Anatomy and Physiology



A&P II 2020 EXAM 21) Of the following, which is an elastic artery?A) the subclavian B) the external carotid C) the brachial D) the femoral E) the ulnar 2) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system, which ________ the volume in the arterial and capillary systems. A) doubles; decreases B) reduces; increases C) decreases; doubles D) increases; reduces E) reduces; reduces 3) Capillaries that have a complete lining are called A) continuous capillaries. B) fenestrated capillaries. C) sinusoidal capillaries. D) sinusoids. E) vasa vasorum. 4) What is the correct order for the sequence of blood vessels that blood would travel in the systemic circuit, starting at the aorta?1. venules5. medium veins2. arterioles6. large veins3. capillaries7. muscular arteries4. elastic arteries A) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 B) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 C) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 D) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 E) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6 5) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the A) length of a blood vessel. B) osmolarity of interstitial fluids. C) turbulence. D) blood viscosity. E) blood vessel diameter. 6) Which of the following is most likely to result from an aneurysm in a brain artery? A) hypotension B) quadriplegia C) stroke D) myocardial infarction E) pulmonary embolism 7) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the A) level of oxygen at the tissue increases. B) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases. C) veins constrict. D) arterioles dilate. E) arterioles constrict. 8) Blood pressure increases with all of the following except increased A) cardiac output. B) peripheral resistance. C) blood volume. D) parasympathetic innervation. E) force of cardiac contraction. 9) Which of the following affects blood flow through the body? A) blood viscosity B) vessel diameter C) turbulence D) vascular resistance E) All of the answers are correct. 10) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except A) increased sympathetic stimulation. B) elevated levels of epinephrine. C) vasodilation. D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques. E) elevated hematocrit. 11) When renin is released from the kidney, A) angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II. B) angiotensinogen is converted into angiotensin I. C) angiotensin I increases salt reabsorption at the kidneys. D) blood pressure goes down. E) blood flow to the kidneys decreases. 12) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except A) release of renin. B) decrease in blood volume. C) decreased peripheral resistance. D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). E) decreased levels of aldosterone. 13) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue except A) increased hematocrit. B) increased vessel diameter. C) increased blood pressure. D) decreased peripheral resistance. E) relaxation of precapillary sphincters. 14) Blood colloid osmotic pressure is produced by A) large non-diffusible proteins in the blood plasma. B) a greater salt concentration in blood cells. C) the force of blood pushing against the vessel wall. D) osmosis of water.E) hypertonic solutions separated by a cell membrane. 15) Which of the following opposes the flow of blood back to the heart? A) vascular resistance B) peripheral veins have valves to prevent backflow of blood C) muscular pumps squeeze veins and move blood toward the heart D) blood pressure E) blood pressure gradient from arteries to veins 16) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexively results in A) stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain. B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. C) increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. D) stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center. E) increased heart rate. 17) Elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased A) salt and water loss through the kidneys. B) blood volume. C) sodium ion levels in blood. D) venous return and preload. E) blood pressure. 18) Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased A) heart rate. B) cardiac output. C) blood flow to the lungs. D) parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. E) sympathetic stimulation of the heart. 19) Which of the following conditions is least likely to lead to renin release? A) renal artery thrombus B) vasospasm of the renal arteries C) circulatory shockD) increased sympathetic activity E) hypertension 20) To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body A) reduces reabsorption of water at the kidneys. B) experiences an increase of interstitial fluids. C) experiences a decrease in the blood colloidal osmotic pressure. D) releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH). E) All of the answers are correct. 21) During exercise, A) venous return increases. B) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase. C) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. D) venous return increases and vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. E) All of the answers are correct. 22) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following exceptA) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure. B) inhibition of EPO secretion. C) activation of ADH secretion. D) activation of aldosterone secretion. E) increased thirst and water intake. 23) The lymphatic system does all of the following except A) helps maintain normal blood volume. B) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes. C) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid. D) transports lipids from the digestive tract. E) fights infection. 24) All of the following are true of the thymus gland except that it A) activates B cells. B) reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life. C) involutes after puberty. D) produces T cells. E) lies in the anterior mediastinum. 25) In general, lymphocytes A) spend most of their time in lymphatic tissue. B) have relatively short life spans. C) have two nuclei. D) are produced and mature only in red bone marrow. E) are located primarily in the blood stream.26) Lymphocytes A) are actively phagocytic. B) destroy red blood cells. C) respond to antigens. D) are primarily found in red bone marrow. E) decrease in number during infection. 27) Lymphocytes may be found in which of the following tissues or organs?A) tonsils B) spleen C) lymph nodes D) thymus E) All of the answers are correct.28) T is to ________ as B is to ________. A) top-located; bottom-located B) thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived C) thyroid-drawn; bowel-developedD) non-thymus-dependent; bottom-located E) trabeculae-descended; bursa-origin 29) Which of the following statements about lymph flow in a node is false? A) Lymph enters in an afferent lymphatic. B) Lymph first enters the subcapsular space. C) Lymph flows past dendritic cells. D) The efferent lymphatic exits at the hilum. E) The afferent lymphatic enters at the hilum. 30) If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of A) B lymphocytes. B) NK cells. C) T cells. D) neutrophils. E) red blood cells. 31) Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include A) sebaceous glands. B) mucus. C) epithelia. D) epidermal layers. E) All of the answers are correct. 32) Inflammation produces localized A) swelling. B) redness. C) heat. D) pain. E) All of the answers are correct.33) Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation except A) redness of the inflamed tissue. B) chemotaxis of phagocytes. C) heat of the inflamed tissue. D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space. E) swelling of the inflamed tissue. 34) Leslie has a severe sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that A) the focus of the infection is the lymph nodes.B) lymph is not flowing consistently through these lymph nodes.C) the lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes. D) the lymph nodes are actively producing phagocytes. E) the lymph nodes have increased their secretion of thymosin. 35) The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to A) the cell wall of bacteria. B) the plasma membrane of bacteria. C) an antibody attached to an antigen. D) a cell surface antigen. E) a plasma protein. 36) Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of the following chemical weapons?A) secrete strong acidB) secrete organic solvent C) secrete free radicalsD) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosisE) secrete mutant proteins that get incorporated into the target's DNA37) Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) immunological surveillance. D) skin defenses. E) fever. 38) In passive immunity, the A) immune system attacks normal body cells. B) body is deliberately exposed to an antigen. C) body receives antibodies produced by other humans. D) body receives antibodies produced by an animal. E) body receives antibodies produced by other humans or by an animal. 39) The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response. What is the correct sequence for these steps?1. Several cycles of mitosis occur.2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage.3. Cytotoxic T cells migrate to focus of infection.4. T cells with specific receptors recognize the antigen.5. T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T memory cells.6. Cytotoxic T cells release perforin and/or lymphotoxin.A) 4, 1, 5, 3, 6, 2B) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3, 6 C) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6 D) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 6 E) 3, 6, 4, 5, 1, 2 40) In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of A) innate immunity. B) active immunization. C) passive immunization. D) natural immunity. E) alloimmunity. 41) All of the following are true of the secondary response of humoral immunity except that it A) depends on memory B cells. B) results in much higher antibody titers than in the primary response. C) results in much quicker rise in antibody titers.D) produces more effective antibodies. E) weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two. 42) Interleukins do all of the following except A) increase T-cell sensitivity to antigens exposed on macrophage membranes. B) stimulate B-cell activity, plasma cell formation, and antibody production. C) stimulate inflammation. D) elevate body temperature. E) stimulate collagen synthesis. 43) When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell. A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) NK 44) Class II MHC molecules are found on which of the following? A) all body cells with a nucleus B) red blood cells C) granulocytes and microphages D) lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells E) liver cells and macrophages in the spleen 45) If the disulfide bonds in IgG were broken, how many peptide chains would be set free?A) 2B) 4C) 6D) 8E) dozens46) The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their A) asymmetry. B) antigen specificity. C) light-chain variable segments. D) heavy-chain constant segments. E) reactivity. 47) Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. 48) Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and that may activate antibody production are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. 49) B cells are primarily activated by the activities of A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) helper T cells. D) macrophages. E) plasma cells. 50) In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person A) has just recovered from mumps. B) was recently infected with mumps. C) is allergic to mumps. D) is immune to mumps. E) is relying on passive immunity. 51) A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably A) blood. B) lymph. C) serum. D) tears. E) interstitial. 52) The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) moist cuboidal epithelium. C) simple squamous epithelium. D) ciliated squamous epithelium. E) stratified squamous epithelium. 53) ________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent. A) MRSA B) Congestive heart failure C) Cystic fibrosis D) Myasthenia gravis E) Parkinson's disease 54) Exposure to ________ generally causes a rapid increase in the rate of mucus production in the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. A) noxious vapors B) unpleasant stimuli C) allergens D) debris or pathogens E) All of the answers are correct.55) A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time, you would expect to observe A) increased cardiac output from the right ventricle. B) increased cardiac output from the left ventricle. C) increased thickness of the right ventricular wall. D) distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung. E) no appreciable changes in heart structure or function. 56) Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in A) epistaxis. B) nasal congestion. C) nosebleeds. D) a deviated septum. E) epistaxis or nosebleeds. 57) Which of the following is false about the pharynx?A) It is shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems.B) The nasopharynx is superior.C) The oropharynx connects to oral cavity.D) The laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening.E) Solids, liquids, and gases pass through.58) Which of the following is not a function of the nasal mucosa?A) warming the incoming airB) trapping particulate matter C) dehumidifying the incoming airD) cooling outgoing air E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are functions of the nasal mucosa.59) A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage. A) thyroid B) cuneiform C) corniculate D) epiglottic E) vestibular 60) The placement of a tube directly into the trachea to bypass the larynx is called a(n) A) intubation.B) tracheostomy.C) tunnelization.D) trachectomy.E) catheterization.61) The thyroid cartilage is attached to the cricoid cartilage by theA) intrinsic ligaments. B) extrinsic ligaments. C) vestibular folds. D) cricothyroid ligament. E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles.62) During a primary immune response, the A) IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer. B) IgG titer is initially higher than the IgM titer. C) IgM titer and the IgG titer rise in parallel. D) only the IgM titer is affected.63) An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is known as A) laryngitis. B) laryngospasm. C) acute epiglottitis. D) strep throat. E) acute pharyngitis. 64) Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song, she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she produces is A) low pitched and loud. B) high pitched and loud. C) low pitched and soft. D) high pitched and soft. E) medium pitched and soft. 65) The following is a list of some airways. What is the order in which air passes through them?1. secondary bronchus2. bronchioles3. alveolar ducts4. primary bronchus5. respiratory bronchiole6. alveoli7. terminal bronchioleA) 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6 B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6 C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6 D) 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6 E) 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6 66) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________. A) extrapulmonary bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi B) lobar bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi C) intrapulmonary bronchi; lobar bronchi D) trachea; pharynx E) secondary bronchi; alveolar ducts 67) A pulmonary embolism can be caused by ________ becoming trapped in a pulmonary artery.A) blood clotsB) masses of fatC) air bubblesD) circulating objects in the bloodE) All of the answers are correct.68) Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a clot or similar obstruction is A) emphysema. B) COPD. C) anoxia. D) pulmonary embolism. E) pneumothorax. 69) Asthma is A) a collapsed lung resulting from insufficient production of surfactant. B) due to an excessive stimulation of smooth muscle in bronchioles. C) an obstructive tumor targeting primarily the terminal bronchioles.D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli. E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.70) When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that A) they are equal. B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric. C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary. D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary. E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric. 71) External respiration involves the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood. C) exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid. D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin. E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism. 72) If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs? A) It decreases. B) It increases and possibly damages the lungs. C) It increases twice the amount of the increase in volume. D) It remains constant. E) It increases. 73) What occurs if intrapulmonic pressure is 763 mm Hg? A) hyperventilation B) exhalation C) pause in breathing D) apnea E) inhalation 74) ________ involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements and calls on accessory muscles to assist with inhalation, while exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and sometimes abdominal muscles, too. A) Eupnea B) Forced breathing C) Costal breathing D) Vital breathing E) Passive breathing 75) The function of pulmonary ventilation is to A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood. B) supply oxygen to the blood. C) maintain adequate alveolar ventilation. D) remove air from dead air space. E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles. 76) If a patient inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's A) tidal volume. B) inspiratory reserve volume. C) expiratory reserve volume. D) reserve volume. E) vital capacity. Figure 23-2 Mechanics of VentilationUse Figure 23-2 to answer the following questions:77) Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled "1"? A) rectus abdominis B) internal intercostals C) external intercostals D) diaphragm E) both rectus abdominis and external intercostals78) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "3"? A) P outside = P inside B) P outside > P inside C) P outside < P inside D) P outside + P inside E) P outside - P inside 79) What pressure will be present in the space labeled "4"? A) alveolar pressure B) interpleural pressure C) subalveolar pressure D) intrapleural pressure E) atmospheric pressure 80) Dalton's law states that A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume. 81) Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues? A) decreased temperature B) decreased pH C) increased tissue PO2 D) decreased amounts of DPG E) All of the answers are correct. 82) The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.6 is A) greater than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2. B) less than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2. C) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2. D) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.4.E) None of the answers is correct. 83) Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness ofA) external respiration.B) internal respiration.C) carbon dioxide transport.D) hemoglobin synthesis.E) acid-base balance.84) Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high isA) greater than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low. B) less than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low. C) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low. D) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when pH is low.E) None of the answers is correct. 85) The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 38 degrees centigrade is A) greater than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade. B) less than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade. C) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade.D) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 20 degrees centigrade.E) None of the answers is correct. Extra Credit (1 point each)1) As an astronaut is lifted into Earth's orbit, what is the first change to take place in response to the drop in cabin pressure? A) increased hematocrit B) renal hypoxia C) increased alveolar ventilation rate D) decreased alveolar PO2 E) decreased hemoglobin saturation2) While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through the skin and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe is probably suffering from A) a collapsed trachea. B) an obstruction in the bronchi. C) a pneumothorax. D) decreased surfactant production. E) a bruised diaphragm. 3) Decompression sickness is a painful condition that develops when a person is exposed to a sudden drop in atmospheric pressure. Bubbles of ________ gas are responsible for the problem. A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) helium E) carbon monoxide 4) A SCUBA diver has been deep underwater and suddenly rises to the surface too fast. Why does the diver get decompression sickness? A) Pressure decreases and carbon dioxide rushes into cells.B) Pressure changes too fast and the carbon dioxide in the blood forms bubbles. C) Pressure decreases too fast and nitrogen gas in the blood forms bubbles. D) The gas in the SCUBA tank had too much pressure and rapid ascent forces too much air into the blood.E) Pressure increases too fast and too much oxygen enters the blood and forms bubbles. 5) The force that moves fluid out of capillaries is ________ pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is ________ pressure. A) systolic; diastolic B) hydrostatic; colloid osmotic C) blood; interstitial D) colloid osmotic; hydrostatic E) plasma; extracellular ................
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