemWhat term is given to the increase in heart rate caused by adrenaline before exercise begins? – anticipatory riseWhat is the formula for respiration? - Glucose + O2 → energy + CO2 + H2O ADP + P = ? – ATPWhat other name is given to the fast component of EPOC? – alactacidWhat is the fuel source for the ATP-PC system? PCHow long does the slow component of EPOC take? – up to several hoursWhat 2 factors would cause EPOC to last longer? – greater intensity of exercise, lower levels of aerobic fitness of the individualWhat does PC stand for? – phosphocreatineState 2 disadvantages of lactic acid system – only lasts 30s to 3mins (depending on intensity), produces lactic acidState 2 disadvantages of the ATP-PC system – only lasts around 10s, produces very little ATP, little use during endurance eventsWhat other name is given to the slow component of EPOC? – lactacidWhat term is given to exercise where oxygen intake is equal to oxygen demand? – steady state exerciseWhat term is given to an elevated intake of oxygen after exercise? – EPOC (excess post-exercise oxygen consumption)What does ATP stand for? - adenosine triphosphateFor what period of exercise is the lactic acid/lactate system most effective? – 30s-3minsHow can the body turn lactic acid into a source of fuel during EPOC? – oxygen combines with lactic acid to change it into H2O and pyruvate. Pyruvate then joins Kreb’s cycle to produce ATP aerobically.How many ATP are produced per molecule of glucose through the aerobic system? – 38State a disadvantage of using the aerobic system? – produces energy slowly, only good for low intensity activityState 2 advantages of the ATP-PC system – no fatiguing byproducts, energy stored in muscle, provides energy immediately, does not require O2, few reactions involvedOn the energy continuum what is the percentage of energy produced aerobically and anaerobically for the 1500m (within 10% for each)? – 84% aerobic, 16 anaerobicOn the energy continuum what is the percentage of energy produced aerobically and anaerobically for the 400m (within 10% for each)? – 43% aerobic, 56 anaerobicWhat numbers of mmol per litre of blood represent lactate threshold and OBLA? – 2mmol for LT and 4mmol for OBLAWhat does OBLA stand for? – onset of blood lactate accumulationWhat is the difference between lactate threshold and OBLA (in words rather than numbers)? – lactate threshold is the point where lactate levels increase above normal resting levels, OBLA is the point at which lactate starts to really accumulate (and become a problem)Which energy system must be in use if the lactate threshold has been crossed? – lactate system (anaerobic system)State one thing that lactate sampling can tell an athlete during training. – which energy system they are using, how close they are to lactate threshold, how close to VO2 max they areDuring any type of exercise which will be the first energy system to provide energy? – ATP-PC ................
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