Free Safety Certification Exam Preparation
Certified
Safety
Health
Manager
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM STUDY GUIDE
Questions and Answer Keys
Area I General Business Management
Area II Management Methods
Area III Safety, Health and Environmental Applications
Area IV Risk Management Control
Prepared by
Steven J. Geigle, M.A., CSHM
Disclaimer
The information in this study guide has been compiled by the Author from various sources and texts recommended by the Institute for Safety and Health Management (ISHM) for study. The information contained within this study guide represents the best current information on the four subject areas of focus within the 150-question Certified Safety Health Manager (CSHM) examination administered by ISHM. No guarantee, warranty of other representation is made as to the absolute correctness or sufficiency of any information contained in this study guide. The author assumes no responsibility in connection therewith. The author cannot warrant that the use of this preparation guide will result in certification. While the content is representative of the knowledge required of a safety and health manager, the successful completion of the CSHM examination depends on many factors including the applicant's academic background, safety management experience and individual study for the examination. This information is for educational purposes only and does not replace any regulations promulgated by state of federal government agencies.
CSHM Certified Safety Health Manager Comprehensive Study Guide, 2nd Edition 2006
ISBN: Pending
© 2006 Geigle Communications LLC
You may contact the author at:
OSHAcademy Safety Training Network
515 NW Saltzman Road #767
Portland OR 97229-6098
503.292.0654 or 866.292.1430
Table of Contents
Volume 1: Area I – General and Business Management 1
A. Finance 3
B. Cost Accounting 9
C. Employee Relationships/Human Resources 13
D. Ethics and Law 19
E. Organization Structure 29
F. Training and Development 36
Answer Keys 46
Volume 2: Are II – Management Methods 57
A. SMBO/TQM 59
B. Systems Safety 69
C. Auditing 77
D. Data Analysis and Statistics 86
E. Safety in Design 90
F. Benchmarking 96
G. Behavioral Safety Processes 103
H. Root Cause Analysis 107
I. Safety Management Theory 114
Answer Keys 120
Volume 3: Are III – Safety, Health and Environment Applications 133
A. Compliance Management 135
B. Environment 150
C. Ergonomics 155
D. Toxicology 163
E. Epidemiology 173
F. Industrial Hygiene 175
G. Construction 190
Answer Keys 197
Volume 4: Are IV – Risk Management Control 211
A. Workers’ Compensation 213
B. Risk Management 219
C. General Liability/Product Safety 223
D. Fleet Safety 228
E. Fire and Life Safety 236
F. Health and Wellness 247
G. Security 254
H. Disaster Recovery/Emergency Preparation 260
I. Workplace Violence 268
Answer Keys 272
References 284
C S H M
Certified Safety Health Manager Exam
STUDY GUIDE
Area I General Business Management
Questions and Answer Key
Subject Area I. Topic A. Finance
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. A $10,000 investment is worth $18,000 after three years. What is the average annual percent interest rate earned on this investment? (Hint: I=PxRxT)
a. 18.3%
b. 21.5%
c. 26.6%
d. 32.2%
2. These insurance companies are owned by the life insurance policyholders:
a. captive
b. stock
c. mutual
d. paternal
3. Throughout history, the guiding principle of business economics in western countries has been:
a. minimizing costs
b. avoiding losses
c. maintaining a safe workplace
d. maximizing profits
4. A company may use this method to estimate future costs per unit of time:
a. predictive analysis
b. pareto diagrams or charts
c. history of losses or safety costs
d. cost-benefit analysis
5. These costs change with the volume of products sold or manufactured:
a. fixed costs
b. variable costs
c. sunk costs
d. total costs
6. These costs do not vary with volume even if no sales are made:
a. fixed costs
b. variable costs
c. sunk costs
d. total costs
7. Variable costs, when added to fixed costs, result in:
a. fixed costs
b. variable costs
c. sunk costs
d. total costs
8. This occurs when fixed costs are recovered from the sale of goods, but no profit is made:
a. upper control limit
b. money value point
c. break even point
d. drop dead point
9. Increases in the cost of doing business (CODB) due to a higher number of injuries, lower morale and productivity are examples of:
a. system consequences
b. natural consequences
c. expected consequences
d. unexpected consequences
10. Options give the decision-maker greater __________ by allowing him or her to choose from a number of solutions rather than being stuck with a go/no-go decision.
a. leadership
b. ability
c. authority
d. control
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. The area of financial management that supervises the acquisition and disposition of a firm's resources is called: (Finkler, 3)
a. cost accounting
b. accounting
c. finance
d. acquisitions
2. The formalized system designed to record the financial history of a firm is called: (Finkler, 3)
a. financial accounting
b. financial management
c. historical finance
d. historical accounting
3. This person provides financial information that might be used for making improved decisions regarding the future: (Finkler, 3)
a. accounting manager
b. financial manager
c. financial accountant
d. managerial accountant
4. This person performs the financial analysis using information provided by the managerial accountant: (Finkler, 4)
a. accountant
b. financial manager
c. finance officer
d. safety manager
5. Financial management is concerned with maximizing a firm's profits, or the bottom line. All of the following are measures of the bottom line, except: (Finkler, 4)
a. return on investment (ROI)
b. return on equity (ROE)
c. return on assets (ROA
d. return on costs (ROC)
6. Which of the following refer to the two over-riding goals of financial management? (Finkler, 4)
a. profitability and viability
b. profitability and market share
c. market share and viability
d. market share and assets
7. In reference to profitability, the greater the ______ we incur, the greater the ______ we demand: (Finkler, 4)
a. profit, risk
b. risk, profit
c. viability, market share
d. cost, profit
8. The measure of the amount of resources a firm has that are cash or are convertible to cash in the near-term, is called: (Finkler, 5)
a. viability
b. profit
c. liquidity
d. solvency
9. The measure of the amount of resources a firm has that are cash or are convertible to cash in the long-term, is called: (Finkler, 5)
a. viability
b. profit
c. liquidity
d. solvency
10. A firm's assets may be: (Finkler, 13)
a. profitable or viable
b. tangible or intangible
c. long-term or short-term
d. liquid or solvent
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. These assets have physical form and substance and are generally valued and shown on financial statements: (Finkler, 13)
a. profit
b. intangible
c. long-term
d. tangible
2. These assets consist of such items as good credit standing, skilled employees, and patents: (Finkler, 13)
a. profit
b. intangible
c. long-term
d. tangible
3. Which term below describes the obligations a firm has to outside creditors? (Finkler, 13)
a. profits
b. equity
c. liabilities
d. tangibles
4. All of the following are common liabilities, except: (Finkler, 13)
a. money owed to equity
b. money owed to suppliers
c. money owed to employees
d. money owed to the government
5. The value of the firm to its owners is called: (Finkler, 13)
a. asset
b. liability
c. equity
d. profit
6. The bottom line for safety, as with any other activity within an organization is: (Various Sources)
a. effectiveness
b. efficiency
c. productivity
d. cost
7. This is called the fundamental equation of accounting: (Finkler, 14)
a. assets = equity plus stockholders' liabilities
b. assets = liabilities plus stockholders' equity
c. assets = profit minus liabilities plus equity
d. assets = profit plus stockholders' liabilities
8. This can be a person, department, project, division, or firm: (Finkler, 11)
a. entity
b. liability
c. organization
d. profit-center
9. The statement of a firm's financial position in commonly referred to as the: (Finkler, 16)
a. entity equity statement
b. break-even point
c. balance sheet
d. income statement
10. These two reports are the traditional financial statements that have been required in annual reports for many years: (Finkler, 19)
a. income statement
b. profit-loss statement
c. balance sheet
d. a and c above
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. A set of rules used as a basis for financial reporting is called: (Finkler, 31)
a. Accepted Rules for Accountancy (ARA)
b. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)
c. Rules for Financial Accounting (RFA)
d. Accepted Principles of Financial Accounting (APFA)
2. All of the following are key components of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, EXCEPT: (Finkler, 31)
a. conservation
b. matching
c. eliminating
d. going concern
3. All of the following are key components of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, EXCEPT: (Finkler, 31)
a. liberalism
b. matching
c. materiality
d. going concern
4. All of the following are key components of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, EXCEPT: (Finkler, 31)
a. consistency
b. separating
c. materiality
d. objective evidence
5. All of the following are key components of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, EXCEPT: (Finkler, 31)
a. consistency
b. full disclosure
c. cost
d. subjectiveness
6. This GAAP principle states that financial statements are prepared based upon the assumption that a firm will remain in business for the foreseeable future: (Finkler, 25-26)
a. consistency
b. full disclosure
c. going concern
d. objective evidence
7. This GAAP principle states that when reporting the financial position of the firm, sufficient consideration should be given to the various risks the firm faces: (Finkler, 25-26)
a. conservatism
b. full disclosure
c. going concern
d. objective evidence
8. This GAAP principle states that expenses should be recorded in the same accounting period as the revenues that they were responsible for generating: (Finkler, 25-26)
a. conservatism
b. full disclosure
c. going concern
d. matching
9. This GAAP term is used to describe the value of what was given up to acquire an item: (Finkler, 25-26)
a. conservatism
b. cost
c. going concern
d. matching
10. This GAAP principle states that financial reports should be based on such evidence as reasonable individuals could all agree upon within relatively narrow bounds: (Finkler, 25-26)
a. conservatism
b. objectivity
c. going concern
d. objective evidence
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. This GAAP principle states that errors in financial reports only require correction if they are material in amount: (Finkler, 25-26)
a. objectivity
b. material evidence
c. materiality
d. objective evidence
2. This GAAP principle says that to avoid misleading users of financial reports, firms should generally use the same accounting methods from period to period: (Finkler, 25-26)
a. repeated objectivity
b. integrity
c. materiality
d. consistency
3. This GAAP principle says that financial reports should disclose any information needed to assure that the reports are a fair presentation: (Finkler, 25-26)
a. full discloser
b. fairness
c. integrity of reports
d. consistency
4. A value of an asset based on what is paid for the asset at the time it was acquired is called the: (Finkler, 34)
a. net realizable value
b. historical or acquisition cost
c. price-level adjusted cost
d. replacement cost
5. This method of valuing an asset measures what you could get for the asset if it were sold: (Finkler, 36)
a. net realizable value
b. historical or acquisition cost
c. price-level adjusted historical cost (PLAHC)
d. replacement cost
6. This method of valuing an asset measures its worth by determining how much profit the asset will contribute to the firm in the future: (Finkler, 36)
a. net future value
b. profit futures
c. future profits
d. replacement cost
7. This method of valuing an asset measures its value based on how much it would cost to replace the asset: (Finkler, 37)
a. net future value
b. profit futures
c. future profits
d. replacement cost
8. Obligations that are to be paid in cash within a year are called: (Finkler, 42)
a. non-monetary obligations
b. monetary obligations
c. short-term obligations
d. long-term obligations
9. Obligations that are to be paid in cash more than a year in the future are called: (Finkler, 42)
a. non-monetary obligations
b. monetary obligations
c. short-term obligations
d. long-term obligations
10. Obligations that are paid as goods or services are called: (Finkler, 42)
a. non-monetary obligations
b. monetary obligations
c. short-term obligations
d. long-term obligations
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. In this form of business the owners are limited to the extent of their investment: (Silbiger, 197)
a. limited liability corporation
b. sole proprietorship
c. limited partnership
d. corporation
2. One of the major financial drawbacks of a corporation is: (Silbiger, 197)
a. unlimited liability
b. sole ownership
c. limited owner rights
d. double taxation
3. A basic tenet of sound finance is that return on investment should be commensurate with the: (Silbiger, 199)
a. risk
b. liability
c. cost
d. probability
4. If you know an investment is rather risky, you would expect a ______ rate of return for the investment: (Silbiger, 199)
a. immediate
b. higher
c. lower
d. predictable
5. Risk that applies to a whole class of assets is called: (Silbiger, 199)
a. programmatic risk
b. problematic risk
c. systematic risk
d. apparent risk
6. Which of the following is not used to express the cost of safety? (OSHA)
a. break-even point
b. cost per $100 in wages
c. workers compensation costs
d. indirect costs
7. A firm's assets equal: (Finkler, 14)
a. equity plus stockholders' liabilities
b. liabilities plus stockholders' equity
c. profit minus liabilities plus equity
d. profit plus stockholders' liabilities
Subject Area I. Topic B. Cost Accounting
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. To identify potential hazards, what process is conducted in addition to hazard analysis?
a. injury reports
b. statistical data
c. risk assessment
d. fatalities
2. Which of the following is not one of the methods discussed by Brauer to express the cost of safety?
a. cost in dollars per $100 of payroll
b. cost in terms of the number of items produced
c. cost in the number of hours a worker must work to cover a cost of loss
d. cost in terms of injury-free days
3. Which of the following is considered a direct accident cost?
a. cost to repair equipment damage
b. overtime pay
c. workers' compensation insurance
d. litigation expenses
4. All of the following are considered responsibilities of a labor/management safety and health teams, except:
a. make recommendations
b. enforce safety rules
c. estimate financial benefits of safety
d. design cost-effective safety programs
5. Which of the following is considered a direct cost when an accident occurs?
a. lost sales and canceled orders
b. hiring and training new workers
c. lowered morale and higher turnover
d. increased workers' compensation premiums
6. Which of the following is one common way to express safety costs?
a. lost-work-day incident rate
b. value-added percentage
c. dollars per $100 of pay
d. annual incentive costs
7. According to Grimaldi and Simons, surveys indicate that the majority of people responsible for safety programs believe it is desirable to stress the: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 210)
a. cost of accidents
b. humanitarian imperative
c. legal requirements
d. social responsibility
8. According to Grimaldi and Simons, these costs are not readily available and require more thorough analysis:
a. uninsured costs
b. insured costs
c. legal costs
d. future costs
9. According to Grimaldi and Simons, all of the following are categories of uninsured costs, except:
a. lost-day injuries
b. doctor's cases
c. restricted duty cases
d. first-aid injuries
10. Which of the following is not considered a valid uninsured cost?
a. wages paid for work time lost
b. workers compensation pay for lost work time
c. extra cost due to overtime
d. cost-of-learning period of new worker
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. According to Grimaldi and Simons, this is the only basis for assessing an overhead cost for equipment made idle by an injury:
a. wages paid for work time lost
b. workers compensation pay for lost work time
c. if extra equipment and work space is required
d. cost for depreciation
2. According to Brauer, which of the following is the 'common denominator' to most effectively ensure safety goals are achieved?
a. cost
b. leadership
c. accountability
d. resources
3. According to Brauer, which of the following is not a criterion for evaluating costs and benefits?
a. cost-benefit ratio
b. gross benefits
c. rate of return
d. payback period
4. In this type of analysis, the dollar values of all benefits and costs connected with program alternatives are estimated and then compared:
a. cost-benefit analysis
b. cost-per-hour analysis
c. rate-of-return analysis
d. unit production analysis
5. If a company's profit margin is 5% and the unit selling price of their product is $25. How many units must be sold to cover a $25,000 accident cost?
a. 50,000 units
b. 25,000 units
c. 20,000 units
d. 10,000 units
6. XYZ has averaged one carpel tunnel injury a year for the past three years. They decide to invest invests $12,000 to improve the design of four workstations to prevent the recurring carpel tunnel injuries. Each injury averages $35,000 in total accident costs. What will be the estimated return on the investment (ROI) over the next five years?
a. 292%
b. 1458%
c. 3568%
d. 8405%
7. ABC Environmental decides to invest $20,000 to eliminate fall hazards that have averaged $50,000 per accident. What is the estimated payback period in years for this investment? (TDMBA, 65)
a. .4
b. 1.2
c. 3
d. 5
8. Expressing the cost to take corrective action and make improvements is better expressed as a/an ______________ to communicate the notion that the employer will realize a financial return.
a. expense
b. investment
c. expenditure
d. price
9. How much business volume is required if a company's profit margin is 5%, 300 units are required to cover the loss, and the unit selling price is $32.00? (Brauer 522)
a. $9,600
b. $96,000
c. $192,000
d. $1,920,000
10. Which of the following is not one of the ways to express the cost of safety? (Brauer 522)
a. cost of accidents/illnesses per share
b. volume of business necessary to cover loss
c. dollars per $100 of pay
d. number of days to cover loss
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. What is the common yardstick for measuring and evaluating company performance? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 209)
a. leadership
b. money
c. productivity
d. quality
2. Executives can immediately understand the result of a department's work when it is: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 209)
a. compared to competitor results
b. shown in dollars
c. stated as a productivity result
d. related to quality
3. According to the U.S. Department of Labor, the main driving force behind the industrial safety movement is: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 209)
a. the increase in workplace injuries
b. workplace violence is increasing
c. workers' compensation costs are astronomical
d. the fact that accidents are expensive
4. According to the U.S. Department of Labor, the main driving force behind the industrial safety movement is: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 209)
a. the increase in workplace injuries
b. workplace violence is increasing
c. workers' compensation costs are astronomical
d. the fact that accidents are expensive
5. Each of the following may be a reason accident costs are given little attention by experienced safety specialists, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 210)
a. absorbing OSHA penalties is less expensive than safety investments
b. costs are not a factor in making safety decisions
c. the safety director is afraid to stress safety as profitable
d. the company seeks safety regardless of costs
6. According to Grimaldi & Simonds, there are two major classes of costs resulting from injuries and accidents: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 212)
a. near miss and property damage costs
b. insurance and uninsured costs
c. fixed and variable costs
d. injury and illness costs
7. According to Grimaldi & Simonds, direct costs refer to __________ costs and indirect costs refer to __________ costs: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 212)
a. primary, secondary
b. leading, training
c. insured, uninsured
d. injury, illness
8. According to Grimaldi & Simonds, these cost elements require greater analysis because they are not readily available in company records: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 213)
a. secondary
b. training
c. uninsured
d. insured
9. The three OSHA categories considered when averaging insured costs include all of the following, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 214)
a. near-miss cases
b. first-aid cases
c. nonlost workday cases
d. lost workday cases
10. Which of the following is true after an accident occurs? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 214)
a. the injured employee returns and production increases
b. co-workers increase production to make up for the injured employee
c. workers do not exceed normal production to make up for lost production
d. workers are more willing to work harder to make up for lost production
Practice Questions – Bank 4
1. One way to calculate property loss after an accident is to: (G&S, 215)
a. subtract the original cost from the salvage value and depreciation
b. subtract the salvage value from the original cost and appreciation
c. add the original cost to appreciation
d. add the salvage value to depreciation and original cost
2. If an old machine, worth $1,000, is damaged such that its salvage value is $100, and the employer decides to replace it with a new machine costing $5,000, what would you regard as the property damage? (G&S, 215)
a. $900 c. $4,900
b. $1,100 d. $5,000
3. What percent of the total uninsured accident cost is required to repair, replace, or straighten up material or equipment that was damaged in an accident? (G&S, 215)
a. 7 c. 18
b. 10 d. 35
4. The cost of wages paid for work time lost by injured workers, other than the workers' compensation payments, covers all of the following, except: (G&S, 216) (G&S, 216)
a. when employees visit the doctor's office
b. all days not covered by workers' compensation payments
c. primarily on the day of injury
d. for the rest of the workshift after the accident
5. Which of the following results in the largest percentage of uninsured lost-workday accident costs? (G&S, 216)
a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workers
b. net cost to repair, replace damaged material or equipment
c. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workers
d. wages paid supervisors required by the injury
6. Which of the following results in the smallest percentage of uninsured lost-workday accident costs? (G&S , 219)
a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workers
b. net cost to repair, replace damaged material or equipment
c. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workers
d. miscellaneous unusual costs
7. Which of the following is not considered a valid uninsured accident cost? (G&S, 219)
a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workers
b. cost of hiring new employee
c. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workers
d. cost-of-learning period of new worker
8. Which of the following is not considered a valid uninsured accident cost? (G&S, 220)
a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workers
b. extra cost due to overtime work caused by the accident
c. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workers
d. loss of profit on idle machines or workers
9. Which of the following is not considered a valid uninsured accident cost? (G&S, 220)
a. cost of subsequent injuries
b. extra cost due to overtime work caused by the accident
c. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workers
d. uninsured medical costs borne by the company
10. How important is it for an organization to know precisely, to the dollar, how much accidents cost? (G&S, 220)
a. not important at all
b. not of great importance
c. very important
d. critical
Subject Area I. Topic C. Employee Relations/HR
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Which of the following describe inconsistencies among attitudes or between attitudes and behavior? (Robbins, Management, 314)
a. dissonance
b. incongruence
c. psycho-behavioral
d. congruence
2. Attitudes are ________________ statements about objects, people, or events: (Robbins, Management, 312)
a. objective
b. analytical
c. evaluative
d. subjective
3. Employees who work on stressful, dissatisfying tasks will experience a more positive outcome when this type of leadership is displayed:
a. supportive
b. contingency
c. laissez faire
d. participative
4. The observable actions of people is called: (Robbins, Management, 312)
a. performance
b. intuition
c. attitude
d. behavior
5. The degree to which an employee identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers performance important to self-worth is called: (Robbins, Management, 314)
a. job satisfaction
b. job involvement
c. job commitment
d. job support
6. This term describes a combination of traits that classifies a person: (Robbins, Management, 316)
a. position
b. performance
c. personality
d. profession
7. This belief states there should be status and power differences among people in organizations: (Robbins, Management, 316)
a. authoritarianism
b. machiavellianism
c. structuralism
d. huerism
8. A person who is willing to take a high risk is said to exhibit: (Robbins, Management, 316)
a. normal behavior
b. poor safety attitude
c. a lack of common sense
d. risk propensity
9. The process of organizing and interpreting what we perceive is defined as: (Robbins, Management, 317)
a. selection
b. perception
c. analysis
d. intuition
10. Safety _________ management skill is at the center of the safety program: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap 15)
a. behavior
b. system
c. program
d. accident
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Judging a person on the basis of personal perception of the group to which he or she belongs is called: (Robbins, Management p. 318)
a. discriminating
b. diversifying
c. stereotyping
d. halo effect
2. This law states that behavior is a function of its consequences: (Robbins, Management p. 319)
a. law of effect
b. law of consequences
c. law of cause
d. law of behavior
3. A major responsibility of the safety and health professional is to: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. dissect safety behaviors to understand their effects
b. limit the number of feasible engineering controls
c. manipulate variables causing inappropriate behavior
d. reduce inappropriate behaviors primarily through discipline
4. This occurs when an impression of an individual is based on a single characteristic: (Robbins, Management p. 318)
a. singling
b. stereotyping
c. halo effect
d. unifocus
5. The theory, first proposed by David McClelland, states that achievement, power, and affiliation motivate employees is called the: (Robbins, Management p. 346)
a. reinforcement theory
b. goal-setting theory
c. equity theory
d. three-needs theory
6. This can be a great resource and tool to improve safety involvement and motivation: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. OSHA inspections
b. safety and health committee
c. internal policing
d. corporate safety mother
7. The willingness to exert high levels of effort describes: (Robbins, Management p. 339)
a. a need
b. positive reinforcement
c. a motivation
d. accountability
8. An internal state that makes certain outcomes appear attractive describes: (Robbins, Management p. 339)
a. a need
b. positive reinforcement
c. a motivation
d. an assumption
9. Douglas McGregor believes managers that assume employees can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility are displaying this leadership approach: (Robbins, Management p. 341)
a. Theory A
b. Theory B
c. Theory X
d. Theory Y
10. Whether an employee works safely depends upon four factors. Which of the following is not one of them? (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. initial training
b. current needs
c. present situation
d. past experience
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. According to Douglas McGregor, managers that believe employees dislike work, must be coerced, controlled, or threatened with punishment is displaying this leadership approach: (Robbins, Management p. 341)
a. Theory A
b. Theory B
c. Theory X
d. Theory Y
2. What is the theory in which Maslow hypothesized that within every human being there exist lower-order and higher-order needs : (Robbins, Management p. 340)
a. Hierarchy of Needs Theory
b. Theory X and Y
c. Motivation-Hygiene Theory
d. Three-Needs Theory
3. Which type of leadership should you display to best assure your employees will gain confidence in their ability to achieve goals?
a. supportive
b. authoritarian
c. achievement-oriented
d. laissez faire
4. Whether an employee works safely depends upon four factors. Which of the following is not one of them? (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. situational variables
b. current needs
c. present situation
d. anticipated consequences
5. Psychologist Frederick Herzberg defines hygiene factors as: (Robbins, Management p. 342)
a. factors that improve relationships
b. factors that increase job satisfaction
c. factors that eliminate dissatisfaction
d. factors that reduce task avoidance
6. David McClelland's contemporary Three-Needs Theory proposes each of the following needs, except:
(Robbins, Management p. 342)
a. need for safety (nSaf)
b. need for achievement (nAch)
c. need for power (nPow)
d. need for affiliation (nAff)
7. By understanding worker needs, a safety professional may: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. better identify non-compliance
b. manipulate feasible engineering controls
c. link company values to individual goals
d. manage unique needs
8. Any consequence immediately following a response that increases the probability that the behavior will be repeated is called: (Robbins, Management p. 346)
a. an outcome
b. an incentive
c. a reinforcer
d. a referent consequence
9. Reinforcers are consequences that _________ the probability desired behaviors will be repeated: (Robbins, Management p. 347)
a. influence
b. decrease
c. increase
d. determine
10. It may be quite difficult to improve worker safety attitudes due to the influence of: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. past experiences and the emotions they provoke
b. unreasonable workloads
c. unpredictable work schedules
d. disgruntled co-workers and former employees
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. J. Stacy Adams proposed in his Equity Theory, that employees perceive what they get from a job situation in relation to what they _____: (Robbins, Management p. 348)
a. put into it
b. consider important
c. remove from it
d. see as benefits from it
2. Psychologists have found that this learning principle can often facilitate learning when recognition occurs only for safe work methods(NSC, APM-AP, 360)
a. reinforcement
b. feedback
c. practice
d. duration
3. Steps involved in changing safety-related behaviors may include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. provide training
b. arrange positive consequences
c. ignore undesired behaviors
d. removing obstacles to safe behavior
4. Which of the following is not one of Victor Vroom's expectancy theory variables or relationships that motivate employees? (Robbins, Management p. 351)
a. attractiveness
b. probability-value linkage
c. performance-reward linkage
d. effort-performance linkage
5. What leadership approach should you, as a safety manager, want to demonstrate to best maintain a positive relationship with worker performance?
a. supportive
b. authoritarian
c. controlling
d. laissez faire
6. Steps involved in changing safety-related behaviors may include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. provide practice
b. retraining when rules are violated
c. finding a simpler way to do a job
d. removing obstacles to safe behavior
7. Employees are most likely to strive for higher standards of performance when supervisors display what kind of leadership?
a. supportive
b. authoritarian
c. achievement-oriented
d. laissez faire
8. This occurs when someone is asked to pursue two objectives that work against each other: ? (Hodgetts, Human Relations, p.170)
a. goal conflict
b. catch 22
c. goal incongruence
d. goal mismatch
9. Safety managers must successfully understand and apply all of the following learning principles, except: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. reinforcement
b. feedback
c. practice
d. duration
10. This strategy may work best in response to employees who are not motivated:
a. reprimand
b. install a reward system
c. job transfer
d. terminate the position
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. To best ensure safe, almost automatic behaviors occur, this learning principle should be applied: (NSC, APM-AP, 361)
a. reinforcement
b. feedback
c. practice
d. duration
2. Goals tend to be general and vague, but ______________ must be observable, measurable and specific:
a. management outcomes
b. employee goals
c. end states
d. operational objectives
3. Safety managers must successfully understand and apply all of the following learning principles, except: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)
a. transfer of training
b. loss of learning
c. customer-supplier relationship
d. frequency
4. A motivated employee is more likely to think of his or her work as:
a. important
b. difficult
c. worthless
d. satisfying
5. The application of this important learning principle is important in helping make sure employees make safety a top priority: (NSC, APM-AP, 362)
a. reinforcement
b. primacy
c. practice
d. duration
6. Understanding the value of safety in the workplace describes this very important learning principle: (NSC, APM-AP, 361)
a. reinforcement
b. feedback
c. practice
d. meaningfulness
7. What will happen to the frequency of desired behaviors if they are ignored? (Daniels, 29)
a. frequency will remain the same
b. frequency will increase
c. frequency will decrease
d. frequency will vary randomly
8. Using eye-catching posters, slogans and other publicity are examples in applying this important learning principle: (NSC, APM-AP, 362)
a. reinforcement
b. feedback
c. intensity
d. duration
9. Depending on motivation, some thoughts are retained, while others are not. This idea expresses which learning principle below? (NSC, APM-AP, 361)
a. reinforcement
b. selective learning
c. practice
d. knowledge of results
10. Which of the following is NOT a critical factor in determining a person's motivation and satisfaction on the job?
a. experienced meaningfulness
b. knowledge of results
c. placement of job
d. experienced responsibility
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Psychologists have found that this learning principle can often facilitate learning when recognition occurs only for safe work methods (NSC, APM-AP, 360)
a. reinforcement
b. feedback
c. practice
d. duration
2. When workers hear the same thing many times, the learning tends to be more effective. This idea expresses which principle below? (NSC, APM-AP, 361)
a. reinforcement
b. feedback
c. practice
d. frequency
3. An employee has achieved this level on Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs when he or she has achieved everything that he/she is capable of becoming: (NSC, APM-AP, 351)
a. self-esteem
b. self-actualization
c. self-fulfillment
d. self-awareness
4. People like to know how they are doing on the job. Not applying this principle defeats the goal of improved behavior and learning: (NSC, APM-AP, 361)
a. reinforcement
b. knowledge of results
c. practice
d. duration
5. This learning principle states that current learning can be influenced by past learning: (NSC, APM-AP, 362)
a. reinforcement
b. feedback
c. practice
d. transfer of learning
6. Whether or not a worker uses safe procedures and practices depends on: (NSC, APM-AP, 341)
a. present situation
b. past experiences
c. workplace methods and design
d. all of the above
7. What is learned last is usually most easily remembered. This idea expresses which learning principle below? (NSC, APM-AP, 362)
a. reinforcement
b. recall
c. practice
d. duration
8. According to William Bridges, change is ______ and ________:
a. physiological, psychological
b. transient, permanent
c. external, imposed
d. selective, imposed
9. This error occurs when safety managers assume most people are somewhat alike in their characteristics: (NSC, APM-AP, 341)
a. common-special paradox
b. the average worker syndrome
c. common sense error
d. average-person fallacy
10. According to William Bridges, transition is ________:
a. inherent
b. transient
c. internal
d. imposed
Subject Area I. Topic D. Ethics and Law
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Morality means all of the following, except:
a. The quality of being in accord with standards of right or good conduct.
b. The quality of being in accord with a profession's ethics.
c. A system of ideas of right and wrong conduct.
d. Standards governing the conduct of members of a profession.
2. Ethics means all of the following, except:
a. Standards governing the conduct of members of a profession.
b. A principle of right or good conduct.
c. Always right or good moral conduct.
d. A system of moral principles or values.
3. According to Rachels, the conscientious moral agent is someone who _______:
a. is concerned with those who occupy positions of power
b. carefully sifts facts and examines their implications
c. always accepts principles of conduct
d. hesitates to listen to reason
4. The proponents of relativism argue all of the following, except:
a. Ethics are relative to the general conditions
b. It's impossible to decide on matters of right and wrong
c. Do not search the soul to discover the truth
d. Everything is gray...rarely black or white
5. Proponents of _______ argue that no one can make a moral judgment about another person's behavior:
a. cultural relativism
b. role relativism
c. naive relativism
d. social relativism
6. ________ relativism states that the role or position assumed by the individual may require actions that violate personal ethics, but do not violate organizational ethics:
a. cultural relativism
b. role relativism
c. naive relativism
d. social relativism
7. Which one of the following reflects social relativism?
a. when in Rome...do as the Romans
b. position description
c. individual moral values
d. industry best practices
8. Cultural relativism argues all of the following, except:
a. There are universal absolutes in every culture
b. There is no universal moral code
c. Moral values vary around the world
d. Paying bribes may be acceptable practice
9. This ethical perspective holds that an action is justified if it provides the greatest benefit for the greatest number of people:
a. natural law
b. universalism
c. utilitarianism
d. absolutism
10. _________ propounds that any action is condonable if the motive behind the action is good, since the results of a person's actions are so often not in his or her control:
a. natural law
b. universalism
c. utilitarianism
d. absolutism
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. When an injury is caused by two or more persons, each of which failed in a legal duty, they are in: (Hammer, 19)
a. tort
b. joint tort
c. contributory tort
d. punitive tort
2. Under this principle, any person who conducts work that involves abnormal risk to others is strictly liable for injury or damage that results, even if the work was conducted with care: (Hammer, 19)
a. hazardous workplace
b. unsafe instrumentality
c. dangerous instrumentality
d. ultrahazardous operations
3. Under this principle, a person who is aware of a danger and its extent, and knowingly exposes himself, assumes all risks and cannot recover damages even though he is injured through no fault of his own: (Hammer, 19)
a. liability
b. contributory negligence
c. master-servant relationship
d. assumption of risk
4. A wrongful act or failure to exercise due care for which civil legal action may result is called a: (Hammer, 19)
a. tort
b. joint tort
c. contributory tort
d. punitive tort
5. Ethics may be thought of as a set of two basic relationships. The first relationship is between ___________ and ___________. The second relationship exists between ________ and _________:
a. action, belief, antecedents, behavior
b. behavior, belief, antecedents, action
c. belief, antecedents, behavior, belief
d. antecedents, belief, belief, behavior
6. Organizational ethics is the application of ethics to organizational ________ and ________:
a. policies, structure
b. relationship, activities
c. policies, relationships
d. structure, activities
7. The implied, enforced, or felt obligation of the employer to serve or protect the interests of all internal and external stakeholders describes the ___________ school of ethics:
a. social relativism
b. cultural relativism
c. organizational responsibility
d. social responsibility
8. The __________ is a set of written and unwritten rules and assumptions about acceptable or expected interrelationships among various segments of society:
a. social contract
b. regulatory standard
c. moral imperative
d. legal writ
9. Which principle states that in the long run, those who do not use power in a manner society considers responsible will tend to lose it?
a. The Law of the Bottom Line
b. The Law of Corporate Responsibility
c. The Iron Law of Responsibility
d. The Rule of Business Law
10. Benefits of assuming social responsibility include all of the following, except:
a. Fulfillment of long term self interests
b. Short term limitation of regulation
c. Improved image as an honorable cooperate citizen
d. Assure stakeholder approval
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. Adam Smith argued that an employer is led by an _____________ to promote an end which was not part of his intention, nor is it always the worse for society that it was no part of it:
a. act of God
b. uncommon intuition
c. intentional social pressure
d. invisible hand
2. Nobel Prize winner, Milton Friedman describes the social responsibility school of business ethics as a fundamentally ________:
a. flawed view
b. subversive doctrine
c. pervasive dogma
d. outdated perspective
3. Milton Friedman believes corporations play a socially responsible role by __________ that support social action in a relatively free market economy:
a. paying taxes
b. complying with regulations
c. promoting groups
d. spearheading laws
4. Civil laws address the private rights of individuals and organizations to _______:
a. obtain compensation for loss
b. prevent a loss from occurring
c. obtain damages for egregious conduct
d. a and b above
5. Under tort law, punitive damages are possible if the defendant's conduct is egregious and had any of the following, except:
a. malicious intent
b. gross negligence
c. malfeasance
d. willful disregard for the rights of others
6. ___________ laws deal with harmful acts or crimes against individuals, society or the government:
a. Civil
b. Criminal
c. Tort
d. Statutory
7. The __________ is considered by many the first formal codification of statutory law:
a. Code of Federal Regulations
b. Code of Ammanrah
c. Code of Social Responsibility
d. Code of Hammurabi
8. All of the following must occur prior to a bill becoming a law:
a. be approved by Congress
b. ratified by the states
c. signed by the president
d. a and c above
9. All of the following are types of laws, EXCEPT:
a. common laws
b. royalty laws
c. statutory laws
d. administrative laws
10. The laws enacted by Congress become codes and grouped into a published body of laws called the _______:
a. Federal Code of Regulations
b. United States Code
c. United States Administrative Rules
d. Federal Administrative Rules
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Public Law 102—77 was enacted by the ____ Congress:
a. 102nd
b. 77th
c. could be either
d. not enough information
2. OSHA Act of 1970 is also called the ________________ Act:
a. Employee Protection
b. Reagan-Pope
c. Employee Right to Know
d. Williams-Steiger
3. For a law to be formally enacted, what two acts must be passed by congress?
a. regulatory and appropriations
b. authorization and appropriations
c. appropriations and empowerment
d. agency and budgetary
4. What is the purpose of an appropriation act?
a. assigns responsibility to a government agency
b. limit appropriations to the governing agency
c. provides the money for the regulatory activities
d. empowers a government agency
5. An authorization act does all of the following, except:
a. assigns responsibility to a government agency
b. limit appropriations to the governing agency
c. provides the money for the regulatory activities
d. empowers a government agency
6. Federal agencies propose and adopt regulations and standards published as the _______:
a. Code of Federal Regulations
b. Federal Register
c. United States Code
d. Federal Administrative Rules
7. Which of the following is not in the Federal Register?
a. federal agency regulations
b. congressional proclamations
c. proposed rules and notices
d. Executive orders
8. What is the purpose of publishing a proposed rule in the Federal Register?
a. establishes formal history
b. creates a permanent record
c. notifies state agencies
d. notifies the public
9. The OSHA Act applies to all employers ______, except state and local governments:
a. with one or more employees
b. in the private sector
c. in both private and public sectors
d. of two or more workers
10. The OSHA Act authorizes federally-approved state plans so long as they __________:
a. equal or exceed OSHA inspection schedules
b. are fully funded
c. are as effective as the federal program
d. remain under federal oversight
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. Each of the below are types of OSHA standards, except:
a. national consensus standards
b. permanent standards
c. temporary review standards
d. emergency temporary standards
2. Which of the following are the most common type of OSHA regulation?
a. consensus
b. emergency
c. temporary
d. permanent
3. Why does OSHA rarely issue Emergency Temporary Standards (ETS)?
a. The need for ETS's has significantly decreased.
b. ETS's remain in effect for only six months.
c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become effective.
d. Funding for ETS's have dried up.
4. Before issuing a permanent standard, OSHA must find that a significant risk exists in the workplace. How does OSHA determine risk?
a. workplace and other studies
b. OSHA 300 Log results
c. regulatory standard
d. legal writ
5. All of the following Acts have placed restraints on OSHA's rulemaking ability, except:
a. Regulatory Flexibility Act
b. Business Liability Act
c. Paperwork Reduction Act
d. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act
6. The general duty clause is breached when a firm's employees are exposed to hazards that meet all of the following requirements, except:
a. The hazard is recognized as harmful by the individual employer.
b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate specific rule.
c. The hazard is recognized as harmful by industry.
d. The hazards is likely to cause death or serious harm.
7. Which of the following is not considered a successful employer defense against alleged OSHA violations?
a. compliance poses a financial burden
b. compliance is infeasible
c. lack of control on a multi-employer worksite
d. unpreventable employee conduct
8. An employer may be able to defend against an OSHA violation if it can be demonstrate all of the following, except:
a. employee breached safety rules
b. safety rules were effectively conveyed
c. safety rules are uniformly enforced
d. the unsafe practice did not cause injury
9. All of the following are OSHA penalty classifications, except:
a. willful
b. de minimis
c. general
d. serious
10. Which of the following is not a consideration the Secretary of Labor must consider in proposing penalties?
a. good faith
b. prior violation history
c. employer size
d. employer ability to pay
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. The Secretary does not have unreviewable prosecutorial discretion to do which of the following?
a. nullify rules
b. withdraw citations
c. reach settlements
d. eliminate penalties
2. At an administrative hearing, both OSHA and the employer may ___________:
a. cross examine
b. call witnesses
c. introduce evidence
d. all of the above
3. What can OSHA do when it identifies an imminent danger?
a. immediate abatement
b. removal of employees from exposure
c. close the place of business
d. a and b above
4. OSHA can seek criminal penalties in all of the following instances except:
a. someone falsely reports information to OSHA
b. willful violations of specific standards
c. willful violations of the general duty clause
d. someone provides advance notice of an OSHA inspection
5. Which of the following is not considered an employee right by OSHA?
a. challenge the abatement remedy
b. file a complaint with OSHA
c. accompany inspectors
d. review relevant standards
6. What must the Secretary show to prove discrimination against an employee.
a. adverse treatment was a secondary cause
b. adverse treatment was the primary cause
c. adverse treatment was the substantial cause
d. adverse treatment was the sole cause
7. OSHA regulations also grant employees a right to know all of the following, except:
a. trade secret information
b. exposure information
c. hazardous substances on the job
d. medical records
8. You are contacted by an attorney and asked, as a CSHM, to act as an expert witness for a fee. You should:
a. counter with a flat fee
b. accept the offer
c. thank the attorney but decline the offer
d. request more money for services rendered
9. To be enforceable, a contract must meet each of the criteria below, except:
a. An exchange of consideration
b. Legality of the subject
c. Competency of the parties
d. Equality of the consideration
10. A violation of a duty not covered by a statue is called a:
a. tort
b. binding act
c. crime
d. liability
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. Which of the following is TRUE about civil and criminal law? (Brauer, 29)
a. Civil law deals with persons and organizations
b. Criminal violations deal only with persons
c. Criminal law deals with private rights
d. Civil law deals with harmful acts
2. Laws enacted by Congress and codified and logically grouped in a body of laws is called the: (Brauer, 29)
a. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
b. National Code of Law (NCL)
c. United States Code (USC)
d. Uniform Code of Federal Justice (UCFJ)
3. Administrative law that is proposed and adopted by federal agencies is called: (Brauer, 30)
a. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
b. National Code of Law (NCL)
c. United States Code (USC)
d. Uniform Code of Federal Justice (UCFJ)
4. Civil laws address the private rights of individuals and organizations to: (Brauer, 29)
a. obtain compensation for loss
b. prevent a loss from occurring
c. obtain damages for egregious conduct
d. answers a and b above
5. Under tort law, punitive damages are possible if the defendant's conduct is egregious and had any of the following except? (Hammer, 18)
a. malicious intent
b. gross negligence
c. malfeasance
d. willful disregard for the rights of others
6. This term is in usage for common persons now referred to as employer, employee, or worker, and for visitor, any third part such as a guest, customer, visitor, or member of the general public: (Hammer, 19)
a. master
b. servant
c. stranger
d. all of the above
7. That degree of care exercised by a prudent man in observance of his legal duties toward others is called: (Hammer, 19)
a. reasonable care
b. great care
c. due care
d. slight care
8. The degree of care that a very prudent and cautious person would undertake for the safety of others is called: (Hammer, 19)
a. reasonable care
b. great care
c. due care
d. slight care
9. That degree of care less than that which a prudent man would exercise. is called: (Hammer, 19)
a. reasonable care
b. great care
c. due care
d. slight care
10. Every person has a legal duty to this care for the safety of others and avoid injury to others if possible: (Hammer, 19)
a. reasonable care
b. great care
c. due care
d. slight care
Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. Under this principle, an owner, lessor, or other party responsible for premises must anticipate to foresee all possible risks to which the public might be subjected during their use, to maintain them in a safe condition, and to provide warnings of any unsafe or unusual condition: (Hammer, 19)
a. due diligence
b. foreseeability
c. foreseeable anticipation
d. foreseeability applied to the workplace
2. Under this principle, any foreseeable act that places a rescuer in the same danger as in an injured person the rescuer is attempting to aid is considered negligence by the person who committed the initial act: (Hammer, 19)
a. due diligence
b. foreseeability
c. foreseeable anticipation
d. foreseeability applied to the premises
3. This philosophy, to let natural laws operate by imposing no restrictions, was accepted by industrialists during the industrial revolution: (Hammer, 20)
a. due diligence
b. laissez-faire
c. scientific management
d. darwinian economics
4. Which of the following is the major ethical principle that applies to employee safety education? (NSC, OHS, 238)
a. autonomy
b. universalism
c. utilitarianism
d. relativity
5. Which of the following is an important ethical consideration made by safety managers? (NSC, OHS, 238)
a. autonomy
b. confidentiality of records
c. privacy
d. all of the above
6. This ethical principle relates to the actions taken to improve the welfare of others: (NSC, OHS, 238)
a. autonomy
b. privacy
c. beneficence
d. control
7. Compensation to an injured person for the loss he has suffered and may continue to suffer is called: (Hammer, 19)
a. contributory damages
b. compensatory damages
c. punitive damages
d. several damages
8. Awards made in some states to compensate an injured party for intentional, malicious, or outrageous misconduct by the defendant, usually made so that the latter will not repeat the offense is called: (Hammer, 19)
a. contributory damages
b. compensatory damages
c. punitive damages
d. criminal damages
9. The duty of an owner or user of land to keep his workplace in a condition that is reasonably safe for those lawfully there expresses what principle? (Hammer, 19)
a. safe workplace
b. safe premises
c. safe and healthful workplace
d. safe and healthful premises
10. Under this principle, a person who keeps, maintains, transports, or stores a dangerous creature, devise or substance is liable for injury or damage, regardless of fault, even when he exercises due care: (Hammer, 19)
a. hazardous workplace
b. unsafe instrumentality
c. dangerous instrumentality
d. ultrahazardous operations
Practice Questions - Bank 9
1. A person who owes a legal duty must exercise the same care that a reasonably prudent man would observe under similar circumstances. Which term below describes this duty? (Hammer, 19)
a. due diligence
b. standard of reasonable prudence
c. great and prudent care
d. necessary prudence
2. The relationship between the plaintiff’s injuries and the defendant’s failure to exercise a legal duty, such as reasonable care, is called the: (Hammer, 19)
a. surface cause
b. root cause
c. proximate cause
d. negligent cause
3. If Bob playfully pushes bin a crowded space, so Ralph is hit by the bin, loses his balance, falls and is injured. Bob’s push is considered a _________ of Ralph's accident: (Hammer, 19)
a. surface cause
b. root cause
c. proximate cause
d. negligent cause
4. An obligation to rectify or recompense any injury or damage for which the liable person has been held responsible is called: (Hammer, 19)
a. liability
b. common liability
c. strict liability
d. general liability
5. A growing concept that a manufacturer of a product is liable for injuries due to defects without a necessity for plaintiff to show negligence or fault is called: (Hammer, 19)
a. liability
b. common liability
c. strict liability
d. general liability
6. A failure to exercise a reasonable amount of care or to carry out a legal duty so that injury or property damage occurs to another is called: (Hammer, 19)
a. reckless conduct
b. negligence
c. negligence perse
d. gross negligence
7. This form of negligence requires no proof of negligence, since it involves acts or the omission of acts of which no careful person would have been guilty: (Hammer, 19)
a. reckless conduct
b. negligence
c. negligence perse
d. gross negligence
8. Conduct involving failure to use even slight care, a complete lack of regard for the safety of others, or intentional failure to perform a required and apparent duty regardless of the severity of the consequences of his act is considered: (Hammer, 19)
a. reckless conduct
b. negligence
c. negligence perse
d. gross negligence
9. Outrageous and reckless disregard for other’s rights or well-being and of possible consequences is called: (Hammer, 19)
a. willful conduct
b. contributory negligence
c. negligence perse
d. gross negligence
10. Outrageous disregard that indicates not only a complete lack of care such as could be considered gross negligence, but an intention to exercise no care at all, is considered: (Hammer, 19)
a. reckless conduct
b. contributory negligence
c. negligence perse
d. gross negligence
Practice Questions - Bank 10
1. When an injured person’s care for his own safety was less than that reasonable for a prudent man under existing conditions, he thought to demonstrate: (Hammer, 19)
a. reckless conduct
b. contributory negligence
c. negligence perse
d. gross negligence
2. When a employer is held liable for any negligence of his employee acting within the scope of his employment this concept is applies: (Hammer, 19)
a. liability
b. contributory negligence
c. master-servant relationship
d. gross negligence
3. The Due Process clause of this constitutional amendment became an obstacle to states passing laws to eliminate unsafe working conditions: (Hammer, 22)
a. The First Amendment
b. The Tenth Amendment
c. The Thirteenth Amendment
d. The Fourteenth Amendment
4. Which state was first to enact an employers' liability law? (Hammer, 24)
a. Oregon in 1853
b. Alabama in 1885
c. New York in 1906
d. South Dakota in 1916
5. The accepted philosophy during the industrial age was to let natural laws operate by imposing no restrictions. What was this philosophy called? (Hammer, 20)
a. natural economics
b. leave-alone-let-live
c. laissez-faire
d. darwinian economics
6. Which of the following is not one of the four main reasons employees sue their employers? (Hammer, 208)
a. the employer lied to the employee
b. the employer intentionally caused physical injury
c. the employer lied about the employee
d. the employer caused emotional stress
7. Which of the following is not one of the four main reasons employees sue their employers? (McWhirter, 208)
a. the employer lied to the employee
b. the employer unintentionally caused physical injury
c. the employer lied about the employee
d. the employer intentionally caused emotional injury
8. If the employer knew what he was saying to an employee was untrue, it is called? (Hammer, 208)
a. misrepresentation
b. slander
c. liable
d. fraud
9. If the employer did not know what he was saying to an employee was a lie, but didn't try to find out before speaking, it is called? (Hammer, 208)
a. misrepresentation
b. slander
c. liable
d. fraud
10. If the employer has not been careful enough and an accident has resulted, it is called? (Hammer, 208)
a. misrepresentation
b. negligence
c. unintentional injury
d. a violation
Subject Area I. Topic E. Organizational Structure
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. According to Brauer, safety begins in an organization with: (Brauer, p. 517)
a. an audit by OSHA consultants
b. strong first-line supervisor accountability
c. a policy that states the importance of safety
d. a baseline audit of hazards
2. This department has much flexibility in selecting machinery, tools, equipment and materials used in the organization: (NSC, APM-AP, 78)
a. operations
b. human resources
c. purchasing
d. safety
3. Who are the internal customers of the safety function?
a. human resource department
b. all employees in the organization
c. the employer
d. OSHA and workers' compensation insurer
4. Safety policies assign all of the following, except: (Brauer, 517)
a. authority
b. responsibility
c. accountability
d. leadership
5. For most organizations there are two major components, line and _______: (Brauer, 518)
a. group
b. staff
c. support
d. department
6. Which of the following is not considered a primary objective of a safety and health program? (NSC, APM-AP, 74)
a. institute a system of negative reinforcement to secure compliance
b. motivate, educate, and train to identify and correct hazards
c. engineer safe design into machines, tools, equipment
d. comply with established safety and health standards
7. Before any safety and health program can perform effectively, it must: (NSC, APM-AP, 74)
a. gain the commitment of top management and administration
b. gain the support of top management
c. gain the support of administration
d. all of the above
8. Which of the following major organizational components generally take care of business matters such as finance and accounting? (Brauer, 518)
a. sales
b. staff
c. operations
d. line
9. Which of the following is true concerning the staff element? (Brauer, 518)
a. assist and facilitate getting work done
b. have authority over line elements
c. take care of special matters like security
d. may be involved in research and development
10. According to Brauer, safety must: (Brauer, 518)
a. be owned by fist-line supervisors and their employees
b. have authority over line elements
c. be a part of every organizational element
d. report to human resources to be most effective
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. According to Pope, the vary nature and process of management is designed to: (Pope, 3)
a. avoid flawed practices
b. control conditions and behaviors
c. engineer safe design into machines, tools, equipment
d. manage exposure to hazards
2. According to Pope, accidents should be considered: (Pope, 3)
a. lapses in common sense
b. performance errors
c. due to lack of education
d. the final domino
3. According to Pope, to best get managerial interest, safety specialists must give answers to questions that do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Pope, 3)
a. use technical jargon
b. are couched in their language and interests
c. are supported by positive reasoning
d. do not reflect pious pontification
4. According to Pope, managing for error-free performance cannot: (Pope, 3)
a. rely on staff functions
b. involve technicians
c. exist on rule and law alone
d. work with and through systems
5. According to Pope, each of the following is a safety management universal, EXCEPT: (Pope, 4)
a. Industrial excellence is the product of management quality
b. Management quality get things done without operational mishaps
c. Operational mishaps are the results of human error
d. Operational mishaps represent windows of opportunity
6. According to Pope, which of the following is NOT one of the six safety management universals? (Pope, 4)
a. Industrial excellence is the product of sound safety engineering
b. Safety management is an integral part of the total organizational effort
c. Personal harm and property damage are symptoms of operational mishaps
d. Industrial safety is a subject included in degree programs
7. According to Pope, accidents are symptoms of: (Pope, 4)
a. lack of knowledge
b. inadequate enforcement
c. corporate illness
d. industrial disinterest
8. According to Pope, operational errors represent an: (Pope, 5)
a. a sign of fear in the workplace
b. indictment of management's ability to direct and control
c. a signal that employees are ill-trained
d. a message that supervisors are not performing
9. James Pope believes OSHA has overlooked a very important management principle first pointed out by James D. Moody. This principle states that organization begins when: (Pope, 4)
a. people combine their efforts for a given purpose
b. people come together for mutual benefit
c. people have common concerns
d. people see themselves as apart from other groups
10. According to Pope, the systems safety manager must learn how to think and act as a manager with skills to get things done as a: (Pope, 4)
a. consultant, not a cop
b. team member, not a technician
c. advisor, not a inspector
d. people person, not a task master
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. Which of the following is not considered a primary objective of a safety and health program? (NSC, APM-AP, 74)
a. gain and maintain support at all levels
b. motivate, educate, and train to identify and correct hazards
c. engineer safe design into machines, tools, equipment
d. limit OSHA injuries claims to reduce workers' compensation premiums
2. All of these employees are considered the safety eyes and ears, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 76)
a. employee representatives
b. foremen
c. supervisors
d. managers
3. Foremen and employee representatives share responsibility for safety with top management. There responsibilities include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 76)
a. inspect for hazards
b. detect hazards
c. enforce safety rules
d. correct hazards
4. Supervisor safety responsibilities include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 76)
a. evaluate performance
b. encourage compliance
c. oversee employee performance
d. compliance with safety policies and rules
5. 'A messy house can't be a safe house,' describes an idea related to this very important workplace priority: (NSC, APM-AP, 76)
a. corrective intervention
b. preventive maintenance
c. good housekeeping
d. unsafe performance
6. Which of the following is not one of the four main components of effective preventive maintenance? (NSC, APM-AP, 77)
a. scheduling periodic maintenance
b. accurate recordkeeping
c. timely work request submission
d. providing spare parts control
7. Preventive maintenance schedules can be set up based on all of the following factors, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 77)
a. total hours used
b. age of the machine
c. past experience
d. manufacturer's recommendation
8. Employees make the safety and health program work. They are responsible for all of the following behaviors, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 77)
a. reporting injuries
b. compliance
c. disciplining
d. reporting hazards
9. Employees should be introduced to the safety program on their first day of work. According to the National Safety Council, a three-prong approach is most effective. Which of the following is not one of these three-pronged strategies? (NSC, APM-AP, 78)
a. detail management commitment to safety
b. cover general company policies and rules
c. discuss general safety policies and rules
d. Explain specific safety rules
10. Which group represents the greatest deterrent to damage, injuries, and health problems in an organization? (NSC, APM-AP, 78)
a. managers
b. supervisors
c. foremen
d. employees
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. According to Pope, support for the safety function is needed by: (Pope, 11)
a. first-line supervisors
b. top management
c. employees
d. from all line and staff officials
2. According to Pope, which of the following is not one of the three generally accepted operational levels? (Pope, 11)
a. production
b. top management
c. staff
d. executive
3. According to Pope, this organizational level is the inspection area where unsafe acts and conditions are policed: (Pope, 11)
a. line production
b. top management
c. staff services
d. executive
4. According to Pope, managers working at this organizational level have a great deal of indirect control on the line, but do so without authority to command: (Pope, 12)
a. line production
b. top management
c. staff services
d. executive
5. According to Pope, managers working at this organizational level have a number of safety specialists working at various locations: (Pope, 12)
a. line production
b. top management
c. staff services
d. executive
6. This document identifies responsibilities of the safety specialist and are kept in personnel files: (Pope, 14)
a. job analysis
b. position description
c. functional statement
d. performance review
7. This document confers authority to make broad decisions and to engage in safety activities: (Pope, 14)
a. job analysis
b. position description
c. functional statement
d. performance review
8. According to Pope, managers do not admit having _______ as the term is not part of management language: (Pope, 19)
a. common sense
b. mishaps
c. errors
d. accidents
9. According to Pope, safety management is successful when: (Pope, 20)
a. decision-making is mutually binding
b. decision-making is participatory
c. information is widely disseminated
d. all of the above
10. All of the following reflect the new doctrine promoted by Pope and Creswell, EXCEPT: (Pope, 20)
a. Most mistakes reveal administrative oversights
b. Safety is considered important and meaningful to most managers
c. Safety specialists must learn the organization and process of management
d. Causes of operational errors are important when considered management failures
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. According to Pope, this function is primarily responsible for compensation, labor relations, employment, program review, and training: (Pope, 18)
a. Personnel
b. Supply and Logistics
c. Engineering
d. Finance
2. According to Pope, this function is primarily responsible for procurement, contracts, transportation, records, disposal, and administrative services: (Pope, 18)
a. Personnel
b. Supply and Logistics
c. Engineering
d. Finance
3. According to Pope, this function is primarily responsible for design, construction, standards, and repair: (Pope, 18)
a. Personnel
b. Supply and Logistics
c. Engineering
d. Finance
4. According to Pope, this function is primarily responsible for internal auditing, accounting, budget, claims and contract appeals: (Pope, 18)
a. Personnel
b. Supply and Logistics
c. Engineering
d. Finance
5. Which of the following is not one of the Pope's eight safety business activities for serving management? (Pope, 18)
a. prepare and improve plans to improve management
b. plan, direct, and control an intramanagement communications system
c. report findings to functional heads on an ad-hoc basis
d. ensure department heads are held accountable for accident rates
6. Which of the following is not one of the Pope's eight safety business activities for serving management? (Pope, 81)
a. administer the technical control program
b. monitor excessive costs of repairs and maintenance
c. rely on the employee-management safety advisory committee
d. provide the company with a quality-assurance management program
7. Which of the following is not one of the Pope's eight safety business activities for serving management? (Pope, 81)
a. report findings to functional heads on an ad-hoc basis
b. respond and reply to employee complaints in a timely manner
c. train and manage a corps of collateral-duty safety and health specialists
d. identify unreliable production processes and nonconformance problems
8. According to Pope, every manager must know what the business of safety management is in order to: (Pope, 81)
a. improve that manager's own effectiveness
b. rely on safety managers to control the safety function
c. give safety some consideration in making decisions
d. know how to report safety problems
9. According to Pope, what is the effect of considering the industrial employee the principal recipient of safety services? (Pope, 81-82)
a. it leaves management out of the safety equation
b. it results in error-free performance in a top-down structure
c. it places error-free performance at the bottom of the totem pole
d. it ensure root cause analysis is never considered
10. According to Pope, as a staff officer, a safety specialist should not be dealing directly with employees. This is the prerogative of: (Pope, 82)
a. the safety director
b. other customers
c. line managers
d. other employees
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. According to Pope, a well-planned and smartly-directed safety function will get things done by, with and through: (Pope, 81)
a. solid enforcement
b. other managers
c. engineering
d. employees
2. According to Pope, a safety specialist's role with management becomes that of a: (Pope, 81)
a. inspector
b. internal auditor
c. reviewer
d. counselor
3. According to Pope, a safety specialist's job is to: (Pope, 81)
a. treat management as customers
b. evaluate the quality of management
c. advise managers
d. all of the above
4. According to Pope, all of the following reasons explain why employees and first-line supervisors are NOT the safety specialist's only customers? (Pope, 81)
a. they do not provide budgets for safety activities
b. they do not control safety specialist salaries
c. they do not receive services from safety specialists
d. they do not dictate the quality of amount of safety assistance
5. According to Pope, to best obtain top management support, safety specialists must give answers to questions that: (Pope, 82)
a. do not reflect pious pontification
b. are couched in their language and interests
c. are supported by positive reasoning
d. all of the above
6. According to Pope, safety management is successful when: (Pope, 20)
a. decision-making is mutually binding
b. decision-making is participatory
c. information is widely disseminated
d. all of the above
7. Mintzberg (1981) provides an organizational classification that may be useful in application to occupational safety and health. Which of the following is not one of Mintzberg's five classifications? (NSC, OSH, 276)
a. simple structures
b. complex structures
c. machine bureaucracies
d. professional bureaucracies
8. Mintzberg (1981) provides an organizational classification that may be useful in application to occupational safety and health. Which of the following is not one of Mintzberg's five classifications? (NSC, OSH, 276)
a. simple structures
b. divisional forms
c. adhocracies
d. matrix structures
9. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, common in small manufacturing operations, uses direct supervisors and a top person who orchestrates the activities of others: (NSC, OSH, 276)
a. simple structure
b. divisional form
c. adhocracy
d. machine bureaucracy
10. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, classically seen in fast food operations, is characterized by work coordinated through rules, procedures and technology: (NSC, OSH, 276)
a. simple structure
b. divisional form
c. adhocracy
d. machine bureaucracy
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, common in healthcare facilities, relies on the standardized performance of trained employees: (NSC, OSH, 276)
a. simple structure
b. professional bureaucracy
c. adhocracy
d. machine bureaucracy
2. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, used by most Fortune 500 companies, is essentially a series of independent entities loosely integrated by an administrative overlay and common service or product: (NSC, OSH, 276)
a. simple structure
b. professional bureaucracy
c. divisional form
d. machine bureaucracy
3. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, common in consulting and advertising, offers flexible coordinating mechanisms: (NSC, OSH, 276)
a. adhocracy
b. professional bureaucracy
c. divisional form
d. machine bureaucracy
4. Traditionally, this organizational structure is good at introducing innovation: (NSC, OSH, 276)
a. adhocracy
b. professional bureaucracy
c. divisional form
d. machine bureaucracy
5. Studies indicate this organizational structure is better at introducing innovation then a mechanized bureaucracy: (NSC, OSH, 276)
a. adhocracy
b. professional bureaucracy
c. divisional form
d. machine bureaucracy
6. Organizational development attempts to evaluate an organization's ability to adjust to all of the following, except: (NSC, APMA&P, 357)
a. rapid growth
b. new technology
c. management system problems
d. increasing uniformity
7. Organizational development attempts to evaluate an organization's ability to adjust to all of the following, except: (NSC, APMA&P, 357)
a. rapid growth
b. new technology
c. aging workforce
d. increasing diversity
8. Effective organizational development requires: (NSC, APMA&P, 357)
a. a strong organizational culture
b. ability to change rapidly
c. careful manipulation of attitudes
d. honoring a diversity of ideas
9. What is the term used to describe an organizational structure that is preoccupied with people as they work together? (NSC, APMA&P, 357)
a. management system
b. mechanical system
c. organic system
d. dynamic system
10. What is the term used to describe an organizational structure that is preoccupied with the structure of an organization? (NSC, APMA&P, 357)
a. management system
b. mechanical system
c. organic system
d. dynamic system
Subject Area I. Topic F. Training and Development
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. According to According to Herzberg, this is the single strongest motivator:
a. pay
b. status
c. achievement
d. fear
2. Which of the following is not required to do a job safely and efficiently?
a. substantial salary
b. thorough orientation
c. effective training
d. adequate resources
3. According to ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001, this level of evaluation measures what the learner knows and can do immediately after training.
a. Level I, Reaction
b. Level II, Learning
c. Level III, Application
d. Level IV, Business Results
4. Ultimately, the ______________ is accountable to OSHA law to ensure adequate employee safety training:
a. safety manager
b. employer
c. safety committee
d. resource manager
5. Most effective safety training requires all of the following, except:
a. evaluation of knowledge
b. a supportive safety culture
c. demonstration to prove skills
d. appropriate humor during presentation
6. Which of the following is a critical requirement to help make sure safety training is effective?
a. Support from supervisors and top executive management
b. A safety manager with a good sense of humor
c. A training staff with at least 10 years of experience
d. Have only outside trainers for safety and health issues
7. The primary purpose of safety training is:
a. to help ensure safe performance
b. to increase awareness
c. to comply with OSHA
d. to improve reputation
8. To be successful, safety training must include all of the following, except:
a. management commitment
b. slides and videos
c. adequate funding
d. integration into operations training
9. Which of the following is not an appropriate use for safety training records?
a. to prove compliance
b. to defend in a lawsuit
c. to prove employee is ill-prepared
d. to evaluate the training program
10. Which of the following is least effective use of safety training program?
a. to educate new employees on company safety policies
b. to train employees on safe procedures and practices
c. to retrain employees whenever they violate safety rules
d. to educate employees on the importance of safe behavior
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. The first step in training process occurs by asking what question?
a. what are the costs?
b. how much time will it take?
c. can the problem be solved by training?
d. how will the training affect productivity?
2. A learning objective states:
a. what the training process will be like
b. what learners will gain
c. what trainers will do in the training process
d. what learners will be able to do at the end of training
3. Safety education helps us understand the _______ consequences of performance:
a. positive and negative
b. contingent and natural
c. possible, actual
d. short-term and long-term
4. In this OJT step the trainee becomes familiar with each step of the job and why it is important:
a. introduction
b. trainer show and tell
c. learner show and tell
d. conclusion
5. Documenting training on safe work procedures should include:
a. student and instructor signatures
b. statement of intent to comply
c. statement of competency
d. all of the above
6. Education may be thought of as anything that affects our ________, ___________ and _________ (KSA's):
a. skills, karma, associations
b. knowledge, skills, attitudes
c. knowledge, skills, abilities
d. b or c above
7. According to ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001, this level of evaluation measures the impact of safety training on profitability:
a. Level II, Learning
b. Level III, Application
b. Level IV, Business Results
d. Level V, Return on Investment
8. According to the text, an effective learning objective contains all of the following, except:
a. It states the target learner attitude toward the subject
b. It states an observable behavior/action
c. It states a time limit within which the performance will occur.
d. It states a quantifiable level of acceptable performance.
9. According to the text, to most effectively relate or connect with the audience, the instructor should be similar to the audience in every respect, except:
a. language
b. expertise
c. dress
d. age
10. Which one of the following is not a basic strategy to consider in sequencing the course content in safety training?
a. general to the specific
b. simple to complex
c. practical to theoretical
d. step by step
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. If employees are not following the procedures and practices they learned in training, this is the likely root cause:
a. lack of motivation
b. poor worker attitude
c. non-supportive safety culture
d. pressure from supervisor
2. According to ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001, this level of evaluation measures what the learner thought about the training received:
a. Level I, Reaction
b. Level II, Learning
c. Level III, Application
d. Level IV, Business Results
3. If employees are not consistently following the procedures and practices they learned in training, this is the likely cause:
a. unfair discipline
b. poor worker attitude
c. lack of supervisor support
d. job review
4. Which of the following are appropriate questions to ask if it appears training did not give employees the level of knowledge and skill expected?
a. was content unnecessary?
b. was something missing?
c. was material confusing?
d. all of the above
5. It's important that the training change or test be conducted on a small scale to:
a. limit variables
b. decrease entropy
c. increase randomness
d. reduce control
6. Which of the following is the least direct method of evaluating the impact of training on the learner?
a. supervisor observation
b. written tests
c. student reaction sheet
d. workplace improvement
7. According to ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001, this level of evaluation measures what the learner knows and can do on the job:
a. Level I, Reaction
b. Level II, Learning
c. Level III, Application
d. Level IV, Business Results
8. This level of evaluation measures the performance of the training event by gathering data from students and others about the quality of the training event:
a. Level I, Reaction
b. Level II, Learning
c. Level III, Application
d. Level IV, Business Results
9. As a safety trainer, one of the best ways you can help to protect your employer is to ensure:
a. attendance rosters
b. adequate accountability
c. strong documentation
d. OSHA avoidance
10. In most instances, for technical safety training, documentation should be:
a. reviewed for accuracy
b. retained for at least three years
c. a formal attendance roster
d. a formal certification
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Maintaining adequate training records can do all of the following, except:
a. ensure training was effective
b. verify training was conducted
c. defend against negligence claims
d. provide evidence of effort
2. To make sure training is presented so that its organization and meaning are clear, you should do all of the following, except:
a. reinforce by summarizing
b. relate new information to goals
c. present personal opinion
d. provide overview of material
3. Relating the training to the interests, skills and experiences of employees will help do all of the following, except:
a. ensure employees pay attention
b. improve skills
c. improve knowledge
d. motivate employees
4. Which of the following is the primary reason to use color in the various forms of training media?
a. improve attitudes
b. improve skills
c. improve knowledge
d. increased motivation to pay attention
5. Which of the following will help a trainer make sure he or she comprehends what the student is asking?
a. replay the question
b. rephrase the question
c. repeat the question
d. respond to the question
6. Hostility in the training situation is, ultimately, an outward manifestation of inward apprehension or fear. Which strategy might best be used by a trainer to reduce apprehension in a non-judgmental way?
a. determine root causes
b. feel felt found response
c. take a break
d. hold your ground
7. To ensure employees transfer the adequate knowledge and skills from the learning activity to the job, the learning situation should:
a. actualize the learner
b. compartmentalize the learning
c. simulate the job
d. stimulate the learner
8. If the lesson does not unfold in a building, reinforcing way, which of the following training strategies most likely needs improvement?
a. media
b. objectives
c. sequencing
d. logistics
9. This training strategy is considered the best overall method in demonstrating adequate knowledge and skill to perform procedures and practices:
a. Job Safety Analysis (JSA)
b. On the Job Training (OJT)
c. Task Analysis (TA)
d. Classroom Training
10. Computer-based training (CBT) is growing in popularity because employees can fit short training sessions into their busy schedules at work or at home. To best meet the intent of OSHA law, CBT must:
a. be intuitive in its presentation
b. provided in both html and pdf formats
c. assure timely feedback
d. opportunity for student-trainer interaction
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. These guidelines require goals and objectives be written for safety training:
a. ORS 654.1200
b. NFPA 234.003-2
c. ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001
d. OAR 437-001-0760
2. Which of the following statements is considered a good example of a training goal?
a. Increase appreciation for safety in the workplace
b. Present the elements of a safety management system
c. Learn how to complete an accident investigation procedure
d. Students will be able to identify respirator defects
3. Which of the following statements is considered a good example of a learning goal?
a. Show students how to conduct a safety inspection
b. Inform employees about the company's safety policies and rules
c. Learn how to complete an accident investigation
d. Teach new employees how to insert ear plugs
4. Which of the five criteria for learning objectives is missing from the following statement? At the end of training, when asked by the instructor, the student will know all steps of the oil spill cleanup procedure.
a. condition
b. performer
c. action
d. standard
5. Which of the five criteria for learning objectives is missing from the following statement? At the end of training, each employee will be able to select the most appropriate respirator for the task.
a. condition
b. performer
c. action
d. standard
6. Which of the five criteria for learning objectives is missing from the following statement? At the end of training, when presented with a requirement to perform a simulated lockout/tagout procedure, each employee will be able to perform the lockout/tagout procedure.
a. condition
b. performer
c. action
d. standard
7. Which of the five criteria for learning objectives is missing from the following statement? At the end of training, when presented with a requirement to perform a simulated lockout/tagout procedure, correctly perform all steps of the lockout/tagout procedure.
a. condition
b. performer
c. action
d. standard
8. If the problem is one that can be solved, in whole or in part, by training then the next step is to:
a. determine what training is needed
b. determine if non-training solutions are needed
c. determine who is responsible for training
d. determine if OSHA requires the training
9. It is important to conduct the needs assessment process to gather information about the learner and the task so that the trainer can:
a. meet specific learner wants
b. design appropriate training
c. satisfy employer needs
d. best comply with OSHA
10. The first step in the training process is a basic one; to determine ____:
a. employee and task needs
b. the subject of training
c. if adequate time is available
d. if a problem can be solved by training
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. No amount of training is likely to reduce workplace risk unless you make it ____:
a. a higher priority than production
b. interesting to learners
c. the responsibility of the safety committee
d. part of a sound safety management system
2. Before determining if a discrepancy is caused by a lack of knowledge, skills or abilities, the trainer needs to: (Mager, p. 32)
a. describe the actual safety performance
b. retest the employee
c. interview the employee
d. consider non-training options
3. Which of the following actions should be accomplished after a trainer determines a substandard performance is not caused by a lack of knowledge, skills or abilities? (Mager, p. 32)
a. describe the actual safety performance
b. retest the employee
c. interview the employee
d. consider non-training options
4. If, after interviewing the employee, the trainer determines an employee has not performed the task before, the trainer needs to: (Mager, p. 32)
a. conduct a practice session
b. conduct formal training
c. merely provide feedback
d. analyze training resources
5. If an employee demonstrates lack of knowledge or skill in accomplishing a task that is rarely performed, an appropriate response would be to: (Mager, p. 32)
a. analyze resources
b. provide feedback
c. conduct formal training
d. conduct practice
6. According the Mager's Performance Analysis Flowchart, if an employee demonstrates lack of knowledge or skill in accomplishing a task that is accomplished often, an appropriate response would be to: (Mager, p. 32)
a. analyze resources
b. provide feedback
c. conduct formal training
d. conduct practice
7. According the Mager's Performance Analysis Flowchart, if a an employee does not exhibit a deficiency of knowledge or skill in accomplishing a task, all of the following non-training options may be appropriate solutions to the performance discrepancy, except: (Mager, p. 32)
a. resources
b. feedback
c. education
d. consequences
8. This management system performance failure may take various forms such as management pressure to work fast, inadequate personal protective equipment, or defective tools:
a. failure to provide resources
b. failure to provide adequate supervision
c. failure to provide adequate enforcement
d. failure to provide adequate leadership
9. An employee performance discrepancy may be caused by a non-training failure. Ignoring safety violations represent this safety management system performance failure:
a. failure to provide resources
b. failure to provide adequate supervision
c. failure to provide adequate enforcement
d. failure to provide adequate leadership
10. A performance discrepancy may be caused by a non-training failure. Failing to detect and correct hazards when identified is an example of this safety management system performance failure:
a. failure to provide resources
b. failure to provide adequate supervision
c. failure to provide adequate enforcement
d. failure to provide adequate leadership
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. When a hazardous procedure or practice is trained, when is the trainer required to evaluate the employee's knowledge and skills?
a. after exposure to actual hazards
b. before exposure to actual hazards
c. during exposure to actual hazards
d. if OSHA standards mandate
2. To ensure the goals of safety training are met, line managers must be able to do all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 365)
a. be trained and be able to train using safe and efficient methods
b. ensure others are assigned to conduct effective training
c. support organizational health and safety policies and procedures
d. be trained in proper methods of leadership and supervision
3. The responsibility for safety and health training typically falls upon: (NSC, APM-A&P, 365)
a. first line supervisors
b. human resource managers
c. safety and health professionals
d. consultants
4. It is important that safety managers work with all levels of management for all of the following reasons, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 365)
a. adequate
b. timely
c. accurate
d. mandatory
5. There are several ways safety professionals can identify training needs. Which of the following is not one of them? (NSC, APM-A&P, 365)
a. stay current on new or revised regulatory standards
b. analyze inspection reports
c. review accident investigation reports
d. review litigation cases
6. All of the following are considered by the NSC as proactive methods for determining training needs, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)
a. conduct surveys and safety audits
b. review safety inspection reports
c. requests by other managers
d. employee opinion surveys and interviews
7. Safety training is best used only to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)
a. improve a knowledge or skill deficiency
b. enforce safety rules
c. improve poor worker attitudes
d. correct poor engineering
8. Safety training is least effective when used to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)
a. improve a knowledge or skill deficiency
b. enforce safety rules
c. improve poor worker attitudes
d. correct poor engineering
9. Safety training policy statements should: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)
a. take priority over other operational training policies
b. written to work together with other company policies
c. be written as independent stand-alone documents
d. focus on employee and supervisor training
10. Effective safety training policies will: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)
a. usually take precedence over production schedules
b. unavoidably compete with other production-related training
c. define training for all levels of the organization
d. design safety training as the first response to unsafe behaviors
Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. Workers will more likely consider safety as a part of operations when the safety training budget: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)
a. is included as part of the human resource department budget
b. is controlled by safety and health committees
c. is divided into separate accounts
d. is combined with other training programs
2. The decision to train workers in safety is made by: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)
a. comparing the cost of training against the cost of no training
b. determining OSHA training requirements
c. analyzing accident history
d. weighing probability, exposure, and severity risks
3. Adequate safety training budgets will provide all the following elements of a strong safety training program, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)
a. providing adequate recordkeeping
b. meeting all regulatory requirements
c. planning training needs after an accident occurs
d. eliminating or controlling known hazards
4. Safety training records will include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)
a. identify instructors
b. disciplinary history
c. content and methods of instruction
d. results of training effectiveness
5. Safety training records are especially valuable for which of the following purposes? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)
a. demonstrate the comprehensive nature of training to lawyers
b. identify strengths and weaknesses of the safety program
c. to fulfill legal obligations
d. all of the above
6. A safety training program is needed under all of the following conditions, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)
a. when disciplinary is required
b. for all new or reassigned employees
c. when new equipment or processes
d. when employee performance needs improvement
7. A safety training program is needed under all of the following conditions, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)
a. whenever procedures are revised
b. when new information is available or required
c. when employees are introduced to workplace hazards
d. whenever employees register an unsubstantiated safety complaint
8. When an employee is transferred within a facility, which of the following training is least likely to be required? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)
a. applicable material safety data sheets
b. location of safety equipment
c. evacuation procedures
d. use of fire extinguishers
9. Which of the following is not necessarily a symptom that safety training is needed? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367-368)
a. high employee turnover
b. increasing accident rates
c. increased number of safety suggestions
d. higher accident rates than industry average
10. Which of the following is not necessarily a symptom that safety training may be needed? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367-368)
a. increase in the rate of hazard reporting
b. excessive waste or scrap materials
c. changing regulatory requirements
d. lower job satisfaction
Practice Questions - Bank 9
1. Which of the following is not necessarily a symptom that safety training may be needed? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367-368)
a. single violation of a safety rule
b. low compliance rates
c. new job procedures
d. changes in work assignment
2. The first step in developing a safety training program is to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 368)
a. identify learner needs
b. write curriculum
c. determine learning activities
d. develop operational objectives
3. This is often referred to as a blueprint for training: (NSC, APM-A&P, 368)
a. training policy
b. lesson plan
c. operational objective
d. training goal
4. On-the-job training (OJT) is widely used because: (NSC, APM-A&P, 370)
a. no formal lesson plan is required
b. the cost of training is minimal
c. it allows the worker to produce during the training
d. a material data safety sheet can be used
5. For on-the-job training (OJT) to be successful, which of the following must be present or occur? (NSC, APM-A&P, 370)
a. a detailed written script to ensure consistency
b. the trainer must possess adequate knowledge and skills
c. available classroom and media
d. the trainer must be a lead-person or supervisor
6. A popular variation to on-the-job training is called: (NSC, APM-A&P, 370)
a. just-in-time training (JIT)
b. job instruction training (JIT)
c. formal classroom training
d. walkaround tour training
7. These training strategies are used to encourage participation from a selected audience: (NSC, APM-A&P, 371)
a. case studies
b. conference methods
c. group techniques
d. brainstorming
8. This training method is widely used in business and industry because it bring the knowledge of each participant to the group: (NSC, APM-A&P, 371)
a. case study
b. conference method
c. group technique
d. brainstorming
9. This training technique encourages each participant to present many ideas on a specific issue: (NSC, APM-A&P, 372)
a. case study
b. conference method
c. group technique
d. brainstorming
10. This training technique involves the use of an actual or fictitious situation to improve problem-solving skills: (NSC, APM-A&P, 373)
a. case study
b. conference method
c. group technique
d. brainstorming
Practice Questions - Bank 10
1. This is a case study method, the group works with a written account of an incident: (NSC, APM-A&P, 373)
a. accident investigation
b. incident process
c. normative case study
d. case study process
2. This training method allows small groups to exchange ideas and concerns among workers: (NSC, APM-A&P, 373)
a. discussion
b. incident process
c. brainstorming
d. role play
3. This training method is used when actual materials or machines are not available: (NSC, APM-A&P, 373)
a. discussion
b. incident process
c. brainstorming
d. simulation
4. This training method is normally used to present facts, motivate, or summarize: (NSC, APM-A&P, 374)
a. discussion
b. lecture
c. brainstorming
d. role play
5. This training method can be used so that workers can clarify individual concerns or points of fact: (NSC, APM-A&P, 374)
a. discussion
b. lecture
c. question and answer
d. role play
6. This training method uses practice and repetition to further develop workers skill in job tasks: (NSC, APM-A&P, 374)
a. discussion
b. lecture
c. question and answer
d. drill
7. Advantages of computer assisted training include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 375)
a. work at your own time
b. rich student-instructor interaction
c. correct answers are required to proceed
d. records are automatically kept
8. Which of the following is a major advantage of the independent home-study or correspondence courses? (NSC, APM-A&P, 375)
a. instructor-student discussion
b. worker is able to interact with others
c. worker does not lose time at work
d. work can drill at own pace
9. During training, workers will most likely reflect the attitude of which of the following? (NSC, APM-A&P, 375)
a. instructor
b. supervisor
c. spouse
d. coworkers
10. Safety training is most effective when it is provided: (NSC, APM-A&P, 376)
a. quarterly
b. annually
c. as OSHA mandates
d. continually
ANSWER KEYS: AREA I.
Area I. A. Finance
Bank 1
1. c. 26.6%
2. c. mutual
3. d. maximizing profits
4. c. history of losses or safety costs
5. b. variable costs
6. a. fixed costs
7. d. total costs
8. c. break even point
9. b. natural consequences
10. b. ability
Bank 2
1. c. finance
2. b. financial management
3. d. managerial accountant
4. c. finance officer
5. d. return on costs (ROC)
6. a. profitability and viability
7. b. risk, profit
8. b. profit
9. d. solvency
10. b. tangible or intangible
Bank 3
1. d. tangible
2. b. intangible
3. c. liabilities
4. a. money owed to equity
5. c. equity
6. b. efficiency
7. b. assets = liabilities plus stockholders' equity
8. b. liability
9. c. balance sheet
10. d. a and c above
Bank 4
1. b. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)
2. c. eliminating
3. a. liberalism
4. b. separating
5. d. subjectiveness
6. c. going concern
7. a. conservatism
8. d. matching
9. b. cost
10. b. objectivity
Bank 5
1. c. materiality
2. d. consistency
3. a. full discloser
4. b. historical or acquisition cost
5. a. net realizable value
6. c. future profits
7. d. replacement cost
8. c. short-term obligations
9. d. long-term obligations
10. a. non-monetary obligations
Bank 6
1. c. materiality
2. d. consistency
3. a. full discloser
4. b. historical or acquisition cost
5. a. net realizable value
6. c. future profits
7. d. replacement cost
8. c. short-term obligations
9. d. long-term obligations
10. a. non-monetary obligations
Bank 7
1. c. limited partnership
2. d. double taxation
3. a. risk
4. b. higher
5. c. systematic risk
6. a. break-even point
7. b. liabilities plus stockholders' equity
Area I. B. Cost Accounting
Bank 1
1. c. risk assessment
2. d. cost in terms of injury-free days
3. d. litigation expenses
4. b. enforce safety rules
5. d. increased workers' compensation premiums
6. c. dollars per $100 of pay
7. a. cost of accidents
8. a. uninsured costs
9. c. restricted duty cases
10. b. workers compensation pay for lost work time
Bank 2
1. c. if extra equipment and work space is required
2. a. cost
3. b. gross benefits
4. a. cost-benefit analysis
5. c. 20,000 units
6. b. 1458%
7. a. .4
8. b. investment
9. c. $192,000
10. d. number of days to cover loss
Bank 3
1. b. money
2. b. shown in dollars
3. b. workplace violence is increasing
4. d. the fact that accidents are expensive
5. a. absorbing OSHA penalties is less expensive than safety investments
6. b. insurance and uninsured costs
7. b. leading, training
8. c. uninsured
9. a. near-miss cases
10. c. workers do not exceed normal production to make up for lost production
Bank 4
1. a. subtract the original cost from the salvage value and depreciation
2. c. $4,900
3. a. 7
4. b. all days not covered by workers' compensation payments
5. a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workers
6. d. miscellaneous unusual costs
7. b. cost of hiring new employee
8. d. loss of profit on idle machines or workers
9. a. cost of subsequent injuries
10. b. not of great importance
Area 1.C. Employee Relations/HR
Bank 1
1. a. dissonance
2. c. evaluative
3. a. supportive
4. d. behavior
5. b. job involvement
6. c. personality
7. a. authoritarianism
8. d. risk propensity
9. b. perception
10. a. behavior
Bank 2
1. c. stereotyping
2. a. law of effect
3. c. manipulate variables causing inappropriate behavior
4. c. halo effect
5. d. three-needs theory
6. b. safety and health committee
7. c. a motivation
8. a. a need
9. d. Theory Y
10. a. initial training
Bank 3
1. c. Theory X
2. a. Hierarchy of Needs Theory
3. c. achievement-oriented
4. d. anticipated consequences
5. c. factors that eliminate dissatisfaction
6. a. need for safety (nSaf)
7. d. manage unique needs
8. c. a reinforcer
9. c. increase
10. a. past experiences and the emotions they provoke
Bank 4
1. a. put into it
2. a. reinforcement
3. c. ignore undesired behaviors
4. b. probability-value linkage
5. a. supportive
6. c. finding a simpler way to do a job
7. c. achievement-oriented
8. a. goal conflict
9. d. duration
10. b. install a reward system
Bank 5
1. c. practice
2. d. operational objectives
3. c. customer-supplier relationship
4. a. important
5. b. primacy
6. d. meaningfulness
7. c. frequency will decrease
8. c. intensity
9. b. selective learning
10. d. experienced responsibility
Bank 6
1. a. reinforcement
2. d. frequency
3. b. self-actualization
4. b. knowledge of results
5. d. transfer of learning
6. d. all of the above
7. b. recall
8. c. external, imposed
9. d. average-person fallacy
10. c. internal
Area 1.D. Ethics and Law
Bank 1
1. b. The quality of being in accord with a profession's ethics.
2. c. Always right or good moral conduct.
3. b. carefully sifts facts and examines their implications
4. a. Ethics are relative to the general conditions
5. c. naive relativism
6. b. role relativism
7. d. industry best practices
8. a. There are universal absolutes in every culture
9. c. utilitarianism
10. c. utilitarianism
Bank 2
1. b. joint tort
2. d. ultrahazardous operations
3. d. assumption of risk
4. a. tort
5. d. antecedents, belief, belief, behavior
6. b. relationship, activities
7. d. social responsibility
8. a. social contract
9. c. The Iron Law of Responsibility
10. b. Short term limitation of regulation
Bank 3
1. d. invisible hand
2. b. subversive doctrine
3. a. paying taxes
4. d. a and b above
5. c. malfeasance
6. b. Criminal
7. d. Code of Hammurabi
8. d. a and c above
9. b. royalty laws
10. b. United States Code
Bank 4
1. a. 102nd
2. d. Williams-Steiger
3. b. authorization and appropriations
4. c. provides the money for the regulatory activities
5. b. limit appropriations to the governing agency
6. a. Code of Federal Regulations
7. b. congressional proclamations
8. d. notifies the public
9. a. with one or more employees
10. c. are as effective as the federal program
Bank 5
1. c. temporary review standards
2. a. consensus
3. c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become effective.
4. a. workplace and other studies
5. b. Business Liability Act
6. b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate specific rule.
7. a. compliance poses a financial burden
8. d. the unsafe practice did not cause injury
9. c. general
10. d. employer ability to pay
Bank 6
1. a. nullify rules
2. d. all of the above
3. d. a and b above
4. c. willful violations of the general duty clause
5. a. challenge the abatement remedy
6. c. adverse treatment was the substantial cause
7. a. trade secret information
8. c. thank the attorney but decline the offer
9. d. Equality of the consideration
10. a. tort
Bank 7
1. a. Civil law deals with persons and organizations
2. c. United States Code (USC)
3. a. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
4. d. answers a and b above
5. c. malfeasance
6. d. all of the above
7. a. reasonable care
8. b. great care
9. d. slight care
10. c. due care
Bank 8
1. b. foreseeability
2. d. foreseeability applied to the premises
3. b. laissez-faire
4. a. autonomy
5. d. all of the above
6. c. beneficence
7. b. compensatory damages
8. c. punitive damages
9. b. safe premises
10. c. dangerous instrumentality
Bank 9
1. b. standard of reasonable prudence
2. c. proximate cause
3. c. proximate cause
4. a. liability
5. c. strict liability
6. b. negligence
7. c. negligence perse
8. d. gross negligence
9. a. willful conduct
10. a. reckless conduct
Bank 10
1. b. contributory negligence
2. c. master-servant relationship
3. d. The Fourteenth Amendment
4. b. Alabama in 1885
5. c. laissez-faire
6. d. the employer caused emotional stress
7. b. the employer unintentionally caused physical injury
8. d. fraud
9. a. misrepresentation
10. b. negligence
Area 1.E. Organization Structure
Bank 1
1. c. a policy that states the importance of safety
2. c. purchasing
3. b. all employees in the organization
4. d. leadership
5. b. staff
6. a. institute a system of negative reinforcement to secure compliance
7. a. gain the commitment of top management and administration
8. b. staff
9. b. have authority over line elements
10. c. be a part of every organizational element
Bank 2
1. a. avoid flawed practices
2. b. performance errors
3. a. use technical jargon
4. c. exist on rule and law alone
5. c. Operational mishaps are the results of human error
6. a. Industrial excellence is the product of sound safety engineering
7. c. corporate illness
8. b. indictment of management's ability to direct and control
9. a. people combine their efforts for a given purpose
10. b. team member, not a technician
Bank 3
1. d. limit OSHA injuries claims to reduce workers' compensation premiums
2. d. managers
3. c. enforce safety rules
4. b. encourage compliance
5. c. good housekeeping
6. c. timely work request submission
7. a. total hours used
8. c. disciplining
9. a. detail management commitment to safety
10. d. employees
Bank 4
1. d. from all line and staff officials
2. b. top management
3. a. line production
4. c. staff services
5. c. staff services
6. b. position description
7. c. functional statement
8. d. accidents
9. d. all of the above
10. b. Safety is considered important and meaningful to most managers
Bank 5
1. a. Personnel
2. b. Supply and Logistics
3. c. Engineering
4. d. Finance
5. d. ensure department heads are held accountable for accident rates
6. c. rely on the employee-management safety advisory committee
7. b. respond and reply to employee complaints in a timely manner
8. a. improve that manager's own effectiveness
9. c. it places error-free performance at the bottom of the totem pole
10. c. line managers
Bank 6
1. b. other managers
2. d. counselor
3. d. all of the above
4. c. they do not receive services from safety specialists
5. d. all of the above
6. d. all of the above
7. b. complex structures
8. d. matrix structures
9. a. simple structure
10. d. machine bureaucracy
Bank 7
1. b. professional bureaucracy
2. c. divisional form
3. c. divisional form
4. d. machine bureaucracy
5. a. adhocracy
6. d. increasing uniformity
7. c. aging workforce
8. a. a strong organizational culture
9. c. organic system
10. b. mechanical system
Area 1.F. Training and Development
Bank 1
1. c. achievement
2. a. substantial salary
3. b. Level II, Learning
4. b. employer
5. d. appropriate humor during presentation
6. a. Support from supervisors and top executive management
7. a. to help ensure safe performance
8. b. slides and videos
9. c. to prove employee is ill-prepared
10. c. to retrain employees whenever they violate safety rules
Bank 2
1. c. can the problem be solved by training?
2. d. what learners will be able to do at the end of training
3. a. positive and negative
4. b. trainer show and tell
5. d. all of the above
6. d. b or c above
7. d. Level V, Return on Investment
8. a. It states the target learner attitude toward the subject
9. b. expertise
10. c. practical to theoretical
Bank 3
1. c. non-supportive safety culture
2. a. Level I, Reaction
3. c. lack of supervisor support
4. d. all of the above
5. a. limit variables
6. d. workplace improvement
7. c. Level III, Application
8. a. Level I, Reaction
9. c. strong documentation
10. d. a formal certification
Bank 4
1. a. ensure training was effective
2. c. present personal opinion
3. a. ensure employees pay attention
4. d. increased motivation to pay attention
5. b. rephrase the question
6. b. feel felt found response
7. c. simulate the job
8. c. sequencing
9. b. On the Job Training (OJT)
10. d. opportunity for student-trainer interaction
Bank 5
1. c. ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001
2. b. Present the elements of a safety management system
3. c. Learn how to complete an accident investigation
4. c. action
5. a. condition
6. d. standard
7. b. performer
8. a. determine what training is needed
9. b. design appropriate training
10. d. if a problem can be solved by training
Bank 6
1. d. part of a sound safety management system
2. c. interview the employee
3. d. consider non-training options
4. b. conduct formal training
5. d. conduct practice
6. b. provide feedback
7. c. education
8. d. failure to provide adequate leadership
9. c. failure to provide adequate enforcement
10. b. failure to provide adequate supervision
Bank 7
1. b. before exposure to actual hazards
2. b. ensure others are assigned to conduct effective training
3. c. safety and health professionals
4. d. mandatory
5. d. review litigation cases
6. c. requests by other managers
7. a. improve a knowledge or skill deficiency
8. b. enforce safety rules
9. b. written to work together with other company policies
10. c. define training for all levels of the organization
Bank 8
1. d. is combined with other training programs
2. a. comparing the cost of training against the cost of no training
3. c. planning training needs after an accident occurs
4. b. disciplinary history
5. d. all of the above
6. a. when disciplinary is required
7. d. whenever employees register an unsubstantiated safety complaint
8. d. use of fire extinguishers
9. c. increased number of safety suggestions
10. a. increase in the rate of hazard reporting
Bank 9
1. a. single violation of a safety rule
2. a. identify learner needs
3. b. lesson plan
4. c. it allows the worker to produce during the training
5. b. the trainer must possess adequate knowledge and skills
6. b. job instruction training (JIT)
7. c. group techniques
8. b. conference method
9. d. brainstorming
10. a. case study
Bank 10
1. b. incident process
2. a. discussion
3. d. simulation
4. b. lecture
5. c. question and answer
6. d. drill
7. b. rich student-instructor interaction
8. c. worker does not lose time at work
9. b. supervisor
10. d. continually
C S H M
Certified Safety Health Manager Exam
STUDY GUIDE
Area II Management Theory and Methods
Questions and Answer Key
Subject Area II. Topic A. SMBO/TQM Principles
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. This management principle is defined by Odiorne as 'a process whereby superior and subordinate managers jointly identify common goals, define responsibilities in terms of expected results, and use measures to assess the contribution of its members': (Petersen, SM, 274)
a. Behavioral-Based Management (BBM)
b. Total Quality Management (TQM)
c. Management by Wandering Around (MBWA)
d. Management by Objectives (MBO)
2. Which of the statements below is not one of the key activities used in the MBO process? (Petersen, SM, 274)
a. define responsibilities in terms of expected results
b. jointly identify common goals
c. measure results using process indicators
d. assess the contribution of each member
3. It is important to understand the difference in the meaning of 'injury' and 'accident' to assure: (Grimaldi & Simons, 13)
a. the terms are not used interchangeably
b. the proper orienting safety management objectives
c. statistical accuracy
d. all of the above
4. Webster defines this term as, 'an event or condition occurring by chance or arising from an unknown or remote cause:' (Grimaldi & Simons, 15)
a. incident
b. injury
c. accident
d. mishap
5. Which of the following is not listed by Dan Petersen as a step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)
a. obtain management-supervision agreement
b. give each supervisor and opportunity to perform
c. give supervisors an opportunity to practice
d. help, guide, and train
6. Which of the following is not listed by Dan Petersen as a step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)
a. obtain management-supervision agreement
b. give selected supervisors and opportunity to perform
c. give supervisors feedback
d. reward according to progress
7. Which of the following is not listed by Dan Petersen as a step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)
a. give each supervisor and opportunity to perform
b. give supervisors feedback
c. withhold help until requested
d. reward according to progress
8. Which of the following is not listed by Dan Petersen as a step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)
a. give each supervisor and opportunity to perform
b. give supervisors feedback
c. help, guide, and train
d. reward once objectives are achieved
9. Which of the following is not discussed by Dan Petersen as a critical step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)
a. get agreement on results objectives only
b. provide regular, current, and pertinent feedback
c. provide technical and managerial assistance
d. a reward system that is geared to the progress made
10. Which of the following is not discussed by Dan Petersen as a necessary step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)
a. get agreement on results and activity objectives
b. provide feedback at least quarterly
c. provide technical and managerial assistance
d. a reward system that is geared to the progress made
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. According to Dan Petersen, during this decade, safety professionals started seriously thinking, for the first time, in management terms: (Petersen, SM, 4)
a. 1930's
b. 1940's
c. 1950's
d. 1960's
2. According to Dan Petersen, this decade saw the onset of the OSHA Era: (Petersen, SM, 5)
a. 1950's
b. 1960's
c. 1970's
d. 1980's
3. Which of the following is not discussed by Dan Petersen as an important step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)
a. get agreement on results and activity objectives
b. provide regular, current, and pertinent feedback
c. provide technical and managerial assistance
d. a reward system emphasizes recognition of achieved objectives
4. Which of the following is not considered by Petersen as an advantage of SBO? (Petersen, SM, 280)
a. brings goal-directed behavior
b. assures viable accountability for achievement
c. fosters participation in the safety program
d. incorporates response tools
5. Each of the following is considered by Petersen as an advantage of SBO, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 280)
a. brings process-directed behavior
b. provides current, immediate, relevant reinforcement
c. fosters participation in the safety program
d. incorporates response tools
6. Each of the following is considered by Petersen as an advantage of SBO, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 280)
a. facilitates planning in safety
b. provides current, immediate, relevant reinforcement
c. fosters participation in the safety program
d. does not rely on supervisor creativity
7. Which of the following is not considered by Petersen as an advantage of SBO? (Petersen, SM, 280)
a. brings goal-directed behavior
b. uses established traditional techniques
c. fosters participation in the safety program
d. incorporates response tools
8. Which of the following is not considered by Petersen as an advantage of SBO? (Petersen, SM, 280)
a. brings goal-directed behavior
b. facilitates planning in safety
c. doesn't rely on creativity
d. incorporates response tools
9. According to Dan Petersen, the Human Era was ushered in at some time after this era: (Petersen, SM, 7)
a. Noise Era
b. Industrial Hygiene Era
c. OSHA Era
d. Accountability Era
10. What is a safety process?
a. It assures continuous improvement and employee participation
b. It converts system inputs into system outputs
c. Anything that satisfies customers
d. Anything that causes change
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. Which of the following is not considered by Petersen as an advantage of SBO? (Petersen, SM, 280)
a. fosters compliant goal-setting
b. taps human resources
c. brings goal-directed behavior
d. it incorporates response tools
2. This technique, popularized by Dan Petersen, is a systematic method of measuring accident prevention effort: (Petersen, TSM, 95)
a. SMBO
b. SCRAPE
c. SQTM
d. TSM
3. According to W. Edwards Deming, this cause category is responsible for 94 percent of total variation: (Mears, QIT&T, 68)
a. special variations
b. common variations
c. surface variations
d. root variations
4. The 'SCRAPE' rate indicates the amount of work done by a supervisor and by the company to: (Petersen, TSM, 95)
a. assure compliance within a given period
b. inspect and correct hazards within a given period
c. observe critical behaviors within a given period
d. prevent accidents within a given period
5. The first step in the 'SCRAPE' process is to: (Petersen, TSM, 95)
a. determine specifically what line managers are to do
b. develop goals and objectives to measure
c. meet to seek agreement on objectives to be measured
d. write an effective plan prior to action
6. According to Dan Petersen, the Accountability Era was in full swing during which decade? (Petersen, SM, 7)
a. 1950's
b. 1960's
c. 1970's
d. 1980's
7. Under the 'SCRAPE' process, managers are interested in prioritizing what supervisors will do in each of the following activity categories, except: (Petersen, TSM, 95)
a. orienting new employees
b. enforcing regulatory standards
c. training or coaching people
d. writing safety policy
8. Under the 'SCRAPE' process, managers are interested in prioritizing what supervisors will do in each of the following activity categories, except: (Petersen, TSM, 95)
a. conducting physical inspections of the department
b. enforcing regulatory standards
c. training or coaching people
d. investigating accidents
9. The value of Petersen's 'SCRAPE' process rests in its ability to: (Petersen, TSM, 97)
a. measures the lack of safety after an accident occurs
b. pressures supervisors to achieve measures objectives
c. measure safety activity before an accident occurs
d. relies on management measurement rather than employee compliance
10. The most important result of Petersen's 'SCRAPE' process is that it: (Petersen, TSM, 97)
a. measures safety activity, not the lack of safety
b. forces supervisors to achieve high levels of performance
c. makes management define what it wants from supervisors
d. measures effort after an accident occurs
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. According to Deming, why does productivity increase as quality improves? (Deming, OC, 1)
a. less work
b. more process efficiency
c. less rework
d. more system efficiency
2. What is the relationship between variation and productivity? (Deming, OC, 3)
a. increased variation improves productivity
b. decreased variation improves productivity
c. variation has no affect on productivity
d. variation and productivity are inversely proportional
3. Deming's cause-effect chain reaction was the centerpiece of his training. According to the chain reaction, all of the following are direct effects of improved quality, except: (Deming, OC, 3)
a. decreased costs
b. stay in business
c. less rework
d. fewer delays
4. According to Deming's cause-effect chain reaction, all of the following are direct effects of improved quality, except: (Deming, OC, 3)
a. better use of machine-time
b. better use of materials
c. productivity improves
d. fewer snags
5. According to Deming's cause-effect chain reaction, what is the direct effect of improved productivity? (Deming, OC, 3)
a. provide more jobs
b. stay in business
c. quality improves
d. increased marketshare
6. According to Deming's cause-effect chain reaction, what is the direct effect of staying in business? (Deming, OC, 3)
a. provide more jobs
b. stay in business
c. quality improves
d. increased marketshare
7. According to Deming quality begins with intent, which is fixed by: (Deming, OC, 3)
a. the consumer
b. the worker
c. management
d. the individual
8. According to Deming, the most important part of the production line is: (Deming, OC, 3)
a. the consumer
b. the worker
c. the machine
d. the system
9. According to Deming, why are statistics on accidents like figures on productivity? (Deming, OC, 15)
a. they are leading indicators
b. they tell you how and why accident rates vary
c. they do not hell you how to reduce the number of accidents
d. they are the preferred method of measurement
10. According to Deming, experience without __________ teaches management nothing about what to do to improve quality and competitive position: (Deming, OC, 19)
a. theory
b. application
c. statistics
d. controls
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. Deming developed 14 points for total quality management. The idea that the next quarterly dividend is not as important as the existence of the company 10 years from now reflects which element? (Deming, OC, 25)
a. Element 1. Create constancy of purpose
b. Element 2. Adopt the new philosophy
c. Element 3. Cease dependence on mass inspection
d. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
2. The idea that price has no meaning without a measure of the quality being purchased reflects which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 32)
a. Element 1. Create constancy of purpose
b. Element 2. Adopt the new philosophy
c. Element 3. Cease dependence on mass inspection
d. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
3. According to Deming, this element describes a practice that is equivalent to planning for defects, and is an acknowledgment that the process has not the capability required for the specification: (Deming, OC, 28)
a. Element 1. Create constancy of purpose
b. Element 2. Adopt the new philosophy
c. Element 3. Cease dependence on mass inspection
d. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
4. The idea that people on the job do not know what the job is and are afraid to ask describes a problem that must be eliminated according which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 26)
a. Element 1. Create constancy of purpose
b. Element 2. Adopt the new philosophy
c. Element 3. Cease dependence on mass inspection
d. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
5. The idea that the job of management is to support, not control the workforce reflects which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 54)
a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
b. Element 5. Improve constantly and forever
c. Element 6. Institute training
d. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
6. Relying on a single supplier for quality personal protective equipment would be consistent with which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 54)
a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
b. Element 5. Improve constantly and forever
c. Element 6. Institute training
d. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
7. This element is critical to ensure management and employees understand the importance of variation in the production process: (Deming, OC, 52)
a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
b. Element 5. Improve constantly and forever
c. Element 6. Institute training
d. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
8. The idea that quality must be built into the design of a safety management system reflects which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 49)
a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
b. Element 5. Improve constantly and forever
c. Element 6. Institute training
d. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
9. Deming considered the greatest waste in America the failure to use the abilities of people. This idea reflects the importance for which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 52)
a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
b. Element 5. Improve constantly and forever
c. Element 6. Institute training
d. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
10. The idea that real improvements in a safety management system cannot be achieved by merely addressing surface causes reflects which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 54)
a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
b. Element 5. Improve constantly and forever
c. Element 6. Institute training
d. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Removing the barriers that make it impossible for employees to work safely is a goal stated in which Deming element? (Deming, OC, 54)
a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone
b. Element 5. Improve constantly and forever the system of production and service
c. Element 6. Institute training
d. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
2. According to Deming, if this element is not successfully addressed first, total quality management cannot be achieved: (Deming, OC, 59)
a. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
b. Element 8. Drive out fear
c. Element 9. Break down barriers between staff areas
d. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets
3. When management does not walk the talk, listen to employees, supply resources and leadership, posted safety signs mean nothing. Which Deming point reflects this idea? (Deming, OC, 65)
a. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
b. Element 8. Drive out fear
c. Element 9. Break down barriers between staff areas
d. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets
4. Failure to meet the objectives of this element might result in an employee withholding an injury report: (Deming, OC, 59)
a. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
b. Element 8. Drive out fear
c. Element 9. Break down barriers between staff areas
d. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets
5. For the safety management system to be most effective, policies should promote cooperation rather than competition. Which of Deming's 14 elements addresses this idea? (Deming, OC, 62)
a. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
b. Element 8. Drive out fear
c. Element 9. Break down barriers between staff areas
d. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets
6. Which of Deming's 14 elements would not encourage a posted Zero Accidents sign? (Deming, OC, 65)
a. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
b. Element 8. Drive out fear
c. Element 9. Break down barriers between staff areas
d. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets
7. While discussing this element, Deming stated that a quota is a fortress against improvement of quality and productivity: (Deming, OC, 65)
a. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership
b. Element 8. Drive out fear
c. Element 9. Break down barriers between staff areas
d. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets
8. Piece work is counter-productive to safe work. This principle is supported in which of the following Deming points? (Deming, OC, 65)
a. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets
b. Element 11. Eliminate numerical quotas
c. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanship
d. Element 13. Encourage education and self-improvement
9. Advances in a company's competitive position has its roots in knowledge reflects which Deming element? (Deming, OC, 86)
a. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets
b. Element 11. Eliminate numerical quotas
c. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanship
d. Element 13. Encourage education and self-improvement
10. The thought by an employee that he or she is merely a commodity is of a concern discussed within this Deming element: (Deming, OC, 77)
a. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets
b. Element 11. Eliminate numerical quotas
c. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanship
d. Element 13. Encourage education and self-improvement
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. Deming encouraged use of the Shewhart Cycle to accomplish this element: (Deming, OC, 88)
a. Element 11. Eliminate numerical quotas
b. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanship
c. Element 13. Encourage education
d. Element 14. Take action to accomplish the transformation
2. According to Deming, unless this element is taken seriously by management, quality teams will probably disintegrate within a few months from frustration: (Deming, OC, 88)
a. Element 11. Eliminate numerical quotas
b. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanship
c. Element 13. Encourage education
d. Element 14. Take action to accomplish the transformation
3. Which of the following is not one of the questions a safety manager should ask as part of his or her effort to transform the safety management system? (Deming, OC, 90)
a. Where does the safety function fit in the organization?
b. What product or services does the safety function provide?
c. How can the safety function control accident rates?
d. What would happen if the safety stopped producing?
4. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the Shewhart Cycle? (Walton, DMM, 87)
a. Plan - Carefully plan the change or test
b. Deploy - Carry out the change on a large scale
c. Study - Observe and study the effects
d. Act - Adopt, revise, or abandon the change
5. Each of the following describes one of Deming's seven deadly diseases, except: (Walton, DMM, 93)
a. lack of constancy of purpose
b. mobility of top management
c. running the company on invisible statistics
d. excessive medical costs
6. Which of the following is not one of Deming's seven deadly diseases? (Walton, DMM, 93)
a. lack of variation of purpose
b. excessive cost of warranty
c. evaluation of performance, merit rating, annual review
d. excessive medical costs
7. Our need for prima donnas who can produce quick results describes a cause for which Deming deadly disease? (Walton, DMM, 92)
a. lack of variation of purpose
b. excessive cost of warranty
c. mobility of top management
d. excessive medical costs
8. Grouping employees into categories based on their performance describes an action in which Deming deadly disease? (Walton, DMM, 92)
a. lack of variation of purpose
b. excessive cost of warranty
c. mobility of top management
d. evaluation of performance, merit rating, annual review
9. Each of the following is one of Deming's obstacles to total quality management, except: (Walton, DMM, 93)
a. neglect of long-range planning
b. thinking automation, gadgets will transform industry
c. searching for examples
d. thinking our problems are the same
10. Which of the following is one of Deming's obstacles to total quality management? (Walton, DMM, 94)
a. quality by inspection
b. reliance on human resource departments
c. blaming the workforce for problems
d. thinking our problems are different
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. Each of the following is one of Deming's obstacles to total quality management, except: (Walton, DMM, 95)
a. reliance on quality control departments
b. false starts
c. anyone who helps knows nothing about our business
d. meeting specifications
2. Doing nothing with large quantities of safety information may be a result of which Deming obstacle? (Walton, DMM, 95)
a. reliance on quality control departments
b. false starts
c. the unmanned computer
d. meeting specifications
3. Failing to carefully carry out and study a safety program change small scale in the actual work environment describes which of the following Deming obstacle? (Walton, DMM, 95)
a. reliance on quality control departments
b. inadequate testing of prototypes
c. quality by inspection
d. meeting specifications
4. What does a point beyond upper and lower control limits on a control chart indicate? (Walton, DMM, 97)
a. a common cause
b. a special cause
c. a surface cause
d. a root cause
5. The total quality management school of thought considers inadequate lighting, vibration, and the absence of a quality safety program as examples of which type of cause? (Walton, DMM, 97)
a. common causes
b. special cause
c. surface cause
d. root cause
6. The total quality management school of thought would consider which of the following as the most likely cause for a sudden rise in a company's accident rate? (Walton, DMM, 97)
a. common causes
b. special cause
c. surface cause
d. root cause
7. According to Deming, what is a desirable or undesirable situation, condition, or event produced by a system of causes? (Walton, DMM, 99)
a. output
b. outcome
c. effect
d. result
8. All of the following are basic cause categories in the Ishikawa Fishbone cause-effect diagram, except: (Walton, DMM, 99)
a. manpower
b. methods
c. management
d. materials
9. One effective way to delineate what is going on in a safety process is to draw a: (Walton, DMM, 102)
a. flowchart
b. fishbone
c. FMEA diagram
d. SCRAPE
10. To sort out the vital few from the trivial many when prioritizing problems, a safety manager would construct a: (Walton, DMM, 105)
a. flowchart
b. fishbone
c. pareto chart
d. control chart
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 9
1. To conduct a trend analysis of accidents in the workplace, a safety manager would construct a: (Walton, DMM, 107)
a. run chart
b. fishbone diagram
c. pareto chart
d. control chart
2. To measure how frequently unsafe behaviors are occurring in the workplace, a safety manager would construct a: (Walton, DMM, 109)
a. run chart
b. fishbone diagram
c. histogram
d. control chart
3. To measure the relationship between formal observations and the frequency of critical safety behaviors, the safety manager would construct a: (Walton, DMM, 112)
a. run chart
b. scatter diagram
c. histogram
d. control chart
4. This statistical tool is nothing more than a run chart with statistically determined upper and lower control limits drawn on either side of the process average: (Walton, DMM, 114)
a. run chart
b. scatter diagram
c. histogram
d. control chart
5. This is the primary tool used in the practice of Statistical Process Control: (Walton, DMM, 114)
a. run chart
b. scatter diagram
c. histogram
d. control chart
6. What will be the result, according to Deming, if a safety manager introduces competition among the various components of a safety management system? (Deming, NE, 66)
a. the system will improve
b. the system will become unstable
c. the system will be destroyed
d. the system will remain stable
7. Deming considers all of the following as important elements of a safety management system except: (Deming, NE, 96)
a. obligation
b. competition
c. interdependence
d. cooperation
8. According to Deming, what is the primary obligation of each safety management system component? (Deming, NE, 97)
a. to ensure its own primacy
b. to compete with every other component
c. to maximize its own production
d. to contribute its best to the system
9. According to Deming, the greater the interdependence between safety management system components, the greater will be the need for communication and: (Deming, NE, 96)
a. cooperation
b. creativity
c. competition
d. common goals
10. According to Deming, in a stable safety management system, costs, performance, quantity and quality are: (Deming, NE, 99)
a. preventable
b. predictable
c. proactive
d. programmed
Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 10
1. One common management error is to consistently blame an employee when an accident occurs. According to Deming, this is a good example of reacting to an outcome as if it came from a ________ cause, when actually it came from a ___________ cause of variation: (Deming, NE, 99)
a. surface, root
b. unpredictable, predictable
c. common, special
d. special, common
2. According to Deming, a system cannot understand itself: It must go outside itself to gain profound knowledge to improve the system. To gain profound knowledge about a safety training program, which of the following activities would be least effective? (Deming, NE, 101)
a. survey employees
b. meet with trainers
c. observe post-training performance
d. interview supervisors
3. According to Deming, all of the following describe characteristics of the new role of a safety manager, except: (Deming, NE, 125)
a. understands people are different
b. understands the system
c. helps people see themselves are part of a system
d. helps people successfully compete
4. According to Deming, all of the following describe characteristics of the new role of a safety manager, except: (Deming, NE, 126)
a. judges people fairly
b. understands a stable system
c. unceasing learner
d. a coach and counsel
5. According to Deming, all of the following describe characteristics of the new role of a safety manager, except: (Deming, NE, 126)
a. helps those outside control limits
b. is tough to control employees
c. studies results to improve performance
d. has appropriate authority, knowledge, personality
6. According to Deming, all of the following describe characteristics of the new role of a safety manager, except: (Deming, NE, 127)
a. helps those outside control limits
b. is tough to control employees
c. studies results to improve performance
d. has appropriate authority, knowledge, personality
7. According to Deming, once statistical control is achieved, the next step is improvement of the process. Which of the following defines improvement in total quality management terms? (Deming, NE, 177)
a. less stability
b. greater stability
c. narrower variation
d. wider variation
8. Which of the following is not one of the basic principles of variation within the context of total quality management? (Adams, TQSM, 23-24)
a. variation is normal in every system
b. the causes of variation may lie inside or outside the system
c. under statistical control, variation is due to special causes
d. common causes can only be corrected by management
9. All of the following are basic principles of variation within the context of total quality management, except: (Adams, TQSM, 23-24)
a. variation is normal in every system
b. the causes of variation may lie inside or outside of the system
c. under statistical control, variation is due to common causes
d. special causes can only be corrected by management
10. All of the following are basic principles of variation within the context of total quality management, except: (Adams, TQSM, 23-24)
a. variation is normal in every system
b. the causes of variation lie only inside the system
c. under statistical control, variation is due to common causes
d. At least 85 percent or variation is due to common causes
Subject Area II. Topic B. System Safety
Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. According to Brauer, system safety is an approach to accident prevention that involves detection of system components that: (Brauer, p.544)
a. may contribute to product failure
b. breakdown in process quality
c. cause implementation failures
d. have accident potential
2. System safety applies proactive identification and control of hazards throughout the life cycle of: (Brauer, p.544)
a. systems
b. projects
c. programs
d. all of the above
3. The cost for changes is greatest in which stage of development? (Brauer, p.545)
a. Planning
b. Design
c. Occupancy
d. Construction
4. According to Brauer, the key element in system safety is: (Brauer, p.544)
a. system improvement
b. hazard analysis
c. accident investigation
d. program development
5. In the system safety approach, hazard analysis: (Brauer, p.544)
a. is continued over the life cycle of a system
b. is systematic yet random
c. is specific to each program
d. is constructed to ensure integration
6. Which of the following is not considered a control that extends from system safety hazard analysis? (Brauer, p.544)
a. engineering controls
b. work practice controls
c. behavioral controls
d. interim measures
7. The concepts of system safety evolved with: (Brauer, p.544)
a. ship building projects during WWII
b. Abrams tank development projects
c. aircraft and missile projects
d. area 51 back engineering projects
8. Today, system safety concepts are incorporated into all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, p.546)
a. product design
b. building and facility design
c. accident prevention management
d. toxicological study design
9. According to Brauer, this document represents the common thread in the many variations in system safety procedures: (Brauer, p.545)
a. HAZOP-STD 437
b. OSHAct 1970
c. MIL-STD-882B
d. CSP-23 Plan
10. Which of the following is not one of the typical phases in the life cycle of a system? (Brauer, p.545)
a. concept design
b. production
c. deployment
d. review
Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Which of the following is not one of the system safety program objectives defined by MIL-STD-882B? (Brauer, p.546)
a. identify maximum acceptable system risk
b. design safety consistent with mission
c. identify, evaluate and eliminate system hazards
d. use historical data from other systems
2. Which of the following is not one of the system safety program objectives defined by MIL-STD-882B? (Brauer, p.546)
a. seek minimum level of risk
b. include safety features to minimize retrofit actions
c. protect critical components
d. document significant safety data
3. System safety design approaches to minimize risk from hazards that cannot be eliminated include all of the following, except: (Brauer, p.546)
a. interlocks
b. fail-safe design
c. compatible materials
d. protective clothing
4. Which of the following is the top priority for satisfying system safety requirements and resolving identified hazards? (Brauer, p.547)
a. Incorporate safety devices
b. Develop procedures and training
c. Design for minimum risk
d. Provide warning devices
5. Which of the following is the lowest priority for satisfying system safety requirements and resolving identified hazards? (Brauer, p.547)
a. Incorporate safety devices
b. Develop procedures and training
c. Design for minimum risk
d. Provide warning devices
6. According to the order of precedence for satisfying system safety requirements guidance within MIL-STD-882B, which method would be employed if safety design or warning devices cannot adequately reduce risk? (Brauer, p.547)
a. Incorporate safety devices
b. Develop procedures and training
c. Design for minimum risk
d. Provide warning devices
7. According to the order of precedence for satisfying system safety requirements guidance within MIL-STD-882B, this method should be employed if all other methods fail to adequately reduce risk: (Brauer, p.547)
a. Incorporate safety devices
b. Develop procedures and training
c. Design for minimum risk
d. Provide warning devices
8. This category is the only risk criterion allowed by MIL-STD-882B during the early design phases: (Brauer, p.547)
a. risk exposure
b. hazard probability
c. hazard severity
d. risk assessment
9. When hazards are not eliminated by design during early design phases, MIL-STD-882B requires these criteria to set priorities for corrective action and resolution of identified hazards: (Brauer, p.547)
a. risk and severity
b. severity and probability
c. probability and exposure
d. exposure and risk
10. MIL-STD-882B requires alternative strategies be employed when methods to eliminate or reduce these hazards are impossible or impractical: (Brauer, p.547)
a. CRITICAL AND SERIOUS
b. CATASTROPHIC AND CRITICAL
c. POTENTIAL AND SERIOUS
d. FREQUENT AND CRITICAL
Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. This analysis technique employs boolean logic concepts to evaluate events and is often used in system safety programs for complex systems: (Brauer, p.551)
a. Root cause analysis
b. Fault tree analysis
c. HAZOP analysis
d. System analysis
2. This analysis technique displays the principal or top undesired event, which is broken down into factors that are further subdivided into event causes: (Brauer, p.551)
a. Root cause analysis
b. Fault tree analysis
c. HAZOP analysis
d. System analysis
3. Which of the following is a possible failure which represents a major weakness inherent in fault tree analysis? (Brauer, p.551)
a. failure to determine root causes for the top event
b. failure to evaluate the relationship among events
c. failure to assign valid probability to an event
d. failure to identify all events that may lead to the top event
4. A significant difficulty in fault tree analysis is: (Brauer, p.551)
a. determining root causes for the top event
b. evaluating the relationship among events
c. assigning valid probability to an event
d. identifying all events that may lead to the basic event
5. Which of the following is the top or intermediate event that must be described further in the tree? (Brauer, p.551)
a. normal event
b. fault event
c. undeveloped event
d. basic event
6. Which of the following fault tree analysis events requires no further analysis? (Brauer, p.551)
a. normal event
b. fault event
c. undeveloped event
d. basic event
7. Which of the following fault tree analysis events has two states: it occurs or does not occur? (Brauer, p.552)
a. normal event
b. fault event
c. undeveloped event
d. basic event
8. Which of the following fault tree analysis events is chosen by the analyst not to be analyzed? (Brauer, p.552)
a. normal event
b. fault event
c. undeveloped event
d. basic event
9. Which of the following fault tree analysis events may not be critical to the problem at hand? (Brauer, p.552)
a. normal event
b. fault event
c. undeveloped event
d. basic event
10. Symbols that describe the relationship among elements are called: (Brauer, p.552)
a. relationship doors
b. logic gates
c. rational elements
d. notation symbols
Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Which of the following describes fault tree analysis logic gates? (Brauer, p.552)
a. OR and AND gates
b. GO and NOGO gates
c. IF and THEREFORE gates
d. WHEN and THEN gates
2. This fault tree analysis gate indicates that all of the input events must occur to cause the output event: (Brauer, p.552)
a. OR gate
b. GO gate
c. AND gate
d. NOGO gate
3. Two fault tree analysis input events for this gate may be mutually exclusive: (Brauer, p.552)
a. OR gate
b. GO gate
c. AND gate
d. NOGO gate
4. This term describes any element of a fault tree analysis that represents an occurrence: (Brauer, p.553)
a. fault
b. gate
c. event
d. state
5. This fault tree analysis event results when the function of a component is interrupted: (Brauer, p.553)
a. normal
b. fault
c. failure
d. intermittent
6. This 1911 disaster in New York triggered public demand for improved factory safety laws and an increase of factory safety inspection system:
a. The New York Tunnel disaster
b. The Triangle Shirtwaste Company fire
c. The Stock Market crash
d. The New York riots
7. This fault tree analysis event describes a condition that contributes in some way to the occurrence of an undesired event: (Brauer, p.553)
a. normal
b. fault
c. failure
d. intermittent
8. In fault tree analysis, failing to respond to an emergency chemical spill would be described as a: (Brauer, p.553)
a. normal
b. fault
c. failure
d. intermittent
9. In fault tree analysis, inability to detect an emergency chemical spill would be described as a: (Brauer, p.553)
a. normal
b. fault
c. failure
d. intermittent
10. In fault tree analysis, this failure is an internal problem with components that make them inoperative: (Brauer, p.553)
a. direct
b. contributing
c. primary
d. secondary
Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. In fault tree analysis, this failure is an external problem with components that make those components inoperative: (Brauer, p.553)
a. direct
b. contributing
c. primary
d. secondary
2. In fault tree analysis, this failure is an internal problem with components that make them inoperative: (Brauer, p.553)
a. direct
b. contributing
c. primary
d. secondary
3. In fault tree analysis, this fault is an external event that causes abnormal operation: (Brauer, p.553)
a. direct
b. contributing
c. primary
d. secondary
4. Which of the following describe the two types of basic fault tree analysis? (Brauer, p.554)
a. qualitative and quantitative
b. surface and root
c. personal and system
d. primary and secondary
5. This strategy is an inductive procedure that moves from the specific to the general: (Brauer, p.555)
a. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)
b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)
d. Simultaneous Timed Events Plotting Analysis (STEP)
6. This strategy is emphasizes the analysis of the relationship of component conditions to system conditions: (Brauer, p.555)
a. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)
b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)
d. Simultaneous Timed Events Plotting Analysis (STEP)
7. This strategy analyzes events from a time or sequence perspective to determine actors and actions that contribute to an accident: (Brauer, p.558)
a. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)
b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)
d. Simultaneous Timed Events Plotting Analysis (STEP)
8. This safety system analysis process attempts to identify and assess risks associated with an operation and refer them to the proper management level for action: (Brauer, p.559)
a. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)
b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)
d. Simultaneous Timed Events Plotting Analysis (STEP)
9. The MORT analysis method arranges safety program elements into each of the following levels, except: (Brauer, p.559)
a. specific surface causes
b. generic problems or undesirable events
c. basic events
d. less than adequate (LTA) criteria
10. This safety system analysis process assumes that in a perfect safety system all components function in a manner that contributes to or compliments the achievement of tasks: (Brauer, p.559)
a. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)
b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)
d. Simultaneous Timed Events Plotting Analysis (STEP)
Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. The Labor-Federal Security Appropriations Act in July of 1941 authorized science and management courses as part of the:
a. Safety Engineering Education (SEE)
b. Engineering, Science and Management Defense Training (ESMDT)
c. Wartime Industrial Safety Engineering (WISE)
d. National Occupational Safety Defense Engineering (NOSDE)
2. Which of the following is not one of the recognized interactive components analyzed in the system safety approach?
a. Federal Laws
b. Environment
c. Worker
d. Equipment and Materials
3. Thorough analysis of most accidents indicates the causes can be attributed, directly or indirectly to:
a. employee ignorance
b. unsafe behaviors
c. management system weaknesses
d. hazardous conditions
4. When designing equipment or a production process, the safety of an operation should be:
a. the least important feature to be considered
b. designed after first considering productivity
c. considered as most important feature
d. regarded as a normal and integral feature
5. This company originated the fault tree analysis process: (Brauer, p. 551)
a. United Airlines
b. The Rand Corporation
c. Bell Telephone Laboratories
d. Rutan Manufacturing
6. According to Pope, this term should be used instead of 'accident' to eliminate any vagueness: (Pope, p. 107)
a. Operational error
b. Operational occurrence
c. Operational incident
d. Operational oversight
7. What is the acronym for the safety management reporting system that is a cornerstone of Theory S? (Pope, Chap. 5)
a. HRIS
b. SMIS
c. SMRS
d. SISM
8. Which of the following is not one of Pope and Creswell's Theory S components? (Pope, Chap. 5)
a. Creation of a computerized information system
b. Industrial mishaps are symptoms of management incompetence
c. Systems operate in a condition of probable failure
d. Systems interact differently with each other
9. Using System Safety Management or Theory S in an industrial enterprise requires the acceptance of which of the following ideas? (Pope, p. 135)
a. All enterprises function in a similar manner
b. Business enterprises are social systems
c. Industrial mishaps are symptoms of incompetence
d. Avoidance of correctable loss is the focus
10. TAFS is an acronym for: (Pope, p. 322)
a. Triadic Analysis of Flawed Systems
b. Testing Approach of Functional Systems
c. Testing Analysis for Fundamental Safety
d. Triadic Approach to Fundamental Safety
Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. TAFS take this approach to the diagnosis of causal factors associated with industrial mishaps: (Pope, p. 322)
a. toxicological
b. epidemiological
c. logical
d. triadic
2. What component does Pope's Triadic Analysis of Flawed Systems (TAFS) approach add to traditional safety management? (Pope, Chap. 6)
a. Correction of observable phenomenon of unsafe acts and conditions
b. Define methods of determining unsafe acts and conditions
c. Objective thinking about the direction and control of management
d. Use of inspections to gather objective evidence
3. Pope states that the actions taken in response to an accident are determined by its impact on four factors. Which of the following is not one of the factors? (Pope, p. 162)
a. employee(s) involved
b. expense to the corporation
c. regulatory compliance
d. disruption of the work process
4. Pope's Triadic Analysis of Flawed Systems (TAFS) studies the impact of human error and flawed management practices on what three systems? (Pope, p. 165)
a. social, physical, biological
b. organizational, environmental, social
c. social, mechanical, organizational
d. physical, biological, organizational
5. There are four principles to the theory of error-free performance (EPS). Which of the following statements does not reflect these principles? (Pope, p. 192)
a. equipment design should consider capabilities and limitations
b. greatest gains come from improving man, machine and management systems
c. management defines safety performance in light of personal flaws
d. errors are evidence of ineffective operations and management incompetence
6. According to Pope, McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y is considered within which management school? (Pope, p. 281)
a. Contingency management
b. Participative management
c. Human relations theory
d. Scientific management
7. Which of the following is not a recognized system safety measure to protect power sources? (Brauer, p. 546)
a. warning signs
b. redundant subsystems
c. physical separation
d. physical separation
8. This person is considered the father of the scientific approach to safety? (Pope, p. 36)
a. Dan Petersen
b. H.W. Heinrich
c. Nestor Roos
d. W. Edwards Deming
9. This safety approach identifies and controls hazards throughout the life cycle of a system, project, program or activity:
a. Reliable
b. Primary
c. Proactive
d. Reactive
10. This organization recognized that a building's fire safety could benefit from a systems analysis: (Brauer, p. 563)
a. OSHA
b. ASSE
c. AFA
d. NFPA
Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. What is meant by the term 'negative event' in Fault Tree Analysis? (Texas WCC)
a. A political rally for a negative candidate
b. A near miss or accident that results in personal injury or property damage
c. An automobile race where all the vehicles drive in reverse
d. A series of events that actually make a positive event
2. What is a benefit of the fault tree analysis? (Texas WCC)
a. It offers shade on a sunny day
b. You can determine the amount of money it will cost to implement a procedure
c. You will get meaningful data about the overall reliability of the system
d. It takes little time and expense to create
3. What does the circle symbol used in the formation of the tree represent? (Texas WCC)
a. The negative event that will be studied
b. The transfer of a branch to another location on the tree
c. A terminal event that doesn’t need to be developed further
d. A base event with no events below it
4. A fault tree analysis should be: (Texas WCC)
a. complicated to discourage safety managers
b. used to show a condition or actor
c. used to show a procedure or event
d. hard to visualize for the novice
5. What was the fault tree analysis created to do? (Texas WCC)
a. To evaluate the production of baked goods
b. To increase the safety level of the space program
c. To improve the safety of missile systems
d. To illustrate how to safely set up a Christmas tree
6. MIL-STD-882 is divided into which two groups? (Brauer, p. 548)
a. program management and control tasks
b. management and leadership tasks
c. design and evaluation tasks
d. both a and c above
7. Which of the following is true regarding MIL-STD-82 Task 204 System Hazard Analysis (SHL)? (Brauer, p. 549)
a. Contractors will conduct an initial survey VPP application
b. The goal of this task is to analyze the entire system.
c. A contractor is to develop a list of possible hazards in system design
d. Contractors will participate in hazard analysis review groups
8. How many management and control tasks are listed in standard MIL-STD-882? (Brauer, p. 548)
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
9. Which of the following is true regarding MIL-STD-82 Task 100 System Safety Program? (Brauer, p. 548)
a. Contractors will provide a periodic system safety progress report
b. A system program is to be run and the program will include several other tasks
c. Makes sure requirements for test and evaluation are developed
d. Contractors will participate in compliance review groups
10. Which of the following is true regarding MIL-STD-82 Task 201 Preliminary Hazard List (PHL)? (Brauer, p. 549)
a. Contractors will conduct an initial survey VPP application
b. The goal of this task is to analyze the entire system.
c. A contractor is to develop a list of possible hazards in system design
d. Contractors will participate in hazard analysis review groups
Subject Area II. Topic C. Auditing
Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. This hazard control system step is required to ensure changes are effective long term:
a. Developing solutions
b. Writing recommendations
c. Taking action
d. Evaluating the results
2. This procedure is conducted by the supervisor and employees at the beginning of a work shift and throughout the workday: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)
a. accident investigation
b. general audit
c. informal inspection
d. formal review
3. This procedure measures the results of supervisor action before an accident occurs: (Petersen, TSM, 129)
a. before-the-fact measure
b. results measure
c. performance measure
d. behavioral measure
4. The most frequently performed inspections are the: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)
a. general audit
b. formal inspection
c. informal inspection
d. accident investigation
5. These measures tend to be generated from injury records: (Petersen, TSM, 129)
a. outcomes evaluations
b. results measures
c. performance measures
d. failure measures
6. Which of the following must be present before an accident can occur?
a. unsafe behavior, lack of common sense
b. hazard, exposure
c. hazard, lack of common sense
d. unsafe behavior, exposure
7. This procedure is conducted periodically and often covers all areas of operations: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)
a. accident investigation
b. general audit
c. informal inspection
d. formal review
8. Which of the following could result in the employee being a 'hazardous condition'?
a. inadequate training
b. mental deficiency
c. physical deficiency
d. any of the above
9. An inspection following a proper sequence is generally more effective because: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)
a. it always looks at the same items
b. it takes less time
c. it is more efficient
d. it's easier to do
10. An analysis process examines:
a. where hazards can be found and how to find it
b. each part, step or event to determine its impact on the whole
c. performance to judge its effectiveness
d. culture to evaluate how well it supports safety
Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Employing a numbering system in an inspection or audit is important for the following reason: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)
a. simplifies the evaluation process
b. allows for averaging several components to get a rating
c. easy to score
d. simple to train inspectors or auditors
2. Most accidents in the workplace are caused by:
a. carelessness
b. unsafe behaviors
c. hazardous conditions
d. lack of common sense
3. According to the National Safety Council, all of the following are examples of inspections and audits, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)
a. general audit
b. accident investigation
c. employee survey
d. informal and formal inspection
4. These measures may be used before or after an accident occurs: (Petersen, TSM, 127)
a. outcomes evaluations
b. results measures
c. performance measures
d. behavioral measures
5. The frequency of formal inspections and general audits depend on all of the following factors, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)
a. location of procedures
b. loss severity potential
c. regulatory requirements
d. the budget
6. Some results measures can be quite useful for all of the following reasons, except: (Petersen, TSM, 129)
a. they can attract attention
b. they are not sensitive to change
c. they can provide recognition for good performance
d. they can be constructed to provide swift feedback
7. Correctly classifying hazards during the inspection or audit helps management: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)
a. understand and evaluate problems
b. assign priorities
c. reach decisions quickly
d. all of the above
8. This procedure is considered a most effective proactive method to collect useful data about the causes of most accidents in a workplace:
a. Inspection
b. Employee interview
c. Survey
d. Observation
9. The core of a management action plan after an audit should be to: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)
a. determine responsibilities
b. establish accountability for program failures
c. upgrade program components to standard
d. predict possible OSHA penalties
10. This procedure is a measure of performance (and results) that enters the scene at middle- and upper- management levels: (Petersen, TSM, 123)
a. appraisal
b. survey
c. inspection
d. audit
Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. This audit occurs reactively, after a loss has occurred: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)
a. accident investigation
b. general audit
c. informal inspection
d. formal review
2. This procedure is considered a most effective proactive method to collect useful data about employee opinions and attitudes workplace.
a. Inspection
b. Surveillance
c. Survey
d. Observation
3. All of the following properly describe hazards in an inspection or audit, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)
a. pallets are not properly stacked in the yard
b. upper guard missing on grinder
c. slippery oil spots on the floor in the maintenance shop
d. poor housekeeping in administrative offices
4. An audit is considered to be a: (Petersen, TSM, 123)
a. outcomes evaluation
b. results measure
c. performance measure
d. behavioral measure
5. This planned process is conducted by a team composed of management, labor, safety and maintenance staff: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)
a. accident investigation
b. general audit
c. informal inspection
d. formal review
6. This formal procedure is usually not very effective in uncovering the causes of most accidents in the workplace:
a. Inspection
b. Surveillance
c. Survey
d. Observation
7. This procedure is simply a measure of what middle managers do - of whether they perform their assigned tasks: (Petersen, TSM, 123)
a. appraisal
b. survey
c. inspection
d. audit
8. What is a major weakness in the walk-around safety inspection process?
a. Takes too much time
b. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors
c. Does not adequately identify hazardous conditions
d. Requires both employee and management participation
9. If a hazard is immediately corrected during an inspection or audit, all of the following are acceptable recordkeeping practices, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)
a. make a note that the item was corrected
b. line out the hazard
c. cross the item out with an 'x'
d. erase the item
10. The findings of an audit should: (Brauer, 520)
a. measure a limited number of performance variables
b. address policy and procedural problems
c. disclose findings to employees
d. pinpoint specific behaviors
Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. At the middle- and upper- management level we usually concentrate on: (Petersen, TSM, 130)
a. outcomes evaluations
b. results measures
c. performance measures
d. behavioral measures
2. The purpose of an audit is to: (Brauer, 520)
a. detect and correct hazards in the workplace
b. determine the values of a corporate culture
c. challenge existing policies, procedures, and practices
d. evaluate first-line supervisor performance
3. What is a major weakness in the walk-around safety inspection process?
a. Takes too much time
b. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors
c. Does not adequately identify hazardous conditions
d. Requires both employee and management participation
4. This procedure, developed by Thiokol Chemical Corporation, effectively measures results as well as performance: (Petersen, TSM, 125)
a. Lost Work Day Case Indicator (LWDCI)
b. Safety Audit Factor Evaluation Report (SAFER)
c. Safety Performance Indicator (SPI)
d. Safety Performance Report Card (SPRC)
5. According to Brauer, the purpose of an audit is to: (Brauer, 520)
a. look at leadership and how well it achieves results
b. challenge underlying concepts and principles
c. challenge existing policies, procedures, and practices
d. all of the above
6. Conduct this type of analysis any time you bring something new into your worksite, whether it be a piece of equipment, different materials, a new process, or an entirely new building:
a. Phase Analysis
b. Process Hazard Analysis
c. Job Hazard Analysis
d. Change Analysis
7. The findings of a safety audit should include: (Brauer, 520)
a. names of those responsible and recommended disciplinary action
b. what things need improvement and ways to improve them
c. identified hazards and maintenance requests
d. an evaluation of performance results
8. Traditionally, there have been two figures or variables used to measure company-wide safety performance. Which of the following describe these two measures? (Petersen, TSM, 123)
a. duration, frequency
b. probability, duration
c. frequency, severity
d. frequency, duration
9. If a hazard has been temporarily corrected during an inspection or audit, yet requires further action, all of the following are acceptable recordkeeping practices, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)
a. make a note that the item was corrected
b. line out the hazard
c. cross the item out with an 'x'
d. erase the item
10. Brauer warns that management audits must be handled cautiously so that they: (Brauer, 520)
a. measure a limited number of performance variables
b. do not become a tool for blame or ridicule
c. do not disclose findings to employees
d. are designed to pinpoint specific behaviors
Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. Every inspection program must define all of the following, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 140)
a. how results will be handled
b. how records will be filed and classified
c. how results will be followed up
d. how discipline will be administered
2. What-if, checklists, hazard and operability study (HAZOP), failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), or fault-tree analysis, may be used in this type of analysis to determine possible process breakdowns:
a. Phase Analysis
b. Process Hazard Analysis
c. Job Hazard Analysis
d. Change Analysis
3. Who should review the results of an audit or inspection? (LaDou, OH&S, 140)
a. the safety and health committee
b. the responsible supervisor
c. the responsible employees
d. all of the above
4. A manager's department may be audited by: (Brauer, 520)
a. the manager of that department
b. another department's safety staff
c. one of the manager's supervisors
d. another employee within the department
5. The SAFER audit report, developed by Robert Mills for Grumman Aerospace, is a guide for reviewing and checking key factors on a broad category range. What are the categories? (Petersen, TSM, 123)
a. not present, needs work, adequate
b. does not exist, present
c. none, minimal, adequate
d. less than adequate, adequate
6. According to Brauer, an audit is: (Brauer, 520)
a. the same process as an inspection
b. a process of having outsiders evaluate management
c. conducted by an internal consultant
d. conducted by employees to evaluate supervisors
7. According to Dan Petersen, audits have some severe setbacks. Which of the following is not one he lists? (Petersen, TSM, 238)
a. they stifle autonomy
b. they stifle creativity
c. they force uniformity
d. they force compliance
8. According to the results of a nine year Association of Americans Railroads study, the effectiveness of safety efforts can NOT be measured: (Petersen, TSM, 238)
a. with traditional procedural-engineering criteria
b. with surveys of employee perceptions
c. with management audits
d. with inspections by first-line supervisors
9. According to Dan Petersen, audits have some advantages. Which of the following is one of them? (Petersen, TSM, 238)
a. they get attention
b. they force performance
c. they encourage involvement
d. both a and b above
10. According to the results of a nine year Association of Americans Railroads study, the effectiveness of safety efforts can be measured: (Petersen, TSM, 238)
a. with traditional procedural-engineering criteria
b. with surveys of employee perceptions
c. with management audits
d. with inspections by first-line supervisors
Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Which of the following is not an approach discussed by Petersen to analyzing and improving the safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 211)
a. simple checklists
b. simple yes-no audits
c. complicated quantified audits
d. system compliance approaches
2. Which of the following is not an approach discussed by Petersen to analyzing and improving the safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 211)
a. accident investigations
b. perception surveys
c. TOR analyses
d. system safety approaches
3. According to Petersen, as with any measure, the audit can be a: (Petersen, TSM, 228)
a. excellent tool forcing supervising compliance
b. superb motivational tool
c. demotivating if tied to compliance
d. a waste of time if corrective actions are not taken
4. According to Petersen, there seems to be little question that the way an employee sees the company safety program: (Petersen, TSM, 230)
a. strongly influences behavior on the job
b. influences the ability to learn
c. influences ability to respond
d. all of the above
5. An Employers Insurance of Warsaw study found three types of companies exist. Which of the following activities would be seen as 'overzealous' in the study? (Petersen, TSM, 230)
a. companies requiring a great amount of safety equipment be worn
b. offering prizes for safety records or for writing slogans
c. stimulating competition, offering plaques for zero accidents
d. gets busy doing safety only after an accident occurs
6. The purpose of this voluntary consensus standard is to provide an effective tool for continual improvement of an organization's OHS:
a. 29 CFR 1910.1200
b. ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005
c. NIOSH eTools
d. OSHA Z20 OHS Plan
7. The principles and approaches within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 are derived from all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, iii)
a. ILO guidelines
b. ISO 9000
c. ISO 14000
d. 29 CFR 1910.120
8. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, the reduction of hazards and risks in a systematic manner has traditionally been pursued through: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, v)
a. independent programs
b. aggressive regulation
c. workplace inspection
d. program evaluation
9. The standards in ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 define: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 1)
a. how OHS management must be accomplished
b. how OHS management should be accomplished
c. what is to be done in generic terms
d. what is to be done in specific terms
10. The scope of ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 is: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)
a. applicable to public organizations
b. applicable to private-sector companies
c. applicable to most private- and public-sector organizations
d. applicable to organizations of all sizes and types
Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. The OHSMS continuous improvement model within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 is based on which of the following quality control concepts? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, iv)
a. Secure, Gather, Analyze, Report
b. Identify, Analyze, Evaluate, Recommend
c. Analyze, Visualize, Scrutinize, Actualize
d. Plan, Do, Check, Act
2. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, the reduction of hazards and risks in a systematic manner has traditionally been pursued through: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, v)
a. independent programs
b. aggressive regulation
c. workplace inspection
d. program evaluation
3. The standards in ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 define: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 1)
a. how OHS management must be accomplished
b. how OHS management should be accomplished
c. what is to be done in generic terms
d. what is to be done in specific terms
4. The scope of ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 is: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)
a. applicable to public organizations
b. applicable to private-sector companies
c. applicable to most private- and public-sector organizations
d. applicable to organizations of all sizes and types
5. When conducting an initial review, ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 recommends assessing all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)
a. loss control and workers' compensation case information
b. lost-time accidents only
c. contractor activities
d. injury/illness metrics
6. When conducting an initial review, ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 recommends assessing all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)
a. workplace inspection if not previously conducted
b. findings of incident/accident investigations
c. contractor activities
d. audits
7. The intent of an ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 initial review is review management systems outside the OHSMS, but have an affect on the OHSMS. Which of the following is not an example of one of these systems? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)
a. compliance systems
b. procurement systems
c. engineering systems
d. performance systems
8. The intent of an ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 initial review is review management systems outside the OHSMS, but have an affect on the OHSMS. Which of the following is not an example of one of these systems? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)
a. recognition systems
b. quality systems
c. environmental systems
d. emergency systems
9. In many organizations, an ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 initial review is also called a/an: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)
a. system or program assessment
b. program or process audit
c. baseline survey or gap analysis
d. incident/accident investigation
10. An organization with an well-established, comprehensive OHSMS need not do which of the following? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)
a. assume the OHSMS does not exist
b. review the ongoing OHSMS planning process
c. assure all OHSMS elements are present
d. assure all OHSMS elements are integrated
Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. This term is used to identify requirements within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)
a. may
b. should
c. will
d. shall
2. This term is used to identify recommendations and explanatory notes within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)
a. may
b. should
c. will
d. shall
3. Which of the following terms is defined within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 as a systematic approach for obtaining and evaluating information and data to determine the extent to which defined criteria are fulfilled? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)
a. inspection
b. survey
c. audit
d. investigation
4. Which of the following terms is defined in ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 as meeting the requirements of local, state, or federal statutes, standards, or regulation? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)
a. compliance
b. adherence
c. conformance
d. improvement
5. Which of the following terms is defined in ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 as meeting the requirements of an organization's OHSMS? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)
a. compliance
b. adherence
c. conformance
d. improvement
6. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, which of the following is considered the foundation of an OHSMS? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 4)
a. policy
b. program
c. review
d. involvement
7. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, OHSMS policies must include a statement of commitment to all of the following essential elements, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 4)
a. effective employee participation
b. protection and continuous improvement
c. efficient employee controls
d. compliance with applicable laws
8. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, OHSMS policies must include a statement of commitment to all of the following essential elements, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 4-5)
a. conformance with applicable laws
b. protection and continuous improvement
c. conformance with the organization's requirements
d. compliance with applicable laws
9. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, top management must provide leadership and assume responsibility for all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 5)
a. implementing, maintaining & monitoring OHSMS performance
b. providing OSHA and state plan data when required
c. establishing accountability and delegating authority
d. integrating the OHSMS into business systems
10. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, top management must provide leadership and assume responsibility for all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 5)
a. implementing, maintaining & monitoring OHSMS performance
b. providing financial, human, and organizational resources
c. establishing accountability and delegating authority
d. networking OHSMS policies for continuing improvement
Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 9
1. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, top management should not simple do: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 5)
a. maintain & monitor OHSMS performance
b. delegate implementation of the OHSMS to other managers
c. establish accountability
d. provide appropriate financial, human, and organizational resources
2. Which of the following is true, according to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, regarding the implementation of processes to ensure employee participation? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 5)
a. processes are designed to recognize employees at least annually
b. processes are designed to reward for low accident records
c. processes are designed to affect employees at all levels
d. processes are designed to affect employees and supervisors
3. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, which of the following is not one of the strategies to ensure effective employee participation? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 6)
a. provide mechanisms, time, and resources
b. recognition and rewards for working accident-free
c. provide timely access to OHSMS information
d. identify and remove obstacles to participation
4. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, all employees should participate, at a minimum, in all of the following processes, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 6)
a. disciplining poor performance
b. planning OHSMS elements
c. implementing programs and processes
d. evaluating, correcting, and preventing
5. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, one common mechanism for employee participation is: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 6)
a. structured wellness programs
b. early-return-to-work programs
c. job safety analyses
d. health and safety committees
6. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, all of the following represent obstacles to effective employee participation, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 6)
a. union participation
b. forms of employee discrimination
c. lack of response to employee input
d. reprisals by supervisors or peers
7. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, all of the following are goals of the OHSMS planning process, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 7)
a. identify OHSMS issues
b. prioritize OHSMS issues
c. ensure collaboration with regulatory agencies
d. establish objectives for improvement
8. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, each of the following is one of the four required activities within the OHSMS planning process, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 7)
a. benchmark best practices
b. review relevant information to identify OHSMS issues
c. prioritize OHSMS identified issues
d. develop OHSMS objectives for risk control
9. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, each of the following is one of the four required activities within the OHSMS planning process, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 7)
a. formulate implementation plans to accomplish goals
b. review relevant information to identify OHSMS issues
c. planning proactive contingency actions
d. develop OHSMS objectives for risk control
10. Which of the following information items is not required by ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 to be included in the initial review process? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 7)
a. relevant business management systems
b. competitor OHSMS benchmarks
c. hazards, risks, and controls
d. resources
Subject Area II. Topic D. Data Analysis and Applied Statistics
Area II.D. Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Points above this line on a Control chart indicate the process is out of control: (Mears, QIT&T, 69)
a. Loss Control Line (LCL)
b. Upper Control Limit (UCL)
c. Maximum Control Limit (MCL)
d. Lower Control Limit (LCL)
2. The fishbone diagram is used to: (Adams, TQSM, 142)
a. identify root causes
b. establish a sequence of events
c. determine flow over time
d. establish the vital few
3. This SPC tool is a bar graph of identified causes in descending order of magnitude or frequency: (Petersen, TSM, 271)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Run chart
c. Histogram
d. Fishbone diagram
4. The fishbone diagram is also called a: (Adams, TQSM, 143)
a. cause and effect diagram
b. run chart
c. branch-root tree
d. job flow diagram
5. Data points on a Control chart located outside control limits represent abnormal variation resulting from: (Mears, QIT&T, 68)
a. special causes
b. common causes
c. surface causes
d. root causes
6. When all data points on a Control chart are located inside control limits, the process is said to be: (Mears, QIT&T, 71)
a. predictable
b. static
c. stable
d. out of control
7. This SPC tool is a cause and effect diagram for analyzing problems and the factors that contribute to them: (Petersen, TSM, 272)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Run chart
c. Histogram
d. Fishbone diagram
8. This tool, also called an Ishikawa diagram, show relationships between events: (Mears, QIT&T, 52)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Run chart
c. Histogram
d. Fishbone diagram
9. This tool, employs a series of dots at various points on a table to show the relationship between two variables events: (Mears, QIT&T, 57)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Histogram
d. Fishbone diagram
10. This statistical tool shows a plot of data over time: (Adams, TQSM, 151)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Run chart
d. Fishbone diagram
Area II.D. Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. This tool is often called a line graph or trend chart and is used to display out of a process over time: (Mears, QIT&T, 61)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Run chart
d. Fishbone diagram
2. This SPC tool is a bar graph displaying a frequency distribution: (Petersen, TSM, 271)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Run chart
c. Histogram
d. Fishbone diagram
3. The vertical axis, which represents the quantity or frequency of what's being displayed on a run chart is called the: (Mears, QIT&T, 61)
a. x axis
b. y axis
c. key axis
d. z axis
4. Points below this line on a Control chart indicate the process is in control: (Mears, QIT&T, 69)
a. Loss Control Line (LCL)
b. Upper Control Limit (UCL)
c. Maximum Control Limit (MCL)
d. Lower Control Limit (LCL)
5. How do you know if a process is in statistical control when viewing a SPC control chart?
a. Performance exceeds standards
b. Performance measures are within upper and lower control limits
c. Customers are satisfied
d. Performance measures display variation consistent with a normal curve
6. This SPC tool is a graph displaying the correlation of two characteristics: (Petersen, TSM, 273)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Histogram
d. Fishbone diagram
7. What tool is used to identify statistically significant changes that may occur in a process? (Mears, QIT&T, 67)
a. Run chart
b. Scatter diagram
c. Control chart
d. Flow chart
8. A Histogram is used to:
a. Provide a picture using discrete data
b. Track continuous data over time.
c. Separate the vital few from the trivial
d. Identify the most important cause of a problem.
9. This SPC tool is a method of monitoring the output of a process or system, through sample measurement of a selected characteristic and analysis of its performance over time: (Petersen, TSM, 273)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Run chart
c. Histogram
d. Control chart
10. Dan Petersen calls this the working tool of statistical control. It is particularly useful for plotting accident rates against time, with the overall accident rate or mean for the entire period: (Petersen, TSM, 273)
a. Pareto diagram
b. Run chart
c. Histogram
d. Control chart
Area II.D. Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. A Pareto Chart is used to:
a. Document the steps and material used in a process
b. Identify averages of performance measure
c. Separate the vital few from the trivial
d. Track performance over time
2. Points below this line on a Control chart indicate the process is out of control: (Mears, QIT&T, 69)
a. Loss Control Line (LCL)
b. Upper Control Limit (UCL)
c. Maximum Control Limit (MCL)
d. Lower Control Limit (LCL)
3. According to Dan Petersen, if data is outside the UCL or LCL on a control chart, it is: (Petersen, TSM, 274)
a. caused by a common cause
b. a chance occurrence - a warning to be watchful
c. not strictly by chance - something is wrong
d. a random occurrence - something may be wrong
4. Which of the control limits below have proved satisfactory for industrial accident studies? (Petersen, TSM, 274)
a. 1 percent
b. 2 percent
c. 5 percent
d. 10 percent
5. If a number of data points fall below the LCL on an accident rate control chart, it indicates: (Petersen, TSM, 275)
a. a significant change for the better
b. a significant change for the worse
c. a negative change for which there is an assignable cause
d. a positive change due to system improvements
6. Data points on a Control chart located inside control limits represent normal variation resulting from: (Mears, QIT&T, 68)
a. special causes
b. common causes
c. surface causes
d. root causes
7. Which of the following is not considered by Petersen as one of the three SPC tools that gets most results in safety? (Petersen, TSM, 278)
a. pareto chart
b. fishbone diagram
c. process flow diagram
d. control chart
8. When some data points on a Control chart are located outside control limits, the process should be: (Mears, QIT&T, 71)
a. stopped and corrected
b. not be changed
c. considered unpredictable
d. monitored more closely
9. According to Petersen, one percent control limits are satisfactory for industrial accident studies. However, should all data points fall within control limits what percent control limit does Petersen think might be more satisfactory? (Petersen, TSM, 276)
a. 2 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 8 percent
d. 10 percent
10. According to Petersen, there are easier methods to analyze data than the control chart. About 80 percent of all safety problems can be handled with each of the following, except: (Petersen, TSM, 277)
a. Pareto chart
b. fishbone diagram
c. process flow diagram
d. scatter diagram
Area II.D. Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. The _____________ is used for coding the case characteristics of injuries and illnesses in the OSH program and the Census of Fatal Occupational Injuries (CFOI) program: (BLS)
a. Occupational Statistical Analysis Worksheet (OSAW)
b. Occupational Injury and Illness Classification Manual (OI&ICM)
c. Bureau of Labor Statistics Injury Classification System (BLSICS)
d. Bureau of Labor Injury and Illness Classification Manual (BLIICM)
2. Which term below is defined as a set of procedures for collecting and organizing nonstructured information into a standardized format that allows one to make inferences about the characteristics and meaning of written and otherwise recorded material? (Glossary)
a. segmental analysis
b. content analysis
c. program review
d. process control
3. Which term below is defined as a sampling technique that makes no attempt to achieve representativeness, but chooses subjects based on convenience and accessibility? (Glossary)
a. non-programmed sample
b. content sample
c. random sample
d. accidental sample
4. Which term is defined as the systematic examination of records and the investigation of other evidence to determine the propriety, compliance, and adequacy of programs, systems, and operations? (Glossary)
a. inspection
b. audit
c. sample
d. assessment
5. This type of data is often gathered through intake interviews and observations and are used later for comparing measures that determine changes in a program: (Glossary)
a. inspection
b. human-factors
c. baseline
d. behavior-based
6. If a greater amount of caffeine ingested results in a longer time taken to fall asleep, which relationship exists? (Glossary)
a. inverse
b. causal
c. independent
d. disproportionate
7. Groups of a safety program under study are randomly assigned to either which two groups below? (Glossary)
a. control, experimental
b. pre-test, post-test
c. independent, dependent
d. stable, variable
8. Which term below describes a group of individuals whose characteristics are similar to those of program participants but who do not receive the program services, products, or activities being evaluated? (Glossary)
a. non-participants
b. controls
c. experimental group
d. control group
9. Which group in a study is used to assess the effect of program activities on participants who are receiving the services, products, or activities being evaluated. (Glossary)
a. pre-test group
b. experimental group
c. control group
d. dependent group
10. What is the term used to describe a numerical value that identifies the strength of a relationship between variables. (Glossary)
a. linkage
b. proportionality
c. coefficient of dependency
d. correlation coefficient
Subject Area II. Topic E. Safety in Design
Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Which of the following is the least effective method to control hazards in the workplace? (Hammer, 186)
a. design to eliminate the hazard
b. use protective safety devices
c. automatic warning devices
d. safe work procedures
2. Generally, hazards may be controlled most effectively in the workplace through: (Hammer, 186)
a. personal protective equipment
b. engineering controls
c. administrative controls
d. education
3. Which of the following is the most effective method to control hazards in the workplace? (Hammer, 186)
a. design to eliminate the hazard
b. use protective safety devices
c. automatic warning devices
d. safe work procedures
4. If it is infeasible to eliminate the hazard through design, which strategy should be considered next? (Hammer, 186)
a. design to eliminate the hazard
b. use protective safety devices
c. automatic warning devices
d. safe work procedures
5. If it is infeasible to eliminate the hazard through design or protective safety devices, which strategy should be considered next? (Hammer, 186)
a. design to eliminate the hazard
b. use protective safety devices
c. automatic warning devices
d. safe work procedures
6. According to Willie Hammer, the most effective method of avoiding accidents is with designs that are: (Hammer, 188)
a. extrinsically safe
b. intrinsically safe
c. automatically safe
d. intuitively safe
7. According to Willie Hammer, intrinsic safety can be achieved by which of the following methods? (Hammer, 188)
a. use fail-safe designs
b. use personal protective equipment
c. minimize failure through procedures
d. limit the hazard below which it can do no harm
8. According to Willie Hammer, intrinsic safety can be achieved by which of the following methods? (Hammer, 188)
a. eliminate the hazard entirely
b. use personal protective equipment
c. minimize failure through procedures
d. limit exposure to the hazard
9. Which of the following is true concerning intrinsic safety? (Hammer, 188)
a. any accident will be minor
b. there is minimum possibility of an accident
c. there is no possibility of an accident
d. any accident will not be due to design
10. Which is true concerning safety by design through the use of engineering controls? (OSHA)
a. They manage exposure through safe procedures
b. They eliminate or reduce the hazard, itself
c. They depend on hazard identification and correction
d. They always require a higher up-front expense
Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Which is true concerning safety by design through the use of engineering controls? (OSHA)
a. They manage exposure through safe procedures
b. They eliminate or reduce the hazard, itself
c. They depend on hazard identification and correction
d. They always require a higher up-front expense
2. All of the following are examples of sound engineering controls, EXCEPT (OSHA)
a. Replacing a toxic chemical with a non-toxic chemical
b. Conducting OJT prior to the start of work
c. Enclosing a noise source
d. Redesigning a conveyor built to eliminate reaching
3. Safety by design, or design-in safety, can be valuable because: (NSC, APME&T, 704)
a. safety planning relies on administrative controls
b. safety planning focuses on back-end safeguarding approaches
c. safety planning is geared toward specific work procedures
d. safety planning is geared toward a one-fits-all approach
4. All of the following are important safety by design approaches, EXCEPT: (NSC, APME&T, 705)
a. safeguards are designed to suit intended work
b. recognize that zero risk does not exist
c. depend on employees to take corrective action
d. determine feasible controls before awarding a contract
5. All of the following are important safety by design approaches, EXCEPT: (NSC, APME&T, 705)
a. guard pinch points
b. periodic safety meetings for engineers
c. eliminate pinch points
d. analyze injury statistics to determine specific problems
6. All of the following are important safety by design approaches, EXCEPT: (NSC, APME&T, 705)
a. design controls to isolate drive power
b. power is either on or off
c. use control circuits for isolating energy
d. where feasible, use automatic, passive controls
7. All of the following are important safety by design approaches, EXCEPT: (NSC, APME&T, 705)
a. guard to facilitate maintenance
b. use light screens and mats on many machines
c. design service points so safeguarding need not be interrupted
d. guard and interlocks that make maintenance difficult
8. All of the following are important safety by design approaches, EXCEPT: (NSC, APME&T, 705)
a. install multiple levels of safeguarding
b. provide for observation of operations where required
c. use perimeter guards and large guarded areas
d. guard close to the hazard
9. Isolation, lockouts, lockpins, and interlocks are predicated on all of the following principles, EXCEPT? (Hammer, 189)
a. preventing incompatible events
b. isolating a recognized hazard
c. controlling exposure
d. providing a release
10. Which of the following is considered an effective design measure to prevent accidents? (Hammer, 190)
a. signage
b. isolation
c. enforcement
d. education
Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. Which control measure is used to separate incompatible conditions or materials that together would constitute a hazard? (Hammer, 190)
a. lockpins
b. lockouts
c. interlocks
d. isolation
2. Which control measure is used to limit the effects of controlled energy release? (Hammer, 190)
a. isolation
b. replacement
c. substitution
d. location
3. All of the following are common means for separating personnel, equipment, and operations, EXCEPT: (Hammer, 191)
a. lockpins
b. lockouts
c. interlocks
d. signage
4. Which of the following prevents an event from occurring or prevents a person, object, force, or other factor from entering an undesired zone? (Hammer, 191)
a. lockpins
b. lockouts
c. interlocks
d. isolation
5. Fail-safe designs ensure all of the following EXCEPT: (Hammer, 194)
a. failures will leave the system unaffected
b. failures result in no equipment damage
c. failures are anticipated and prevented
d. failures result in no employee injury
6. Which of the following is not one of the three fail-safe designs strategies? (Hammer, 194)
a. fail-remote design
b. fail-passive design
c. fail-active design
d. fail-operational design
7. This failure design strategy reduces the system to its lowest energy level: (Hammer, 194)
a. fail-remote design
b. fail-passive design
c. fail-active design
d. fail-operational design
8. This failure design strategy allows system functions to continue safely until corrective action is possible: (Hammer, 194)
a. fail-remote design
b. fail-passive design
c. fail-active design
d. fail-operational design
9. This failure design strategy maintains an energized condition that keeps the system in a safe operating mode until corrective action occurs: (Hammer, 194)
a. fail-startup design
b. fail-passive design
c. fail-active design
d. fail-operational design
10. This failure design strategy shuts down the system until corrective action can be taken: (Hammer, 194)
a. fail-down design
b. fail-passive design
c. fail-active design
d. fail-operational design
Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. This failure design strategy typically uses circuit breakers and fuses as fail-safe devices: (Hammer, 194)
a. fail-down design
b. fail-passive design
c. fail-active design
d. fail-operational design
2. This failure design strategy operates an alternate system until corrective action can be taken: (Hammer, 194)
a. fail-down design
b. fail-passive design
c. fail-active design
d. fail-operational design
3. This failure design strategy is most preferable since there is no loss of function: (Hammer, 195)
a. fail-down design
b. fail-passive design
c. fail-active design
d. fail-operational design
4. Which of the following is not one of the three principal design methods discussed by Willie Hammer to minimize system failure? (Hammer, 196)
a. Safety factors and margins
b. Criteria measurement
c. Failure rate reduction
d. Parameter monitoring
5. This design method to minimize failure, components and structures are designed with strengths far greater than those normally required: (Hammer, 196)
a. Safety factors and margins
b. Criteria measurement
c. Failure rate reduction
d. Parameter monitoring
6. This design method to minimize failure, components and design arrangements are used to produce expected lifetimes far beyond the proposed periods of use: (Hammer, 196)
a. Safety factors and margins
b. Criteria measurement
c. Failure rate reduction
d. Parameter monitoring
7. This design method to minimize failure, temperature, noise, gas concentration, vibration and other specific parameters are under surveillance to ensure they remain within specified limits: (Hammer, 196)
a. Safety factors and margins
b. Criteria measurement
c. Failure rate reduction
d. Parameter monitoring
8. An item designed with a safety factor of 4 would be expected to fail _______ as an item with a safety factor of 2: (Hammer, 196)
a. twice as often
b. half as often
c. just as often
d. more often
9. Which of the following concepts is a refinement of the more inaccurate safety factor? (Hammer, 196)
a. margin of safety
b. safety element
c. safety marker
d. margin of error
10. This term expresses the ratio of strength to stress: (Hammer, 196)
a. margin of safety
b. safety factor
c. stress factor
d. strength-stress margin
Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. The margin of safety may be expressed as the ratio of: (Hammer, 197)
a. maximum strength/minimum stress
b. maximum stress/minimum strength
c. minimum strength/maximum stress
d. minimum stress/maximum strength
2. Which of the following is not a method of failure rate reduction? (Hammer, 197)
a. Parallel movements
b. increased life expectancy
c. Timed replacements
d. Redundant arrangements
3. In this design strategy, conditions exist so that components work longer than expected: (Hammer, 197)
a. Screening
b. Derating
c. Timed replacements
d. Redundant arrangements
4. In this design strategy, closely monitors component quality: (Hammer, 198)
a. Screening
b. Derating
c. Timed replacements
d. Redundant arrangements
5. In this design strategy, components are replaced before they are expected to wear out: (Hammer, 198)
a. Screening
b. Derating
c. Timed replacements
d. Redundant arrangements
6. In this design strategy, components are placed in series or parallel to minimize the probability of operational failure: (Hammer, 199)
a. Screening
b. Derating
c. Timed replacements
d. Redundant arrangements
7. As a design strategy to minimize failure, this system is of no value unless it leads to suitable corrective action when necessary: (Hammer, 200)
a. Screening
b. Derating
c. Monitoring
d. Arranging
8. Which of the following is not one of a monitoring system process? (Hammer, 200)
a. Detection
b. Measurement
c. Interpretation
d. Reporting
9. Which of the following is not one of a monitoring system process? (Hammer, 200)
a. Screening
b. Measurement
c. Interpretation
d. Response
10. Designing and constructing tools, equipment, machines and workstations so that employees will be less likely to make errors resulting in accidents is called: (Petersen, HERSM, 81)
a. Safety engineering
b. Human factors engineering
c. Fail-safe design
d. Man-work-environment design
Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. What are the two general classes of displays designed to gather and translate information to help workers use various senses in the work environment? (Petersen, HERSM, 86)
a. Pictorial and symbolic
b. Internal and external
c. Visual and tactile
d. Kinetic and auditory
2. What are the two common types of symbolic informational displays: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)
a. Pictorial and symbolic
b. Internal and external
c. Visual and auditory
d. Kinetic and static
3. All of the following are general principles for effective symbolic information displays, EXCEPT: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)
a. Principle of simplicity
b. Principle of compatibility
c. Principle of arrangement
d. Principle of interpretation
4. Which of the following is not one of the general principles for effective symbolic information displays? (Petersen, HERSM, 86)
a. Principle of complexity
b. Principle of compatibility
c. Principle of arrangement
d. Principle of coding
5. According this symbolic display design principle, it's important to keep the design of the display so that it may be easily read: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)
a. Principle of simplicity
b. Principle of compatibility
c. Principle of arrangement
d. Principle of coding
6. According this symbolic display design principle, the location dials on a control panel is important to reduce check-reading time: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)
a. Principle of simplicity
b. Principle of compatibility
c. Principle of arrangement
d. Principle of coding
7. According this symbolic display design principle, the display should be labeled so that the operator can tell immediately to what mechanism the display refers, what units are measured, and what the critical range is:
(Petersen, HERSM, 86)
a. Principle of simplicity
b. Principle of compatibility
c. Principle of arrangement
d. Principle of coding
8. The principle of coding states a display should clearly indicate all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)
a. What mechanism the display refers
b. What steps to take if the reading is above UCL
c. What units are measured
d. What the critical range is
9. All of the following are described by Frank Vilardo as important principles in the design of effective auditory displays, EXCEPT: (Petersen, HERSM, 88-89)
a. Situationality - what is the environment like?
b. Compatibility - do signals explain and exploit learned associations?
c. Approximation - is a two-stage signal system used to convey complex information?
d. Associability - are signals associated with concrete responses?
10. All of the following are described by Frank Vilardo as important principles in the design of effective auditory displays, EXCEPT: (Petersen, HERSM, 88-89)
a. Parsimony - is the signal sending more information than is required?
b. Forced entry - does the signal prevent focus on only one aspect of the total signal?
c. Arrangement - is the signal arranged in a logical sequence?
d. Dissociability - are signals easily discernible from other sounds?
Subject Area II. Topic F. Benchmarking
Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. What is the process of looking at other organizations to see what they are doing in safety called? (Petersen, ASSE, 29)
a. industry analysis
b. benchmarking
c. external analysis
d. competitor assessment
2. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 29-30)
a. Accountability must reflect requisite level of authority
b. Identify a top management corporate safety champion
c. Discipline must occur quickly and be significant
d. Visible senior management ownership of safety
3. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 30)
a. Hold senior management accountable through operating budgets
b. Identify corporate 'islands of excellence' among worksites
c. Use leading indicators to help predict changes in performance
d. Establish incentive program based on accident records
4. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 30)
a. Reset expectations based on accident rates
b. Use metrics that drive continuous improvement
c. Monitor safety performance versus program implementation
d. Safety performance expectations should harmonize with business objectives
5. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 30)
a. Performance targets are well defined and clearly communicated
b. Bonuses and merit pay are tied to accident records and rates
c. Safety performance is rewarded and tied to compensation and budgets
d. Root cause analysis is performed in formulating disciplinary actions
6. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 30)
a. Leading companies focus on a narrow range of media to communicate safety
b. Senior managers conduct employee surveys and communicate one-on-one
c. Safety programs and expectations are discussed with prospective employees
d. Safety successes are communicated with the same emphasis as accidents
7. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 30)
a. Training requirements are tracked to determine the status of training
b. Feedback is solicited from employees and training sponsors
c. Inspections are used to determine retention of learning
d. Observations are used to modify training if needed
8. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 30-31)
a. Training requirements are tracked to determine the status of training
b. Computer-based, self-paced training and other innovative training techniques are used
c. Observations of behavior are used to assess retention of learning
d. Traditional training techniques are used to maximize learning
9. Benchmarking is a strategy for: (Mears, 155)
a. determining useful criteria for short-term improvement
b. assessing engineering controls within a facility
c. evaluating competitor performance and tactics
d. copying best practices of companies that excel
10. Which of the following is not true concerning benchmarking? (Mears, 155)
a. look at internal and external business functions
b. limit evaluation to companies within the industry
c. wide, broad-based comparisons should be used
d. copy the best practice in a given business function
Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Which of the following is not one of the five types of benchmarking? (Mears, 155)
a. Internal
a. External
c. Competitive
d. World-class
2. Which of the following is not one of the five types of benchmarking? (Mears, 155)
a. Internal
b. Shadow
c. Department
d. World-class
3. Which of the following is not one of the five types of benchmarking? (Mears, 155)
a. Annual
b. Shadow
c. Industrial
d. World-class
4. This type of benchmarking occurs when a company looks at its own divisions and compares operational functions: (Mears, 155)
a. Internal
b. Shadow
c. Industrial
d. World-class
5. This type of benchmarking identifies and compares key competitive characteristics of a product or service: (Mears, 155)
a. Internal
b. Shadow
c. Industrial
d. Competitive
6. This type of benchmarking monitoring key product and service attributes of a successful competitor and meeting changes they occur: (Mears, 155)
a. Internal
b. Shadow
c. Industrial
d. Competitive
7. This type of benchmarking is also called functional benchmarking: (Mears, 156)
a. Internal
b. Shadow
c. Industrial
d. Competitive
8. This type of benchmarking may be conducted through the use of shared information among industrial associations: (Mears, 156)
a. Internal
b. Shadow
c. Industrial
d. Competitive
9. This type of benchmarking, also called general-process benchmarking, compares processes across diverse industrial groups: (Mears, 156)
a. World-class
b. Cross-functional
c. Industrial
d. Competitive
10. The beginner in the benchmarking process should concentrate on: (Mears, 156)
a. investment results
b. cycle time reduction
c. product innovation
d. resource utilization
Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. According to Mears, what two teams are required to conduct the benchmarking process? (Mears, 157)
a. problem identification team, problem resolution team
b. needs assessment team, benchmarking team
c. external assessment team, internal solution team
d. development team, solution team
2. The purpose of this team is to identify internal and external needs: (Mears, 157)
a. problem identification team
b. needs and wants team
c. needs development team
d. needs assessment team
3. This team is to concentrates on the firm's critical success factors: (Mears, 157)
a. problem solving team
b. needs and wants team
c. benchmarking team
d. needs assessment team
4. Which of the following is not one of the steps the benchmarking team's process? (Mears, 157-158)
a. Write operational definitions of critical success factors
b. Develop a baseline as an internal reference point
c. Determine team roles and responsibilities
d. Brainstorm ideas to identify best in class
5. It's important for the needs assessment team to identify the needs of all of the following groups, EXCEPT: (Mears, 157)
a. internal customer
b. key customer
c. external customer
d. primary customer
6. This benchmarking team must first write a clear definition of each identified critical success factor: (Mears, 157)
a. problem solving team
b. needs and wants team
c. benchmarking team
d. needs assessment team
7. Which of the following is not one of the steps the benchmarking team's process? (Mears, 157-158)
a. Write operational objectives
b. Baseline your own process
c. Gather data on best practices
d. Analyze and communicate findings
8. This benchmarking team must first write a clear operational definition of each critical success factor: (Mears, 157)
a. problem solving team
b. needs and wants team
c. benchmarking team
d. needs assessment team
9. Which of the following is not one of the steps the benchmarking team's process? (Mears, 157-158)
a. Write operational definitions of critical success factors
b. Evaluate the benchmarking process, itself
c. Develop implementation strategies
d. Identify best in class
10. Which of the following is not one of the steps the benchmarking team's process? (Mears, 157-158)
a. Write operational definitions of critical success factors
b. Develop a baseline as an internal reference point
c. Determine team roles and responsibilities
d. Identify best in class
Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Benchmarking may actually be quite complicated due to: (Mears, 157-158)
a. the potential for unexpected, unwanted results
b. the vast number of different potential outcomes
c. the lack of time to conduct a thorough assessment
d. the lack of cooperation among competitors
2. According to Mears, benchmarking may actually be quite complicated due to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Mears, 158-159)
a. the potential for unexpected, unwanted results
b. the vast number of different potential outcomes
c. the lack of time to conduct a thorough assessment
d. the lack of cooperation among competitors
3. Which term means striving to be the 'best of the best,' the essence of benchmarking? (Camp, 3)
a. haioku
b. dantotsu
c. kaisen
d. komotsu
4. Which of the following is not one of Camp's philosophical steps of benchmarking? (Camp, 4)
a. know your operation
b. know the industry leaders
c. out-compete the competitor
d. gain superiority
5. Which of the following is not one of Camp's philosophical steps of benchmarking? (Camp, 4)
a. know your operation
b. know the industry leaders
c. incorporate the best
d. gain cooperation
6. Assessing the strengths and weaknesses of your company's internal operations occurs within which of Camp's philosophical steps of benchmarking? (Camp, 4)
a. know your operation
b. know the industry leaders
c. incorporate the best
d. gain cooperation
7. Which philosophical step of benchmarking encourages copying, modifying, and incorporating a competitor's methods? (Camp, 4)
a. know your operation
b. know the industry leaders
c. incorporate the best
d. gain cooperation
8. Benchmarking may be divided into which two basic parts? (Camp, 4)
a. conditions, practices
b. profound knowledge, excellent skills
c. practices, metrics
d. investigation, solution
9. In the benchmarking process, the quantified effect or target of installing best practices is called a: (Camp, 4)
a. output
b. metric
c. result
d. outcome
10. In the benchmarking process, the methods used are called: (Camp, 4)
a. behaviors
b. activities
c. practices
d. actions
Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. Which of the following should be investigated first in the benchmarking process? (Camp, 4)
a. corporate culture
b. quantified metrics
c. best practices
d. valid results
2. What is the major problem with investigating metrics without first investigating best practices? (Camp, 5)
a. cannot determine why the gap exists
b. no ability to validate data
c. takes too much time
d. requires extensive knowledge base
3. According to Camp, once a metric is determined, it begs the question: (Camp, 5)
a. who
b. what
c. where
d. why
4. All of the following are benefits of benchmarking, except: (Camp, 9)
a. enables incorporation of best practices
b. stimulates and motivates creativity
c. increases acceptance of internal changes
d. identification of technological breakthroughs
5. All of the following are benefits of benchmarking, except: (Camp, 9)
a. enables incorporation of best practices
b. stimulates and motivates creativity
c. increases acceptance of changes originating externally
d. guards against trademark and technological theft
6. The formal definition of benchmarking states that it is a continuous process of measuring all of the following, except: (Camp, 10)
a. products
b. promotions
c. services
d. practices
7. The formal definition of benchmarking states that it is a continuous process of measuring products, services and practices against: (Camp, 10)
a. competing departments
b. the toughest of the toughest competitors
c. all industry standards
d. OSHA minimum requirements
8. The formal definition of benchmarking states that it is a continuous process of measuring products, services and practices against: (Camp, 10)
a. companies recognized as industry leaders
b. major business units
c. competing profit centers
d. regulatory requirements
9. According to camp, to be successful, benchmarking must be: (Camp, 10)
a. company wide
b. cooperative
c. competitive
d. continuous
10. Which two basic measurement forms are used in the benchmarking process? (Camp, 11)
a. investigation, expert panel
b. publications, audit
c. word statement, quantified gap analysis
d. opinion survey, quality comparison analysis
Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. The employer can apply benchmarking to all of the following, except: (Camp, 11)
a. products, services, practices
b. all facets of a business
c. processes, practices, methods
d. competitor reaction to best practices
2. According to Camp, it is a mistake to aim benchmarking at which of the following? (Camp, 11)
a. competitor products, services, practices
b. firms recognized as industry leaders
c. solely at direct product competitors
d. competitors in the same industry
3. Camp's working definition of benchmarking states that it is the search for industry best practices that lead to which of the following? (Camp, 12)
a. superior outcomes
b. superior performance
c. superior image
d. superior marketshare
4. According to Camp, on what should the focus of benchmarking be placed to make sure overall effectiveness is achieved? (Camp, 13)
a. practices
b. metrics
c. performance
d. results
5. According to Camp, to be most effective, benchmarking should be approached as a/an: (Camp, 13)
a. seek and destroy mission
b. competition between both parties
c. partnership between both parties
d. isolated information gathering process
6. Which of the following should not be considered the primarily objective of benchmarking? (Camp, 14)
a. resource reductions
b. improved performance
c. reduced production waste
d. increased marketshare
7. According to Camp, benchmarking should not be considered any of the following, except: (Camp, 14)
a. a cookbook process
b. a mechanism to reduce resources
c. a panacea or program
d. a continuous improvement process
8. When best practices are translated into operational units of measure, benchmarks are: (Camp, 15)
a. signs of past mistakes
b. indicators of needs analysis
c. projections of a future state
d. a continuous improvement process
9. Which of the following does not occur in the planning phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)
a. benchmarks are identified
b. functional goals are established
c. comparative companies are identified
d. data collection method is determined
10. In the planning phase of the benchmarking process, all of the following occur, except: (Camp, 17)
a. benchmarks are identified
b. functional goals are established
c. comparative companies are identified
d. data collection method is determined
Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. Which of the following occurs during the analysis phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)
a. current performance gap is determined
b. functional goals are established
c. comparative companies are identified
d. data collection method is determined
2. Which of the following occurs during the analysis phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)
a. past performance gap measured
b. functional goals are established
c. future performance levels are projected
d. data collection method is determined
3. All of the following occur during the integration phase of the benchmarking process, except: (Camp, 17)
a. communicate benchmark findings
b. gain acceptance of findings
c. establish functional goals
d. data collection method is refined
4. All of the following occur during the action phase of the benchmarking process, except: (Camp, 17)
a. actions plans are developed
b. gain acceptance of findings
c. specific actions are implemented
d. benchmarks are recalibrated
5. All of the following occur during the action phase of the benchmarking process, except: (Camp, 17)
a. actions plans are developed
b. future performance levels are projected
c. specific actions are monitored
d. benchmarks are recalibrated
6. Which of the following occurs during the maturity phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)
a. leadership position is attained
b. future performance levels are projected
c. specific actions are monitored
d. benchmarks are recalibrated
7. Which of the following occurs during the maturity phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)
a. a look-back is revisited
b. future performance levels are projected
c. practices are fully integrated into processes
d. benchmarks are recalibrated
8. During the planning phase of the benchmarking process, all of the following basic questions are asked, except: (Camp, 16)
a. when will we benchmark?
b. what is to be benchmarked?
c. to whom or what will we compare?
d. how will the data be collected?
9. The benchmarking process is fundamentally one of: (Camp, 18)
a. system analysis
b. comparative analysis
c. product analysis
d. process analysis
10. Which of the following is not one the results of gap analysis in the benchmarking process? (Camp, 18)
a. negative
b. neutral
c. positive
d. parity
Subject Area II. Topic G. Behavior Safety Processes
Area II.G. Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, all of the following are symptoms indicating something wrong in the safety management system, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. unsafe condition
b. unsafe act
c. an accident
d. low morale
2. According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, the key to effective line safety performance is management procedures that: (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. fix accountability
b. encourage safe behaviors
c. are formal
d. apply to everyone
3. According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, in most cases, unsafe behavior is: (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. normal behavior
b. normal reaction to the environment
c. can be classified
d. all of the above
4. According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, what should management do to change unsafe behavior? (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. fix accountability
b. encourage safe behaviors
c. change the environment
d. rely on positive reinforcement
5. Which of the following subsystems, According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, is not key in building an effective safety management system? (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. the physical
b. the psychosocial
c. the managerial
d. the behavioral
6. Which of the following, According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, is one of the six criteria that must be met for a safety management system to be effective? (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. be inflexible in enforcement
b. involve external experts
c. force supervisor performance
d. balance punishment and reward
7. Which of the following, According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, is one of the six criteria that must be met for a safety management system to be effective? (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. be inflexible in enforcement
b. involve middle management
c. encourage supervisor performance
d. balance punishment and reward
8. Which of the following, According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, is one of the six criteria that must be met for a safety management system to be effective? (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. be flexible
b. involve the union
c. encourage supervisor performance
d. balance punishment and reward
9. Which of the following, According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, is one of the six criteria that must be met for a safety management system to be effective? (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. don't ignore
b. involve the union
c. encourage supervisor performance
d. be perceived as positive
10. Which of the following, According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, is one of the six criteria that must be met for a safety management system to be effective? (Petersen, SM, 15)
a. don't ignore
b. involve employees
c. encourage top management commitment
d. be perceived as positive
Area II.G. Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. It's generally understood that employees will comply with safety rules only if they are:
a. formal
b. posted
c. enforced
d. supervised
2. According to Petersen, manuals do not driver performance, it is driven by: (Petersen, TSM, 91)
a. manpower
b. measurement
c. motivation
d. meaning
3. According to the National Safety Management Society, a prime method of accomplishing safety objectives is to: (Petersen, SM, 19)
a. manage human behavior
b. comply with OSHA mandates
c. correct workplace conditions and practices
d. establish and operate systems
4. According to McGregor and Petersen, safety programs that rely primarily on rules and regulations reflect this management theory: (Petersen, SM, 20)
a. Theory W
b. Theory X
c. Theory Y
d. Theory Z
5. More recently, participative safety management programs that reflect this management style have appeared: (Petersen, SM, 20)
a. Theory W
b. Theory X
c. Theory Y
d. Theory Z
6. Blake and Mouton devised the Managerial Grid which categorized management styles along two axes. Which two management orientations are described on the Managerial Grid? (Petersen, SM, 20)
a. Theory X and Theory Y
b. Relationship and task
c. Superior and subordinate
d. Caring and controlling
7. According to Petersen, when this manager faces a safety problem, it is seen as a threat to production: (Petersen, SM, 20)
a. Theory X
b. Theory Y
c. Task oriented
d. Relationship oriented
8. According to Petersen, when this manager faces a safety problem, it is seen as a threat to employee welfare:
(Petersen, SM, 20)
a. Theory X
b. Theory Y
c. Task oriented
d. Relationship oriented
9. According to Petersen, when this manager is more likely to trust employees because they view work as natural: (Petersen, SM, 20)
a. Theory X
b. Theory Y
c. Task oriented
d. Relationship oriented
10. According to Petersen, when this manager is more likely not to trust employees because they dislike work: (Petersen, SM, 20)
a. Theory X
b. Theory Y
c. Task oriented
d. Relationship oriented
Area II.G. Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. This management principle states that the number of subordinates should be small: (Petersen, SM, 21)
a. unity of command
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. specialization
2. This theory describes why management tends to use more control, specialization, and pressure to overcome a lack of motivation, high turnover, and apathy: (Petersen, SM, 21)
a. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
b. Chris Argyris' Incongruency Theory
c. Douglas McGregor's Theory X Theory Y
d. Blake and Mouton's Managerial Grid
3. This management principle states that there should be only one boss: (Petersen, SM, 21)
a. chain of command
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. specialization
4. This management principle states that work should be broken down into small simple tasks: (Petersen, SM, 21)
a. chain of command
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. specialization
5. This management principle creates a superior-subordinate relationship: (Petersen, SM, 21)
a. chain of command
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. specialization
6. Chris Argyris' Incongruency Theory states there is a basic incongruency between the characteristics of the organization and: (Petersen, SM, 21)
a. immature worker
b. the motivated employee
c. the mature worker
d. the unmotivated employee
7. Chris Argyris believes incongruency causes all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 21)
a. fewer accidents due to poor work attitudes
b. higher turnover rate
c. unmotivated workforce
d. workers cling to the group, not organizational norms
8. According to Chris Argyris, management reacts to incongruency in all of the following ways, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 21)
a. more control
b. more specialization
c. more pressure
d. more pay
9. According to Herzberg's theory, an employee's attitude about work is influenced by which two paradigms or factors? (Petersen, SM, 22)
a. relationship, task
b. supervision, motivation
c. motivation, hygiene
d. hygiene, task
10. Herzberg's hygiene factors include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 22)
a. working conditions
b. supervision
c. policies
d. responsibility
Area II.G. Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Herzberg's motivation factors include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 22)
a. the work itself
b. supervision
c. achievement
d. recognition
2. Herzberg considers this strategy as the answer to motivating employees: (Petersen, SM, 22)
a. the work itself
b. salary
c. job enrichment
d. recognition
3. McGregor, Argyris, and Herzberg all agree that this management strategy does not get the results wanted and poses major problems in attitudes or relationships: (Petersen, SM, 22)
a. involvement
b. customer-supplier
c. job enrichment
d. close control
4. Petersen considers the model developed by these two researchers as perhaps the best in explaining manager and supervisor motivation: (Petersen, SM, 23)
a. Herzberg and Heinrich
b. Argyris and Petersen
c. Porter and Lawler
d. Blake and Mouton
5. Rensis Likert's study on the relationship between organizational climate and bottom line indicators of success discovered all of the following as important to highly successful organizations, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 26)
a. High levels of two-way trust between employees and managers
b. Teaching employees how to solve their own problems
c. A high degree of 'us vs. them' competition among departments
d. Employee soliciting ideas is extremely important
6. What is the phrase that refers to the use of applied behavior analysis methods to achieve continuous improvement in safety performance? (Krause, BBSP, 3)
a. strategic behavioral analysis (SBA)
b. behavior-based safety (BBS)
c. formal observation program (FOP)
d. employee surveillance systems (ESS)
7. The behavior-based safety process, as developed by Thomas Krause, includes all of the following methods, except: (Krause, BBSP, 3)
a. defining critical safety-related behaviors
b. developing discipline-observation linkage
c. observing to gather data on behaviors
d. providing feedback
8. The behavior-based safety process, as developed by Thomas Krause, includes all of the following methods, except: (Krause, BBSP, 3)
a. significant employee involvement
b. identifying safety-related behaviors
c. using data for continuous improvement
d. strong management involvement
9. What is the term Kruse uses to describe the use of observation data for action planning to make system improvements? (Krause, BBSP, 5)
a. the front end of BBS
b. the back end BBS
c. reactive BBS
d. proactive BBS
10. What is the term Krause uses to describe the identification of critical behaviors and their system observation with feedback? (Krause, BBSP, 5)
a. the front end of BBS
b. the back end BBS
c. reactive BBS
d. proactive BBS
Subject Area II. Topic H. Root Cause Analysis
Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. If a workplace fatality occurs, the affected employer must notify OSHA within _____: (29 CFR Part 1904)
a. 48 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 16 hours
d. 8 hours
2. OSHA defines a catastrophe as ______or more fatalities or _____ or more serious injuries: (29 CFR Part 1904)
a. 1,2
b. 2,3
c. 3,4
d. 4,5
3. When documenting the scene, one of the biggest challenges facing the investigator is to:
a. determine who is to blame
b. determine what is relevant
c. determine who is in charge
d. determine who is liable
4. Safety managers should do which of the following when it becomes clear that an accident investigation is necessary?
a. make sure the investigator submits an investigation report
b. try to get the investigation finished quickly
c. bring together a cross-functional team to investigate
d. use the OSHA Form 301 as the primary investigation report
5. The most effective documentation strategy is to:
a. document material evidence
b. document obviously relevant material
c. document it, even if relevancy is in question
d. document evidence to establish relevancy
6. When making personal observations, the accident investigator should consider which of the following:
a. What is not present
b. Condition of objects
c. What is present
d. All of the above
7. Photos are better at documenting the accident scene for all the reasons below except:
a. Photos more effectively show motion through time
b. Photos are better at displaying details
c. Photos best show size relationships
d. Photos are easier to produce
8. All of the following are ineffective interview techniques except:
a. Ask why-you questions
b. Ask open-ended questions
c. Try to intimidate the person being interviewed
d. Encourage fault-finding
9. What is the primary purpose of an accident investigation?
a. determine who is to blame
b. comply with insurer requirements
c. prevent future accidents
d. comply with OSHA requirements
10. Which of the following locations might be best for conducting the interview?
a. The scene of the accident
b. Your office
c. The lunch room
d. At a restaurant
Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. The purpose of effective root cause analysis is to:
a. fix the system
b. fix the blame
c. fix the problem
d. At a restaurant
2. Which of the following is false regarding accident investigation? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 140-141)
a. Never accept anything as fact until it has been proven.
b. Asking 'why' may appear to reflect a lack of knowledge.
c. Someone's head has always got to role.
d. Delving into the causes may be considered a personal affront.
3. No matter who conducts the investigation, the key person is:
a. the department head
b. the supervisor
c. the OSHA compliance officer
d. the safety engineer
4. When documenting the scene, one of the biggest challenges facing the investigator is to:
a. determine who is to blame
b. determine what is relevant
c. determine who is in charge
d. determine who is liable
5. According to the National Safety Council's Accident Prevention Manual for Industrial Operations, the principal purposes of an accident investigation are to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, TSM, 169-170)
a. determine facts hearing on legal liability.
b. learn accident causes so that similar accidents may be prevented.
c. publicize the particular hazard among employees and their supervisors.
d. determine the scope and nature of discipline
6. This process breaks down the whole into parts, steps, or events to see how they each relate to the whole:
a. Evaluation
b. Synthesis
c. Identification
d. Analysis
7. Failing to effectively enforce safety policies and rules is an example of a:
a. seminal root cause
b. personal root cause
c. system design root cause
d. system performance root cause
8. This process makes a judgment about the quality of something:
a. Evaluation
b. Synthesis
c. Identification
d. Analysis
9. Which theory below states that an accident is the result of a series related events: If you eliminate any one event, you prevent a future accident?
a. Single event theory
b. Domino theory
c. Multiple cause theory
d. System weakness theory
10. In event analysis, given the statement, 'Robert pounds a nail with a wrench,' ________ is the actor and ________ is the action: (Hendrick, Benner, 69)
a. wrench, pounds a nail
b. nail, with a wrench
c. Robert, pounds a nail
d. Robert, with a wrench
Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. All of the following are examples of possible surface causes of accidents, EXCEPT:
a. a tool
b. a process
c. a machine
d. a person
2. Which of the following is an example of possible root causes of an accident?
a. a tool
b. a process
c. a machine
d. a person
3. Surface causes describe hazardous _________ and unsafe _________. Root causes describe inadequate ________:
a. Systems, behaviors, conditions
b. Behaviors, activities, policies
c. Conditions, behaviors, systems
d. Conditions, systems, accountability
4. To be thorough in getting the facts, Grimaldi and Simonds believe the investigator should do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 141)
a. Begin as far back in history as you can.
b. Don't get tunnel vision by using a checklist.
c. Secure as many pertinent facts as possible.
d. Examine the physical environment closely.
5. If similar accidents occur repeatedly after accident investigations, what weaknesses in the analysis process is most likely the cause?
a. It focuses on placing blame
b. It focuses on root causes
c. It identifies only surface causes
d. It identifies both surface and root causes
6. If discipline occurs immediately after an accident occurs, what basic process flaw exists?
a. Blame is based on fact, not feeling
b. The process places blame before considering safety program weaknesses
c. The process determines system flaws before considering personal liability
d. The process neglects to place initial blame.
7. If an employer does not have a lockout/tagout program when required, what type of root cause best describes the condition?
a. lateral root cause
b. personal root cause
c. system design root cause
d. system performance root cause
8. Engineering controls include all of the following except:
a. Substitution
b. Enclosure
c. Rescheduling
d. Redesign
9. Solving safety problems usually involves finding solutions to all of the following except:
a. Hazardous conditions
b. Who was to blame
c. Unsafe work practices
d. Weaknesses in the safety program
10. Examples of root cause problems include all of the following except:
a. Machine not properly guarded.
b. Safety rules are not written.
c. The process used to investigate accidents is flawed.
d. Lockout/tagout procedures are inadequate.
Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Which of the following is not one of the three categories of analysis? (Petersen, TSM, 159)
a. behavioral
b. system or managerial
c. psychosocial
d. physical
2. Before 1931 which process was virtually the only analysis tool available to safety professionals? (Petersen, TSM, 159)
a. inspection
b. job hazard analysis
c. hazard identification
d. physical assessment
3. According to the National Safety Council's Accident Prevention Manual for Industrial Operations, the principal purposes of an accident investigation are to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, TSM, 169-170)
a. gather data supporting supervisor and employee accountability
b. learn accident causes so that similar accidents may be prevented.
c. publicize the particular hazard among employees and their supervisors.
d. determine the change or deviation that produced an error.
4. Which of the following LEAST expresses the effect of root cause analysis? (Petersen, TSM, 25)
a. may prevent future operational problems
b. determine appropriate personal weaknesses
c. effects permanent results
d. might prevent other types of accidents
5. Failing to carry out effective safety training is an example of which type of root cause?
a. system performance root cause
b. personal root cause
c. system design root cause
d. management root cause
6. A poorly written safety training plan is a good example of this type of root cause:
a. lateral root cause
b. personal root cause
c. system design root cause
d. system performance root cause
7. If an employer does not have a lockout/tagout program when required, what type of root cause best describes the condition?
a. lateral root cause
b. personal root cause
c. system design root cause
d. system performance root cause
8. A systematic processes to investigate an accident should to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Handrick & Brenner, 7)
a. provide a rigorously tested description of what happened
b. disclose and define specific problems
c. define and permit assessment of proposed corrective actions
d. relate findings to determine liability
9. Which of the following is the most appropriate accident investigation strategy? (NSC, APM-AP, 283)
a. investigate all injury accidents
b. investigate property damage events as well as injury accidents
c. investigate loss-time injuries
d. investigate each domino in order
10. This theory states that an accident might result in production tie-ups, excessive costs and customer complaints: (Petersen, ASSE, 9)
a. domino theory
b. active causation theory
c. theory of multiple causation
d. theory of cause and effect
Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. Which of the following is a fundamental rule regarding accident investigation? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 140)
a. Never accept anything as fact until it has been proven
b. If you remove one of the dominoes, the rest will fall
c. Someone's head has always got to role
d. It's all about fault-finding, not fact-finding
2. Which of the following is false regarding accident investigation? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 140-141)
a. Never accept anything as fact until it has been proven.
b. Asking 'why' may appear to reflect a lack of knowledge.
c. Someone's head has always got to role.
d. Delving into the causes may be considered a personal affront.
3. According to Grimaldi and Simonds, inspections by the unit safety specialist should be conducted: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 145)
a. in a random manner to ensure the element of surprise.
b. when a team inspection program is not established.
c. whether or not a team inspection program is established.
d. using a different route for each inspection.
4. To be thorough in getting the facts, Grimaldi and Simonds believe the investigator should do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 141)
a. Begin as far back in history as you can.
b. Don't get tunnel vision by using a checklist.
c. Secure as many pertinent facts as possible.
d. Examine the physical environment closely.
5. According to Petersen, this theory states we can trace all contributing factors to their underlying causes: (Petersen, ASSE, 9)
a. domino theory
b. active causation theory
c. theory of multiple causation
d. theory of cause and effect
6. Which of the following is not considered by the NSC as a fundamental activity in accident prevention? (NSC, APM-AP, 283)
a. study all work areas to detect and correct hazards
b. study all methods, practices and controls
c. strict adherence with regulatory standards
d. thorough investigation of at least lost-workday injuries
7. This theory states that production tie-ups, excessive costs and customer complaints have the same basic causes as accidents: (Petersen, ASSE, 9)
a. domino theory
b. active causation theory
c. theory of multiple causation
d. theory of cause and effect
8. Which of the following is the most appropriate accident investigation strategy? (NSC, APM-AP, 283)
a. the investigation board should determine discipline
b. be concerned only with the facts
c. investigate to uncover those responsible
d. investigate to establish accountability as well as the facts
9. This standard was used for years to help categorize injuries and accidents? (NSC, APM-AP, 284)
a. ANSI Z16.2
b. ANSI Z490.1
c. ISO 9001
d. ISO 14001
10. Which of the following identify the two main types of accident investigations? (Brauer, 569)
a. preventable, non-preventable
b. Type I, Type II
c. Disciplinary, non-disciplinary
d. general, specific
Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. What is the first step in the accident investigation process?
a. call 911
b. document the accident scene
c. secure the accident scene
d. get witness statements
2. In an accident investigation, which of the following steps follows the development of the sequence of events?
a. Analyze each event to identify surface causes
b. Analyze each event to determine rule violations
c. Analyze each event to determine root causes
d. Analyze each event to determine solutions
3. A worker has slipped on a wet floor in the processing plant. What might be a surface cause?
a. the safety committee is not inspecting
b. housekeeping policy not usually enforced
c. leak in a pipe
d. hazards are not being reporting
4. A worker has slipped on a wet floor in the processing plant. What might be a system performance root cause for the accident?
a. the safety committee has no inspection plan
b. a housekeeping policy does not exist
c. leak in a pipe
d. hazards are not being reporting
5. This is the most frequency type of accident investigation in most workplaces: (Brauer, 570)
a. Specific
b. General
c. Audit
d. Technical
6. A worker has slipped on a wet floor in the processing plant. What might be a system design root cause for the accident?
a. the mop used to clean spills is broken
b. housekeeping policy is not being enforced
c. leak in a pipe
d. there is no daily safety inspection plan
7. Which of the following is not one of the requirements of an effective safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 37)
a. force supervisory performance
b. flexibility
c. employee conformance
d. positive perceptions
8. According to Petersen, in most cases, unsafe behavior is a normal behavior; it is the result of normal people reacting to:(Petersen, TSM, 35)
a. internal beliefs
b. perceived necessary risks
c. management pressures
d. their environment
9. Which of the following is not listed by Petersen as one of the management activities required after setting safety goals? (Petersen, TSM, 29)
a. controlling
b. planning
c. encouraging
d. organizing
10. According to Petersen, this theory states we can trace all contributing factors to their underlying causes (Petersen, ASSE, 9)
a. domino theory
b. active causation theory
c. theory of multiple causation
d. theory of cause and effect
Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. According to Petersen, all of the following methods have statistical validity in measuring safety management system effectiveness, except: (Petersen, ASSE, 33)
a. perception surveys
b. accident statistics
c. interviews
d. behavior sampling
2. According to Petersen, which of the following methods will be statistical valid in measuring safety management system effectiveness? (Petersen, ASSE, 33)
a. perception surveys
b. accident statistics
c. experience modification rates
d. compliance audits
3. Which of the following methods is likely to result in a valid measurement of an organization's safety culture? (Petersen, ASSE, 33)
a. incident/accident analysis
b. accident statistics
c. experience modification rates
d. perception survey
4. Which of the following methods is a good alternative to the perception survey in obtaining valid data about an organization's safety culture? (Petersen, ASSE, 36)
a. incident/accident analysis
b. accident statistics
c. employee interviews
d. perception survey
5. According to Petersen, all of the following must be present to ensure accident investigation procedures, except: (Petersen, ASSE, 50)
a. a real look at symptoms
b. properly trained investigators
c. communication of results to the proper people
d. follow-up on causes
6. A facility fire would require which type of investigation? (Brauer, 570)
a. Specific
b. General
c. Audit
d. Technical
Subject Area II. Topic I. Safety Management Theory
Area II.I Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. According to Grimaldi and Simons, what is a primary difference between the role of safety administrators and safety managers? (Grimaldi and Simons, p 86)
a. controlling
b. persuading
c. organizing
d. coordinating
2. According to Grimaldi and Simons, who is responsible no matter who is at fault when serious injuries occur? (Grimaldi and Simons, p.88)
a. the principles
b. safety managers
c. first-line supervisors
d. line employees
3. A manager who has inadequate knowledge, skills and abilities, is consequently not performing well in his position. This situation is an example of:
a. the glass-window
b. Pascal's Law
c. Peter Principle
d. Heinrich's Principle
4. All of the following concepts are generally accepted by today's safety management community, except:
a. accident proneness
b. domino theory
c. behavior reinforcement
d. multiple causation
5. There is evidence that occupational safety and health actually began with:
a. OSHA Act of 1970
b. the ancient Egyptians
c. initiation of agriculture
d. the industrial revolution
6. The original 'Three E's', developed early in the last century stood for:
a. Enlightenment, Enforcement, and Engineering
b. Engineering, Enlightenment, and Enforcement
c. Engineering, Education and Enforcement
d. Engineering, Enlightenment, and Education
7. It is generally understood that for each dollar an employer invests in safety, the ROI will be:
a. Five times investment
b. Four times investment
c. Three times investment
d. Two times investment
8. Traditionally, the safety function was considered separate from other functions. Now, however, it is generally thought that safety management should involve:
a. a labor-management safety committee
b. left to top management
c. an integrated, cross-functional team
d. outside consultants
9. Safety managers will first attempt to use this control measure to eliminate or reduce a workplace hazard:
a. engineering
b. management-work practice
c. personal protective equipment
d. interim measures
10. Safety managers will use this control measure to eliminate or reduce exposure to a hazard:
a. engineering
b. management-work practice
c. personal protective equipment
d. interim measures
Area II.I Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Safety managers will use this control measure in conjunction with work practice controls to eliminate or reduce exposure to a hazard:
a. engineering
b. management
c. personal protective equipment
d. interim measures
2. If the safety manager is unable to adequately eliminate or reduce a hazard, this control measure will be necessary in addition to engineering controls to reduce exposure:
a. education controls
b. management - work practice controls
c. personal protective equipment
d. interim measures
3. The three standard control measure strategies include all of the following, except:
a. engineering controls
b. management - work practice controls
c. educational controls
d. personal protective equipment
4. The safety manager best functions as:
a. the primary safety controller
b. the corporate safety cop
c. the safety mother
d. an internal safety consultant
5. Which of the following is not an appropriate function of the safety manager?
a. enforcer of safety rules
b. adviser to managers
c. consultant to the employer
d. consultant to the safety committee
6. All of the following are important activities of a safety manager, except:
a. enforce safety policies and rules
b. conduct safety audits and inspections
c. conduct safety management system evaluation
d. propose improvements to safety programs
7. Which of the following is an effective response by a supervisor when an employee violates a safety rule?
a. encourage the employee to obey the rules
b. tell the employee not to do that again
c. discipline the employee if justified
d. ignore the behavior one time only
8. When a supervisor ignores a safety rule violation, what does the employee think?
a. hey, I can get away with it
b. the supervisor doesn't care
c. looks like I've got permission to do it my way
d. all of the above
9. An effective safety culture balances positive and negative reinforcement. The safety manager can help ensure positive reinforcement by designing and implementing a/an:
a. install safety bingo and other games
b. incentive and recognition plan
c. effective accountability plan
d. ask for money to award for compliance
10. An effective safety culture balances positive and negative reinforcement. The safety manager can help ensure negative reinforcement by designing and implementing a/an:
a. install safety bingo and other games
b. incentive and recognition plan
c. effective accountability plan
d. ask for money to award for compliance
Area II.I Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. Every safety manager must understand that most accidents are the result of:
a. a lack of common sense
b. poor safety attitudes
c. hazardous conditions
d. unsafe behaviors
2. Which of the following is not considered a safety monitoring function?
a. analysis
b. observation
c. inspection
d. investigation
3. Which of the following is least likely to affect the probability of an accident?
a. gender of worker
b. duration of exposure
c. frequency of exposure
d. work at elevation
4. All of the following are important factors to consider when prioritizing job hazard analyses:
a. number of pieces of equipment or machinery
b. new or altered machinery or equipment
c. number of steps in the job
d. number of accidents associated with equipment, tools, equipment
5. Grimaldi and Simonds list each of the following as basic safety management propositions, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 178)
a. Keep line and staff responsibilities integrated
b. Conform effectiveness measures for safety with those of management
c. Align safety objectives with management needs
d. Hold safety staff accountable for quality of safety information
6. This person first promoted the domino theory of accident causation and is considered the father of safety management:
a. W. Edwards Deming
b. Bradley Henshaw
c. Henry W. Heinrich
d. William Pope
7. Which of the following are what W. H. Heinrich believed were factors that resulted in an accident?
a. environment, worker, unsafe act, accident, injury
b. design, performance, contributing surface, direct surface
c. management, root, surface, personal, condition
d. man, machine, accident, condition, injury
8. To combat hazardous conditions and unsafe behaviors, a hierarchy of controls as been developed. Each of the following is a control strategy, except:
a. engineering control
b. leadership control
c. work practice control
d. personal protective equipment
9. Why do OSHA standards require the employer to first consider engineering controls to correct workplace hazards?
a. Because safety is all about conditions, not behavior
b. They may completely eliminate the hazard
c. They may completely eliminate exposure
d. They cost more in the long run than enforcing safe work practices
10. Grimaldi and Simonds list each of the following as basic safety management propositions, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 178)
a. Keep line and staff responsibilities separate
b. Hold safety staff accountable for operation's safety effectiveness
c. Align safety objectives with management needs
d. Hold safety staff accountable for quality of safety information
Area II.I Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Which of the following strategies is not considered an engineering control?
a. design or redesign
b. removal or substitute
c. barriers or ventilation
d. personal protective equipment
2. Which of the engineering controls listed below is most likely to eliminate a toxic chemical hazard?
a. placing a barrier between the employee and chemical
b. placing the chemical in a container
c. replacing a toxic with a less/non toxic chemical
d. wearing appropriate personal protective equipment
3. Work practice controls are only as effective as:
a. the safety management system that supports them
b. the policies that implement them
c. the people that use them
d. as the engineering controls they control
4. Engineering controls are important because any system that relies on human behavior is inherently:
a. unreliable
b. unpredictable
c. useful
d. uncontrollable
5. Management controls should be used ______ engineering controls:
a. before
b. along with
c. instead of
d. in the absence of
6. This program help ensure equipment and machinery continues to operate safely and smoothly as designed:
a. corrective maintenance
b. emergency maintenance
c. programmed maintenance
d. preventive maintenance
7. Tracking hazards is important for all of the following reasons, except:
a. It keeps staff aware of the status
b. It provides timely and accurate information
c. It provides evidence for discipline
d. It provides a record of what occurred
8. Which of the following does not describe the possible scope of the problem in an organization?
a. Regulatory. Problem affects relations with OSHA
b. Corporate. Problem affects the entire company
c. Interpersonal. Problem affects another, or between two persons
d. Personal. Problem affects yourself, or yourself and another
9. Which of the following is achieved when everyone can agree with the problem, or can at least live with it?
a. unanimity
b. consensus
c. groupthink
d. cohesiveness
10. This problem solving technique can be used by individuals or groups quite successfully to quickly develop a large list of possible solutions to problems:
a. 5-W analysis
b. mind mapping
c. brainstorming
d. fishbone diagram
Area II.I Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. The primary communications goal of a safety recommendation is to:
a. inform
b. persuade
c. request
d. demand
2. Conditions and behaviors observed in the workplace are considered:
a. two components of safety management system structure
b. two examples of internal safety management system processes
c. examples of inputs to the safety management system
d. examples of outputs of the safety management system
3. What is the test for evaluating the effectiveness of a given consequence?
a. If the employee quits
b. The employee's behavior changes in the desired direction
c. The employee is happy about the consequence
d. The employee is sure the consequence was appropriate
4. Supervisors should be held accountable only for what they can control. They have the ability control all of the following, except:
a. The number of safety meetings conducted
b. The number of accidents that occur
c. The number of inspections conducted
d. The number of training sessions conducted
5. Employee involvement in developing safe procedures and practices increases:
a. unusual behavior
b. management headaches
c. employee ownership
d. cost of doing business
6. Which cause category is ultimately most responsible for accidents in the workplace?
a. Surface causes
b. Personal causes
c. Uncontrollable causes
d. Root causes
7. What is a major weakness inherent in the walkaround safety inspection process?
a. Only uncovers hidden behaviors
b. Does not take enough time
c. Does not uncover hazardous conditions
d. Only looks at observable, measurable behaviors
8. Which root causes below might indicate inadequate supervision in a work area?
a. Workers violating company safety rules
b. Workers using unsafe procedures
c. Hazards existing in the work area.
d. All of the above
9. What approach does an investigator take to most effectively analyze an accident?
a. First determine if system weaknesses exist
b. First determine if personal weaknesses exist
c. First determine if the employee violated safety rules
d. First determine if the employee ignored instructions
10. What approach does an investigator take to most effectively analyze an accident?
a. Analyze the accident event, then evaluate the safety management system
b. Analyze the accident event, then evaluate the victim's behavior
c. Analyze the victim's performance, then evaluate the surface causes
d. Analyze the victim's performance, then evaluate the safety management system
Area II.I Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Which of the following is not one of the requirements of an effective safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 37)
a. force supervisory performance
b. fixed plans
c. employee participation
d. visible top management commitment
2. Which one of the following is not considered by Petersen as one of the causes of unsafe behavior? (Petersen, TSM, 33)
a. poor attitude
b. worker decision to error
c. overload
d. traps
3. Safety should be managed like any other company function, it should be directed by: (Petersen, TSM, 29)
a. management
b. the safety committee
c. supervisors
d. employees
4. According to Petersen, there are three major subsystems that must be dealt with in building an effective safety system. Which of the below is not one of these three major subsystems? (Petersen, TSM, 35)
a. the physical
b. the managerial
c. the behavioral
d. the psychological
5. According to Petersen, the key to effective line safety performance is: (Petersen, TSM, 30)
a. tough-controlling safety supervision
b. effective safety training
c. management procedures that fix accountability
d. management by objectives
6. According to Petersen, the safety system should fit the: (Petersen, TSM, 36)
a. the individual
b. the culture
c. the community
d. the society
7. An unsafe act, condition or accident are all symptoms of something wrong in: (Petersen, TSM, 27)
a. regulatory compliance
b. supervision
c. the management system
d. negative reinforcement
8. Which of the following is not one of the requirements of an effective safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 37)
a. encourage supervisory performance
b. visible top management commitment
c. flexibility
d. middle management involvement
9. According to Petersen, the function of safety is to locate and define the operational errors that allow accidents to occur. This function can be carried out by: (Petersen, TSM, 30)
a. determining management flaws
b. searching for root causes
c. evaluating surface causes
d. close scrutiny of personal flaws
10. Which of the following is not one of the requirements of an effective safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 37)
a. force supervisory performance
b. delegated management support
c. flexibility
d. middle management involvement
ANSWER BANKS: AREA II.
Area II. A. SMBO/TQM Principles
Bank 1
1. d. Management by Objectives (MBO)
2. c. measure results using process indicators
3. d. all of the above
4. c. accident
5. c. give supervisors an opportunity to practice
6. b. give selected supervisors and opportunity to perform
7. c. withhold help until requested
8. d. reward once objectives are achieved
9. a. get agreement on results objectives only
10. b. provide feedback at least quarterly
Bank 2
1. c. 1950's
2. c. 1970's
3. d. a reward system emphasizes recognition of achieved objectives
4. b. assures viable accountability for achievement
5. a. brings process-directed behavior
6. d. does not rely on supervisor creativity
7. b. uses established traditional techniques
8. c. doesn't rely on creativity
9. d. Accountability Era
10. b. It converts system inputs into system outputs
Bank 3
1. a. fosters compliant goal-setting
2. b. SCRAPE
3. a. special variations
4. d. prevent accidents within a given period
5. a. determine specifically what line managers are to do
6. c. 1970's
7. d. writing safety policy
8. b. enforcing regulatory standards
9. c. measure safety activity before an accident occurs
10. c. makes management define what it wants from supervisors
Bank 4
1. c. less rework
2. b. decreased variation improves productivity
3. b. stay in business
4. c. productivity improves
5. d. increased marketshare
6. a. provide more jobs
7. c. management
8. a. the consumer
9. c. they do not hell you how to reduce the number of accidents
10. a. theory
Bank 5
1. a. Element 1
2. d. Element 4 3. c. Element 3
4. b. Element 2
5. d. Element 7
6. a. Element 4
7. c. Element 6
8. b. Element 5
9. c. Element 6.
10. b. Element 5
Bank 6
1. d. Element 7
2. b. Element 8
3. d. Element 10
4. b. Element 8
5. c. Element 9
6. d. Element 10
7. d. Element 10
8. b. Element 11
9. d. Element 13
10. c. Element 12
Bank 7
1. d. Element 14. Take action to accomplish the transformation
2. b. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanship
3. c. How can the safety function control accident rates?
4. b. Deploy - Carry out the change on a large scale
5. c. running the company on invisible statistics
6. a. lack of variation of purpose
7. c. mobility of top management
8. c. mobility of top management
9. d. thinking our problems are the same
10. b. reliance on human resource departments
Bank 8
1. c. anyone who helps knows nothing about our business
2. c. the unmanned computer
3. b. inadequate testing of prototypes
4. b. a special cause
5. a. common causes
6. b. special cause
7. c. effect
8. c. management
9. a. flowchart
10. b. fishbone
Bank 9
1. a. run chart
2. c. histogram
3. b. scatter diagram
4. d. control chart
5. d. control chart
6. c. the system will be destroyed
7. b. competition
8. d. to contribute its best to the system
9. a. cooperation
10. b. predictable
Bank 10
1. d. special, common
2. b. meet with trainers
3. d. helps people successfully compete
4. a. judges people fairly
5. b. is tough to control employees
6. b. is tough to control employees
7. c. narrower variation
8. c. under statistical control, variation is due to special causes
9. d. special causes can only be corrected by management
10. b. the causes of variation lie only inside the system
Area II. B. Systems Safety
Bank 1
1. d. have accident potential
2. d. all of the above
3. c. Occupancy
4. b. hazard analysis
5. a. is continued over the life cycle of a system
6. c. behavioral controls
7. c. aircraft and missile projects
8. d. toxicological study design
9. c. MIL-STD-882B
10. d. review
Bank 2
1. a. identify maximum acceptable system risk
2. c. protect critical components
3. c. compatible materials
4. c. Design for minimum risk
5. b. Develop procedures and training
6. a. Incorporate safety devices
7. b. Develop procedures and training
8. c. hazard severity
9. b. severity and probability
10. b. CATASTROPHIC AND CRITICAL
Bank 3
1. b. Fault tree analysis
2. b. Fault tree analysis
3. d. failure to identify all events that may lead to the top event
4. c. assigning valid probability to an event
5. b. fault event
6. d. basic event
7. a. normal event
8. c. undeveloped event
9. c. undeveloped event
10. b. logic gates
Bank 4
1. a. OR and AND gates
2. c. AND gate
3. a. OR gate
4. c. event
5. c. failure
6. b. The Triangle Shirtwaste Company fire
7. b. fault
8. b. fault
9. c. failure
10. c. primary
Bank 5
1. d. secondary
2. c. primary
3. d. secondary
4. a. qualitative and quantitative
5. b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
6. b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
7. d. Simultaneous Timed Events Plotting Analysis (STEP)
8. c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)
9. a. specific surface causes
10. c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)
Bank 6
1. b. Engineering, Science and Management Defense Training (ESMDT)
2. a. Federal Laws
3. c. management system weaknesses
4. d. regarded as a normal and integral feature
5. c. Bell Telephone Laboratories
6. a. Operational error
7. b. SMIS
8. a. Creation of a computerized information system
9. b. Business enterprises are social systems
10. a. Triadic Analysis of Flawed Systems
Bank 7
1. b. epidemiological
2. c. Objective thinking about the direction and control of management
3. c. regulatory compliance
4. a. social, physical, biological
5. c. management defines safety performance in light of personal flaws
6. b. Participative management
7. a. warning signs
8. b. H.W. Heinrich
9. c. Proactive
10. d. NFPA
Bank 8
1. b. A near miss, or accident that results in personal injury or property damage
2. c. You will get meaningful data about the overall reliability of the system
3. d. A base event with no events below it
4. c. used to show a procedure or event
5. c. To improve the safety of missile systems
6. d. both a and c above
7. b. The goal of this task is to analyze the entire system.
8. c. 7
9. b. A system program is to be run and the program will include several other tasks
10. c. A contractor is to develop a list of possible hazards in system design
Area II. C. Auditing
Bank 1
1. d. Evaluating the results
2. c. informal inspection
3. a. before-the-fact measure
4. c. informal inspection
5. d. failure measures
6. b. hazard, exposure
7. b. general audit
8. d. any of the above
9. a. it always looks at the same items
10. b. each part, step or event to determine its impact on the whole
Bank 2
1. b. allows for averaging several components to get a rating
2. b. unsafe behaviors
3. c. employee survey
4. b. results measures
5. a. location of procedures
6. b. they are not sensitive to change
7. d. all of the above
8. d. Observation
9. c. upgrade program components to standard
10. d. audit
Bank 3
1. a. accident investigation
2. c. Survey
3. d. poor housekeeping in administrative offices
4. c. performance measure
5. d. formal review
6. a. Inspection
7. d. audit
8. b. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors
9. d. erase the item
10. b. address policy and procedural problems
Bank 4
1. b. results measures
2. c. challenge existing policies, procedures, and practices
3. b. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors
4. c. Safety Performance Indicator (SPI)
5. d. all of the above
6. d. Change Analysis
7. b. what things need improvement and ways to improve them
8. c. frequency, severity
9. d. erase the item
10. b. do not become a tool for blame or ridicule
Bank 5
1. d. how discipline will be administered
2. b. Process Hazard Analysis
3. d. all of the above
4. b. another department's safety staff
5. c. none, minimal, adequate
6. b. a process of having outsiders evaluate management
7. d. they force compliance
8. a. with traditional procedural-engineering criteria
9. d. both a and b above
10. b. with surveys of employee perceptions
Bank 6
1. d. system compliance approaches
2. a. accident investigations
3. b. superb motivational tool
4. d. all of the above
5. a. companies requiring a great amount of safety equipment be worn
6. b. ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005
7. d. 29 CFR 1910.120
8. a. independent programs
9. c. what is to be done in generic terms
10. d. applicable to organizations of all sizes and types
Bank 7
1. d. Plan, Do, Check, Act
2. a. independent programs
3. c. what is to be done in generic terms
4. d. applicable to organizations of all sizes and types
5. b. lost-time accidents only
6. c. contractor activities
7. a. compliance systems
8. d. emergency systems
9. c. baseline survey or gap analysis
10. a. assume the OHSMS does not exist
Bank 8
1. d. shall
2. b. should
3. c. audit
4. a. compliance
5. c. conformance
6. a. policy
7. c. efficient employee controls
8. a. conformance with applicable laws
9. b. providing OSHA and state plan data when required
10. d. networking OHSMS policies for continuing improvement
Bank 9
1. b. delegate implementation of the OHSMS to other managers
2. c. processes are designed to affect employees at all levels
3. b. recognition and rewards for working accident-free
4. a. disciplining poor performance
5. d. health and safety committees
6. a. union participation
7. c. ensure collaboration with regulatory agencies
8. a. benchmark best practices
9. c. planning proactive contingency actions
10. c. hazards, risks, and controls
Area II. D. Data Analysis and Statistics
Bank 1
1. c. Maximum Control Limit (MCL)
2. a. identify root causes
3. a. Pareto diagram
4. a. cause and effect diagram
5. a. special causes
6. c. stable
7. d. Fishbone diagram
8. d. Fishbone diagram
9. b. Scatter diagram
10. c. Run chart
Bank 2
1. c. Run chart
2. c. Histogram
3. b. y axis
4. a. Loss Control Line (LCL)
5. b. Performance measures are within upper and lower control limits
6. b. Scatter diagram
7. c. Control chart
8. b. Track continuous data over time.
9. d. Control chart
10. d. Control chart
Bank 3
1. c. Separate the vital few from the trivial
2. d. Lower Control Limit (LCL)
3. c. not strictly by chance - something is wrong
4. a. 1 percent
5. a. a significant change for the better
6. b. common causes
7. d. control chart
8. a. stopped and corrected
9. b. 5 percent
10. d. scatter diagram
Bank 4
1. b. Occupational Injury and Illness Classification Manual (OI&ICM)
2. b. content analysis
3. d. accidental sample
4. b. audit
5. c. baseline
6. b. causal
7. a. control, experimental
8. d. control group
9. c. control group
10. d. correlation coefficient
Area II. E. Safety In Design
Bank 1
1. d. safe work procedures
2. b. engineering controls
3. a. design to eliminate the hazard
4. b. use protective safety devices
5. c. automatic warning devices
6. b. intrinsically safe
7. d. limit the hazard below which it can do no harm
8. a. eliminate the hazard entirely
9. c. there is no possibility of an accident
10. b. They eliminate or reduce the hazard, itself
Bank 2
1. b. They eliminate or reduce the hazard, itself
2. b. Conducting OJT prior to the start of work
3. c. safety planning is geared toward specific work procedures
4. c. depend on employees to take corrective action
5. a. guard pinch points
6. b. power is either on or off
7. d. guard and interlocks that make maintenance difficult
8. c. use perimeter guards and large guarded areas
9. c. controlling exposure
10. b. isolation
Bank 3
1. d. isolation
2. a. isolation
3. d. signage
4. b. lockouts
5. c. failures are anticipated and prevented
6. a. fail-remote design
7. b. fail-passive design
8. d. fail-operational design
9. c. fail-active design
10. b. fail-passive design
Bank 4
1. b. fail-passive design
2. c. fail-active design
3. d. fail-operational design
4. b. Criteria measurement
5. a. Safety factors and margins
6. c. Failure rate reduction
7. d. Parameter monitoring
8. b. half as often
9. a. margin of safety
10. b. safety factor
Bank 5
1. c. minimum strength/maximum stress
2. a. Parallel movements
3. b. Derating
4. a. Screening
5. c. Timed replacements
6. d. Redundant arrangements
7. c. Monitoring
8. d. Reporting
9. a. Screening
10. b. Human factors engineering
Bank 6
1. a. Pictorial and symbolic
2. c. Visual and auditory
3. d. Principle of interpretation
4. a. Principle of complexity
5. a. Principle of simplicity
6. c. Principle of arrangement
7. d. Principle of coding
8. b. What steps to take if the reading is above UCL
9. d. Associability - are signals associated with concrete responses?
10. c. Arrangement - is the signal arranged in a logical sequence?
Area II. F. Benchmarking
Bank 1
1. b. benchmarking
2. c. Discipline must occur quickly and be significant
3. d. Establish incentive program based on accident records
4. a. Reset expectations based on accident rates
5. b. Bonuses and merit pay are tied to accident records and rates
6. a. Leading companies focus on a narrow range of media to communicate safety
7. c. Inspections are used to determine retention of learning
8. d. Traditional training techniques are used to maximize learning
9. d. copying best practices of companies that excel
10. b. limit evaluation to companies within the industry
Bank 2
1. a. External
2. c. Department
3. a. Annual
4. a. Internal
5. d. Competitive
6. b. Shadow
7. c. Industrial
8. c. Industrial
9. a. World-class
10. b. cycle time reduction
Bank 3
1. b. needs assessment team, benchmarking team
2. d. needs assessment team
3. d. needs assessment team
4. c. Determine team roles and responsibilities
5. d. primary customer
6. c. benchmarking team
7. a. Write operational objectives
8. c. benchmarking team
9. b. Evaluate the benchmarking process, itself
10. c. responsibilities
Bank 4
1. b. the vast number of different potential outcomes
2. a. the potential for unexpected, unwanted results
3. b. dantotsu
4. c. out-compete the competitor
5. d. gain cooperation
6. a. know your operation
7. c. incorporate the best
8. c. practices, metrics
9. b. metric
10. c. practices
Bank 5
1. c. best practices
2. a. cannot determine why the gap exists
3. d. why
4. c. increases acceptance of internal changes
5. d. guards against trademark and technological theft
6. b. promotions
7. b. the toughest of the toughest competitors
8. a. companies recognized as industry leaders
9. d. continuous
10. c. word statement, quantified gap analysis
Bank 6
1. d. competitor reaction to best practices
2. c. solely at direct product competitors
3. b. superior performance
4. a. practices
5. a. seek and destroy mission
6. a. resource reductions
7. d. a continuous improvement process
8. c. projections of a future state
9. c. comparative companies are identified
10. c. comparative companies are identified
Bank 7
1. a. current performance gap is determined
2. c. future performance levels are projected
3. d. data collection method is refined
4. b. gain acceptance of findings
5. b. future performance levels are projected
6. a. leadership position is attained
7. c. practices are fully integrated into processes
8. a. when will we benchmark?
9. b. comparative analysis
10. b. neutral
Area II. G. Behavioral Safety Processes
Bank 1
1. d. low morale
2. a. fix accountability
3. d. all of the above
4. c. change the environment
5. b. the psychosocial
6. c. force supervisor performance
7. b. involve middle management
8. a. be flexible
9. d. be perceived as positive
10. b. involve employees
Bank 2
1. c. enforced
2. b. measurement
3. d. establish and operate systems
4. b. Theory X
5. c. Theory Y
6. b. Relationship and task
7. c. Task oriented
8. d. Relationship oriented
9. b. Theory Y
10. a. Theory X
Bank 3
1. b. span of control
2. b. Chris Argyris' Incongruency Theory
3. c. unity of command
4. d. specialization
5. a. chain of command
6. c. the mature worker
7. a. fewer accidents due to poor work attitudes
8. d. more pay
9. c. motivation, hygiene
10. d. responsibility
Bank 4
1. b. supervision
2. c. job enrichment
3. d. close control
4. c. Porter and Lawler
5. c. A high degree of 'us vs. them' competition among departments
6. b. behavior-based safety (BBS)
7. b. developing discipline-observation linkage
8. d. strong management involvement
9. b. the back end BBS
10. a. the front end of BBS
Area II. H. Roost Cause Analysis
Bank 1
1. d. 8 hours
2. b. 2,3
3. b. determine what is relevant
4. c. bring together a cross-functional team to investigate
5. c. document it, even if relevancy is in question
6. d. All of the above
7. a. Photos more effectively show motion through time
8. b. Ask open-ended questions
9. c. prevent future accidents
10. a. The scene of the accident
Bank 2
1. a. fix the system
2. c. Someone's head has always got to role.
3. b. the supervisor
4. b. determine what is relevant
5. d. determine the scope and nature of discipline
6. d. Analysis
7. d. system performance root cause
8. a. Evaluation
9. b. Domino theory
10. c. Robert, pounds a nail
Bank 3
1. b. a process
2. b. a process
3. c. Conditions, behaviors, systems
4. b. Don't get tunnel vision by using a checklist.
5. c. It identifies only surface causes
6. b. The process places blame before considering safety program weaknesses
7. c. system design root cause
8. c. Rescheduling
9. b. Who was to blame
10. a. Machine not properly guarded.
Bank 4
1. c. psychosocial
2. a. inspection
3. a. gather data supporting supervisor and employee accountability
4. b. determine appropriate personal weaknesses
5. a. system performance root cause
6. c. system design root cause
7. c. system design root cause
8. d. relate findings to determine liability
9. b. investigate property damage events as well as injury accidents
10. c. theory of multiple causation
Bank 5
1. a. Never accept anything as fact until it has been proven
2. c. Someone's head has always got to role.
3. c. whether or not a team inspection program is established.
4. b. Don't get tunnel vision by using a checklist.
5. c. theory of multiple causation
6. c. strict adherence with regulatory standards
7. c. theory of multiple causation
8. b. be concerned only with the facts
9. a. ANSI Z16.2
10. d. general, specific
Bank 6
1. c. secure the accident scene
2. a. Analyze each event to identify surface causes
3. c. leak in a pipe
4. d. hazards are not being reporting
5. b. General
6. d. there is no daily safety inspection plan
7. c. employee conformance
8. d. their environment
9. c. encouraging
10. c. theory of multiple causation
Bank 7
1. b. accident statistics
2. a. perception surveys
3. d. perception survey
4. c. employee interviews
5. a. a real look at symptoms
6. a. Specific
Area II. H. Safety Management Theory
Bank 1
1. b. persuading
2. a. the principles
3. c. Peter Principle
4. a. accident proneness
5. b. the ancient Egyptians
6. c. Engineering, Education and Enforcement
7. b. Four times investment
8. c. an integrated, cross-functional team
9. a. engineering
10. b. management-work practice
Bank 2
1. c. personal protective equipment
2. b. management - work practice controls
3. c. educational controls
4. d. an internal safety consultant
5. a. enforcer of safety rules
6. a. enforce safety policies and rules
7. c. discipline the employee if justified
8. d. all of the above
9. b. incentive and recognition plan
10. c. effective accountability plan
Bank 3
1. d. unsafe behaviors
2. d. investigation
3. a. gender of worker
4. c. number of steps in the job
5. a. Keep line and staff responsibilities integrated
6. c. Henry W. Heinrich
7. a. environment, worker, unsafe act, accident, injury
8. b. leadership control
9. b. They may completely eliminate the hazard
10. b. Hold safety staff accountable for operation's safety effectiveness
Bank 4
1. d. personal protective equipment
2. c. replacing a toxic with a less/non toxic chemical
3. a. the safety management system that supports them
4. a. unreliable
5. b. along with
6. d. preventive maintenance
7. c. It provides evidence for discipline
8. a. Regulatory. Problem affects relations with OSHA
9. b. consensus
10. c. brainstorming
Bank 5
1. b. persuade
2. d. examples of outputs of the safety management system
3. b. The employee's behavior changes in the desired direction
4. b. The number of accidents that occur
5. c. employee ownership
6. d. Root causes
7. b. Does not take enough time
8. d. All of the above
9. a. First determine if system weaknesses exist
10. a. Analyze the accident event, then evaluate the safety management system
Bank 6
1. b. fixed plans
2. a. poor attitude
3. a. management
4. d. the psychological
5. c. management procedures that fix accountability
6. b. the culture
7. d. negative reinforcement
8. a. encourage supervisory performance
9. b. searching for root causes
10. b. delegated management support
C S H M
Certified Safety Health Manager Exam
STUDY GUIDE
Area III Safety, Health and Environmental Applications
Questions and Answer Key
Subject Area III. Topic A. Compliance Management
Area III.A. Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Which of the following criteria is not used by OSHA to demonstrate that a hazard is or should have been recognized by the employer? ?
a. industry recognition
b. employer recognition
c. employee recognition
d. common sense recognition
2. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for marine terminals:
a. 1904
b. 1917
c. 1926
d. 1928
3. Which category of OSHA standards apply to a particular industry or to particular operations, practices, conditions, processes, means, methods, equipment or installations: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. horizontal standards (specific)
b. vertical standards (general)
c. universal standards (horizontal)
d. specific industry standards (vertical)
4. The Occupational Safety and Health Act was passed in what year?
a. 1907
b. 1970
c. 1977
d. 1997
5. Whether exposed persons are employees of an employer depends on several factors, the most important of which is: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. relationship between the employee and employer
b. employee workloads and schedules
c. who controls the manner in which the employees perform assigned work
d. the manner in which the employer delegates work to the employee
6. Which category of OSHA standards below apply when a condition is not covered by a specific industry standard: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. horizontal standards (specific)
b. vertical standards (general)
c. universal standards (horizontal)
d. specific industry standards (vertical)
7. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for general industry:
a. 1904
b. 1910
c. 1926
d. 1938
8. The employer's requirement to comply with an OSHA standard may be modified through granting of a: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. extension
b. variance
c. modification
d. special exception
9. An employer will not be subject to an OSHA citation if the observed condition is in compliance with either the standard or a: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. extension
b. variance
c. modification
d. special exception
10. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for shipyard employment:
a. 1904
b. 1915
c. 1926
d. 1938
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Where an OSHA standard requires engineering or administrative controls (including work practice controls), employee exposure shall be cited: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. if PPE is not appropriate for the use
b. unless suitable PPE can be immediately provided
c. if personal protective equipment is not being used
d. regardless of the use of PPE
2. Where employee exposure to a hazardous condition is not observed, witnessed, or monitored by the OSHA compliance officer during an inspection, unobserved employee exposure may be established if: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. exposure is determined through witness statements
b. exposure is determined through other evidence
c. exposure is determined through prediction
d. answer a and b above
3. An OSHA citation may be issued when the possibility exists that potential employee exposure to a hazard exists. Potential exposure may be established using any of the following criteria, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. witnesses and other evidence
b. past circumstances or anticipated work requirements
c. exposure can be reasonably predicted by the compliance officer
d. employee work patterns
4. Under OSHA law employers must protect employees from all of the following, except:
a. near miss
b. injury
c. illness
d. death
5. The purpose of the National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is to: (NIOSH)
a. conduct research and educate employers on best practices in safety and health
b. conduct research and make recommendations that improve OSHA standards
c. conduct research and make recommendations that prevent work-related injury and illness
d. conduct research and publish warnings regarding unsafe work practices
6. This inspection focuses on certain potentially hazardous areas, operations, conditions or practices at the establishment, but may be expanded based on information gathered by the OSHA compliance officer during the inspection process.
a. routine inspection
b. comprehensive inspection
c. programmed inspection
d. partial inspection
7. This type of violation shall be cited in situations where the most serious injury or illness that would be likely to result from a hazardous condition cannot reasonably be predicted to cause death or serious physical harm to exposed employees but does have a direct and immediate relationship to their safety and health: (OSHA FIRM Sec 7)
a. De Minimis
b. Other-than-serious
c. Serious
d. Statutory
8. The first states occupational safety and health laws in this country were enacted during what time period? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 36)
a. early 1800's
b. late 1800's
c. early 1900's
d. mid 1900's
9. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) requires employers to record and report work-related fatalities, injuries and illnesses:
a. 1904
b. 1910
c. 1926
d. 1938
10. The OSHA Act established all of the following agencies, EXCEPT:
a. OSHA
b. OSHRC
c. NSC
d. NIOSH
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. This type of violation exists if there is a substantial probability that death or serious physical harm could result from a condition which exists, or from one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes which have been adopted or are in use: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. De Minimis
b. Other-than-serious
c. Serious
d. Statutory
2. A serious violation is issued by OSHA unless: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. the employer corrects the violation prior to the conclusion of the inspection
b. the employer exercising reasonable diligence, did or could not know about the violation
c. the employer is able to establish the intent to comply with the violated rule
d. the employer is exercises reasonable diligence in correcting the hazard
3. Which of the following criteria is not considered by an OSHA compliance officer to determine if a serious violation exists? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. the type of accident or health hazard exposure
b. the most serious injury or illness expected
c. whether the injury or illness could include death or serious physical harm
d. whether the employee was under undue pressure to accomplish a task
4. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for construction:
a. 1904
b. 1910
c. 1926
d. 1938
5. Under OSHA standards, employers are required to maintain all of the following, except: (OSHA Fact Sheet)
a. exposure records
b. hazard assessment records
c. training records
d. equipment certification records
6. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for longshoring:
a. 1904
b. 1918
c. 1926
d. 1928
7. The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) has a primary research facility which includes research/field study Divisions: Division of Safety Research (DSR), Division of Respiratory Disease Studies (DRDS), and Health Effects Laboratory Division (HELD). What is the location of this facility? (NIOSH)
a. Washington DC
b. Cleveland OH
c. Pittsburgh PA
d. Morgantown WV
8. This OSHA standard requires each employer furnish to each of his employees employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. Section 7(a)(1) - Universal Employer Duty Clause
b. Section 5(a)(1) - General Duty Clause
c. Section 1(a)(1) - Universal Employer Requirement
d. Section 1(a)(1) - General Employer Duty
9. In general, Review Commission and court precedent has established that the following elements are necessary to prove a violation of the general duty clause, EXCEPT: (OSHA FIRM CPL Sec 7)
a. the hazard was recognized and corrected prior to the conclusion of the inspection
b. the hazard was causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm
c. the employer failed to keep the workplace free of a hazard to which employees were exposed
d. there was a feasible and useful method to correct the hazard
10. An OSHA general duty citation must involve which of the following? (OSHA FIRM Sec 7)
a. an employee and employer relationship
b. a workplace hazard and employee exposure
c. employee exposure
d. workplace hazard
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. For the purpose of citing employers, which of the following is false concerning OSHA's definition of a workplace hazard? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. it must affect the employer's employee
b. it is not a failure to abate
c. it is not an accident
d. it need not be necessarily be recognized
2. The maximum OSHA penalty for a serious violation is:
a. $3,000
b. $4,000
c. $5,000
d. $7,000
3. Employer recognition of a hazard is established if any of the following criteria is met, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. industry recognition
b. employer recognition
c. common sense
d. employee recognition
4. OSHA considers industry recognition may be established when the following criteria is met: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. recognition by employer's industry
b. general recognition by any industry
c. general recognition by companies three-digit SIC
d. general recognition by companies in four-digit SIC
5. OSHA considers employer recognition has been established when any of the following exists, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. written statements by employer
b. oral statements by supervisor
c. oral statements by employee to compliance officer
d. employee clearly calls hazard to employer's attention
6. In which of the following cases will OSHA use common-sense recognition to establish a violation? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. serious
b. flagrant
c. high-death
d. unusual
7. If an employer has been cited previously and the citation has become a final order, which of the following might result in repeat violation? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. similar situation
b. identical condition
c. substantially similar condition
d. general condition
8. Even though, as a result of the exercise of professional judgment, not all potentially hazardous conditions, operations and practices within those areas are inspected during this inspection, this type of OSHA inspection is defined as a substantially complete inspection of the potentially high hazard areas of an establishment:
a. routine inspection
b. comprehensive inspection
c. programmed inspection
d. focused inspection
9. The common-sense criteria to argue that a hazard should have been recognized by an employer will be used by OSHA: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. whenever other criteria is insufficient
b. only in flagrant cases
c. when employees identify the hazards
d. as directed by the Review Commission
10. Exposure is generally defined as: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. event or occurrence
b. condition, relative position
c. behavior, condition
d. activity, predetermined event
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. These violation OSHA standards have no direct or immediate relationship to safety or health and are not included in citations: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. De Minimis
b. General
c. Serious
d. Willful
2. This violation will be issued by OSHA if the employer has been cited previously for a substantially similar condition and the citation has become a final order:(OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. Repeat
b. General
c. Serious
d. Willful
3. This department is authorized to enforce the OSHAct of 1970.
a. Department of Occupational Safety and Health (DOSH)
b. Department of Labor (DOL)
c. Department of Justice (DOJ)
d. Environmental Protection Administration (EPA)
4. Section 5(b) of the Act states: 'Each employee shall comply with occupational safety and health standards and all rules, regulations, and orders issued pursuant to the Act which are applicable to his own actions and conduct.' All of the following are true concerning this Act, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. The Act does not propose penalties against employees
b. The Act does not provide for the issuance of citations against employees,
c. Employers are not responsible for employee compliance
d. Employers are responsible for employee compliance
5. In cases where the OSHA compliance officer determines that employees are systematically refusing to comply with a standard applicable to their own actions and conduct, the OSHA compliance officer will: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. propose penalties against the employee
b. issue a citation against the employee,
c. consult with the Area Director
d. review compliance with the employer
6. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for inspections, citations, and proposed penalties:
a. 1903
b. 1917
c. 1926
d. 1928
7. If the employer is able to establish this defense, OSHA will excuse the violation which was otherwise proved by the OSHA compliance officer (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. Due diligence
b. De Minimis,
c. Affirmative
d. Absolute
8. Common examples of employer affirmative defense include all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)
a. unpreventable employee misconduct
b. compliance would create greater hazard,
c. alternative methods exist
d. compliance is functionally impossible
9. Inspections, either programmed or unprogrammed, fall into one of two categories depending on the scope of the inspection. Which of the following describe these two categories?(OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. comprehensive and partial
b. complete and focused,
c. area and department
d. safety and health
10. The minimum and maximum OSHA penalties for a willful violation is:
a. $2,000 to $30,000
b. $3,000 to $40,000
c. $4,000 to $50,000
d. $5,000 to $70,000
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. When OSHA conducts a substantially complete inspection of the potentially high hazard areas of the establishment, it is called a/an: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. area inspection
b. focused inspection,
c. partial inspection
d. comprehensive inspection
2. Developed in cooperation with Canada and Mexico, this system represents one of the most profound changes for statistical programs focusing on emerging economic activities:
a. North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)
b. National Industrial Classification (NIC)
c. Primary Industrial Survey (PIS)
d. Standard Industrial Classification (SIC)
3. When OSHA conducts an inspection whose focus is limited to certain potentially hazardous areas, operations, conditions or practices at the establishment, it is called a/an: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. area inspection
b. focused inspection,
c. partial inspection
d. comprehensive inspection
4. As a general rule, OSHA inspections:
a. target specific high hazard industries, workplaces or occupations
b. always result in follow up inspections
c. include of injury and illness records reviews
d. focus on scope of the comprehensive safety program
5. A partial OSHA inspection may be expanded based on information gathered by the compliance officer during the inspection process. The compliance officer must use professional judgment to determine the necessity for expansion of the inspection scope and will base this judgment on all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. walk-around inspection
b. program review information,
c. records review information
d. subjective impression
6. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for agriculture:
a. 1904
b. 1915
c. 1926
d. 1928
7. Section 8 of the Act provides that OSHA compliance officers may enter without delay and at reasonable times any establishment covered under the Act for the purpose of conducting an inspection. The employer may not refuse to allow the compliance officer entry when any of the following recognized exceptions exist: ( (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. consent
b. open field,
c. plain view
d. time restraint
8. Under OSHA standards, employers are required to maintain all of the following, except: (OSHA Fact Sheet)
a. exposure records
b. hazard assessment records
c. training records
d. equipment certification records
9. Complaints about discrimination must be filed to OSHA as soon as possible within _____ days of the alleged reprisal for most complaints:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. two weeks
d. three weeks
10. Unless the circumstances constitute a recognized exception the employer may: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer to conduct of the inspection
b. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer without a warrant
c. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer with police escort
d. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer without legal council
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. The Occupational Safety and Health Act (William-Steigers Act) was enacted in what year?
a. 1907
b. 1970
c. 1977
d. 1997
2. Examples of employer interference with OSHA compliance inspections includes all of the following examples, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. refusal to permit the walk-around inspection
b. not allowing examination of records essential to the inspection,
c. refusing OSHA compliance officer entry without a warrant
d. refusing to allow the taking of essential photos
3. Which of the following is TRUE concerning employee workplace rights?
a. negotiate the corrective actions
b. appeal the citation penalty
c. require a warrant
d. contest the abatement date
4. When an apparent refusal to permit entry or inspection is encountered upon presenting the warrant, the CSHO shall specifically inquire whether the employer is refusing to comply with the warrant. If the employer refuses to comply or if consent is not clearly given, the CSHO will do all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. enter with a U.S. Federal Marshall
b. leave the premises,
c. not attempt to conduct the inspection
d. notify the Assistant Area Director
5. This system has served for decades as the structure for the collection, aggregation, presentation, and analysis of the US economy:
a. North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)
b. National Industrial Classification (NIC)
c. Primary Industrial Survey (PIS)
d. Standard Industrial Classification (SIC)
6. Employers who participate in these programs may be exempted from programmed OSHA inspections: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. preferred worker programs
b. voluntary compliance programs,
c. voluntary nondisclosure programs
d. OSHA 300 Survey Program
7. To protect the health and safety of persons working in the coal mining industry, the Federal Coal Mine Health and Safety Act passed. In what year was the Act enacted? (MSHA)
a. 1909
b. 1919
c. 1969
d. 1996
8. The Lost Workday Case Incident Rate (LWDI) may, in the OSHA compliance officer's discretion, be used in determining trends in injuries and illnesses. The LWDI rate is calculated according to the following formula: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. (# LWDI's x 1 million)/# employee hours worked
b. (# LWDI's x 200,000)/# employee hours worked
c. (# employee hours worked x 1 million)/200,000
d. (# employee hours worked x 200,000)/# LWDI's
9. Apparent OSHA violations will be brought to the attention of employer and employee representatives at the time they are documented during an inspection. Compliance officers are required to record at a minimum all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. employee's knowledge of the hazard
b. the employer's knowledge of the condition
c. the identity of the exposed employee
d. the hazard to which the employee was exposed
10. OSHA defines the hospitalization for treatment of three or more employees resulting from a work-related incident, accident or illness as a/an: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. serious accident
b. catastrophe
c. multiple injury accident
d. eight-hour reportable event
Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. This Act was most recently enacted in 1977:
a. Toxic Substances Control Act
b. Occupational Safety and Health Act
c. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act
d. Walsh Healy Act
2. Section 17(e) of the Act provides criminal penalties for an employer who is convicted of having willfully violated an OSHA standard, rule or order when that violation: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. occurred in the employer's workplace
b. caused the death of an employee
c. resulted in multiple injuries
d. was a repeat
3. Occupational Safety and Health Act was passed under this president's administration?
a. Roosevelt
b. Kennedy
c. Nixon
d. Reagan
4. Any conditions or practices in any place of employment which are such that a danger exists which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the imminence of such danger can be eliminated through enforcement procedures is referred to as: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. immediately dangerous to life or limb (IDLL)
b. a high risk environment
c. imminent danger
d. a hazardous workplace
5. The OSHA 300 Log must be prepared for OSHA each year, but the most effective use of the summary is to:
a. Provide statistical analysis data
b. Ensure compliance with OSHA
c. Provide justification to fund safety
d. Prove due diligence
6. Days Away Restricted & Transferred (DART) incidence rate is expressed as: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)
a. (# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer x 1 million)/# actual employee workhours)
b. (# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer x 200,000)/# actual employee workhours
c.(# actual employee workhours x 200,000)/# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer
d. # Days away from work, restricted work or transfer/(# actual employee workhours x 200,000)
7. Under the OSHA Guidelines, states may administer their own safety and health rules as long as:
a. state rules are at least as effective
b. states remit a portion of the penalties
c. state plans mirror the federal plan
d. state rules are adopted after 180 days
8. The Occupational Safety and Health Act (William-Steigers Act) was enacted in what year?
a. 1907
b. 1970
c. 1977
d. 1997
9. The maximum OSHA penalty a repeat violation is:
a. $3,000
b. $5,000
c. $7,000
d. $9,000
10. Warning signs, hazardous material labels and other forms of warnings must be in:
a. English and Spanish
b. English
c. Primary language of employee
d. English and French
Practice Questions - Bank 9
1. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is located within what federal agency?
a. Department of Labor
b. Health and Human Services/CDC
c. Secretary of Labor
d. Secretary of Health and Human Services
2. Which of the following relationships is MOST correct?
a. NIOSH is an agency of OSHA
b. OSHA reports to NIOSH
c. NIOSH is an agency within CDC
d. CDC reports to NIOSH
3. OSHA encourages companies to develop and maintain a comprehensive safety and health program, and has established this program that recognizes this effort:
a. QSHP, Quality Safety and Health Program
b. VPP, Voluntary Protection Program
c. ESHM, Excellent Safety and Health Management Program
d. VOIP, Voluntary OSHA Inspection Program
4. OSHA encourages States to develop and operate their own job safety and health programs. OSHA approves and monitors State plans. For the states to assume, develop and operate their own OSHA laws, they must:
a. develop and forward a plan to OSHA
b. must meet 100% staffing levels
c. show worker protection is as effective as OSHA's
d. all of the above
5. This 1970 act is considered by most safety professionals to be the most significant safety legislation of the last century:
a. Taft-Hartley Act
b. Williams-Steiger Act
c. Gramm-Rudman Act
d. Steiger-Mannington Act
6. This Federal agency responsible for conducting research and making recommendations for the prevention of work-related disease and injury:
a. Department of Labor (DOL)
b. National Institutes of Safety and Health (NIOSH)
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
d. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
7. When any workplace fatality or accident that results in the hospitalization of three or more employees, employers are required to report to the nearest OSHA office within:
a. 8 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 48 hours
8. Which of the following must be posted at a prominent location within the workplace informing employees of their rights and responsibilities?
a. Form 301
b. OSHA summary
c. OSHA poster
d. Form 300A
9. The maximum OSHA penalty per day for failure to correct a prior violation is:
a. $3,000
b. $5,000
c. $7,000
d. $9,000
10. The employer must provide employees, former employees and their representatives access to the Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, also called the:
a. OSHA Form 301
b. OSHA Form 300
c. OSHA poster
d. Form summary
Practice Questions - Bank 10
1. Name an independent agency that tests, certifies and provides other safety technical services. : (Brauer, 41)
a. OSHA
b. Industry Mutual System
c. Underwriters Laboratory (UL)
d. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
2. Which of the following is NOT an example of a voluntary consensus standard? (Brauer, 40)
a. OSHA 1910.1200
b. ANSI Z490.1
c. ASTM A34/A34M-01
d. NFPA 70
3. Which of the following is voluntary consensus standards establishes guidelines for health and safety management systems? (AIHA)
a. OSHA 1910.1200
b. ANSI Z490.1
c. ANSI Z10-2005
d. NFPA 70
4. Identify the agency that does not certify or approve health or safety related products: (OSHA)
a. OSHA
b. UL
c. NIOSH
d. FM
5. Which of the following acts was enacted most recently? (OSHA)
a. The Occupational Safety and Health Act
b. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act
c. Homeland Security Act
d. The Toxic Substances Control Act
6. Where would one usually not look to determine what agencies in a state are responsible for safety function and codes? (Brauer, 39)
a. OSHA directories
b. U.S. Code
c. Internet
d. State directories
7. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is headed by _____________. (Dept. of Labor)
a. Vice President
b. Assistant Secretary of Labor
c. Secretary of Labor
d. Secretary of Health and Human Services
8. What is the primary responsibility of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission? (Dept. of Labor)
a. Conduct research, experiments, and demonstrations
b. Conduct educational programs
c. Adjudicate disputes
d. Promulgate standards
9. Congress provides grants to the States to assist in all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA)
a. Improving administration and enforcement
b. Evaluating labor-management relations
c. Identifying their needs and responsibilities
d. Developing plans in accordance with the OSHAct
10. OSHA has a right to Promulgate, modify and revoke standard, conduct inspection, require employers to keep records and to approve or reject state plans for programs under the act. They may also: (OSHA)
a. Dictate requirements for US plants in foreign countries.
b. Shut down a plant on evidence received in a complaint.
c. Provide training to employers and employees.
d. All of the above.
Practice Questions - Bank 11
1. OSHA encourages management to manage their safety and health program. One OSHA program for this purpose is called the __________. (OSHA)
a. VPP Voluntary Protection Program (VPP)
b. EESP, Employer, Employee Safety Program (EESP)
c. ESHP, Employer Safety and Health Policy (ESHP)
d. VSIP, Voluntary Safety Inspection Program (VSIP)
2. There are many organizations that promulgate standards besides OSHA. In fact OSHA refers to some of them in the OSHA standards. Good Safety Management includes and understanding and use of these standards. Which of the following apply to safety and health? (OSHA)
a. API, American Petroleum Institute
b. The Fertilizer Institute
c. ANSI, American National Standards Institute
d. All of the above
3. OSHA encourages the states to assume the fullest responsibility for administering and enforcing their own OSHA laws. However, in order to assume this responsibility, such states must: (OSHA)
a. Develop and submit a plan to OSHA.
b. Have standards pertinent to their own state.
c. Develop a program and tell OSHA.
d. Develop, submit and receive plan approval from OSHA.
4. The responsibility for research to determine criteria requirements and to provide more advanced occupational safety and health implementation methods in general, is assigned to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), which is under the ______: (OSHA)
a. Department of Labor
b. Department of Health and Human Services
c. National Institutes of Health
d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
5. Which of the following is NOT a stated strategy to achieve the goals outlined in OSHA's strategic plan? (OSHA)
a. Assist employers to promote a safe culture
b. Directly intervene to reduce occupational hazards
c. Introduce common sense regulatory reform
d. Strengthen capabilities and infrastructure
6. OSHA believes it ___________________________: (OSHA)
a. is caught between worker and employer organizations
b. cannot achieve goals through enforcement alone
c. has a mandate to enforce only
d. can achieve its mission through enforcement alone
7. OSHA has developed a variety of intervention tools and strategies for achieving its strategic goals. This multifaceted approach includes all of the following, except? (OSHA)
a. Initiating focused inspections
b. Legislating standard safety values
c. Penalty adjustments tied to the quality
d. Strengthening partnership efforts
8. OSHA makes use of research studies and data to proactively assess changes in the workplace environment and the workforce to _____________: (OSHA)
a. identify trends in injuries, illnesses, and deaths
b. determine the underlying reasons why injuries occur
c. determine employer liability
d. a and b above
9. OSHA will write new standards and guidance materials __________, in order to make safety and health requirements more understandable to those affected: (OSHA)
a. in plain language
b. using a revised indexing protocol
c. regularly
d. in standardized volumes
10. OSHA provides a strong enforcement presence to _______________________: (OSHA)
a. assure a culture of accountability
b. act as an effective deterrent
c. prevent private sector noncompliance
d. comply with DOL policy
Practice Questions - Bank 12
1. OSHA will increase the number of high-impact cases (e.g., significant, egregious, and corporate-wide settlement agreements) through ______________: (OSHA)
a. enhanced targeting
b. revised reporting procedures
c. improved case preparation
d. all of the above
2. Which one of the following would NOT be considered a benefit of partnering with OSHA? (OSHA)
a. technical assistance
b. focused inspections
c. penalty reductions
d. reduced publicity
3. OSHA's compliance assistance programs include all of the following, except: (OSHA)
a. Informal training classes
b. Consultation Program
c. Voluntary Protection Programs
d. Outreach initiatives
4. This program recognizes worksites with excellent safety and health programs: (OSHA)
a. Employer Excellence Program (EEP)
b. Voluntary Protection Program (VPP)
c. Safety and Health Recognition Program (SHRP)
d. Employer Safety Excellence Program (ESEP)
5. OSHA has developed a broad-based training and educational effort for external outreach including all of the following, except: (OSHA)
a. Employer Ride-a-long Program
b. Training grant program
c. Training aids and lesson plans
d. Technology-based delivery systems
6. NIOSH performs all of the following activities, except: (OSHA)
a. Investigate potentially hazardous working conditions
b. Make recommendations on preventing injury and illness
c. Provide training to safety and health professionals
d. Promulgate pending OSHA legislation
7. Section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 ________ States to develop and operate their own job safety and health programs. (OSHA)
a. mandates
b. encourages
c. requires
d. forces
8. The organization of officials in the 26 States that operate OSHA-approved State Plans is called: (OSHA)
a. State Plan OSHA Association (SPOSHA)
b. State Occupational Safety and Health Association (SOSHA)
c. Occupational Safety and Health State Plan Association (OSHSPA)
d. Occupational State Safety Plan Association (OSPPA)
9. States must set job safety and health standards that are __________ federal standards: (OSHA)
a. at least as effective as
b. identical to
c. not in addition to
d. not otherwise addressed in
10. The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC) __________: (OSHA)
a. reviews pending legislation for legal sufficiency
b. is an independent agency of the U.S. Government
c. is a consortium of private and public sector associations
d. monitors and approves employer disputes
Practice Questions - Bank 13
1. The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission's only function is to _________: (OSHRC)
a. ensure OSHA adheres to STD-1
b. conduct hearings
c. review OSHA law
d. resolve disputes
2. The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission employs _______________ to hear cases: (OSHRC)
a. former enforcement officers
b. Administrative Law Judges
c. trial attorneys
d. hearings officers
3. This organization is composed of officials operating OSHA-approved State Plans: (OSHRC)
a. OSHAHC
b. OSHSPA
c. IRSPA
d. SPAM
4. Which of the following criteria is NOT used by OSHA to demonstrate that a hazard is or should have been recognized by the employer? (OSHA)
a. industry recognition
b. employer recognition
c. employee recognition
d. common sense recognition
5. The common sense criteria to argue that a hazard should have been recognized by an employer will be used ______: (OSHA)
a. whenever other criteria is insufficient
b. only in flagrant cases
c. when employees identify the hazards
d. as directed by the Oregon DOJ
6. Each of the below are types of OSHA standards except? (OSHA)
a. national consensus standards
b. permanent standards
c. temporary review standards
d. emergency temporary standards
7. These rules represent the most common type of OSHA regulation: (OSHA)
a. Consensus
b. Emergency
c. Temporary
d. Permanent
8. Why does OSHA rarely issue Emergency Temporary Standards (ETS)? (OSHA)
a. The need for ETS's has significantly decreased.
b. ETS's remain in effect for only six months.
c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become effective.
d. Funding for ETS's has been cut off by Congress.
9. Before issuing a permanent standard, OSHA must find that a significant risk exists in the workplace. How does OSHA determine risk? (OSHA)
a. legal writ
b. regulatory standard
c. OSHA 200 Log results
d. workplace and other studies
10. All of the following Acts have placed restraints on OSHA's rulemaking ability, EXCEPT: (OSHA)
a. Regulatory Flexibility Act
b. Business Liability Act
c. Paperwork Reduction Act
d. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act
Practice Questions - Bank 14
1. The general duty clause is breached when a firm's employees are exposed to hazards that meet all of the following requirements, EXCEPT: (OSHA)
a. The hazard is recognized as harmful by the individual employer.
b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate specific rule.
c. The hazard is recognized as harmful by industry.
d. The hazards is likely to cause death or serious harm.
2. Which of the following is not considered a successful employer defense against alleged OSHA violations? (OSHA)
a. Compliance poses a financial burden
b. Compliance is infeasible
c. Lack of control on a multi-employer worksite.
d. Unpreventable employee conduct
3. An employer may be able to defend against an OSHA violation by demonstrating all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA)
a. employee breached safety rules
b. safety rules were effectively conveyed
c. safety rules are uniformly enforced
d. the unsafe practice did not cause injury
4. All of the following are OSHA penalty classifications except? (OSHA)
a. willful
b. de minimis
c. general
d. serious
5. Which of the following is not a consideration the Secretary of Labor must consider in proposing penalties? (OSHA)
a. good faith
b. prior violation history
c. employer size
d. employer ability to pay
6. The Secretary has unreviewable prosecutorial discretion to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA)
a. nullify rules
b. withdraw citations
c. reach settlements
d. characterize violations
7. At an administrative hearing, both OSHA and the employer may _________: (OSHA)
a. cross examine
b. call witnesses
c. introduce evidence
d. all of the above
8. OSHA can seek criminal penalties in all of the following instances, EXCEPT: (OSHA)
a. someone falsely reports information to OSHA
b. willful violations of specific standards
c. willful violations of the general duty clause
d. someone provides advance notice of an OSHA inspection
9. Employees enjoy a right to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA)
a. challenge the abatement remedy
b. file a complaint with OSHA
c. accompany inspectors
d. review relevant standards
10. To prove discrimination has occurred against an employee, the Secretary must show that exercise of protected rights was a ______________ cause for an employee's adverse treatment: (OSHA)
a. sole
b. substantial
c. primary
d. secondary
Practice Questions - Bank 15
1. OSHA regulations also grant employees a right to know all of the following, EXCEPT? (OSHA)
a. trade secret information
b. exposure information
c. hazardous substances on the job
d. medical records
2. 29 U.S.C. 666(e) of the OSH Act provides for criminal penalties when all of the following criteria are met, EXCEPT: (29 U.S.C. Section 666(e))
a. There is a violation of a specific regulation
b. The violation is willful
c. The employer refused consultative services
d. An employee was killed
3. Which of the following criteria is not included in consideration of criminal penalties as specified in 29 U.S.C. 666(e) of the OSH Act? (29 U.S.C. Section 666(e))
a. The violation was a repeat
b. There is a causal relationship between the violation and the death
c. There is a violation of a specific regulation
d. An employee was killed
4. An employer may be assessed a civil penalty for willfully or repeatedly committing any of the following OSH Act violations, EXCEPT: (29 U.S.C. Section 666(a))
a. violates requirements of section 5
b. violates a standard, rule, or order promulgated in section 6
c. willfully or repeatedly violates any section of the OSHact
d. willfully or repeatedly violates prescribed OSH regulations
5. Any employer who willfully or repeatedly violates the requirements of section 5 of the OSH Act, any standard, rule, or order promulgated pursuant to section 6 of the OSHAct, or regulations prescribed pursuant to the OSH Act, may be assessed a civil penalty of not more than _____ for each violation, but not less than _____ for each willful violation. (29 U.S.C. Section 666(a))
a. $7,000, $500
b. $17,000, $1500
c. $70,000, $5,000
d. $170,000, $50,000
6. Since 1970, workplace fatalities have been reduced by: (OSHA)
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
7. Occupational injury and illness rates have been declining for the past six years, dropping in ____ to the lowest level on record: (OSHA)
a. 1978
b. 1983
c. 1998
d. 2003
8. Nationally, nearly ______ American workers are injured every minute: (OSHA)
a. 4
b. 17
c. 35
d. 50
9. Nationally, almost ____ workers die each day. : (OSHA)
a. 4
b. 17
c. 35
d. 50
10. How many OSHA standards specifically address training requirements? (OSHA)
a. more than 20
b. more than 50
c. more than 75
d. more than 100
Subject Area III. Topic B. Environment
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. This Act gave the EPA authority to establish standards related to the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles and industry: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. The Atmospheric Quality Act (AQA) of 1978
b. The Environmental Quality Control Act (EQCA) of 1970
c. Air Quality Act (AQA) of 1956
d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967
2. The Clean Air Act of 1967 gave this agency authority to establish standards related to the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles and industry: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. The EPA
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
c. National Geologic Survey (NGS)
d. Department of Environmental Protection (DEP)
3. The Clean Air Act of 1967 gave the EPA authority to do which of the following? (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. regulate the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles
b. establish air quality standards
c. regulate the discharge of pollutants from industry
d. all of the above
4. The Clean Air Act of 1970 gave the EPA additional authority to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. regulate the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles
b. set and review National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)
c. regulate the discharge of pollutants from industry
d. regulate the discharge of pollutants into outdoor ambient air
5. Which of the following define maximum concentrations of certain air pollutants allowable in ambient air to protect public health and welfare? (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)
b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)
c. American National Ambient Air Standards (ANAAS)
d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS)
6. Under the Clean Air Act the EPA identified primary air quality standards for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. ozone
b. silicon
c. carbon monoxide
d. particulate matter
7. Under the Clean Air Act the EPA identified primary air quality standards for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. sulfur dioxide
b. silver monoxide
c. nitrogen dioxide
d. lead
8. Which of the following define allowable emissions limits for various stationary sources set by the EPA? (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)
b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)
c. American National Ambient Air Standards (ANAAS)
d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS)
9. These standards are set by the EPA for pollutants for which no ambient air quality standards exist: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)
b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)
c. American National Ambient Air Standards (ANAAS)
d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS)
10. Under the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) the EPA identified standards for all of the following pollutants, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. arsenic
b. benzene
c. asbestos
d. lead
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Under the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) the EPA identified standards for all of the following pollutants, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. anthrax
b. mercury
c. radionuclides
d. vinyl chlorides
2. This Act modified some of the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) due compensate for shifts energy sources caused by the Middle East oil embargo: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. The NESHAPs Revision Act (NRA) of 1978
b. The Environmental Quality Control Act (EQCA) of 1970
c. Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act (ESECA) of 1974
d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967
3. In 1977, Congress enacted amendments to the Clean Air Act (CAA) that resulted in all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. restrictions on new pollution sources where ambient air quality standards have not been met
b. restrictions on industrial expansion to prevent deterioration in ambient air quality
c. restrictions on motor vehicle biodiesel fuel emissions
d. a and b above
4. State governments measure air quality standards and define ways to meet National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) via this plan: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. State Emergency Management Plan (EMP)
b. State NAAQS Plan (SNP)
c. State Implementation Plan (SIP)
d. State Emergency Implementation Plan (SEIP)
5. All of the following is true concerning State Implementation Plans (SIP), EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)
a. the SIP must be developed by the EPA and state governments
b. the SIP must be approved by the EPA, municipal and state governments
c. the SIP becomes part of both state and federal law
d. the SIP can be enforced by the EPA and state regulatory agencies
6. The Clean Air Amendments of 1990 contained the largest and most complex changes to air pollutant regulations since 1970. These amendments affected all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)
a. nonattainment areas
b. mobile sources
c. air toxic chemicals
d. chemtrail pollutants
7. The Clean Air Amendments of 1990 contained the largest and most complex changes to air pollutant regulations since 1970. These amendments affected all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)
a. emissions from watercraft
b. permits
c. cholorofluorocarbons
d. acid rain
8. The Clean Air Amendments of 1990 contained the largest and most complex changes to air pollutant regulations since 1970. These amendments affected all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)
a. underwater volcano emissions
b. permits
c. enforcement
d. acid rain
9. Which of the following is true concerning the Clean Air Amendments of 1990? (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)
a. identifies 189 air toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT)
b. regulates based on the maximum exposed individual
c. removes the grandfather exemption limiting the need for emissions permits
d. all of the above
10. Which of the following is true concerning the Clean Air Amendments of 1990? (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)
a. identifies 189 air toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT)
b. regulates based on the maximum exposed individual
c. removes the grandfather exemption limiting the need for emissions permits
d. all of the above
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. All of the following are true concerning the Clean Water Act (CWA) of 1972, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)
a. identifies toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT)
b. Developing criteria is assigned to the EPA
c. Its purpose is to restore and maintain the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the Nation's waters
d. States are responsible to develop water quality management programs
2. Under the Clean Water Act (CWA) of 1972, the EPA is responsible for develop criteria for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)
a. water quality standards
b. technology-based effluent limitation guidelines
c. allowed additives control standards
d. pretreatment standards
3. This system incorporates and applies effluent limitations in individual permits for municipal and industrial dischargers: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. Waterway Effluent Discharge Permit System (WEDPS)
b. American Effluent Permit System (AEPS)
c. National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
d. North American Waterway Permit System (NAWPS)
4. In 1990, the EPA published these rules to regulate industrial facilities discharging stormwater into the waters of the United States: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. Stormwater Discharge Regulations
b. American Effluent Discharge Regulations
c. National Discharge Elimination Standards
d. North American Waterway Discharge Standards
5. This Act, passed in 1976, was the first statutory framework designed to provide comprehensive federal and state hazardous-waste management: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. Clean Air Act (CAA)
b. Clean Water Act (CWA)
c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
d. Hazardous Waste Recovery and Conservation Act (HWRCA)
6. This Act requires industry to identify and list all hazardous wastes and to note the toxicity, persistence, degradability in nature, and the potential for accumulation in tissue: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. Clean Air Act (CAA)
b. Clean Water Act (CWA)
c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
d. Hazardous Waste Recovery and Conservation Act (HWRCA)
7. Which of the following must be listed by industry under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)? (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. hazardous waste toxicity
b. hazardous waste persistence
c. hazardous waste degradability in nature
d. all of the above
8. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), all of the following must be listed by industry, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. potential for accumulation of hazardous wastes in tissues
b. resistance of hazardous waste to controls
c. degradability of hazardous wastes in nature
d. toxicity of hazardous wastes
9. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), all of the following must be accomplished by hazardous waste generators, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. maintain recordkeeping
b. accomplish container labeling
c. train hazardous waste workers
d. comply with component disclosure
10. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), all of the following must be accomplished by hazardous waste generators, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. use of a manifest system to track hazardous waste movement
b. report to OSHA
c. accomplish container labeling
d. comply with component disclosure
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) regulates: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. hazardous waste generators
b. hazardous waste treatment facilities
c. hazardous waste storage facilities
d. all of the above
2. Which of the following is not regulated by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)? (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. hazardous waste manufacturers
b. hazardous waste treatment facilities
c. hazardous waste disposal facilities
d. hazardous waste generators
3. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), hazardous waste generators and treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) facilities must operate under the conditions in a/an: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. hazardous waste plan
b. controlled environment
c. RCRA Permit
d. hazard communication and control plan
4. Under the Hazardous Waste and Solid Waste Amendments (HSWA), treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) facilities must: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. take corrective action for releases of hazardous wastes
b. take corrective action for releases of constituents from any solid waste management unit (SMWU)
c. take corrective action regardless of when the waste was placed in the SWMU
d. all of the above
5. The Hazardous Waste and Solid Waste Amendments (HSWA), authorizes EPA and authorized states to issue orders requiring a firm to take corrective action when: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. a hazardous waste release occurs at a permitted facility
b. a hazardous waste release occurs at a TSD facility pending permit approval
c. a hazardous waste release occurs at an interim status facility
d. all of the above
6. This law outlines how to develop and implement a program to regulate underground storage tanks (USTs) that store petroleum and other substances defined as hazardous: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)
a. Underground Petroleum Storage Tank Amendment (UPSTA)
b. National Underground Storage Tank Act (NUST)
c. Subtitle I, Regulation of Underground Story Tanks (USTs)
d. Underground Storage Tank Control Act (USTC)
7. The Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendment employs all of the following strategies to protect groundwater, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 110)
a. technological standards for land disposal facilities
b. volunteer compliance and cooperation
c. requirements for managing and treating small quantities of hazardous waste
d. regulations for controlling USTs
8. The Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendment employs all of the following strategies to protect groundwater, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 110)
a. technological standards for land disposal facilities
b. upgraded performance and design criteria for disposing solid waste in landfills
c. requirements for disposal of hazardous waste at remote locations
d. restrictions on land disposal of many untreated hazardous wastes
9. Several incidents of uncontrolled, dangerous disposal of toxic chemicals resulted in Congress passing this Act: (NSC, APM-A&P, 110)
a. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)
b. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA)
c. Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA)
d. National Hazardous Waste Recovery and Liability Act of 1988 (NHWRLA)
10. This event inspired the 1990 Clean Air Act requirement that factories and other businesses develop plans to prevent accidental releases of highly toxic chemicals: (EPA)
a. Bhopal Tragedy
b. New York Trade Center Tragedy
c. Great Chicago Fire
d. Three Mile Island
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. This Act gave the EPA authority to establish standards related to the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles and industry: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)
a. The Atmospheric Quality Act (AQA) of 1978
b. The Environmental Quality Control Act (EQCA) of 1970
c. Air Quality Act (AQA) of 1956
d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967
Subject Area III. Topic C. Ergonomics
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Which of the following best describes carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. Elbow and shoulder swelling and inflammation
b. Inflammation of the channel in the wrist
c. Raynaud's syndrome of the hand and wrist
d. White finger
2. Carpal tunnel syndrome include all of the following symptoms, except:
a. Numbness in the little finger
b. Pain in the wrist upon exertion
c. Pain in the second and third finger
d. Inflammation and swelling of the wrist
3. Lateral epicondylitis is also called:
a. Trigger finder
b. Roffer's wrist
c. Carpenter's elbow
d. Rotator cuff
4. This agency publishes the Work Practices Guide for Manual Lifting:
a. OSHA
b. ANSI
c. NIOSH
d. ASSE
5. An injury of the median nerve inside the wrist is known as:
a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
b. Osteoarthritis
c. DeQuarvain's Disease
d. Reynold's Syndrome
6. This field of study is interested in the physical and behavioral interaction between humans and their environment on and off the job: (Brauer, p. 483)
a. Ergonomics
b. Anthropometrics
c. Biomechanics
d. Biobehavioral Systems
7. The most common of the work related musculoskeletal disorders, and in economic terms, the most costly is:
a. Back pain
b. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
c. Trigger finger
d. Tennis elbow
8. Grasping a pencil or pen between the thumb and distal joints of the fingers is referred to as:
a. Power grip
b. Hook grip
c. Precision grip
d. Relaxed grip
9. Which grip produces the maximum force that can be developed by the hand?
a. Power grip
b. Hook grip
c. Precision grip
d. Relaxed grip
10. What is the normal line of sight at rest?
a. 10 degrees upward
b. 10 degrees downward
c. 15 degrees upward
d. 15 degrees downward
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. The application of mechanical principles to biological problems is known as:
a. Kinesiology
b. Physiology
c. Biomechanics
d. Ergonomics
2. Ergonomics, as a field of study, is best described as: (Brauer, p. 483)
a. The science that deals with causal factors
b. The measure of negative entropy in a system
c. The study of mechanics of biological systems
d. The man-machine relationship
3. An MSD is an ergonomics acronym for:
a. Material Safety Data
b. Musculoskeletal Disorders
c. Machine System Design
d. Muskulo-Safe Determination
4. Which of the following is most likely produced by a cumulative trauma disorder?
a. Hearing loss
b. Vision loss
c. Tennis elbow
d. Loss of memory
5. This category of vibration is a commonly experienced by truck drivers:
a. back vibration
b. segmental vibration
c. whole-body vibration
d. neck vibration
6. Ergonomics is derived from two Greek words meaning: (Brauer, p. 483)
a. Work and Law
b. Cumulative and Trauma
c. Work and Disease
d. Trauma and Law
7. The science of measuring the body is called:
a. physiometry
b. anthropometry
c. ergonomics
d. Socionoics
8. Force can be defined by all of the following, except:
a. an external load
b. expressed in newtons or pounds
c. capacity to do work or cause physical change
d. a vector quantity that tends to produce a deceleration
9. All of the following are considered ergonomics risk factors associated with a task, except: (NSC, APM-BIET, p.107)
a. Fitness
b. Repetitive motion
c. Weight
d. Point of operation
10. Which of the following is not considered in study of ergonomics?
a. Physiological demands
b. Psychological demands
c. Physical demands
d. Emotional demands
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. Work-related MSDs of the neck, shoulder, and upper limb are referred to as:
a. Cumulative trauma injuries (CTI)
b. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
c. Repetitive Strain Injuries (RSI)
d. Upper limb syndrome
2. Which of the following is not an important ergonomics consideration?
a. Safe lift techniques
b. Repetitive motion risk factors
c. Exposure to blood-borne pathogens
d. Exposure to excessive vibration or extreme temperatures
3. Which of the following is the least strategy to increase employee involvement in ergonomics?
a. Effective reporting
b. Prompt responses to concerns
c. Using employee ideas on program development
d. Ignore employee concerns and ideas
4. Which of the following is not an effective manual material handling principle?
a. Lift loads between knees and shoulders
b. Keep the travel distance less than 10 feet
c. Twist as you lift from the floor
d. Keep the load close to the body
5. A proactive approach to ergonomics would emphasize:
a. reduction in injury costs
b. early return to work programs
c. workstation design
d. aggressive accident investigation
6. Which of the following is not an effective ergonomics program policy?
a. give ergonomics efforts high priority
b. further strategic goals
c. allow full discussion and cooperation
d. discourage union involvement
7. Each of the following is a way management can demonstrate commitment to an ergonomics program, except:
a. conduct awareness training
b. encourage compliance
c. bring in outside experts
d. carry out ergonomic improvements
8. Which of the strategies below are counter-productive to effective ergonomics?
a. Ignoring employees registering complaints
b. Training in ergonomic risk factor awareness
c. Sharing information and results
d. Incentives for involvement
9. Which of the following is the least effective technique in developing concrete ergonomics solutions?
a. reviewing OSHA logs
b. brainstorming
c. periodic medical exams
d. screening jobs for risk factors
10. If you uncover signs and symptoms of possible MSDs in your workplace, the most effective strategy would be to:
a. implement a training program
b. assess for signs and symptoms
c. request a confidential evaluation
d. Purchase safety belts
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Once a decision has been made to initiate an ergonomics program, what is your next step?
a. identify players
b. determine risk factors
c. determine scope of the problem
d. identify costs
2. The purpose of the walk-through ergonomics observational survey is to:
a. interview safety committee members
b. detect obvious risk factors
c. score unsafe behaviors
d. conduct in-depth analysis
3. The quality of checklist data collected during an ergonomics inspection is generally better when:
a. interviews cover supervisors as well as workers
b. data is expressed as percentages
c. employees providing data do not feel intimidated
d. persons are familiar with the job, task, or process
4. Activities requiring frequent or prolonged work can be particularly stressful in all of the following situations, except:
a. work requiring sustained bending or twisting
b. work requiring sustained or repeated work above the shoulders
c. work requiring sustained or repeated work at chest level
d. work requiring sustained or repeated work below the knees
5. Force requirements may increase with:
a. increasing speed of movements
b. pinch grip
c. decreased slipperiness
d. vibration
6. To determine possible negative effects on the musculoskeletal system, research is conducted all of the following areas, except:
a. group dynamics
b. performance monitoring
c. production demands
d. incentive pay systems
7. An effective ergonomics job hazard analysis would never do which of the following?
a. identify conditions contributing to risk factors
b. measure and quantify ergonomic risk factors
c. break down task into individual steps
d. exclude employee involvement in the analysis
8. Which of the following procedures is least likely to be used for collecting information on the ergonomic components of a job?
a. videotaping
b. observation
c. investigation
d. measurements
9. Which of the following procedures is least effective proactive strategy for collecting information on the ergonomic components of a job?
a. biomechanical calculations
b. physiological measures
c. investigation
d. interviews
10. Jobs in which current cases have been identified should receive ____________ attention, followed by those in which past records have noted a high incidence or ________ of MSDs despite the lack of current cases.
a. planned, probability
b. some, number
c. immediate, severity
d. primary, type
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. Priority for ergonomics job analysis and intervention should be given to those jobs:
a. employees complain of discomfort
b. in which most people are affected
c. significant risk factors exist
d. all of the above
2. Which of the three ergonomics control strategies is most effective in eliminating risk factors?
a. Technical Controls
b. Engineering Controls
c. Work Practice Controls
d. Interim Measures
3. Which ergonomics control strategy below has as its primary purpose to limit exposure to the hazard?
a. Technical Controls
b. Engineering Controls
c. Work Practice Controls
d. Interim Measures
4. Which of the following is not considered a component of proper computer workstation design to maintain proper posture?
a. the printer
b. the work surface
c. the keyboard
d. the chair
5. Effective procedures should incorporate each of the following ergonomics goals, except:
a. decrease recovery time
b. maintain neutral postures
c. reduce duration of exposure
d. reduce frequency of exposure
6. What is the purpose of the testing and evaluation phase of an ergonomics program implementation?
a. verifies duties and responsibilities
b. verifies proposed solutions
c. identifies additional enhancements
d. identifies additional modifications
7. What of the following is not considered a purpose of the follow-up ergonomics evaluation?
a. new risk factors do not exist
b. controls reduce risk factors
c. controls eliminate risk factors
d. controls are identified
8. Long-term indicators of the effectiveness of an ergonomics program can include:
a. reduced severity rates
b. reduced incidence rates
c. increased product quality
d. reduced productivity
9. In general, the medical management process in an ergonomics program emphasizes the prevention of impairment and disability through all of the following, except:
a. Early return to work
b. Prompt treatment
c. Early detection
d. Timely recovery
10. It is not appropriate for employers to provide ergonomics training to employees regarding which of the following?
a. signs and symptoms of MSDs
b. methods of self-treating MSDs
c. procedures for reporting MSDs
d. importance of reporting MSDs
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. It is not appropriate for employees or supervisors to:
a. be aware of signs and symptoms of MSDs
b. diagnose signs and symptoms
c. report signs and symptoms of MSDs
d. thank employees for reporting possible MSDs
2. One of the best ways for a health care provider to become familiar with jobs and job tasks is by:
a. formal communication
b. periodic plant tours
c. medical exams
d. accident record reviews
3. The least effective goal of ergonomics training is to enable managers, supervisors, and employees to do all of the following except:
a. Comply with mandatory OSHA rules
b. Identify job tasks that may increase risk of MSDs
c. Recognize signs and symptoms of MSDs
d. Develop control and prevention strategies
4. One of the primary objectives for ergonomics awareness training is to recognize workplace risk factors for _________ and understand general methods for controlling them:
a. environmental injuries
b. musculoskeletal disorders
c. psychosocial factors
d. ergonomic awareness
5. Musculoskeletal disorders can result when there is a mismatch between the physical _______ of the job and the physical ________ of the worker:
a. demands, requirements
b. requirements, capacity
c. requirements, requirements
d. demands, demands
6. Workers are likely to develop MSDs when they:
a. work in an awkward position
b. use a great deal of force
c. repeatedly lift heavy objects
d. Any of the above
7. Which of the following is not considered one the three areas within which ergonomics risk factors exist?
a. the worker
b. the procedure
c. the task
d. the environment
8. Musculoskeletal disorders are among the most prevalent medical problems in the U.S., affecting _____ of the entire population:
a. 3 percent
b. 7 percent
c. 40 percent
d. 72 percent
9. MSDs include a group of conditions that involve all of the following, except:
a. nerves
b. tendons
c. muscles
d. skin
10. All of these factors may contribute to MSDs, except:
a. vibration
b. unique motions
c. awkward postures
d. forceful exertions
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. Which of the following is not considered a critical risk factor leading to cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs) as well as other musculoskeletal disorders?
a. force
b. duration
c. capacity
d. frequency
2. By the age _____, most people have had their first episode of back pain:
a. 25
b. 35
c. 45
d. 55
3. The amount of effort in performing a task depends on a number of factors. Which of the factors below is not one of those factors?
a. Type of grip
b. Object weight
c. Object dimensions
d. Fatigue
4. The amount of effort in performing a task depends on a number of factors. Which of the factors below is not one of those factors?
a. repetition
b. duration
c. environment
d. slipperiness
5. All of the following are common locations of injury due to exerting excessive force, except:
a. neck/shoulder
b. foot/ankle
c. upper back
d. wrist/hand
6. What condition exists when any part of your body presses against an external object and the resulting sustained force has caused too much mechanical stress on tissues?
a. Mechanical trauma
b. Recovery trauma
c. Force trauma
d. Contact trauma
7. This grip strategy to manipulate objects requires much greater muscle strength so it is more likely going to cause an injury:
a. pinch grip
b. power grip
c. sustained grip
d. intermittent grip
8. This form of exertion combines force, posture, and duration to create a condition that quickly fatigues our muscles which increases the chances of acquiring a cumulative trauma disorder (CTD):
a. intermittent exertion
b. repetitive exertion
c. static exertion
d. forceful exertion
9. This term describes a measure of the rest (or low stress activity) period available to the muscle group between similar exertions:
a. rest period
b. recovery time
c. degree of recovery
d. muscle group rest time
10. Awkward postures typically include all of the following, except:
a. squatting
b. working overhead
c. bending
d. standing
Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. ____ is the speed at which the body part moves and ____ is the rate of change of the speed at which the body part moves:
a. angular velocity, acceleration
b. acceleration, angular velocity
c. angular acceleration, velocity
d. velocity, angular acceleration
2. Heat stress can result in:
a. Heat exhaustion
b. Heat cramps
c. Dehydration
d. All of the above
3. Heat stress is made even more dangerous in the presence of ______ due to the reduced ability of the body to cool itself:
a. low humidity
b. high humidity
c. greater exertion
d. higher force
4. This condition may result if the worker is exposed to an environment so cold that the body cannot maintain adequate deep core temperature:
a. hyperthermia
b. hypothermia
c. hyperthermitis
d. hypothermitis
5. Which of the following is not one of the symptoms brought on by cold stress?
a. pulmonary pain
b. dilated pupils
c. ventricular fibrillation
d. shivering
6. The body's response to vertical vibration will be greatest between ____ Hz:
a. 2 and 4
b. 4 and 8
c. 8 and 10
d. 10 and 12
7. Factors influencing the adequacy and effectiveness of illumination include the following, except:
a. freedom from diffusion
b. freedom from glare
c. freedom from concentration
d. freedom from glare
8. To create a healthy work environment that reduces the risk of ergonomics injuries, management should do all of the following, except:
a. understand roles
b. allow participation
c. threaten for noncompliance
d. conduct adequate training
9. Which of the following are least likely to result in work-related MSDs?
a. intensified workload
b. limited job control
c. monotonous work
d. poor labor-management relations
10. For proper work surface design, all of these factors should be considered, except:
a. deep enough
b. wide enough
c. high enough
d. flat enough
Subject Area III. Topic D. Toxicology
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. What term refers to the science that studies the poisonous, or toxic, properties of substances? (Plog, 123)
a. bacteriology
b. epidemiology
c. toxicology
d. virology
2. A toxic effect is: (Plog, 123)
a. any reversible noxious effect on the body
b. any permanent noxious effect on the body
c. any irreversible noxious effect on the body
d. a and c above
3. A toxic effect is the result of: (Plog, 123)
a. contact with a harmful substance
b. exposure to harmful substances
c. interaction with a harmful substance
d. influence of a harmful substance
4. According to Plog, toxic effects may be the result of all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 123)
a. contact with a harmful substance
b. side effects of medication
c. side effects of vaccinations
d. contact with biological mutagens
5. The capacity of a chemical to harm or injure a living organism by other than mechanical means is called: (Plog, 123)
a. dose
b. lethality
c. toxicity
d. carcinogenicity
6. The toxicity of a chemical depends on: (Plog, 123)
a. the dose
b. degree of exposure
c. its lethality
d. acute threshold
7. An important responsibility of the industrial toxicologist is to: (Plog, 124)
a. define how substance much is too much
b. consider types of exposure
c. consider effects of substances on workers
d. all of the above
8. What term is used by toxicologists to describe the ability of a substance to produce an unwanted effect when the chemical has reached a sufficient concentration at a certain site in the body? (Plog, 124)
a. exposure
b. toxicity
c. hazard
d. dose
9. What term is used by toxicologists to describe the probability that a chemical will reach a sufficient concentration in the body at a certain site to cause an unwanted effect? (Plog, 124)
a. exposure
b. toxicity
c. hazard
d. dose
10. Factors that contribute to determining the degree of hazard include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)
a. route of entry
b. dosage
c. environmental variables
d. exposure
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. This term is commonly used by toxicologists in comparing one chemical agent with another: (Plog, 124)
a. exposure
b. toxicity
c. hazard
d. dose
2. A chemical stimulus can be considered to have produced a toxic effect when it satisfies all of the following criteria, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)
a. an observable physiological deviation produced in any organ
b. the stimulus has changed chemical markers
c. the observed change can be repeated
d. the stimulus has impaired a protective mechanism
3. A chemical stimulus can be considered to have produced a toxic effect when it satisfies all of the following criteria, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)
a. the effect is unique and specific
b. the effect is reversible or attenuated when stimulus is removed
c. the effect does not occur or is infrequent without a stimulus
d. the observation is noted and reproducible by others
4. A chemical stimulus can be considered to have produced a toxic effect when it satisfies all of the following criteria, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)
a. physiological change reduces the efficiency of an organ or function
b. the effect is reversible or attenuated when stimulus is removed
c. the effect does not occur or is infrequent without a stimulus
d. the observation is unique to the observer
5. Which of the following statements is true regarding the toxicity of a chemical? (Plog, 124)
a. Toxic effects are predictable and constant
b. Toxicity does not vary under normal conditions
c. Toxicity is not a physical constant
d. Toxicity is a physical constant, similar to vapor pressure
6. In addition to determining toxicity, evaluation of a chemical hazard involves all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)
a. duration of exposure
b. amount of exposure
c. physiological characteristics of the chemical
d. conditions under which exposure occurs
7. In addition to determining toxicity, evaluation of a chemical hazard involves all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)
a. duration of exposure
b. amount of the hazard
c. physical characteristics of the substance
d. conditions under which exposure occurs
8. All of the following may have a significant influence the toxic potency of a substance, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)
a. toxic content of the substance
b. effects of other substances in combined exposure
c. physical characteristics of the substance
d. conditions under which exposure occurs
9. This physical characteristic of a chemical substance may indicate its potential as an inhalation hazard: (Plog, 124)
a. melting point
b. vapor pressure
c. boiling point
d. temperature
10. This is a primary source of information on the hazardous properties of chemical products: (Plog, 146)
a. primary container label from the manufacturer
b. OSHA's Chemical Hazards Information System (OCHIS)
c. NIOSH Chemical Hazards Database
d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. What is the term used to describe an injury that results from direct tissue contact with an irritant? (Plog, 124)
a. local injury
b. system injury
c. direct injury
d. primary injury
2. Injury to the lining of the trachea and lungs from inhaling toxic vapors is an example of this kind of injury: (Plog, 124)
a. local injury
b. system injury
c. direct injury
d. primary injury
3. For industrial exposures, this route of entry is considered most important because they are the most common: (Plog, 125)
a. ingestion
b. absorption
c. injection
d. inhalation
4. Only particles smaller than this are likely to enter an alveolar sac: (Plog, 125)
a. .5µm
b. 1µm
c. 5µm
d. 10µm
5. Contact of a substance with skin results in all of the following possible actions, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125)
a. The skin can act as an effective barrier
b. The substance can cause tissue irritation and/or destruction
c. The substance can result in unusual behavioral actions
d. The substance can cause skin sensitization
6. Contact of a substance with skin results in all of the following possible actions, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125)
a. The skin will prevent exposure
b. The substance can cause tissue irritation and/or destruction
c. The substance can penetrate the skin and enter the bloodstream
d. The substance can cause skin sensitization
7. The rate of cutaneous absorption of some organic compounds will vary with: (Plog, 125)
a. activity and location
b. skin type and activity
c. temperature and perspiration
d. temperature and duration
8. What properties of a material mainly determine whether a material is absorbed through the skin? (Plog, 125)
a. physiological
b. physiochemical
c. physical
d. physiosystemic
9. Important properties of a material that determine whether a material is absorbed through the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125)
a. pH
b. extent of ionization
c. solubility
d. location
10. Important properties of a material that determine whether a material is absorbed through the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125)
a. humidity
b. extent of ionization
c. solubility
d. molecular size
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Relative to inhalation toxicity, oral toxicity is generally: (Plog, 125)
a. higher
b. about the same
c. the same
d. lower
2. For a given substance, oral toxicity is generally _____ then inhalation toxicity: (Plog, 125)
a. higher
b. about the same
c. the same
d. lower
3. This is an important systemic defense process to reduce the toxic effects of a chemical: (Plog, 126)
a. lymphatic system
b. remuneration
c. detoxification
d. deterioration
4. All of the following occur as part of the body's detoxification process, EXCEPT: (Plog, 126)
a. the liver degrades the toxin
b. the toxin is converted to a non-toxic water-soluble compound
c. attack by macrophages
d. transportation to kidneys and excreted
5. Which of the following is not an area into which a toxic substance may be injected? (Plog, 126)
a. the bloodstream
b. the duodenal sac
c. the peritoneal cavity
d. the pleural cavity
6. There is increased attention to prevention of skin puncture and injection injuries due to all of the following bloodborne pathogens, EXCEPT: (Plog, 126)
a. pneumococcus
b. HIV
c. hepatitis C
d. hepatitis B
7. All toxicological considerations are based on the: (Plog, 126)
a. dosage-toxic constant
b. dose-response relationship
c. toxic-absorption constant
d. toxicological relationship
8. What is the point on a dose-response curve in which a lethal response occurs to half of the animals administered a chemical agent? (Plog, 126)
a. LD0
b. LD5.0
c. LD50
d. LD100
9. Which of the following are the two variables used to determine the dose-response relationship? (Plog, 126)
a. concentration (C) and frequency (F) of exposure
b. temperature (T) and duration (D) of exposure
c. duration (D) and frequency (F) of exposure
d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure
10. Regulatory exposure limits are set such that these two variables are theoretically below levels that produce injury: (Plog, 126)
a. concentration (C) and frequency (F) of exposure
b. temperature (T) and duration (D) of exposure
c. duration (D) and frequency (F) of exposure
d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. What is the term used to describe the relationship between the dose of a chemical and the response produced in a biological system? (Plog, 126)
a. dose-response relationship
b. toxic potency
c. threshold relationship
d. dosage threshold
2. The harmfulness of a material depends on all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 127)
a. chemical composition
b. type and degree of exposure
c. route of entry
d. fate of the material in the body
3. Which of the following can be calculated when death is the only variable being measured in response to exposure to a toxic chemical? (Plog, 127)
a. lethal dose (LD)
b. fatality rate (FR)
c. exposure-dose relationship (EDR)
d. dose-response relationship (DRR)
4. This designation is defined as the lowest concentration of toxic chemical that will kill all exposed animals: (Plog, 127)
a. LD0
b. LD5.0
c. LD50
d. LD100
5. If the slope of a dose-response curve is steep, the margin of safety is: (Plog, 127)
a. great
b. slight
c. not determined
d. constant
6. The relationship between slope and margin of safety on a dose-response curve is: (Plog, 127)
a. directly proportional
b. inversely proportional
c. not proportional
d. unpredictable
7. The designation used for airborne materials to indicate the dose-response relationship is: (Plog, 127)
a. dose-duration level (DL)
b. exposure-dose concentration (EDC)
c. lethal dose (LD)
d. lethal concentration (LC)
8. The duration of exposure to a toxic chemical through inhalation has what kind of effect on lethal concentration (LC)? (Plog, 127)
a. no effect
b. usually little effect
c. some effect
d. possible significant effect
9. When evaluating the response of exposure to a toxic substance, it's important to examine the organs removed from exposed animals for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 128)
a. reveals the site of action
b. reveals the route of entry
c. reveals the mode of action
d. reveals the cause of death
10. The toxic action of substances can be divided into which two categories? (Plog, 128)
a. predictable, unpredictable
b. variable, constant
c. expected, unexpected
d. acute, chronic
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Which of the following terms describes short-term high concentrations and immediate results such as illness, irritation or death? (Plog, 129)
a. acute effects
b. chronic effects
c. stat effects
d. prolonged effects
2. These exposures are typically sudden and severe and involve rapid absorption of the offending material: (Plog, 129)
a. acute
b. chronic
c. physical
d. environmental
3. Which of the following terms describes long-term symptoms of disease or their frequent recurrence? (Plog, 129)
a. acute effects
b. chronic effects
c. stat effects
d. prolonged effects
4. These exposures result in symptoms that usually last for years: (Plog, 129)
a. acute
b. chronic
c. physical
d. environmental
5. Which of the following is not one of the three general classes of air contaminants? (Plog, 129)
a. irritants
b. asphyxiants
c. CNS depressants
d. avoidants
6. These toxic substances interfere with oxygenation of the tissues and affected individual may suffocate: (Plog, 131)
a. irritants
b. asphyxiants
c. CNS depressants
d. avoidants
7. These toxic substances can produce unconsciousness by preventing the brain and spinal cord from doing their normal job: (Plog, 132)
a. irritants
b. asphyxiants
c. CNS depressants
d. avoidants
8. This term describes any agent that can produce or accelerate the development of malignant or potentially malignant tumors or malignant neoplastic proliferation of cells: (Plog, 134)
a. mutagen
b. carcinogen
c. teratogen
d. osteogen
9. This term describes any agent that affects the genetic material of the exposed organism, and can cause cancer, birth defects, or undesirable effects in later generations: (Plog, 135)
a. mutagen
b. carcinogen
c. teratogen
d. paragen
10. This term describes any agent that interferes with normal embryonic development, and may produce malformations of the fetus without inducing damage to the mother: (Plog, 136)
a. mutagen
b. carcinogen
c. teratogen
d. paragen
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. Which agency administers the Toxic Substances Control Act of 1976? (Plog, 139)
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
b. EPA
c. Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
d. Department of Labor (DOL)
2. NIOSH develops this and it represents a time-weighted average (TWA) concentration for up to a 10-hour workday during a 40-hour workweek: (Plog, 140)
a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL)
c. Ceiling Value (CV)
d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
3. OSHA sets this regulatory limit which is based on an 8-hour time weighted average (TWA) exposure: (OSHA)
a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL)
c. Ceiling Value (CV)
d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
4. This regulatory limit on the amount or concentration of a substance in the air. They may also contain a skin designation and they are enforceable: (OSHA)
a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL)
c. Ceiling Value (CV)
d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
5. These values are issued by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists and are the most widely accepted: (Plog, 140)
a. Threshold Limit Values (TLV)
b. Recommended Exposure Limits (REL)
c. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI)
d. Permissible Exposure Limits (PEL)
6. Where are the measurements to determine Threshold Limit Values (TLV)? (Plog, 140)
a. within eight feet of the workzone
b. generally where work is being conducted
c. within the breathing zone of a worker
d. anywhere in the workplace
7. Although this measurement does not necessarily predict the amount of a substance that will be absorbed, it does measure the amount that can be inhaled during a workday: (Plog, 141)
a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
b. Time Weighted Average (TWA)
c. Ceiling Value (CV)
d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
8. What is the usual span of time over which TWA measurements are taken? (Plog, 141)
a. 2 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 10 hours
9. What is the designation given by the TLV committee that indicates it is not advisable to permit concentrations substantially above the recommended TWA? (Plog, 141)
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
10. This designation indicates the level at which a slightly higher will cause irritation by the most sensitive individuals: (Plog, 141)
a. upper control limit (UCL)
b. self-rescue emergency exposure limit (SREC)
c. ceiling value (C)
d. lower control limit (LCL)
Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. TLV values for suspended particulates are expressed as: (Plog, 141)
a. parts per million (PPM)
b. milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3)
c. milligrams per cubic liter (mg/L3)
d. parts per million per cubic meter (ppm/m3)
2. TLV values for gases and vapors are expressed as: (Plog, 141)
a. parts per million (PPM)
b. milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3)
c. milligrams per cubic liter (mg/L3)
d. parts per million per cubic meter (ppm/m3)
3. When two or more hazardous substances that act on the same body organ system are present, what primary measure should be considered? (Plog, 142)
a. their combined effect
b. their additive effect
c. their separate effects
d. their multiplied effects
4. When using the formula in determining combined effects of hazardous substances, if the sum of the fractions (observed concentration each substance divided by its TLV) is greater than one, then the TLV for the combined substances has: (Plog, 142)
a. not been reached
b. been reached
c. been exceeded
d. been multiplied
5. TLV values are based on all of the following data, EXCEPT: (Plog, 143)
a. labor-management negotiation
b. animal toxicological studies
c. morbidity and mortality data
d. environmental data
6. This sampling method is used to test for levels of metabolites of toxic agents: (Plog, 145)
a. Blood analysis
b. Urine tests
c. Breath analysis
d. Stomach content analysis
7. This sampling method is considered the best method to test for exposure to lead: (Plog, 145)
a. Blood analysis
b. Urine tests
c. Breath analysis
d. Stomach content analysis
8. Biological sampling data may be used: (Plog, 144-146)
a. as a substitute for air sampling
b. in addition to air sampling
c. only if air sampling data isn't available
d. instead of air sampling
9. This is a primary source of information on the hazardous properties of chemical products: (Plog, 146)
a. primary container label from the manufacturer
b. OSHA's Chemical Hazards Information System (OCHIS)
c. NIOSH Chemical Hazards Database
d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
10. The ACGIH has adopted a set of advisory biological limit values called the: (Plog, 146)
a. Biological Limit Values (BLV)
b. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI)
c. ACGIH Chemical Hazards Database
d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Practice Questions - Bank 9
1. This designation is used to indicate the lowest published lethal concentration: (Brauer, 365)
a. LD
b. LC
c. TLD
d. TLC
2. This designation is used to indicate the lethal concentration for inhalation of toxic substances: (Brauer, 365)
a. LD
b. LC
c. TLD
d. TLC
3. This designation is used to indicate the lethal dose by ingestion, injection, or other means of contact with toxic substances: (Brauer, 365)
a. LD
b. LC
c. TLD
d. TLC
4. This designation is used to indicate the lowest published lethal dose: (Brauer, 365)
a. LD
b. LC
c. TLD
d. TLC
5. If 50% of the test animal population died as a result of contact with a toxic substance through inhalation, the designation used to indicate this data would be: (Brauer, 365)
a. LD50
b. LC50
c. TLD50
d. TLC50
6. If 50% of the test animal population died as a result of contact with a toxic substance through ingestion or injection, the designation used to indicate this data would be: (Brauer, 365)
a. LD50
b. LC50
c. TLD50
d. TLC50
7. The period of time between exposure with a toxic substance and the first signs of the effects of that exposure is called the: (Brauer, 365)
a. dormant period
b. toxic delay
c. latency period
d. response delay
8. When a pharmaceutical substance appears to have high benefit and relatively little risk, this agency may approve testing on human subjects: (Brauer, 365)
a. CDC
b. OSHA
c. NIH
d. FDA
9. When a pharmaceutical substance appears to have high benefit and relatively little risk, this agency may approve testing on human subjects: (Brauer, 365)
a. CDC
b. OSHA
c. NIH
d. FDA
10. Toxicity studies on animal species include all of the following factors, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 365)
a. the physiology of species varies
b. meaningfulness is the same regardless of species
c. standard tests and methods help estimate effects
d. controlled breeding improves reliability of results
Practice Questions - Bank 10
1. Air samples are inherently problematic for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 141)
a. it is difficult to obtain a representative sample
b. they are difficult to schedule into the normal workday
c. the extent of absorption is difficult to determine
d. samples may be accidentally contaminated
2. Air samples are inherently problematic for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 141)
a. it is difficult to obtain a representative sample
b. misleading information due to variation in particles
c. the extent of absorption is difficult to determine
d. cooperation by workers may not occur
Subject Area III. Topic E. Epidemiology
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Which of the following is not one of the three types of epidemiological data? (Plog, 138)
a. Descriptive
b. Retrospective
c. Prospective
d. Proactive
2. These epidemiological studies identify a change or difference in the prevalence of a disease in a subgroup of the population: (Plog, 138)
a. Descriptive studies
b. Retrospective studies
c. Prospective studies
d. Proactive studies
3. These epidemiological studies reveal a relationship between a chemical and a certain effect caused by exposure that occurred months or years before the initiation of data collection: (Plog, 138)
a. Descriptive or cross sectional studies
b. Retrospective or control group studies
c. Prospective or cohort studies
d. Proactive or reactive studies
4. These epidemiological studies can define more precisely the time relationship and the magnitude of risk: (Plog, 138)
a. Descriptive studies
b. Retrospective studies
c. Prospective studies
d. Proactive studies
5. These epidemiological studies are present and future continuing studies that measure health effects as the exposures occur in work areas: (Plog, 138)
a. Descriptive studies
b. Retrospective studies
c. Prospective studies
d. Proactive studies
6. Analysis that reveals the relationship between time of occurrence of an adverse effect and age at the time of first exposure: (Plog, 138)
a. Descriptive analysis
b. Retrospective analysis
c. Prospective analysis
d. Epidemiological analysis
7. What should the removal of a chemical from the environment be followed by: (Plog, 138)
a. documentation that the chemical has been safely removed
b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effect
c. assurance that the chemical will not be reintroduced
d. public relations campaign
8. What should the removal of a chemical from the environment be followed by: (Plog, 138)
a. documentation that the chemical has been safely removed
b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effect
c. assurance that the chemical will not be reintroduced
d. public relations campaign
9. Which of the following is not considered one of the three primary reasons for underreporting of work-associated infections? (Plog, 406)
a. employee fear of reporting
b. issues of liability
c. rewards for underreporting
d. employer refusal to report
10. Surveys have revealed that the most common routes of exposure to be all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 406)
a. percutaneous inoculation
b. inhalation of aerosols generated by work practices
c. ingestion of contaminated food
d. contact between hands and contaminated material
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Surveys have revealed that the most common routes of exposure to be all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 406)
a. subcutaneous absorption
b. inhalation of aerosols generated by accidents
c. ingestion of contaminated material
d. contact between mucous membranes and contaminated material
2. Studies indicate that people engaged in these activities have acquired the greatest number of infections: (Plog, 406)
a. construction
b. healthcare
c. research
d. agriculture
3. Which one of the following is not one of the most frequently reported laboratory-acquired infections, according to the Pike studies? (Plog, 406)
a. brucellosis
b. Q fever
c. hepatitis
d. HIV
4. Which of the following infections is an emerging virus found in the workplace? (Plog, 406)
a. brucellosis
b. Q fever
c. hepatitis
d. HIV
5. This method of evaluating the nature and severity of hazards reviews literature of a population-based research that may provide information about adverse health effects not yet noticed in a small work force: (Plog, 454)
a. Process or operation analysis
b. Variability of response
c. Epidemiological and risk assessment
d. Interviews and maintenance activities
6. According to Leon Gordis, each of the following is an important objective of the science of epidemiology, EXCEPT: (Gordis, 4)
a. To provide a foundation for developing regulations
b. To discover the etiology of an occupational disease,
c. Determine the extent to which the disease if found in the workplace
d. Evaluate the degree to which occupational disease impacts productivity
7. According to Leon Gordis, each of the following is an important objective of the science of epidemiology, EXCEPT: (Gordis, 4)
a. To determine effects of toxins on control populations of animals
b. To discover the etiology of an occupational disease,
c. Determine the extent to which the disease if found in the workplace
d. Evaluate existing and new therapeudic and preventive measures
8. According to Leon Gordis, each of the following is an important objective of the science of epidemiology, EXCEPT: (Gordis, 4)
a. To study the natural history and prognosis of a disease
b. To discover the etiology of an occupational disease,
c. Determine the extent to which the animals mirror human etiology
d. Evaluate existing and new therapeutic and preventive measures
Subject Area III. Topic F. Industrial Hygiene
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Industrial hygiene includes the development of corrective measures in order to control health hazards by reducing or eliminating: (Plog, 4)
a. injuries
b. exposures
c. hazards
d. risks
2. Industrial hygiene exposure control measures may include all of the following, except: (Plog, 4)
a. substitution of toxics
b. ventilation
c. changing work procedures
d. rule enforcement
3. Industrial hygiene exposure control measures may include all of the following, except: (Plog, 4)
a. training
b. ventilation
c. changing work procedures
d. personal protective equipment
4. An effective industrial hygiene program involves: (Plog, 4)
a. sound claims management
b. anticipation of health hazards
c. evaluation and measurement
d. hazard control
5. These hazards arise from excessive airborne concentrations of mists, vapors, gases, or solids in the form of dusts or mists: (Plog, 7)
a. chemical hazards
b. biological hazards
c. ergonomic hazards
d. physical hazards
6. These hazards include excessive levels of non-ionizing and ionizing radiations, noise, vibration and extremes of temperature and pressure: (Plog, 7)
a. chemical hazards
b. biological hazards
c. ergonomic hazards
d. physical hazards
7. These hazards are any living organism or its properties that can cause an adverse response in humans: (Plog, 7)
a. chemical hazards
b. biological hazards
c. ergonomic hazards
d. physical hazards
8. These hazards include improperly designed tools, work areas, or work procedures: (Plog, 7)
a. chemical hazards
b. biological hazards
c. ergonomic hazards
d. physical hazards
9. The effects of noise on humans include all of the following, except: (Plog, 11)
a. psychological effects
b. interference with communications
c. physiological effects
d. physical effects
10. Which of the following is not considered a factor that can influence the effect of noise exposure? (Plog, 11)
a. variation in receptivity
b. total energy of the sound
c. frequency distribution of the sound
d. total duration of exposure
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Which of the following is not considered a factor that can influence the effect of noise exposure? (Plog, 11)
a. variation in individual susceptibility
b. intermittent energy of the sound
c. length of employment in the noise environment
d. total duration of exposure
2. Which of the following is not a nontechnical guideline to determine whether the work area has excessive noise levels? (Plog, 11-12)
a. Is it necessary to speak loudly or shout into the ear?
b. Have employees complained of ringing in their ears after work?
c. Are employees volunteering to wear earplugs or muffs?
d. Do employees complain that speech or music is muffled?
3. Which of the following is one of the first signs of oxygen deficiency? (Plog, 23)
a. increased heart beat
b. dizziness
c. increased breathing rate
d. decreased focus
4. To produce an index of general contamination the industrial hygienist take: (Plog, 27)
a. area samples at fixed locations
b. samples taken by following the operator
c. samples from various non-fixed locations
d. samples located throughout a process
5. What is a finely divided liquid suspended in the atmosphere? (Plog, 22)
a. mist
b. smoke
c. gas
d. aerosol
6. What is the 8-hour TWA limit for noise exposure? (CFR 1910.95 Plog, 12)
a. 80 dBA
b. 85 dBA
c. 90 dBA
d. 95 dBA
7. What is the 4-hour TWA limit for noise exposure? (CFR 1910.95, Plog, 12)
a. 80 dBA
b. 85 dBA
c. 90 dBA
d. 95 dBA
8. What instrument is used to measure electric fields at frequencies above 100 kHz: (Plog, 292)
a. magnets resonance meter
b. dipole antenna
c. multi-meter
d. radio frequency detector
9. What is the employer required to do first if permissible limits for noise exposure are exceeded? (Plog, 12)
a. initiate a hearing conservation program
b. use engineering and administrative controls
c. ensure personal protective equipment is used
d. limit work near the source of exposure
10. Dust particles more than this size usually do not remain airborne: (Plog, 22)
a. 1 µm
b. 5 µm
c. 10 µm
d. 15 µm
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. What is the employer required to do first if engineering and administrative controls fail to adequately reduce exposure to sound? (Plog, 12)
a. initiate a hearing conservation program
b. control duration of exposure
c. ensure personal protective equipment is provided
d. limit work near the source of exposure
2. The capacity of a material to produce injury or harm when the chemical has reached a sufficient concentration at a certain site in the body is defined as: (Plog, 11)
a. toxicity
b. severity
c. exposure
d. hazard
3. Controlling exposure to electric fields may be accomplished by: (Plog, 285)
a. placing an ungrounded resistance between the field and person
b. placing a grounded resistance between the field and person
c. placing a grounded conductor between the field and person
d. placing an ungrounded conductor between the field and person
4. This form of unwanted vibration conducted through solids, liquids, or gases is referred to as: (Plog, 11)
a. hertz
b. hard rock
c. frequency
d. noise
5. Biological effects of optical radiation result from: (Plog, 296)
a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms
b. mechanical and kinetic mechanisms
c. ionizing and non-ionizing mechanisms
d. frequency and duration mechanisms
6. All of the following factors can influence the effect of noise exposure, except: (Plog, 11)
a. total time since exposure occurred
b. total daily duration of exposure
c. total energy of the sound
d. frequency distribution of the sound
7. This condition is caused by exposure to an environment in which the body is unable to cool itself sufficiently? (Plog, 12)
a. heatstroke
b. heat stress
c. heat exhaustion
d. heat cramps
8. What instrument is used to measure electric fields at frequencies above 100 kHz: (Plog, 292)
a. magnets resonance meter
b. dipole antenna
c. multi-meter
d. radio frequency detector
9. All of the following factors can influence the effect of noise exposure, except: (Plog, 11)
a. total time since exposure occurred
b. total daily duration of exposure
c. total energy of the sound
d. frequency distribution of the sound
10. All of the following are factors to consider for radiation safety, except: (Plog, 14)
a. potential for damage to living tissue
b. the different kinds of radiation
c. ways radiation can present a hazard
d. sources of radiation
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. These are the volatile form of substances that are normally in the solid or liquid state at room temperature and pressure: (Plog, 23)
a. vapors
b. smoke
c. gasses
d. aerosols
2. The harmfulness of a material depends on all of the following, except: (Plog, 127)
a. chemical composition
b. type and rate of exposure
c. fate of the material in the body
d. half-life of the chemical
3. Biological effects of optical radiation result from: (Plog, 296)
a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms
b. mechanical and kinetic mechanisms
c. ionizing and non-ionizing mechanisms
d. frequency and duration mechanisms
4. All of the following are factors to consider for radiation safety, except: (Plog, 14)
a. potential for damage to living tissue
b. the different kinds of radiation
c. ways radiation can present a hazard
d. sources of radiation
5. All of the following are one of the five types of radioactivity, except: (Plog, 14)
a. alpha-particles
b. beta-radiation
c. charlie-waves
d. gamma-rays
6. The dose rate, or the rate at which energy is transferred to tissue is called the: (Plog, 288)
a. basic absorption rate (BAR)
b. average absorption rate (AAR)
c. specific absorption rate (SAR)
d. technical absorption rate (TAR)
7. Occupational dermatitis can be caused by all of the following, except: (Plog, 28)
a. chemical agents
b. biological agents
c. plant poisons
d. psychosocial environment
8. All of the following are one of the five types of radioactivity, except: (Plog, 14)
a. alpha-particles
b. beta-radiation
c. delta-waves
d. neutrons
9. Which of the following is not a part of an electromagnetic device? (Plog, 279)
a. receiver
b. transmission path
c. source
d. output
10. Radioactive material can get inside the body through all of the following pathways, except: (Plog, 14)
a. inhalation
b. ingestion
c. absorption
d. penetration
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. This meter is used to measure beta-, gamma-, and x-rays: (Plog, 15)
a. radmeters
b. Geiger-Muller
c. Geigle-Mueller
d. Dosimeters
2. A film badge used to measure accumulated amounts of radiation is called a: (Plog, 15)
a. radmeter
b. Geiger-Muller
c. Geigle-Mueller
d. Dosimeters
3. Which of the following strategies for controlling occupational health hazards serves to reduce or eliminate exposure to the hazard? (Plog, 29)
a. Inspections and audits
b. Engineering controls
c. Administrative controls
d. Personal Protective Equipment
4. This radiation is so weak it can not penetrate paper: (Plog, 15)
a. alpha-particles
b. beta-radiation
c. gamma-rays
d. neutrons
5. The action of a substance can be arbitrarily divided into which two effects? (Plog, 128)
a. acute and chronic
b. lethal and nonlethal
c. expected and unexpected
d. minor and major
6. The harmful effects of non-ionizing radiation on the body depend largely on: (Plog, 15)
a. frequency
b. duration
c. intensity
d. variation
7. Substituting or replacing a toxic material with a harmless one is a very practical: (Plog, 30)
a. industrial control
b. engineering control
c. administrative control
d. technical control
8. This invisible low frequency radiation, found in radar, communications, cooking, and diathermy applications is called: (Plog, 15)
a. ultraviolet
b. microwave
c. laser
d. infrared
9. This invisible low frequency radiation cannot penetrate below the superficial layer of the skin: (Plog, 15)
a. ultraviolet
b. microwave
c. laser
d. infrared
10. This form of radiation can be found around electric arcs and requires opaque shielding: (Plog, 16)
a. ultraviolet
b. microwave
c. laser
d. infrared
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. This form of coherent radiation is produced by a single frequency: (Plog, 16)
a. ultraviolet
b. microwave
c. laser
d. infrared
2. This predecessor to the laser emits microwaves instead of coherent light: (Plog, 16)
a. multiplex
b. microwave
c. maser
d. ultrazer
3. This body organ is most vulnerable to injury by laser: (Plog, 16)
a. ear
b. eye
c. prostate
d. skin
4. These body parts are all vulnerable to hyperbaric pressure, except: (Plog, 17)
a. ear
b. sinuses
c. teeth
d. skin
5. Unequal distribution of pressure can cause this form of tissue damage: (Plog, 16)
a. barotrauma
b. hyperbaria
c. baroitis
d. hyperbaroemia
6. When employees are subjected to sound that exceeds permissible limits, what must the employer do in response? (Plog, 12)
a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposure
b. ensure employees use proper personal protective equipment
c. schedule employees to reduce exposure to noise levels
d. change work procedures to keep employees away from the source
7. Which of the following conditions may exist due to worker exposure to hyperbaric atmospheres? (Plog, 17)
a. the bends
b. pain and congestion in the ears
c. partial hearing loss
d. any of the above
8. All of the following are typical entry routes of chemical compounds, except: (Plog, 21)
a. inhalation
b. absorption
c. ingestion
d. penetration
9. All of the following types of chemical airborne contaminants may enter the body via inhalation, absorption or ingestion, except: (Plog, 21)
a. mists
b. allergens
c. gasses
d. dusts
10. All of the following types of chemical airborne contaminants may enter the body via inhalation, absorption or ingestion, except: (Plog, 21)
a. vapors
b. microbes
c. gasses
d. fumes
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. Solid particles generated by handling, crushing, grinding, impact, detonation, and decrepitation are called: (Plog, 21)
a. vapors
b. particulates
c. mists
d. dusts
2. Which of the following describes the diameter of a dust particle? (Plog, 21)
a. 0.1-10 µm
b. 0.1-15 µm
c. 0.1-20 µm
d. 0.1-25 µm
3. These are formed when the material from a volatized solid condenses in cool air: (Plog, 22)
a. vapors
b. mists
c. gasses
d. fumes
4. These consist of carbon or soot particles less and result from the incomplete combustion of carbonaceous materials: (Plog, 22)
a. vapors
b. smoke
c. gasses
d. fumes
5. The strength of a magnetic field and the strength of the electric field are related to each other, and the ratio between the two is set according to: (Plog, 277)
a. Hertz's Law
b. Ohm's Law
c. Faraday's Law
d. Darwin's Law
6. These liquid droplets or solid particles remain dispersed in air for a prolonged period of time: (Plog, 22)
a. vapors
b. smoke
c. gasses
d. aerosols
7. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by the condensation of liquids from a vapor back to the liquid state, or by breaking up of a liquid into a dispersed state: (Plog, 22)
a. mists
b. smoke
c. gasses
d. aerosols
8. What is a formless fluid that expands to occupy the space or enclosure in which they are confined? (Plog, 22)
a. mist
b. smoke
c. gas
d. aerosol
9. Respiratory hazards can be broken down into which two main groups? (Plog, 23)
a. Atmospheric pressure
b. Oxygen deficiency
c. Air that contains harmful or toxic contaminants
d. b and c above
10. What is the normal oxygen level of normal air at sea level? (Plog, 23)
a. 19 percent
b. 20 percent
c. 21 percent
d. 22 percent
Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. Which of the following is not one of the three general categories of airborne contaminants that may adversely affect the lungs? (Plog, 24)
a. toxic mists affecting upper area of the lung
b. toxic vapors and gases that affect lung tissue
c. toxic aerosols or gases that pass through the lungs and affect other organs
d. particulate aerosols deposited in the lungs
2. This exposure guideline established by the ACGIH for airborne concentrations is referred to as the : (Plog, 25)
a. Threshold Exposure Limit (TEL)
b. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
c. Permissible Limit Value (PLV)
d. Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
3. The TLV-TWA is the time weighted average concentration for: (Plog, 25)
a. 15-minute exposure
b. 8-hour exposure
c. averaged 24-hour exposure
d. averaged 48-hour exposure
4. This is the airborne contaminant concentration that should not be exceeded during any part of the working exposure: (Plog, 25)
a. TLV-TWA
b. TLV-STEL
c. TLV-C
d. TLV-MWD
5. This is the maximum airborne contaminant concentration for a continuous 15-minute exposure: (Plog, 25)
a. TLV-TWA
b. TLV-STEL
c. TLV-C
d. TLV-MWD
6. To recognize hazardous environmental factors or stresses in the workplace the safety and health manager must first know the raw materials used and the nature of the products manufactured. To do this the safety professional would consult: (Plog, 27)
a. MSDSs
b. TLV-STEL
c. OSHA 300 Summary
d. NAIC Codes
7. Which of the following is not considered a factor influencing the degree of hazard from exposure to a harmful environment? (Plog, 27)
a. Nature of the material or energy involved
b. Degree of probability of exposure
c. Intensity of the exposure
d. Duration of the exposure
8. All of the following are extremely important considerations for air sampling, except: (Plog, 27)
a. sampling location
b. proper time to sample
c. sequence of sampling
d. number of samples taken
9. Which of the following are general types of dermatitis? (Plog, 28)
a. Primary irritation dermatitis
b. Localized dermatitis
c. Sensitization dermatitis
d. a and c above
10. Why are many workplaces today presenting nontraditional occupational health hazards? (Plog, 29)
a. Downsizing
b. A shift from manufacturing to service
c. Jobs are moving overseas
d. Ever-increasing exposure to exotic substances
Practice Questions - Bank 9
1. Strategies for controlling occupational health hazards include all of the following, except: (Plog, 29)
a. Inspections and audits
b. Engineering controls
c. Administrative controls
d. Personal Protective Equipment
2. Which of the following strategies for controlling occupational health hazards serves to reduce or eliminate the hazard? (Plog, 29)
a. Inspections and audits
b. Engineering controls
c. Administrative controls
d. Personal Protective Equipment
3. Which of the following strategies is considered the first line of defense for controlling occupational health hazards? (Plog, 29)
a. Inspections and audits
b. Engineering controls
c. Administrative controls
d. Personal Protective Equipment
4. Which strategy may be necessary when it is not feasible to render the working environment completely safe? (Plog, 31)
a. Inspections and audits
b. Engineering controls
c. Administrative controls
d. Personal Protective Equipment
5. What is the science that studies the poisonous, or toxic, properties of substances? (Plog, 123)
a. Virology
b. Toxicology
c. Epidemiology
d. Pharmacology
6. The calculated dose of a substance that is expected to kill 50 percent of a defined experimental animal population when exposure occurs through any route other than inhalation is called the: (Plog, 127)
a. KR50
b. LD50
c. Lethal Dose Limit
d. Lethal Dose Ratio
7. TLVs and PELs are published by which of the following agencies? (Plog, 12)
a. NIOSH and OSHA
b. ACGIH and MSHA
c. ACGIH and OSHA
d. OSHA and MSHA
8. The dominant standard for laser safety in the United States is: (Plog, 301)
a. NIOSH Pub. 456
b. LIA/ANSI Z136.1
c. ACGIH 1910.95
d. CFR 1904.1200
9. Symptoms of this condition are fatigue, weakness, blurred vision, dizziness and headache? (Plog, 323)
a. heat stress
b. dehydration
c. heat exhaustion
d. heat stroke
10. This is the preferred method of air sampling to evaluate worker exposure to airborne chemicals? (Plog, 485)
a. personal
b. area
c. grab
d. integrated
Practice Questions - Bank 10
1. Inert gases that may replace oxygen in confined spaces include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 23)
a. propane
b. argon
c. nitrogen
d. carbon dioxide
2. What are the first physiological signs of oxygen deficiency? (Plog, 23)
a. a giddy feeling and forgetfulness
b. dizziness and euphoria
c. increased depth and rate of breathing (anoxia)
d. confusion and giddiness
3. Which of the following is not one of the three ways inhaled contaminants may adversely affect the lungs? (Plog, 23)
a. Aerosols that damage lung tissue
b. Toxic vapors and gases the damage lung tissue
c. Aersols or gases that affect oxygen-carrying capacity
d. Mists that enter and damage lung tissue
4. When employees are subjected to sound that exceeds permissible limits, what must the employer do in response? (Plog, 12)
a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposure
b. ensure employees use proper personal protective equipment
c. schedule employees to reduce exposure to noise levels
d. change work procedures to keep employees away from the source
5. Which of the following is not commonly measured in heat stress studies? (Plog, 13)
a. work energy
b. metabolism
c. air movement
d. caloric intake
6. Which of the following is used to measure air temperature? (Plog, 13)
a. anemometer
b. dry bulb thermometer
c. wet bulb thermometer
d. psychrometer
7. The NIOSH heat stress control program recommends all of the following work practices, EXCEPT (Plog, 13)
a. stretching
b. acclimation periods
c. work and rest regimens
d. provision for water intake
8. The NIOSH heat stress control program recommends all of the following work practices, EXCEPT (Plog, 13)
a. regular breaks of at least one hour
b. protective clothing
c. distribution of work over time
d. audiometric testing
9. This heat stress index combines air temperature (dry bulb), humidity (wet bulb), and air movement: (Plog, 13)
a. average temperature index
b. combined temperature index
c. effective temperature index
d. dry-wet temperature index
10. General hypothermia is an acute problem resulting from which two conditions? (Plog, 14)
a. acute exposure to cold and prolonged heat exposure
b. prolonged heat loss and exposure
c. prolonged cold exposure and heat loss
d. acute heat loss and prolonged cold exposure
Practice Questions - Bank 11
1. All of the following are examples of ionizing radiation, EXCEPT: (Plog, 14)
a. alpha; particles
b. gamma-rays
c. neutrons
d. electrons
2. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation is least dangerous? (Plog, 14)
a. alpha-particles
b. beta-radiation
c. neutrons
d. gamma-rays
3. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation has the greatest penetration ability? (Plog, 14)
a. alpha-particles
b. beta-radiation
c. neutrons
d. gamma-rays
4. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation is not usually used in manufacturing operations? (Plog, 14)
a. x-rays
b. beta-radiation
c. alpha-particles
d. neutrons
5. The amount of energy a particular kind of radioactive material possesses is defined in terms of: (Plog, 15)
a. BeA (billion electron amps)
b. MeV (million electron volts)
c. Kev (thousand electron volts)
d. MeO (million electron ohms)
6. Radiation that has various effects on the body, depending largely on wavelength of the radiation involved, is called: (Plog, 15)
a. ionizing radiation
b. nonionizing radiation
c. beta-radiation
d. alpha-emitting radiation
7. All of the following are examples of low frequency non-ionizing radiation that can cause general heating of the body, EXCEPT: (Plog, 15)
a. broadcast radio
b. power line transmissions
c. MRI transmissions
d. short-wave radio
8. The degree of body heating from low frequency nonionizing radiation depends on three factors. Which of the following is not one of those factors?: (Plog, 15)
a. orientation of the wave front
b. wavelength
c. power intensity
d. duration of exposure
9. This form of radiation can only penetrate below the superficial layer of skin, so it is not considered a significant health hazard: (Plog, 15)
a. ultraviolet
b. infrared
c. visible
d. microwave
10. Electric arcs produce this type of harmful radiation: (Plog, 16)
a. ultraviolet
b. infrared
c. visible
d. microwave
Practice Questions - Bank 12
1. This device emits coherent radiation of a single color or wavelength and frequency: (Plog, 16)
a. maser
b. laser
c. light sword
d. LED
2. This device is the predecessor of the laser and emits microwave radiation of a single color or wavelength and frequency: (Plog, 16)
a. LED
b. quazar
c. light sword
d. maser
3. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the degree of eye injury from exposure to laser light? (Plog, 16)
a. divergence of the laser light
b. pigmentation of the eye
c. distance from the source of energy
d. presence of focusing media in the light path
4. This environment is encountered when work is conducted in watertight structures and by divers who work under water: (Plog, 16)
a. hypobaric
b. hyperbaric
c. hypothermic
d. hyperthermic
5. Tissue damage resulting from the unequal distribution of air pressure in the lungs, sinuses, and the middle ear: (Plog, 16)
a. barotrauma
b. hypertrauma
c. hypothermia
d. hyperthermia
6. This condition results from the release of nitrogen bubbles into the circulation and tissues: (Plog, 17)
a. nitroneuoma
b. helium high
c. decompression sickness
d. compression illness
7. One of the most common troubles encountered by workers under compressed air is: (Plog, 17)
a. pain in lungs
b. pain and congestion in the ears
c. pain and pressure in the GI track
d. painful area behind the eye
8. the customs, habits, and laws of work literally means: (Plog, 17)
a. ergonomics
b. job analysis
c. culture
d. best practices
9. the customs, habits, and laws of work literally means: (Plog, 17)
a. ergonomics
b. job analysis
c. culture
d. best practices
10. Ergonomics considers which of the following? (Plog, 17)
a. physical health requirements
b. psychological health maintenance
c. physiological and psychological demands
d. psychosocial support mechanisms
Practice Questions - Bank 13
1. A very effective tool to deal with the functioning of the structural elements of the body and the effects of external and internal forces on the various parts of the body is called: (Plog, 18)
a. Anthropometry
b. Biomechanics
c. NIOSH Model
d. Ergonomics
2. How many biological agents, such as infectious microorganisms, allergens, and toxins are know to produce infections, allergic, toxic and carcinogenic reactions in workers? (Plog, 20)
a. 200
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500
3. Which of the following occupations has not been identified as most at risk to occupational biohazards? (Plog, 20)
a. agricultural
b. medical
c. nursing homes
d. laboratory work
4. This clinically diagnosed disease in one or building occupants: (Plog, 20)
a. building-related illness (BRI)
b. sick-building syndrome (SBS)
c. Building-related syndrome
d. sick-building illness
5. This condition exists when building occupants exhibit nonspecific symptoms that cannot be associated with an identifiable cause: (Plog, 20)
a. building-related illness (BRI)
b. sick-building syndrome (SBS)
c. Building-related syndrome
d. sick-building illness
6. The three major routes of entry of compounds in the form of liquids, gases, mists, dusts, fumes, and vapors include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 21)
a. inhalation
b. ingestion
c. absorption
d. abrasion
7. This route of entry is particularly important due to the rapidity in which toxic material can be absorbed: (Plog, 21)
a. inhalation
b. ingestion
c. absorption
d. abrasion
8. All of the following can cause systemic poisoning by direct contact with the skin, EXCEPT: (Plog, 21)
a. TNT
b. lead oxide
c. cyanides
d. phenols
9. Solid particles generated by handling, crushing, grinding, rapid impact, detonation, and decrepitation of organic or inorganic materials are called: (Plog, 21)
a. gases
b. smoke
c. fumes
d. dusts
10. Dusts larger than this usually do not remain airborne: (Plog, 22)
a. 5µm
b. 10µm
c. 15µm
d. 20µm
Practice Questions - Bank 14
1. Dusts smaller than this can actually reach the alveoli sacs in the lung: (Plog, 22)
a. 5µm
b. 10µm
c. 15µm
d. 20µm
2. What is the smallest size dust particle a worker can detect with normal vision? (Plog, 22)
a. 35µm
b. 40µm
c. 45µm
d. 50µm
3. These are produced when the material from volatized solid condenses in cool air: (Plog, 22)
a. gases
b. smoke
c. fumes
d. dusts
4. This oxide, if mechanically dispersed into the air, it can produce a severe lead-poisoning hazard: (Plog, 22)
a. gross
b. dross
c. fossgil
d. arcus
5. What is the safety strategy to prevent lead-oxide from being dispersed into the air? (Plog, 22)
a. misting air around the point of operation
b. aggressive positive ventilation
c. scrupulously clean housekeeping
d. blowers and negative pressure ventilators
6. These are formless liquids that expand to occupy the space or enclosure in which they are confined: (Plog, 22)
a. gases
b. smoke
c. fumes
d. dusts
7. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by condensation of liquids from the vapor back to the liquid state: (Plog, 22)
a. gases
b. mists
c. aerosols
d. dusts
8. These are liquid droplets or solid particles of fine enough particle size to remain dispersed in air for a prolonged period of time: (Plog, 22)
a. gases
b. mists
c. aerosols
d. dusts
9. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by breaking up a liquid into a dispersed state, such as by splashing, foaming, or atomizing: (Plog, 22)
a. gases
b. mists
c. aerosols
d. dusts
10. These are the volatile form of substances that are normally in the solid or liquid state at room temperature: (Plog, 23)
a. gases
b. mists
c. aerosols
d. vapors
Practice Questions - Bank 15
1. Terms used by industrial hygienists to describe the degree of exposure include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 23)
a. ppm - parts per million
b. mppcf - millions of particles of a particulate per cubic foot of air
c. mg/l - milligrams per liter of a liquid
d. mg/m3 - milligrams of a substance per cubic meter of air
2. Which of the following are main categories of respiratory hazards? (Plog, 23)
a. helium-nitrogen deficiency
b. oxygen deficiency
c. toxic contaminants in the air
d. b and c above
3. What is the percentage of oxygen normally found in the atmosphere at sea level? (Plog, 23)
a. 21 percent
b. 32 percent
c. 42 percent
d. 79 percent
4. What is the percentage of nitrogen and other inert gases normally found in the atmosphere at sea level? (Plog, 23)
a. 21 percent
b. 32 percent
c. 42 percent
d. 79 percent
5. What is the partial pressure of oxygen normally found at sea level when the barometric pressure of 760 mm Hg? found in the atmosphere at sea level? (Plog, 23)
a. 36 mm Hg (760 mm Hg/21)
b. 160 mm Hg (760 mm Hg x .21)
c. 1596 mm Hg (760 mm Hg x 2.1)
d. 3619 mm Hg (760 mm Hg/.21)
6. Oxygen may be deficient in confined spaces for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 23)
a. consumed by chemical reactions
b. replaced by inert gases
c. relocated to areas of lower pressure
d. absorbed by porous surfaces
Subject Area III. Topic G. Construction
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Most contractors divide their bids five ways. Which of the following is not one of those ways? (NSC, APM-ET, 32)
a. material
b. labor
c. safety
d. overhead
2. Most contractors divide their bids five ways. Which of the following is not one of those ways? (NSC, APM-ET, 32)
a. plant
b. labor
c. profit
d. schedule
3. Who was the source of the following law? If a builder builds a house for a man and does not make his construction firm and the house he has built collapses and causes the death of the householder, the builder shall be put to death. (Hislop, 7)
a. OSHA circa 1970 CE
b. Attilla the Hun circa 728 CE
c. King Hammurabi, 2200 BCE.
d. King Solomon, 1300 BCE
4. If a contractor fails to comply with safety requirements, what effect might that failure have on the host employer? (Hislop, 9)
a. No effect. The host has no responsibility
b. It may affect the ability of the host to continue operations
c. It may have a negative impact on construction costs
d. b and c above
5. According the studies conducted by the Business Roundtable, accidents account for an average of ______ of total project costs where effective safety programs are NOT in place: (Hislop, 10)
a. 6.9 %
b. 8.5%
c. 15%
d. 19.5%
6. According the studies conducted by the Business Roundtable, accidents account for an average of ______ of total project costs where effective safety programs are in place: (Hislop, 10)
a. .9 %
b. 2.5%
c. 4%
d. 5.3%
7. Under this theory, the employer has an obligation to exercise reasonable care and prudence in the conduct of their work: (Hislop, 10)
a. non-negligence
b. accountability
c. due diligence
d. reasonable care
8. The amount of insurance placed in a construction bid is a percentage of all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-ET, 32)
a. cost of materials
b. cost of labor
c. profit
d. plant
9. The amount of insurance placed in a construction bid is a percentage of all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-ET, 32)
a. cost of materials
b. cost of labor
c. profit
d. plant
10. Under the concept of due diligence, the employer must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 16)
a. develop a documented safety program
b. train and educate employees
c. train supervisors
d. provide incentives
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Under the concept of due diligence, the employer must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 16)
a. investigate and report accidents
b. develop a safety committee
c. train supervisors
d. monitor the workplace
2. Which of the following is not a criteria for prioritizing job safety analyses? (Hislop, 23)
a. frequency of accidents and injuries
b. severity of accidents and injuries
c. type of accidents and injuries
d. potential for severe injuries
3. The construction safety manager should consider all of the following criteria for prioritizing job safety analyses, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 23)
a. frequency of accidents and injuries
b. probability for accidents
c. new or modified tasks
d. infrequently performed tasks
4. The obligation to carry out assigned duties defines this term: (Hislop, 23)
a. responsibility
b. accountability
c. due diligence
d. leadership
5. A competent person is generally defined as an individual, who as the result of training and/or experience, is capable of: (Hislop, 27)
a. identifying or predicting hazardous situations
b. authority to discipline for noncompliance
c. authorizing prompt corrective actions
d. correcting hazardous conditions
6. A competent person at an excavation site should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. structural ramps
b. water removal equipment
c. soil conditions
d. machine guarding
7. A competent person at an excavation site should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. biological hazards
b. water removal equipment
c. hazardous atmospheres
d. shoring requirements
8. A competent person responsible for work on a scaffold should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. scaffold assembly
b. structural integrity
c. soil conditions
d. fall protection
9. A competent person responsible for work on a scaffold should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. tie points
b. structural integrity
c. safe access
d. weather effects
10. A competent person responsible for work on a scaffold should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. tie points
b. evaluation of training
c. modifications/alterations
d. selection of assemblers
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. A competent person responsible for work requiring fall protection should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. certifying nets
b. personal fall arrest systems
c. monitoring requirements
d. selection of back belts
2. A competent person responsible for work involving derricks and cranes should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. certifying workers
b. all machinery prior to use
c. annual inspections
d. equipment following trial lifts
3. A competent person responsible for work involving hazardous chemicals should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. identity of hazardous chemicals on site
b. establishing regulated areas
c. annual inspections of chemicals
d. monitoring exposure
4. A competent person responsible for work involving underground construction should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. evaluating haulage and hoisting equipment
b. establishing regulated areas
c. drilling equipment
d. ventilation, air monitoring and compressed air
5. A competent person responsible for work involving underground construction should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)
a. soil and rock conditions
b. personal protective equipment
c. verifying employee training
d. ventilation, air monitoring and compressed air
6. This person should monitor job-site activities under their control to assess the effectiveness of their safety plan implementation: (Hislop, 30)
a. on-site supervisor
b. field engineer
c. employee
d. contractor
7. This regulation details OSHA standards specifically for the construction industry: (OSHA)
a. 29 CFR 1904
b. 29 CFR 1910
c. 29 CFR 1926
d. 29 CFR 1940
8. Which of the following is not usually included in an worksite orientation? (Hislop, 32)
a. introduction to the jobsite
b. site safety rules and regulations
c. parking zones
d. HAZCOM information
9. On a multi-employer worksite, who is legally responsible for compliance with all safety and health protection requirements for employees? (OSHA)
a. only the contractor
b. both contractor and subcontractor
c. site safety supervisor
d. all of the above
10. Each contractor/subcontractor is responsible for compliance with all safety and health protection requirements for their employees. A single safety and health plan for multi-employer worksites may be used by contractors/subcontractors if: (OSHA)
a. if it addresses health hazards
b. it addresses their activity
c. if addresses safety hazards
d. all of the above
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. In general a worksite plan organized as a single document, with component sections/appendices coverall tasks, operations, and contractors/contractors may: (OSHA)
a. promote use efficiency
b. enhance clarity of duties and responsibilities
c. enhance coordination among all affected parties
d. all of the above
2. Pre-work meetings held at the start of each day should be short and include at least all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 33)
a. review the previous day's work
b. new work assignments
c. safety issues
d. bonus for beating work schedules
3. Which of the following is not considered a reasonable advantage of the weekly toolbox talk? (Hislop, 34-35)
a. can talk about anticipated safety issues
b. can new work assignments
c. able to review lessons learned from accidents
d. they are short
4. These are the most common cause of accidents on a construction worksite: (Hislop, 35)
a. overexposure
b. electrical
c. slips, trips, falls
d. bodily reaction
5. According to the Center for the Protection of Workers' Rights, _____ of construction workers report to work under the influence of some behavior modifying substance: (Hislop, 35)
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
6. Which of the following does not occur during the Engineering and Design Phase (Step 1) of the construction process? (Hislop, 40-42)
a. Conceptualize project
b. identification of coordinating engineer
c. develop the bid package
d. initial cost and schedule estimate
7. Which of the following does not occur during the Engineering and Design Phase (Step 1) of the construction process? (Hislop, 40-42)
a. Conceptualize project
b. Award contract
c. conduct a baseline review
d. 90% Design and Constructability Review
8. Which of the following does not occur during the Engineering and Design Phase (Step 1) of the construction process? (Hislop, 40-42)
a. specific work-site safety briefing
b. Award contract
c. conduct a baseline review
d. pre-work planning
9. In the Engineering and design phase of the construction process, this person identifies the need for a new installation or modification to existing facility: (Hislop, 40)
a. originator
b. planner
c. engineer
d. decision-maker
10. Which of the following is not considered a key responsibility of the safety representative during the design and planning stage? (Hislop, 40-43)
a. Give advice on provisions for safety features in the design
b. Assist with the conduct of the ESH Baseline review
c. Coordinate involvement in the 90% design review
d. Provide guidance on selection of contractors
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. In the Engineering and design phase of the construction process, this person identifies the need for a new installation or modification to existing facility: (Hislop, 40)
a. originator
b. planner
c. coordinating engineer
d. designer
2. This position coordinates the development of the project design: (Hislop, 40)
a. originator
b. planner
c. coordinating engineer
d. designer
3. The purpose of this process during the engineering and design phase is to identify as many of the safety hazards as possible associated with use of the space in which the project will be built: (Hislop, 41)
a. worksite audit
b. site walk-through
c. project hazard analysis
d. baseline safety review
4. Each of the following is an objective of the baseline safety review, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 41)
a. identify existing and potential hazards
b. provide guidance in selecting contractors
c. consider occupancy requirements
d. consider maintenance requirements
5. Each of the following is accomplished in the Procurement/Contracting Phase of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 45-46)
a. pre-construction meeting
b. pre-work release meeting
c. hazard communication briefing
d. safety program and job safety analysis review
6. Each of the following is accomplished in the Procurement/Contracting Phase of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 45-46)
a. bid review, evaluation, and contractor selection
b. bid package
c. contract award
d. pre-work planning
7. This position defines the configuration and components of the work through the plans and specifications: (Hislop, 40)
a. originator
b. planner
c. coordinating engineer
d. designer
8. Which of the following describes why the construction manager (CM) and client should not delegate the decision regarding standards to be met to the general contractor? (Hislop, 61)
a. may cause discord among workers and subcontractors
b. will result in a broad disparity in safety program implementation
c. safe work practices may be circumvented
d. all of the above
9. This is the final step in the engineering and design phase: (Hislop, 45)
a. specific work-site safety briefing
b. award contract
c. statement of work
d. pre-work planning
10. Each of the following is accomplished in the Procurement/Contracting Phase of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 45-46)
a. specific work-site safety briefing
b. bid package
c. pre-bid meeting
d. invitation to bid
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. The construction manager (CM) and client should not delegate the decision regarding standards to be met to this position: (Hislop, 61)
a. construction manager (CM)
b. subcontractor
c. coordinating engineer
d. general contractor (GC)
2. During the procurement and contracting phase, the safety representative accomplishes all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 47)
a. provides guidance for the selection of contractors
b. train contractors during the pre-work release meeting
c. assists the field engineer in evaluating risks
d. assists coordinating engineer in evaluating hazards
3. Which of the following is most likely the reason designers generally do not address construction worker safety? (Hislop, 57)
a. they are not typically educated and trained in safety
b. they claim they do not have the tools or information
c. they are advised not to address safety to minimize liability
d. they leave the design of safety into the project to the safety representative
4. Which of the following is not conducted in the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47-52)
a. contractor equipment inspection
b. specific work site safety briefing
c. general worksite and hazcom briefing
d. safety program and job safety analysis review
5. Which of the following is not conducted in the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47-52)
a. contract award
b. inspections and audits
c. contractor progress reports
d. job specific training
6. Which of the following is not conducted in the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47-52)
a. progress and coordination meetings
b. baseline safety review
c. permits
d. contract closeout
7. This person must clearly define their safety expectations to the project designers and the construction manager: (Hislop, 57)
a. client
b. architect
c. coordinating engineer
d. host employer
8. Which of the following is not a primary safety responsibility of the host employer during the Procurement/Contracting Phase (Step 2) of a project? (Hislop, 45)
a. conduct progress and coordination meetings
b. develop the safety and health program for the project
c. consider safety and health in the invitation to bid
d. verify selected contractors have an appropriate safety and health program
9. Which of the following is not a primary safety responsibility of the contractor during the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47)
a. provide safety information on hazard created during work
b. develop and implement a site-specific safety and health program
c. give advice, as needed to the coordinating engineer
d. call attention to hazards that might affect others
10. A contractor may be required to submit all of the following reports to the host employer during the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 51)
a. safety committee agendas
b. material certifications
c. conformance to code statement
d. man-hour and injury reports
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. This person may be held liable, even if no contractual obligation exists, to bring a hazard to the attention of the exposed party: (Hislop, 59)
a. client
b. architect
c. coordinating engineer
d. engineer
2. Construction engineers must understand it is their obligation to issue a ______ order if a serious hazard exists: (Hislop, 59)
a. Stop-Work
b. reprimand
c. red tag
d. citation
3. This position is retained to act on the owner's behalf to oversee the development and construction of a project and is responsible for the coordination of the safe execution of all work on the project: (Hislop, 60)
a. construction manager (CM)
b. construction engineer (CE)
c. safety engineer (SE)
d. safety manager (SM)
4. All of the following may complicate the ability of the construction manager (CM) to give attention to project safety: (Hislop, 60)
a. concern over liability issues
b. hiring the CM after the start of the project
c. the absence of a competent safety engineer
d. coordinating numerous project issues
5. The client may make the mistake of assigning responsibility to the construction manager (CM) but not giving him or her authority to do any of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 61)
a. stop work
b. hiring a safety manager to enforce safety policies
c. withhold payment
d. enforce safety policies and rules
6. This position is expected to supply the labor and tools to complete the work as scheduled and within defined specifications: (Hislop, 61)
a. construction manager (CM)
b. subcontractor
c. coordinating engineer
d. general contractor (GC)
7. This position is responsible for defining safety practices of the means and methods to be implemented, and to make sure subcontractors implement those practices: (Hislop, 61)
a. construction manager (CM)
b. subcontractor
c. coordinating engineer
d. general contractor (GC)
AREA III. ANSWER KEYS
Area III. A. Compliance Management
Bank 1
1. c. employee recognition
2. b. 1917
3. d. specific industry standards (vertical)
4. b. 1970
5. c. who controls the manner in which the employees perform assigned work
6. c. universal standards (horizontal)
7. b. 1910
8. b. variance
9. b. variance
10. b. 1915
Bank 2
1. d. regardless of the use of PPE
2. d. answer a and b above
3. a. witnesses and other evidence
4. a. near miss
5. c. conduct research and make recommendations that prevent work-related injury and illness
6. d. partial inspection
7. b. Other-than-serious
8. b. late 1800's
9. a. 1904
10. c. NSC
Bank 3
1. c. Serious
2. b. the employer exercising reasonable diligence, did or could not know about the violation
3. d. whether the employee was under undue pressure to accomplish a task
4. c. 1926
5. d. equipment certification records
6. b. 1918
7. d. Morgantown WV
8. b. Section 5(a)(1) - General Duty Clause
9. a. the hazard was recognized and corrected prior to the conclusion of the inspection
10. b. a workplace hazard and employee exposure
Bank 4
1. d. it need not be necessarily be recognized
2. d. $7,000
3. d. employee recognition
4. a. recognition by employer's industry
5. c. oral statements by employee to compliance officer
6. b. flagrant
7. c. substantially similar condition
8. b. comprehensive inspection
9. b. only in flagrant cases
10. b. condition, relative position
Bank 5
1. a. De Minimis
2. a. Repeat
3. b. Department of Labor (DOL)
4. c. Employers are not responsible for employee compliance
5. c. consult with the Area Director
6. a. 1903
7. c. Affirmative
8. c. alternative methods exist
9. a. comprehensive and partial
10. d. $5,000 to $70,000
Bank 6
1. d. comprehensive inspection
2. a. North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)
3. c. partial inspection
4. c. include of injury and illness records reviews
5. d. subjective impression
6. d. 1928
7. d. time restraint
8. d. equipment certification records
9. a. 30 days
10. b. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer without a war
Bank 7
1. b. 1970
2. c. refusing OSHA compliance officer entry without a warrant
3. d. contest the abatement date
4. a. enter with a U.S. Federal Marshall
5. b. National Industrial Classification (NIC)
6. b. voluntary compliance programs,
7. c. 1969
8. b. (# LWDI's x 200,000)/# employee hours worked
9. a. employee's knowledge of the hazard
10. b. catastrophe
Bank 8
1. c. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act
2. b. caused the death of an employee
3. c. Nixon
4. c. imminent danger
5. a. Provide statistical analysis data
6. b. (# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer x 200,000)/# actual employee workhours
7. a. state rules are at least as effective
8. b. 1970
9. c. $7,000
10. b. English
Bank 9
1. b. Health and Human Services/CDC
2. c. NIOSH is an agency within CDC
3. c. ESHM, Excellent Safety and Health Management Program
4. d. all of the above
5. b. Williams-Steiger Act
6. b. National Institutes of Safety and Health (NIOSH)
7. a. 8 hours
8. c. OSHA poster
9. c. $7,000
10. b. OSHA Form 300
Bank 10
1. c. Underwriters Laboratory (UL)
2. a. OSHA 1910.1200
3. c. ANSI Z10-2005
4. a. OSHA
5. c. Homeland Security Act
6. b. U.S. Code
7. b. Assistant Secretary of Labor
8. c. Adjudicate disputes
9. b. Evaluating labor-management relations
10. c. Provide training to employers and employees.
Bank 11
1. a. VPP Voluntary Protection Program (VPP)
2. d. All of the above
3. d. Develop, submit and receive plan approval from OSHA.
4. b. Department of Health and Human Services
5. c. Introduce common sense regulatory reform
6. b. cannot achieve goals through enforcement alone
7. b. Legislating standard safety values
8. d. a and b above
9. a. in plain language
10. b. act as an effective deterrent
Bank 12
1. d. all of the above
2. d. reduced publicity
3. a. Informal training classes
4. b. Voluntary Protection Program (VPP)
5. a. Employer Ride-a-long Program
6. d. Promulgate pending OSHA legislation
7. b. encourages
8. c. Occupational Safety and Health State Plan Association (OSHSPA)
9. a. at least as effective as
10. b. is an independent agency of the U.S. Government
Bank 13
1. d. resolve disputes
2. b. Administrative Law Judges
3. b. OSHSPA
4. c. employee recognition
5. b. only in flagrant cases
6. c. temporary review standards
7. a. Consensus
8. c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become effective.
9. d. workplace and other studies
10. b. Business Liability Act
Bank 14
1. b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate specific rule.
2. a. Compliance poses a financial burden
3. d. the unsafe practice did not cause injury
4. c. general
5. d. employer ability to pay
6. a. nullify rules
7. d. all of the above
8. c. willful violations of the general duty clause
9. a. challenge the abatement remedy
10. b. substantial
Bank 15
1. a. trade secret information
2. c. The employer refused consultative services
3. a. The violation was a repeat
4. c. willfully or repeatedly violates any section of the OSHact
5. c. $70,000, $5,000
6. c. 50%
7. c. 1998
8. d. 50
9. b. 17
10. d. more than 100
Area III. B. Environment
Bank 1
1. d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967
2. a. The EPA
3. d. all of the above
4. d. regulate the discharge of pollutants into outdoor ambient air
5. a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)
6. b. silicon
7. b. silver monoxide
8. d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS)
9. b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)
10. d. lead
Bank 2
1. a. anthrax
2. c. Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act (ESECA) of 1974
3. d. a and b above
4. c. State Implementation Plan (SIP)
5. a. the SIP must be developed by the EPA and state governments
6. d. chemtrail pollutants
7. a. emissions from watercraft
8. a. underwater volcano emissions
9. d. all of the above
10. d. all of the above
Bank 3
1. a. identifies toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT)
2. c. allowed additives control standards
3. c. National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
4. a. Stormwater Discharge Regulations
5. c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
6. c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
7. d. all of the above
8. b. resistance of hazardous waste to controls
9. c. train hazardous waste workers
10. b. report to OSHA
Bank 4
1. d. all of the above
2. a. hazardous waste manufacturers
3. c. RCRA Permit
4. d. all of the above
5. d. all of the above
6. c. Subtitle I, Regulation of Underground Story Tanks (USTs)
7. b. volunteer compliance and cooperation
8. c. requirements for disposal of hazardous waste at remote locations
9. a. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)
10. a. Bhopal Tragedy
Bank 5
1. d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967
Area III. C. Ergonomics
Bank 1
1. a. Elbow and shoulder swelling and inflammation
2. b. Pain in the wrist upon exertion
3. c. Carpenter's elbow
4. c. NIOSH
5. a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
6. a. Ergonomics
7. a. Back pain
8. c. Precision grip
9. a. Power grip
10. b. 10 degrees downward
Bank 2
1. c. Biomechanics
2. d. The man-machine relationship
3. b. Musculoskeletal Disorders
4. c. Tennis elbow
5. c. whole-body vibration
6. a. Work and Law
7. b. anthropometry
8. d. a vector quantity that tends to produce a deceleration
9. a. Fitness
10. d. Emotional demands
Bank 3
1. c. Repetitive Strain Injuries (RSI)
2. c. Exposure to blood-borne pathogens
3. d. Ignore employee concerns and ideas
4. c. Twist as you lift from the floor
5. c. workstation design
6. d. discourage union involvement
7. b. encourage compliance
8. a. Ignoring employees registering complaints
9. b. brainstorming
10. c. request a confidential evaluation
Bank 4
1. c. determine scope of the problem
2. b. detect obvious risk factors
3. d. persons are familiar with the job, task, or process
4. c. work requiring sustained or repeated work at chest level
5. c. decreased slipperiness
6. a. group dynamics
7. d. exclude employee involvement in the analysis
8. c. investigation
9. c. investigation
10. c. immediate, severity
Bank 5
1. d. all of the above
2. b. Engineering Controls
3. c. Work Practice Controls
4. a. the printer
5. a. decrease recovery time
6. b. verifies proposed solutions
7. d. controls are identified
8. d. reduced productivity
9. a. Early return to work
10. b. methods of self-treating MSDs
Bank 6
1. b. diagnose signs and symptoms
2. b. periodic plant tours
3. a. Comply with mandatory OSHA rules
4. b. musculoskeletal disorders
5. c. requirements, requirements
6. d. Any of the above
7. b. the procedure
8. b. 7 percent
9. d. skin
10. b. unique motions
Bank 7
1. c. capacity
2. b. 35
3. d. Fatigue
4. c. environment
5. c. upper back
6. d. Contact trauma
7. a. pinch grip
8. c. static exertion
9. b. recovery time
10. d. standing
Bank 8
1. a. angular velocity, acceleration
2. d. All of the above
3. b. high humidity
4. b. hypothermia
5. a. pulmonary pain
6. b. 4 and 8
7. c. freedom from concentration
8. c. threaten for noncompliance
9. d. poor labor-management relations
10. d. flat enough
Area III. B. Environment
Bank 1
1. c. toxicology
2. d. a and c above
3. a. contact with a harmful substance
4. d. contact with biological mutagens
5. c. toxicity
6. b. degree of exposure
7. d. all of the above
8. b. toxicity
9. c. hazard
10. d. exposure
Bank 2
1. b. toxicity
2. b. the stimulus has changed chemical markers
3. a. the effect is unique and specific
4. d. the observation is unique to the observer
5. c. Toxicity is not a physical constant
6. c. physiological characteristics of the chemical
7. b. amount of the hazard
8. a. toxic content of the substance
9. b. vapor pressure
10. d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS
Bank 3
1. a. local injury
2. a. local injury
3. d. inhalation
4. c. 5µm
5. c. The substance can result in unusual behavioral actions
6. a. The skin will prevent exposure
7. c. temperature and perspiration
8. b. physiochemical
9. d. location
10. a. humidity
Bank 4
1. d. lower
2. d. lower
3. c. detoxification
4. c. attack by macrophages
5. b. the duodenal sac
6. a. pneumococcus
7. b. dose-response relationship
8. c. LD50
9. d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure
10. d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure
Bank 5
1. b. toxic potency
2. c. route of entry
3. a. lethal dose (LD)
4. d. LD100
5. b. slight
6. b. inversely proportional
7. d. lethal concentration (LC)
8. d. possible significant effect
9. b. reveals the route of entry
10. d. acute, chronic
Bank 6
1. a. acute effects
2. a. acute
3. b. chronic effects
4. b. chronic
5. d. avoidants
6. b. asphyxiants
7. c. CNS depressants
8. b. carcinogen
9. a. mutagen
10. c. teratogen
Bank 7
1. b. EPA
2. b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL)
3. d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
4. d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
5. a. Threshold Limit Values (TLV)
6. c. within the breathing zone of a worker
7. b. Time Weighted Average (TWA)
8. c. 8 hours
9. c. C
10. c. ceiling value (C)
Bank 8
1. b. milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3)
2. a. parts per million (PPM)
3. a. their combined effect
4. c. been exceeded
5. a. labor-management negotiation
6. b. Urine tests
7. a. Blood analysis
8. b. in addition to air sampling
9. d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
10. b. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI)
Bank 9
1. d. TLC
2. b. LC
3. a. LD
4. c. TLD
5. b. LC50
6. a. LD50
7. c. latency period
8. d. FDA
9. d. FDA
10. b. meaningfulness is the same regardless of species
Bank 10
1. b. they are difficult to schedule into the normal workday
2. d. cooperation by workers may not occur
Area III. E. Epidemiology
Bank 1
1. d. Proactive
2. a. Descriptive studies
3. b. Retrospective or control group studies
4. c. Prospective studies
5. c. Prospective studies
6. d. Epidemiological analysis
7. b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effect
8. b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effect
9. c. rewards for underreporting
10. d. contact between hands and contaminated material
Bank 2
1. a. subcutaneous absorption
2. c. research
3. d. HIV
4. d. HIV
5. c. Epidemiological and risk assessment
6. d. Evaluate the degree to which occupational disease impacts productivity
7. a. To determine effects of toxins on control populations of animals
8. c. Determine the extent to which the animals mirror human etiology
Area III. F. Industrial Hygiene
Bank 1
1. c. hazards
2. d. rule enforcement
3. a. training
4. a. sound claims management
5. a. chemical hazards
6. d. physical hazards
7. b. biological hazards
8. c. ergonomic hazards
9. d. physical effects
10. a. variation in receptivity
Bank 2
1. b. intermittent energy of the sound
2. c. Are employees volunteering to wear earplugs or muffs?
3. c. increased breathing rate
4. a. area samples at fixed locations
5. a. mist
6. c. 90 dBA
7. d. 95 dBA
8. b. dipole antenna
9. b. use engineering and administrative controls
10. b. 5 µm
Bank 3
1. c. ensure personal protective equipment is provided
2. a. toxicity
3. c. placing a grounded conductor between the field and person
4. d. noise
5. a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms
6. a. total time since exposure occurred
7. a. heatstroke
8. b. dipole antenna
9. a. total time since exposure occurred
10. d. sources of radiation
Bank 4
1. a. vapors
2. d. half-life of the chemical
3. a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms
4. d. sources of radiation
5. c. charlie-waves
6. c. specific absorption rate (SAR)
7. d. psychosocial environment
8. c. delta-waves
9. d. output
10. d. penetration
Bank 5
1. b. Geiger-Muller
2. d. Dosimeters
3. c. Administrative controls
4. a. alpha-particles
5. a. acute and chronic
6. a. frequency
7. b. engineering control
8. b. microwave
9. d. infrared
10. a. ultraviolet
Bank 6
1. c. laser
2. c. maser
3. b. eye
4. d. skin
5. a. barotrauma
6. a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposure
7. d. any of the above
8. d. penetration
9. b. allergens
10. b. microbes
Bank 7
1. d. dusts
2. d. 0.1-25 µm
3. d. fumes
4. b. smoke
5. b. Ohm's Law
6. d. aerosols
7. a. mists
8. c. gas
9. d. b and c above
10. c. 21 percent
Bank 8
1. a. toxic mists affecting upper area of the lung
2. d. Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
3. b. 8-hour exposure
4. c. TLV-C
5. b. TLV-STEL
6. a. MSDSs
7. b. Degree of probability of exposure
8. c. sequence of sampling
9. d. a and c above
10. b. A shift from manufacturing to service
Bank 9
1. a. Inspections and audits
2. b. Engineering controls
3. b. Engineering controls
4. d. Personal Protective Equipment
5. b. Toxicology
6. b. LD50
7. c. ACGIH and OSHA
8. b. LIA/ANSI Z136.1
9. c. heat exhaustion
10. c. grab
Bank 10
1. a. propane
2. c. increased depth and rate of breathing (anoxia)
3. d. Mists that enter and damage lung tissue
4. a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposure
5. d. caloric intake
6. b. dry bulb thermometer
7. a. stretching
8. d. audiometric testing
9. c. effective temperature index
10. c. prolonged cold exposure and heat loss
Bank 11
1. d. electrons
2. a. alpha-particles
3. c. neutrons
4. d. neutrons
5. b. MeV (million electron volts)
6. b. nonionizing radiation
7. c. MRI transmissions
8. a. orientation of the wave front
9. b. infrared
10. a. ultraviolet
Bank 12
1. a. maser
2. a. LED
3. d. presence of focusing media in the light path
4. b. hyperbaric
5. a. barotrauma
6. c. decompression sickness
7. b. pain and congestion in the ears
8. a. ergonomics
9. a. ergonomics
10. c. physiological and psychological demands
Bank 13
1. b. Biomechanics
2. a. 200
3. c. nursing homes
4. a. building-related illness (BRI)
5. b. sick-building syndrome (SBS)
6. d. abrasion
7. a. inhalation
8. b. lead oxide
9. d. dusts
10. a. 5µm
Bank 14
1. a. 5µm
2. d. 50µm
3. c. fumes
4. b. dross
5. c. scrupulously clean housekeeping
6. a. gases
7. b. mists
8. c. aerosols
9. b. mists
10. d. vapors
Bank 15
1. c. mg/l - milligrams per liter of a liquid
2. d. b and c above
3. a. 21 percent
4. d. 79 percent
5. b. 160 mm Hg (760 mm Hg x .21)
6. c. relocated to areas of lower pressure
Area III. G. Construction
Bank 1
1. c. safety
2. d. schedule
3. c. King Hammurabi, 2200 BCE.
4. d. b and c above
5. a. 6.9 %
6. a. .9 %
7. c. due diligence
8. c. profit
9. c. profit
10. d. provide incentives
Bank 2
1. b. develop a safety committee
2. c. type of accidents and injuries
3. b. probability for accidents
4. a. responsibility
5. b. authority to discipline for noncompliance
6. d. machine guarding
7. a. biological hazards
8. c. soil conditions
9. d. weather effects
10. b. evaluation of training
Bank 3
1. d. selection of back belts
2. a. certifying workers
3. c. annual inspections of chemicals
4. b. establishing regulated areas
5. c. verifying employee training
6. b. field engineer
7. c. 29 CFR 1926
8. c. parking zones
9. b. both contractor and subcontractor
10. d. all of the above
Bank 4
1. d. all of the above
2. d. bonus for beating work schedules
3. a. can talk about anticipated safety issues
4. d. bodily reaction
5. c. 30%
6. c. develop the bid package
7. b. Award contract
8. a. specific work-site safety briefing
9. a. originator
10. d. Provide guidance on selection of contractors
Bank 5
1. a. originator
2. c. coordinating engineer
3. d. baseline safety review
4. b. provide guidance in selecting contractors
5. c. hazard communication briefing
6. d. pre-work planning
7. d. designer
8. d. all of the above
9. c. statement of work
10. a. specific work-site safety briefing
Bank 6
1. d. general contractor (GC)
2. b. train contractors during the pre-work release meeting
3. c. they are advised not to address safety to minimize liability
4. d. safety program and job safety analysis review
5. a. contract award
6. b. baseline safety review
7. a. client
8. b. develop the safety and health program for the project
9. c. give advice, as needed to the coordinating engineer
10. a. safety committee agendas
Bank 7
1. d. engineer
2. a. Stop-Work
3. a. construction manager (CM)
4. c. the absence of a competent safety engineer
5. b. hiring a safety manager to enforce safety policies
6. b. subcontractor
7. d. general contractor (GC)
C S H M
Certified Safety Health Manager Exam
STUDY GUIDE
Area IV Risk Management Control
Questions and Answer Key
Subject Area IV. Topic A. Workers' Compensation
Area III.A. Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Prior to the introduction of workers' compensation law, employers could not claim there was no negligence on their part using common law defense: (Brauer p. 43)
a. Assumption of risk
b. Comparative negligence
c. The fellow servant rule
d. Contributory negligence
2. Prior to the introduction of workers' compensation law, the employer used this defense by arguing an employee was negligent and caused the injury to the victim: (Brauer p. 43)
a. Assumption of risk
b. Comparative negligence
c. The fellow servant rule
d. Contributory negligence
3. The employer used this defense, prior to the introduction of workers' compensation law, by arguing the victim acted carelessly, and therefore action against the employer was inappropriate: (Brauer p. 43)
a. Assumption of risk
b. Comparative negligence
c. The fellow servant rule
d. Contributory negligence
4. Prior to the introduction of workers' compensation law, the employer used this defense by arguing the victim assumed the risk, therefore action against the employer was inappropriate: (Brauer p. 43)
a. Assumption of risk
b. Comparative negligence
c. The fellow servant rule
d. Contributory negligence
5. The first constitutionally acceptable workers' compensation law was passed in: (Brauer p. 44)
a. 1892
b. 1911
c. 1916
d. 1930
6. Workers' compensation laws were not declared constitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court until: (NSC, APM - A&P, p. 194)
a. 1892
b. 1911
c. 1916
d. 1930
7. Workers' compensation was not provided to all states until Mississippi enacted its first law in: (NSC, APM - A&P, p. 194)
a. 1892
b. 1911
c. 1930
d. 1948
8. Under workers' compensation law, employers are: (Brauer p. 44)
a. able to counter sue the employee as a defense
b. able to settle out of court if employee is injured
c. allowed to sue the insurer for employee injury
d. no longer liable for negligence resulting in worker injury
9. Which of the following is not a federal government workers' compensation program? (Brauer p. 44)
a. District of Columbia Workmen's Compensation Act (DCWCA)
b. Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers Act (LHWA)
c. Occupational Workers' Compensation Act (OWCA)
d. Federal Employees Compensation Act (FECA)
10. Which kind of workers' compensation law requires each employer to accept its provisions and provide for benefits as specified? (Brauer p. 44)
a. compulsory law
b. administrative law
c. elective law
d. statutory law
Practice Questions – Bank 2
1. Which kind of workers' compensation law gives the employer the right to accept or reject participation? (Brauer p. 44)
a. compulsory law
b. administrative law
c. elective law
d. statutory law
2. All of the following are objectives of workers' compensation law, except: (Brauer p. 45)
a. Restore worker earning capacity
b. Relieve public and private charities
c. Provide multiple remedies without delay
d. Encourage employer interest in safety
3. All of the following are objectives of workers' compensation law, except: (Brauer p. 45)
a. Provide a single remedy
b. Provide rehabilitation to workers
c. Encourage employer interest in safety
d. Ensure financial relief to employers
4. Today, workers' compensation laws cover about ________ of all wage and salary employees: (Brauer p. 45)
a. 60 percent
b. 70 percent
c. 80 percent
d. 90 percent
5. The main purpose of workers' compensation law is to: (Brauer p. 45)
a. compensate the worker
b. relieve employer burden
c. excuse liability
d. ensure smooth administration
6. Originally, the term 'injury' referred to: (Brauer p. 46)
a. immediate trauma or illness
b. physical damage to the body
c. physical or psychological harm
d. major physical trauma
7. During the 1980s claims increased significantly for this injury category: (Brauer p. 46)
a. violence
b. stress
c. cumulative trauma
d. falls
8. During the 1990s claims increased significantly for this injury category: (Brauer p. 46)
a. violence
b. stress
c. cumulative trauma
d. falls
9. Which of the following disability classes is not recognized by most states? (Brauer p. 46)
a. Temporary total disability
b. Temporary partial disability
c. Permanent partial disability
d. Permanent total disability
10. This disability applies to a worker who is completely unable to work for a time because of a job-related injury: (Brauer p. 46)
a. Temporary total disability
b. Temporary partial disability
c. Permanent partial disability
d. Permanent total disability
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. This disability applies to a worker who is unable to perform regular job duties during the recovery period but is able to work at a job requiring lesser capabilities: (Brauer p. 46)
a. Temporary total disability
b. Temporary partial disability
c. Permanent partial disability
d. Permanent total disability
2. This disability applies to a worker who endures a permanent reduction of work capability, but is still able to retain gainful employment: (Brauer p. 46)
a. Temporary total disability
b. Temporary partial disability
c. Permanent partial disability
d. Permanent total disability
3. This disability applies to a worker who is no longer able to work, even after medical and rehabilitative treatment: (Brauer p. 47)
a. Temporary total disability
b. Temporary partial disability
c. Permanent partial disability
d. Permanent total disability
4. Which of the following is not an expense compensated by workers' compensation laws? (Brauer p. 47)
a. Loss of insurance
b. Loss of wages
c. Burial expenses
d. Payments for impairments
5. Which of the below is not one of the three major theories to determine the amount of workers' compensation? (Brauer p. 48)
a. Equivalent wages theory
b. Lost wages theory
c. Whole-man theory
d. Loss of potential earnings theory
6. This workers' compensation theory considers only the functional effect of the loss - its impact on normal functions and abilities: (Brauer p. 48)
a. Equivalent wages theory
b. Lost wages theory
c. Whole-man theory
d. Loss of potential earnings theory
7. This workers' compensation theory considers the actual loss in wages relative to a standard that estimates what the individual would have earned: (Brauer p. 48)
a. Equivalent wages theory
b. Lost wages theory
c. Whole-man theory
d. Loss of potential earnings theory
8. This workers' compensation theory is the most common approach for paying compensation: (Brauer p. 48)
a. Equivalent wages theory
b. Lost wages theory
c. Whole-man theory
d. Loss of potential earnings theory
9. Due to the difficulty in determining compensation for permanent partial disability, this practice has become widespread: (Brauer p. 48)
a. schedules
b. standard payouts
c. payout formulas
d. compensation equations
10. These establish in advance the value of each kind of disability: (Brauer p. 48)
a. schedules
b. standard payouts
c. payout formulas
d. compensation equations
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Lost wages and payments for impairment are usually based on: (Brauer p. 48)
a. daily wages
b. annual salaries
c. average weekly earnings
d. monthly wages and benefits
2. Which of the following is not one of the standard methods of providing workers' compensation insurance to employers? (Brauer p. 48)
a. self-insured benefits
b. private insurance
c. state-operated insurance
d. federal insurance
3. Large corporations may use this strategy to reduce administrative costs for workers' compensation: (Brauer p. 48)
a. self-insured benefits
b. private insurance
c. state-operated insurance
d. federal insurance
4. In the U.S. most workers' expenditures are for: (Brauer p. 49)
a. administrative fees
b. medical care expenses
c. compensation payments
d. legal services
5. Units of workers' compensation premiums are dollars per: (Brauer p. 49)
a. average weekly payroll
b. standard state schedules
c. $100 of payroll
d. 100 payroll hours worked
6. This agency sets basic workers' compensation premium rates for most states: (Brauer p. 49)
a. National Council of Compensation Insurance (NCCI)
b. Federal Workers' Compensation Administration (FWCA)
c. American Workers' Compensation Standards Agency (AWCSA)
d. Department of Labor: Workers' Compensation Division (DOL-WCD)
7. This workers' compensation premium rate is the same for all insurance companies within a state: (Brauer p. 49)
a. Experience rate
b. Manual rate
c. Schedule rate
d. Computed rate
8. Under this workers' compensation experience rating, an employer's accident record influences future premiums: (Brauer p. 49)
a. Retrospective rating
b. Manual rating
c. Prospective rating
d. Computed rating
9. This workers' compensation premium rate is no longer used because it was difficult and expensive to monitor compliance: (Brauer p. 49)
a. Experience rate
b. Manual rate
c. Schedule rate
d. Computed rate
10. Under this workers' compensation experience rating, the employer and insurer agree to a set of adjustments in premium within upper and lower limits: (Brauer p. 50)
a. Retrospective rating
b. Manual rating
c. Schedule rating
d. Computed rating
Practice Questions – Bank 5
1. Under this workers' compensation rating method, manual rates apply and premiums are modified annual based on losses of all businesses within the state for that employment classification: (Brauer p. 50)
a. Retrospective rating
b. Manual rating
c. Experience rating
d. Fixed rate premiums
2. Under this workers' compensation rating method, future premiums may be influenced by the experience of an individual employer: (Brauer p. 49)
a. Retrospective rating
b. Manual rating
c. Experience rating
d. Fixed rate premiums
3. To avoid excessive fluctuation, how many years is used to compute an employer's workers' compensation experience rating? (Brauer p. 49)
a. two years
b. three years
c. four years
d. five years
4. Which of these programs is probably least effective in dealing with possible behavioral and psychological aspects of worker post-injury recovery? (Brauer p. 50)
a. Drug Free Workplace Program (DFW)
b. Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
c. Light Duty - Early Return to Work (ERW) Program
d. Post-injury Wellness Program
5. An employer with experience modification rates (MOD) of 1.2, 1.3, and .92 over the last three years. When would the employer's workers' compensation premium reflect the .92 MOD rate: (Brauer p. 50)
a. next year
b. in two years
c. in three years
d. in four years
6. Under workers' compensation law, employees are least likely to be able to initiate a third party lawsuit against: (Brauer p. 50)
a. other employer or organization
b. co-workers
c. manufacturers
d. the worker's employer
7. What is the MOST practical strategy to manage losses due to workplace injuries and illnesses?
a. Good labor contracts
b. Aggressive claims handling
c. Proactive safety programs
d. Changing state laws
8. Which of the following three goals is LEAST important in a workers' compensation program plan of action? (NSC, APP-AP, p.204)
a. prevent accidents
b. control costs
c. discipline often
d. respond to accidents promptly
9. If an employer in a common law court argues that the injured employee knew a perceived workplace danger existed and that they were liable for their own injury, what defense is the employer using? (Brauer, p.43)
a. Strict Liability
b. Assumption of Risk
c. Rule of No-Fault
d. Contributory Negligence
10. Which of the following does NOT meet eligibility criteria for workers' compensation? (NSC, APP-AP, p.196)
a. Injury
b. Illness
c. Employment
d. Mental impairment
Practice Questions – Bank 6
1. Which of the following does NOT meet eligibility criteria for workers' compensation? (NSC, APP-AP, p.196)
a. Injury
b. Illness
c. Employment
d. Mental impairment
2. Which of the following is true concerning the OSHA 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses? (OSHA)
a. does not require record of needlestick injuries
b. exempts small employers
c. forbids computerized injury and illness records
d. requires domestic employee certification
3. Which of the following is true concerning the OSHA 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses? (OSHA)
a. does not require record of needlestick injuries
b. exempts small employers
c. forbids computerized injury and illness records
d. requires domestic employee certification
4. Which of the following injuries or illness are probably NOT OSHA recordable? (OSHA)
a. broken leg at company picnic soccer game
b. workplace injury requiring follow-up treatment
c. illness from chemical exposure at work
d. loss of consciousness while on the job
5. Which of the following does NOT meet eligibility criteria for workers' compensation? (NSC, APP-AP, p.196)
a. Injury
b. Illness
c. Employment
d. Mental impairment
Subject Area IV. Topic B. Risk Management
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. According to Roger Brauer, to reduce uncertainty in describing factors that contribute to accidents, injuries, illnesses and death is a goal of: (Brauer, 528)
a. risk identification
b. risk analysis
c. risk evaluation
d. risk containment
2. According to Roger Brauer, which of the following is NOT one of the five general components or activities of risk management? (Brauer, 527-528)
a. financing risks
b. identifying risks
c. evaluating risks
d. eliminating risks
3. Which of the following is not one of the four steps of chemical risk assessment identified by the National Academy of Sciences? (Brauer, 533)
a. Hazard identification
b. Dose-response assessment
c. Risk reduction
d. Exposure assessment
4. A flood at a food processing plant damages the three processing lines. One of the lines must shut down as a result of the fire. The MOST serious loss the company will have to endure will most likely be:
a. Personal loss
b. Net income loss
c. Property loss
d. Liability loss
5. The National Academy of Sciences identified four steps in every complete chemical risk assessment. Which of the following is not one of those steps? (Brauer, 533)
a. Hazard evaluation
b. Dose - response assessment
c. Exposure assessment
d. Risk characterization
6. According to Pope, until the early 1960s, risk, as a management function, was limited to: (Pope, 112)
a. exposure risk
b. security risk
c. pure risk
d. financial risk
7. Controlling conditions that can be responsible for a loss is called: (Brauer, 527)
a. exposure risk
b. security risk
c. pure risk
d. financial risk
8. The idea of risk implies: (Brauer, 527)
a. any kind of risk to a business
b. specific security risk
c. financial risks
d. risk of injury or illness
9. Which of the following in not a preloss risk management objective? (Brauer, 528)
a. reducing worry over potential losses
b. meeting safety regulations
c. meeting the demands of good citizenship
d. returning to full operations
10. Keeping earnings stable through continued operations is an example of this risk management objective? (Brauer, 528)
a. postloss
b. transloss
c. preloss
d. nonloss
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Which of the following is not one of the techniques used to identify risks? (Brauer, 528-529)
a. historical analysis
b. cost-benefit analysis
c. specialists
d. checklists
2. According to Brauer, it is not possible to ____ all risks. (Brauer, 529)
a. summarize
b. categorize
c. quantify
d. qualify
3. When many risks exist at once, it is most important to do which of the following? (Brauer, 529)
a. tackle one at a time
b. prioritize the risks
c. cost-benefit analysis
d. list according to date discovered
4. Two important factors to consider when prioritizing risks are: (Brauer, 530)
a. cost to implement and severity
b. resulting penalty and severity
c. degree of severity and cost
d. cost to implement and degree of reduction
5. All of the following are examples of effective tools to quantify risk, except: (Brauer, 530-532)
a. Risk assessment matrix
b. Risk summary worksheet
c. Risk management data sheet
d. Nomograms
6. According to Brauer, methods to pay for risks include all of the following, except: (Brauer, 531-532)
a. do nothing
b. develop a cash reserve
c. enter a risk pool
d. purchase insurance
7. According to Brauer, the final step in the risk management process is: (Brauer, 533)
a. accepting the process
b. adopting the process
c. analyzing the process
d. administering the process
8. Which of the following is not administering the risk management process? (Brauer, 533)
a. developing risk potentials
b. setting acceptable levels of risk
c. assigning resources to the process
d. selecting methods to track items
9. According to Brauer, all of the following should be tracked when administering the risk management process, except: (Brauer, 533)
a. items analyzed
b. hazards identified
c. control measures
d. decisions made
10. According to Brauer, which of the following is not involved in the risk assessment portion of risk management? (Brauer, 533)
a. synthesis
b. identification
c. analysis
d. evaluation
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. Which of the following is not one of the techniques used to identify risks? (Brauer, 528-529)
a. historical analysis
b. payback period
c. specialists
d. checklists
2. Which of the following is not one of the five components of Risk Management mentioned by Brauer? (Brauer, 528)
a. Eliminating or reducing
b. Enforcing at risk behaviors
c. Risk analysis
d. Risk identification
3. According to Brauer, risk evaluation includes: (Brauer, 533)
a. risk aversion and risk acceptance
b. risk acceptance and risk reduction
c. risk aversion and risk reduction
d. risk acceptance and risk removal
4. Which of the following is not a step in administering the risk management process? (Brauer, 531-532)
a. developing risk potentials
b. setting acceptable levels of risk
c. assigning resources to the process
d. selecting methods to track items
5. Reducing risk in the workplace usually involves finding solutions to all of the following except:
a. Hazardous conditions
b. Who was to blame
c. Unsafe work practices
d. Weaknesses in the safety program
6. Conditions and behaviors described in a problem statement represent the _________ of a safety management system that may have somehow failed.
a. structure
b. inputs
c. processes
d. outputs
7. The National Academy of Sciences identified four steps in every complete chemical risk assessment. Which of the following is not one of those steps? (Brauer, 533)
a. Hazard identification
b. Dose - response assessment
c. Exposure assessment
d. Risk calculation
8. Projecting frequency and severity is considered: (Brauer, 533)
a. risk management
b. risk assessment
c. risk estimation
d. risk evaluation
9. Risk assessment techniques that evaluate the probability of events occurring and the probability of their severity describes: (Brauer, 533)
a. Risk Management (RM)
b. Probabilistic Risk Assessment (PRA)
c. Risk Projection (RP)
d. Risk Estimation (RE)
10. The goal of this activity is to reduce uncertainty in describing factors that contribute to accidents, injuries, illnesses and death: (Brauer, 528)
a. Risk management
b. Probabilistic risk assessment
c. Risk projection
d. Risk identification
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Which of the following equations can be used to compute risk based on the relationship among consequence, exposure, and probability? (Brauer, 535)
a. R = C x E x P
b. R = (C x E)/P
c. R = C/(E x P)
d. R = (C x P)/E
2. Which of the following is not listed as a factor that will increase risk or the uncertainty of loss imposed by a particular hazard? (Petersen, TSM, 191)
a. probability
b. consequences
c. exposure
d. duration
3. This activity involves describing the quantitative relationship between the amount of exposure and the extent of toxic injury or disease: (Brauer, 534)
a. Exposure assessment
b. Dose - Response Assessment
c. Risk analysis
d. Risk identification
4. This activity involves the nature and size of populations exposed to an agent and the magnitude and duration of the exposures: (Brauer, 534)
a. Exposure assessment
b. Dose - Response Assessment
c. Risk analysis
d. Risk identification
5. This activity integrates data and analysis to determine if people will experience effects of exposure: (Brauer, 534)
a. Exposure assessment
b. Risk Characterization
c. Risk analysis
d. Risk identification
6. All of the following are factors in determining a numerical risk score, EXCEPT: (Petersen, TSM, 192)
a. likelihood
b. exposure
c. Conditions, behaviors, systems
d. consequences
Subject Area IV. Topic C. General Liability/Product Safety
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. A manufacturer or seller of a product being held liable for all injuries resulting from a product is an example of this form of liability: (Brauer, 54)
a. negligence
b. warranty
c. absolute
d. strict
2. This theory of liability deals with characteristics of products that are unreasonably dangerous: (Brauer, 54)
a. negligence
b. warranty
c. absolute
d. strict
3. This theory of liability involves the conduct or behavior of a person or corporate body, something they did or failed to do: (Brauer, 54)
a. negligence
b. warranty
c. absolute
d. strict
4. This theory of liability addresses performance of a product regarding implied or explicit claims made for it by the manufacturer or seller: (Brauer, 54)
a. negligence
b. warranty
c. absolute
d. strict
5. Wrongful acts, injuries or damages for which civil action can be brought are called: (Brauer, 54)
a. negligent acts
b. statutes
c. torts
d. criminal behavior
6. Under this legal concept, complaints about products usually were ignored: (Brauer, 54)
a. negligence
b. caveat emptor
c. absolute liability
d. absolute liability
7. This doctrine further protected the manufacturer of products by limiting the parties involved in the transaction to the buyer and seller: (Brauer, 55)
a. warranty
b. caveat emptor
c. torts
d. privity of contract
8. Under this legal theory, which emerged in 1962, a manufacturer is liable when an article he places on the market, knowing it is to be used without inspection for defects, proves to have a defect that causes injury to a person: (Brauer, 55)
a. strict liability
b. caveat emptor
c. torts
d. privity of contract
9. The vast majority of product liability suits are handled under this theory: (Brauer, 55)
a. torts
b. caveat emptor
c. strict liability
d. privity of contract
10. Under strict liability, the plaintiff in a products lawsuit must prove all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 55)
a. Defect existed when if it left defendant's hands
b. Defect was not identified or obvious
c. Defect was proximate and caused injury or harm
d. Defendant was negligent in duty toward plaintiff
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Under the theory of negligence, the plaintiff must provide evidence required by strict liability and additional evidence. Which of the following below describes additional evidence required by the theory of negligence? (Brauer, 55)
a. Defendant failed in his duty toward plaintiff
b. Defect existed when if it left defendant's hands
c. Defect was proximate and caused injury or harm
d. Product was defective
2. Under the theory of warranty, the plaintiff must prove which of the following? (Brauer, 55)
a. Defendant failed in his duty toward plaintiff
b. Defect existed when if it left defendant's hands
c. Defect was proximate and caused injury or harm
d. Product failed to meet implied or expressed claims
3. Which of the following is not a typical defense in products liability lawsuits? (Brauer, 55-56)
a. The danger was obvious
b. The product met government standards
c. The danger is not due to product defect
d. The plaintiff altered the product
4. Which of the following describe the two types of warranty? (Brauer, 56)
a. implicit and explicit
b. implied and express
c. strict and contributory
d. formal and informal
5. Through this code, adopted by nearly all states, the consumer receives some guarantee regarding the quality of a product? (Brauer, 56)
a. National Product Quality Code
b. Federal Product Quality Act
c. Uniform Commercial Code
d. American National Standards Code
6. This form of warranty occurs when a seller state claims or representations for a product that become the basis for the bargain: (Brauer, 57)
a. formal
b. express
c. implied
d. assumed
7. This form of warranty is breached if injury to the buyer results from the intended use of the product: (Brauer, 57)
a. formal
b. express
c. implied
d. assumed
8. The plaintiff in a strict liability lawsuit must: (Brauer, 57)
a. prove manufacturer negligence
b. prove the product was defective
c. prove seller negligence
d. prove breach of warranty
9. These are conditions that are NOT compensated for by the ultimate consumer and are unreasonably dangerous to the consumer: (Brauer, 57)
a. defects
b. hazards
c. liabilities
d. warranties
10. This occurs when a seller makes expressed claims or representations for a product that become a basis for the bargain: (Brauer, 57)
a. assumed liability
b. implied warranty
c. strict liability
d. express warranty
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. These are unreasonably dangerous characteristics of a product resulting from decisions, calculations, drawings or specifications: (Brauer, 57)
a. planning error
b. product liabilities
c. design defects
d. product failures
2. Which of the following is a design factor from which dangerous defects may result? (Brauer, 57)
a. selection of materials
b. management of energy
c. safety features
d. reliability features
3. Which of the following is not a purpose of the Uniform Product Safety Act? (US Code TITLE 15, CHAPTER 47 CHAPTER 47 - CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY )
a. protect the public against injury from consumer products
b. promote criminal investigation of product-related deaths
c. assist consumers to evaluate the safety of products
d. develop uniform safety standards for consumer products
4. This defect can be identified by comparing a good product from the same manufacturer with a defective one: (Brauer, 58)
a. process defect
b. manufacturing defect
c. product defect
d. materials defect
5. This legal doctrine expresses the idea that the thing speaks for itself and is frequently applied to negligence cases involving manufacturing defects: (Brauer, 58)
a. etu brutea
b. caveat emptor
c. res ipsa loquitur
d. productus res ipsa
6. Under the theories of negligence and strict liability, a supplier has a duty to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 59)
a. warn in the consumer's primary language
b. warn about dangers that remain
c. instruct on safe use of the product
d. warn about danger during product use
7. Which test do courts use cases involving misuse of products? (Brauer, 59)
a. warranty
b. negligence
c. strict liability
d. foreseeability
8. In order for product liability to exist, the defect must have existed at the time: (Brauer, 58)
a. the plaintiff purchased the product
b. the product was initially manufactured
c. the product left the defendant
d. the plaintiff used the product
9. Which of the following is not one of the three main steps in a liability law suit? (Brauer, 59)
a. sentence
b. complaint
c. discovery
d. trial
10. This person's primary role is to remove unreasonable dangers from products and environments and prevent defects from reaching the marketplace: (Brauer, 62)
a. accountant
b. engineer
c. attorney
d. safety manager
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Consumer products, as defined by the Consumer Product Safety Act, are articles or components for sale to consumers for use in all of the following situations, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 521)
a. in the workplace
b. in or around a residence or school
c. in recreation or otherwise
d. personal use, consumption, enjoyment
2. Which of the following is considered a consumer product by the Consumer Product Safety Commission? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 521)
a. tobacco
b. fire arms
c. medical devices
d. bicycles
3. Product liability insurance protects the manufacturing, retail, or service business against claims bodily injury or property damage arising from: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 521)
a. characteristics of the product
b. use of the product
c. design of the product
d. unintentional product defect
4. Locating warning where they are likely to be seen o heard and where the danger is refers to which characteristic? (Brauer, 60)
a. Compatibility
b. Novelty
c. Placement
d. Practicality
5. Giving people additional or more detailed data about a warning or its importance through training sessions, operating manuals or other means refers to which characteristic of warnings? (Brauer, 60)
a. Reinforcement
b. Novelty
c. Placement
d. Practicality
6. The ability to heed or comply with a warning in light of behavior that is normally expected or given a normal context for the warning describes which warning characteristic? (Brauer, 60)
a. Reinforcement
b. Novelty
c. Placement
d. Practicality
7. Which warning characteristics is defined as the ability to resist environmental conditions, such as abrasion, wear, wetness, chemicals, sunlight and so forth? (Brauer, 60)
a. Reinforcement
b. Novelty
c. Durability
d. Practicality
8. Which warning characteristic is particularly applicable to visual and audio warning devices that must act when a danger is present? (Brauer, 60)
a. Reliability
b. Novelty
c. Durability
d. Practicality
9. Which warning characteristic is concerned with the use of pictorials or symbolics and Braille to ensure that the message is received? (Brauer, 60)
a. Reliability
b. Novelty
c. Readability
d. Practicality
10. Which of the following is not a reason for naming a person or organization as a defendant in a complaint? (Brauer, 61)
a. The potential defendant has a contributory stake in the outcome
b. The potential defendant has a duty toward the plaintiff
c. The defendant may have a role in a defect causing injury to the plaintiff
d. The defendant has the ability to pay damages
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. In a trial involving product liability, engineers are often called as expert witnesses to testify about all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 61)
a. Product defects
b. design alternatives
c. non-compliance with OSHA standards
d. use of the product
2. A product may meet all necessary standards of design and contain no production flaws, yet it may be unreasonably dangerous for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 59)
a. Instructions do not list manufacturer information
b. Instructions did not adequately explain proper use
c. Warnings were not clearly state dangers of use
d. Warnings do not explain dangers of misuse
3. Which of the following characteristics of a warning is satisfied when it provides certainty of perception, without search and in a short time? (Brauer, 60)
a. Durability
b. Effectiveness
c. Conspicuous
d. Integrity
4. These identify dangers inherent to the product or dangers that may result from its use or misuse: (Brauer, 59)
a. Instructions
b. Warnings
c. Notes
d. Cautions
5. These explain what actions one must take to eliminate or reduce the likelihood of injury from a product's dangers: (Brauer, 59)
a. Instructions
b. Warnings
c. Notes
d. Cautions
6. These explain how to use a product effectively or safely: (Brauer, 59)
a. Instructions
b. Warnings
c. Notes
d. Cautions
7. Under this theory, a supplier has a duty to warn of dangers that remain in a product or could during its use: (Brauer, 59)
a. implied liability
b. negligence
c. strict liability
d. both a and c above
8. Which of the following is a common mistake employers make when writing instructions? (Brauer, 59)
a. they are imperative statements
b. they describe what the product does
c. describe the steps to follow
d. describe a step-by-step order
9. Which of the following would be helpful in reviewing the quality of warnings and labels? (Brauer, 59)
a. legal experts
b. human factors experts
c. users
d. all of the above
10. All of the following are characteristics of effective instructions and warnings, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 60)
a. Durability
b. Effectiveness
c. Readability
d. Integrity
Subject Area IV. Topic D. Fleet Safety
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Which of the following is a standard formula to compute an annual fleet accident frequency rate? (NSC, APP-A&P, p. 224)
a. no. of drivers x 1 mil. miles / 1 mil. miles
b. no. of accidents x 1 mil. miles / 1 mil. miles
c. no. of drivers x 1 mil. miles / annual miles driven
d. no. of accidents x 1 mil. miles / number of drivers
2. To often, this management responsibility is ignored by the safety professional? (Petersen, TSM, 317)
a. accountability system
b. fleet management
c. incentives and recognition
d. occupational health
3. According to the NSC, which of the following two areas should be the primary focus in a effective fleet safety program? (NSC, APP-A&P, p. 221)
a. driver error and maintenance
b. driver error and vehicle failure
c. mechanical error and maintenance
d. external conditions and vehicle maintenance
4. Statistics demonstrate that, across the board in many states, this is the number one cause of occupational death - the number one industrial killer: (Petersen, TSM, 317)
a. falls from elevation
b. forklifts accidents
c. the industrial truck
d. the motor vehicle
5. According to the NSC, an effective accident investigation in a fleet safety program should include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 222)
a. follow-up to prevent future accidents
b. investigation to determine liability
c. effective accident reporting and analysis
d. determination of corrective actions
6. According to Petersen, safety specialists may not be able to extend their influence to the fleet because: (Petersen, TSM, 318)
a. they may think fleet safety is different than plant safety
b. usual safety approaches will not work
c. they feel uncomfortable in fleet safety work
d. all of the above
7. According to the NSC, an effective driver education in a fleet safety program should include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 222)
a. driver selection process
b. driver training
c. safety-controlling activities
d. Proper supervision and implementation
8. According to Petersen, fleet safety is different from plant safety in two major ways. Which of the following is one of those ways? (Petersen, TSM, 318)
a. lack of adequate supervision
b. lack of effective enforcement
c. lack of adequate resources
d. lack of effective training
9. According to the NSC, an effective fleet safety program should include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 222)
a. accident investigation to determine fault
b. driver safety program
c. preventive maintenance program
d. written policies enforced by management
10. According to the NSC, which of the following is not part of an effective driver safety program? NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 222)
a. driver training
b. require immediate reporting of accidents
c. develop standards for accident prevention
d. develop a disciplinary file for each driver
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. According to Petersen, this is the single most important control measure that management has in fleet safety? (Petersen, TSM, 319)
a. forced supervision
b. driver selection
c. training
d. highway safety
2. Fleet safety program managers should keep these on every driver to furnish a history of all accidents: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)
a. training folder
b. fleet safety card
c. driver record card
d. disciplinary file
3. According to the NSC, when a driver becomes an accident repeater, management should make every effort to: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)
a. discipline the driver
b. rehabilitate the driver
c. discharge the driver
d. transfer the driver
4. A useful accident control tool is monthly or quarterly computation of fleet accident rates per: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)
a. 1000 manhours of driving
b. 1,000,000 miles driven
c. 200,000 total work hours
d. 200,000 miles driven
5. According to the NSC, which of the following is not a reason for keeping a monthly record of frequency rates? NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)
a. analysis of performance changes
b. record noncompliance rates
c. analysis to determine trends
d. compare fleet performance with others
6. According to the NSC, which of the following is not an effective method for checking an individual's safety record? NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)
a. interview co-workers
b. personal interview
c. consult former employers
d. check state motor vehicle departments
7. According to the NSC, the requirements of an effective driving test in traffic include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 226)
a. select a random test route
b. objective checklist of performance measures
c. test a sample typical driving situations
d. include a test of typical maneuvers
8. According to the NSC, effective safe driver training will include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 227)
a. state and federal driving rules
b. offensive driving strategies
c. what to do if an accident occurs
d. company safe driving rules
9. According to the NSC, to provide driver motivation directly or indirectly, a fleet safety program should include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 227)
a. brief report of serious accidents
b. driver interviews after each accident
c. safe driving performance recognition
d. continuous safety instruction and reminders
10. According to the NSC, which of the following is not one of the objectives of an effective preventive maintenance program? NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 230)
a. stabilize the workload
b. minimize vehicles down for repair
c. correct defects as they occur
d. prevent accidents and delays
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. U.S. DOT requires all drivers perform this activity: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 230)
a. pretrip route analysis
b. pretrip vehicle inspection
c. break inspection every thousand miles
d. report of road conditions
2. A chock should be positioned:
a. to stop vehicle from moving downhill
b. to stop vehicle from moving forward
c. to stop vehicle from moving backward
d. to stop vehicle from moving uphill
3. What is the safe position of a load on a truck bed?
a. fully forward on the bed
b. over the front axle
c. over the rear axle
d. centered on the bed
4. The goal of the this Act is to improve highway safety by ensuring that drivers of large trucks and buses are qualified to operate those vehicles and to remove unsafe and unqualified drivers from the highways:
a. Uniform Commercial Drivers Act of 1973
b. Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986
c. National Commercial Safety Act of 1970
d. American Trucking Standards Act of 1945
5. Drivers have been required to have a CDL in order to drive a commercial motor vehicle since:
a. 1986
b. 1945
c. 1992
d. 1932
6. The Federal standard requires States to issue this class of CDL to drivers who drive any combination of vehicles with a GCWR of 26,001 or more pounds provided the GVWR of the vehicle(s) being towed is in excess of 10,000 pounds:
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
7. The Federal standard requires States to issue this class of CDL to drivers who drive any single vehicle, or combination of vehicles, that does not meet the definition of Class A or Class B, but is either designed to transport 16 or more passengers, including the driver, or is placarded for hazardous materials:
a. Class C
b. Class D
c. Class E
d. Class F
8. Which of the following is not information required on all CDLs?
a. driver's date of birth, sex, and height
b. name of the issuing federal agency
c. words 'Commercial Driver's License' or 'CDL'
d. driver's State license number
9. Formerly a part of the Federal Highway Administration, this agency's primary mission is to prevent commercial motor vehicle-related fatalities and injuries.
a. National Commercial Motor Carrier Administration
b. National Highway Safety Administration
c. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
d. Federal Commercial Carrier Administration
10. In fleet safety, accident records are analyzed to compare company performance with its own previous accident rates and with the records of other companies. Which of the following equations describes a vehicle-accident frequency rate? (Petersen, TSM, 323)
a. (total number of accidents x 1 million miles)/actual mileage driven.
b. annual gross revenue/annual dollar losses from vehicle accidents.
c. total number of accidents/number of drivers.
d. (actual mileage driven/1 million miles) x number of drivers.
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Which of the following is the primary reason commercial death and accident rates have dropped greatly since World War II? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 3)
a. requirement for commercial driver license
b. driver training
c. OSHA regulations
d. increased public safety awareness
2. Which agency below has helped ensure the adoption of uniform safe practices and policies by the motor fleet and bus transit industries? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 3)
a. Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC)
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
c. Federal Postal Carrier Administration (FPCA)
d. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
3. This agency and the Interstate Commerce Commission have helped ensure the adoption of uniform safe practices and policies by the motor fleet and bus transit industries: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 3)
a. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA)
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
c. Federal Postal Carrier Administration (FPCA)
d. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
4. Which regulation addresses the transport of hazardous materials? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 4)
a. Title 10 CFR 1910.1200
b. Title 29 CFR 1926-1940
c. Title 49 CFR 100-185
d. Title 56 CFR 120-1200
5. A fleet safety program should address all of the following, EXCEPT: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 7)
a. management standards and policies
b. recording incidents and injuries
c. early return to work program
d. hiring and training
6. Which of the following is typically not part of a fleet safety program? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 7)
a. medical management
b. reward programs
c. training
d. program results
7. Despite popular perceptions, this industry experiences the fewest motor vehicle accidents: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 19)
a. local servicing
b. long haul trucking
c. local deliveries
d. mobile sales force
8. __________ percent of the drivers within motor fleet organizations can expect to be involved in an annual vehicle accident: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p.20)
a. Ten
b. Twenty
c. Thirty
d. Forty
9. One in _______ vehicle accidents experienced by motor vehicle organizations will result in a fatality: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 20)
a. three
b. five
c. seven
d. nine
10. Most crashes involving large trucks were caused by: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 20)
a. other truck drivers
b. the truck driver
c. the environment
d. automobile drivers
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. According to the Bureau of Labor Standards (BLS) which of the following injuries resulted in most time away from work? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 20)
a. stress
b. multiple injuries
c. falls
d. strains and sprains
2. According to experts, most accidents keeping drivers off the job occur: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 21)
a. away from work
b. at night
c. on the highway
d. on local streets
3. The elements of a fleet safety program include all of the following, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 30)
a. setting management standards and policies
b. recording incidents and accidents
c. disciplining for accidents
d. encouraging and rewarding performance
4. Which of the following is not one of the elements of a fleet safety program? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 30)
a. setting management standards and policies
b. policing vehicle abuse
c. recording fleet safety results
d. recognizing and rewarding performance
5. According to the Motor Fleet Manual, a good driver must do all of the following, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 31)
a. control road rage
b. avoid schedule delays
c. follow traffic regulations
d. avoid accidents
6. Which of the following is not one of the recommendations the Motor Fleet Manual lists for a good driver? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 31)
a. find satisfaction in the job
b. get along with others
c. adapt to meet existing conditions
d. drive in convoys when possible
7. Studies have found that drivers in the 25-65 age range display all of the following attributes, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 32)
a. are safer
b. are less efficient
c. less prone to hop jobs
d. lower rates of tardiness
8. According to 49 CFR 391.21, employee applications for employment must contain all of the following information, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 32)
a. unexpired CDL information
b. date of birth
c. gender
d. extent of experience operating motor vehicles
9. According to 49 CFR 391.21, which of the following is not required on a driver's employee application? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 33)
a. details of any denial, revocation, suspension of license
b. past medical history
c. employer addresses for previous three years
d. applicant's signature and date
10. Which of the following is not necessary prior to hiring a driver? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 33)
a. complete physical exam
b. psychological exam
c. behind-the-wheel test
d. statement of commitment
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Which of the following might be the most beneficial strategy if managers of small fleets do not have the unique skills to train employees who drive motor vehicles? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 34)
a. call in OSHA trainers
b. conduct the training with videos
c. rely on experienced drivers to train
d. contract with outside agencies
2. Which type of driver training is most appropriate for drivers who have experienced a number of accidents? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 37)
a. initial training
b. in-service training
c. remedial training
d. ongoing training
3. All of the following are required vehicle inspections, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 38)
a. random inspections
b. regular inspections
c. pretrip inspections
d. posttrip inspections
4. Which of the following may not be identified by reviewing past work history and reference checks? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 42)
a. responsibility for safety of cargo or passengers
b. responsibility for scheduling corrective vehicle maintenance
c. responsibility for the safety of pedestrians and other motorists
d. responsibility for the safety of the vehicle
5. All of the following are important driver preselection screening elements, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 50)
a. driving experience
b. past driving record
c. physical fitness
d. education level
6. Which of the following is not a test typically administered to determine behind-the-wheel attitudes and abilities? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 50)
a. psychological tests
b. driving skill tests
c. traffic and driving knowledge tests
d. attitude tests
7. Which of the following is not one of the IPDE steps described in the Emergency Vehicle Operator's Guide? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 50)
a. Identify any hazards that may cause an accident
b. Predict where an incident may occur
c. Decide what action to take in order to mitigate exposure
d. Execute your decision on what corrective action you will take
8. Which of the following is not one of the IPDE steps described in the Emergency Vehicle Operator's Guide? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 50)
a. Identify drivers that may cause an accident
b. Predict where an incident may occur
c. Decide what action to take in order to avoid the hazard
d. Execute your decision on what corrective action you will take
9. Which of the following is one of the two common criteria used by many fleet companies to consider a driver for employment? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 67)
a. maximum number of permissible moving violations
b. number of accidents in previous five years
c. lowest cost per highway accident
d. highest rate of nonrecordable accidents
10. Many fleet companies rely on two common criteria which considering a driver for employment. Which of the following is one of those two criteria? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 67)
a. minimum number of permissible moving violations
b. number of accidents in previous two years
c. median rate at which fleet accidents occur
d. average rate of recordable mishaps
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. According to the NSC Motor Fleet Safety Manual, supervisors must be able to identify substandard driver performance by doing all of the following, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 66)
a. personally observe driver performance
b. be alert to changes in driver personality
c. refer other driver complaints to human resources for investigation
d. check training reports, arrest records, and employee comments
2. Which of the following is a common flaw in driver screening procedures? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 67)
a. failure to conduct a MVR check annually
b. failure to conduct a MVR check after hire
c. failure to make MVR checks part of the screen process
d. failure to make MVR checks a matter of record
3. An accident is most likely to occur in the first 18 months after hire because: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)
a. new hires are busy learning the ropes
b. new hires are trying to impress their supervisors
c. new hires are unfamiliar with company policy
d. new hires have a tendency to overschedule and rush
4. New hires are responsible for 30 to 40% of fleet accidents because: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)
a. new hires are driving vehicles that differ from their personal vehicles
b. new hires are trying to impress their supervisors
c. new hires are driving more frequently
d. new hires have a tendency to lack common sense
5. Commercial vehicles with a gross vehicle weight ratio (GVWR) of _________ or more must be inspected, maintained, and repaired periodically: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)
a. 1,001 lb
b. 5,001 lb
c. 10,001 lb
d. 15,001 lb
6. The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) was established within which department? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)
a. OSHA
b. DOL
c. DOT
d. HHR
7. Which Act established the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) within the Department of Transportation? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)
a. OSHAct of 1970
b. Safety Transportation Act of 1986
c. Highway Transportation Safety and Health Act of 1991
d. Motor Carrier Safety Improvement Act of 1999
8. Which of the following is not one of the criteria for effective measurement of fleet performance? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)
a. it should be swift and provide constant feedback
b. it should be meaningful
c. it should focus on poor performance
d. it should get the supervisor's attention
9. Which of the following is one of the two primary responsibilities of a fleet safety director? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 92)
a. identifying causes of accidents
b. holding drivers accountable for accident record
c. recommend ways to react to accidents
d. conduct regular vehicle safety inspections
10. All of the following describe fundamental responsibilities of a fleet safety director, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 92)
a. identifying causes of accidents
b. holding drivers accountable for accident record
c. recommend ways to remove causal factors
d. guard against accidents by protecting employees
Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. Which of the following is not one of the required subjects in LCV Driver Training Programs? (49 CFR part 380, Appendix)
a. Basic Operation
b. Safe Operating Practices
c. Non-Driving Activities
d. Defensive Driving
2. Subjects required in the safe operating practices module in LCV Driver Training Programs must include all of the following, except: (49 CFR part 380, Appendix)
a. extreme driving conditions
b. night operations
c. interacting with pedestrians
d. speed and space management
3. Subjects required in the basic operation module in LCV Driver Training Programs must include all of the following, except: (49 CFR part 380, Appendix)
a. driver qualifications
b. cargo and weight considerations
c. regulatory factors
d. vehicle configuration factors
4. Subjects required in the advanced operations module in LCV Driver Training Programs must include all of the following, except: (49 CFR part 380, Appendix)
a. routes and trip planning
b. hazard perception
c. hazardous situations
d. maintenance and troubleshooting
5. The training provider must provide a training certificate or diploma to the entry-level driver. If an employer is the training provider, the employer must provide a training certificate or diploma to the entry-level driver. The certificate or diploma must contain all the following items of information, except: (49 CFR part 380.515)
a. date of certificate issuance
b. name of training provider
c. mailing address of employer
d. name of driver
6. The employer must provide a training certificate or diploma to the entry-level driver containing all the following items of information, except: (49 CFR part 380.515)
a. training location
b. name and signature attesting to training completion
c. statement of completion
d. name of driver
7. How long must the employer keep the records specified in 49 CFR 380.505? (49 CFR part 380.511)
a. three years after the end of employment
b. five years after the end of employment
c. as long as the employer employs the driver plus five years
d. as long as the employer employs the driver plus one year
8. According to CFR 49 CFR 380, the employer is responsible for each of the following, except: (49 CFR part 380.509)
a. reporting driver accidents to OSHA/State Plan within 24 hours
b. drivers operating a CMV in interstate commerce receives training
c. place a copy of the training certificate in driver's personnel file
d. make records available to FMCSA
9. According to CFR 49 CFR 380, entry-level driver training must include instruction addressing each of the following four areas, except: (49 CFR part 380.503)
a. driver qualification requirements
b. incident/accident reporting procedures
c. limitations driving hours
d. driver wellness and basic health maintenance
10. According to CFR 49 CFR 380, entry-level driver training must include instruction addressing each of the following four areas, except: (49 CFR part 380.503)
a. driver/pedestrian interaction
b. whistleblower protection
c. avoiding excessive use of alcohol
d. fatigue countermeasures
Subject Area IV. Topic E. Fire and Life Safety
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Fire death rates are greatest for what age groups? (Brauer, 225)
a. children under 10, adults older than 20
b. children under 10, adults older than 40
c. children under 5, adults older than 20
d. children under 5, adults older than 40
2. How many victims are involved in most fires? (Brauer, 225)
a. 1 or 2
b. 2 or 3
c. three or more
d. five or more
3. This 1911 fire is one of the greatest fire-related events and resulted in many changes in fire safety management: (Brauer, 225)
a. Chicago's Iroquois Theater
b. Triangle Shirtwaste Factory
c. Barnum and Bailey Circus
d. Beverly Hills Supper Club
4. What is the leading cause of industrial fires? (Brauer, 226)
a. friction
b. combustion sparks
c. electrical wiring
d. arson
5. What is the leading cause of civilian fires? (Brauer, 226)
a. matches
b. smoking
c. cooking
d. arson
6. What organization publishes a wide range of standards related to fire prevention, protection, engineering and building design? (Brauer, 227)
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
b. National Fire Research Council (NFRC)
c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
d. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
7. What is the rapid oxidation of material in which heat and light are emitted? (Brauer, 227)
a. fire
b. combustion
c. ignition
d. flame
8. What is an exothermic, self-sustaining reaction involving a solid fuel, a gaseous fuel or both? (Brauer, 227)
a. fire
b. combustion
c. ignition
d. flame
9. What is the initiation of combustion called? (Brauer, 227)
a. fire
b. combustion
c. ignition
d. flame
10. What is the minimum temperature that must be reached for ignition to occur? (Brauer, 227)
a. ignition temperature
b. lower flammability limit (LFL)
c. minimum combustion temperature
d. lower combustion temperature
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Which of the following is not a term that describes the ignition process when there is no external source? (Brauer, 227)
a. autoignition
b. spontaneous ignition
c. piloted ignition
d. spontaneous combustion
2. All of the following may occur when heat builds up as a result of oxidation of organic material, except: (Brauer, 227)
a. autoignition
b. spontaneous ignition
c. piloted ignition
d. spontaneous combustion
3. Which of the following is not one of the three necessary components for fire or combustion? (Brauer, 227)
a. humidity
b. oxygen
c. fuel
d. heat
4. Which of the following is not one of the three components of the fire triangle? (Brauer, 227)
a. hydroxl radicals
b. oxygen
c. fuel
d. heat
5. A better model to help remember the components involved in combustion is called the: (Brauer, 228)
a. fire triangle
b. fire cube
c. fire pyramid
d. fire ball
6. This fire model also describes the production of hydroxyl (OH) radicals: (Brauer, 228)
a. fire triangle
b. fire cube
c. fire pyramid
d. fire ball
7. In addition to listing fuel, oxygen, and heat, this fire model also includes the production of hydroxyl (OH) radicals: (Brauer, 228)
a. fire triangle
b. fire cube
c. fire pyramid
d. fire ball
8. Combustion of ordinary hydrocarbons occurs at this temperature: (Brauer, 228)
a. 500 deg F.
b. 1000 deg F.
c. 2000 deg F.
d. 3000 deg F.
9. Combustion of some metals may occur at this temperature or higher: (Brauer, 228)
a. 5000 deg F.
b. 3000 deg F.
c. 2000 deg F.
d. 1000 deg F.
10. Each kind of fuel has an energy or heat value usually called: (Brauer, 228)
a. heat unit
b. heat of combustion
c. heat thermal unit
d. heat of reaction
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. The rate of heat produced during combustion is a function of: (Brauer, 228)
a. rate of combustion
b. nature of fuel
c. oxygen content
d. humidity
2. What happens to the rate of heat production when high pressure air or gases with an oxygen content are applied to combustion? (Brauer, 228)
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. truncates
3. What is the total heat produced during a fire involving 20 lbs of gasoline with a heat of combustion value of 19,000 BTU/lb? (Brauer, 228)
a. 90,500 BTU
b. 190,000 BTU
c. 380,000 BTU
d. 720,000 BTU
4. A fire involving 20 lbs of gasoline with a heat of combustion value of 19,000 BTU/lb would produce the same heat as: (Brauer, 228)
a. 10 lbs of oil with a heat of combustion of 10,000 BTU
b. 10 lbs of diesel fuel with a heat of combustion of 26,000 BTU
c. 30 lbs of wood with a heat of combustion of 5,5000 BTU
d. 50 lbs of paper with a heat of combustion of 7,2000 BTU
5. Which formula below is used to determine the total heat produced in a fire? (Brauer, 228)
a. fuel weight (lbs) x heat of combustion (BTU)
b. (fuel weight (lbs) x heat of combustion)/rate of combustion (min.)
c. (rate of combustion (sec) x heat of combustion)/weight of fuel (lbs.)
d. (rate of combustion (sec) x heat of combustion)/200,000
6. Heat is transferred from the fire to the surrounding area by all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 228)
a. convection
b. transference
c. conduction
d. radiation
7. Heat is transferred from most fires to the surrounding area by: (Brauer, 228)
a. convection
b. transference
c. conduction
d. radiation
8. The upward movement of hot gases is driven by what condition? (Brauer, 228)
a. geometry
b. air flow
c. thermal gradient
d. temperature
9. Radiation of heat is highly dependent on which of the following? (Brauer, 228)
a. geometry
b. air flow
c. thermal gradient
d. temperature
10. A nearby building may actually burst into flames if too much heat is absorbed by: (Brauer, 228)
a. radiative transfer
b. rapid air flow
c. intense thermal gradient
d. rapid temperature rise
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. The fire triangle states we may extinguish a fire using any one of three approaches. Which of the following is not one of these approaches? (Brauer, 229)
a. cool the fire
b. limit the oxygen supply
c. decrease pressure
d. remove the fuel
2. Which of the following is the most common gas produced by incomplete combustion? (Brauer, 229)
a. hydrogen cyanide
b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
d. sulfur dioxide
3. What type of fire suppression system works by applying gas-filled bubbles formed from water-based and other materials? (Brauer, 254)
a. carbon dioxide
b. halon
c. dry chemicals
d. foam
4. Which common gas produced by fires is a major cause of death and is lethal even at low levels? (Brauer, 229)
a. hydrogen cyanide
b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
d. sulfur dioxide
5. Which common gas produced by fires kills by attaching to the hemoglobin of red blood cells? (Brauer, 229)
a. hydrogen cyanide
b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
d. sulfur dioxide
6. Which common gas produced by fires may be found in fire fighters several days following a fire? (Brauer, 229)
a. acrolein
b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
d. ammonia
7. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the vertical movement of gases in a fire? (Brauer, 230)
a. looseness of construction
b. external winds
c. difference between internal and external temperature
d. presence of vertical openings
8. Which common gas produced by fires is not typically harmful at low levels? (Brauer, 229)
a. acrolein
b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
d. ammonia
9. Which gas produced by fires is a strong respiratory irritant that can cause death in small concentrations? (Brauer, 229)
a. acrolein
b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
d. ammonia
10. Which gas produced by fires is an eye and nose irritant that can cause breathing difficulty? (Brauer, 229)
a. acrolein
b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
d. ammonia
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. During a fire, why do hot gases and smoke rise above the flame? (Brauer, 229-230)
a. due to their lower density
b. due to their higher temperature
c. due to cooler gases below pushing up
d. due to increased vapor density
2. During a fire, why do hot gases expand in volume? (Brauer, 230)
a. due to their lower density
b. due to their higher temperature
c. due to cooler gases below pushing up
d. due to increased vapor density
3. What will a hot layer do once it is confined? (Brauer, 230)
a. increase in thickness
b. dissipate due to pressure
c. increase back pressure
d. push into cool levels above
4. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the vertical movement of gases in a fire? (Brauer, 230)
a. tightness of construction
b. external winds
c. difference between internal and external temperature
d. presence of horizontal openings
5. What is the effect called when pressure differentials cause cool air to rush in at the lowest level of a building and flow out at the top level? (Brauer, 230)
a. in and out
b. external push
c. stack effect
d. back pressure
6. Studies have shown that the amount of smoke produced is related to: (Brauer, 231)
a. temperature of the fire
b. perimeter of the fire
c. height of the clear zone of air
d. b and c above
7. The NFPA classification system for flammable and combustible liquids uses all of the following criteria, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 231)
a. flash point
b. vapor pressure
c. heat of combustion
d. anticipated ambient temperature conditions
8. The property of a liquid in a closed container is called: (Brauer, 231)
a. flash point
b. vapor pressure
c. vapor point
d. ambient pressure
9. The temperature at which the equilibrium vapor pressure of a liquid equals the total pressure on the surface: (Brauer, 231)
a. flash point
b. vapor pressure
c. vapor point
d. boiling point
10. What is the result if there is too much or too little fuel in a mixture of fuel and air? (Brauer, 233)
a. combustion will increase
b. combustion will not occur
c. combustion will be incomplete
d. combustion will not be affected
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Which of the following describes the flash point of a flammable liquid? (Brauer, 233)
a. less than 100 deg F.
b. less than 73 deg F.
c. more than 100 deg F.
d. more than 140 deg F.
2. What is the minimum concentration of vapor-air below which propagation of a flame will not occur? (Brauer, 233)
a. lower flash limit (LFL)
b. lower flammable limit (LFL)
c. lower ignition limit (LIL)
d. lower combustion limit (LCL)
3. What is the maximum concentration of vapor-air above which propagation of a flame will not occur? (Brauer, 233)
a. upper flash limit (UFL)
b. upper combustion limit (UCL)
c. upper ignition limit (UIL
d. upper flammable limit (UFL)
4. Mixtures of fuel and oxygen said to be too rich exist above the: (Brauer, 233)
a. upper flash limit (UFL)
b. upper combustion limit (UCL)
c. upper ignition limit (UIL
d. upper flammable limit (UFL)
5. Mixtures of fuel and oxygen said to be too lean exist below the: (Brauer, 233)
a. lower flash limit (LFL)
b. lower flammable limit (LFL)
c. lower ignition limit (LIL)
d. lower combustion limit (LCL)
6. Mixtures of fuel and oxygen between the LFL and UFL are said to exist within the: (Brauer, 233)
a. flash region
b. flammable range
c. ignition range
d. combustion region
7. Those gases that exist at standard temperatures and pressures and will burn in normal concentrations of oxygen in air are called: (Brauer, 235)
a. reactive gases
b. combustible gases
c. flammable gases
d. inert gases
8. Those gases that do not burn in any concentration of air or oxygen are called: (Brauer, 235)
a. nonreactive gases
b. noncombustible gases
c. nonflammable gases
d. inert gases
9. Those gases that do not support combustion are called: (Brauer, 235)
a. nonreactive gases
b. noncombustible gases
c. nonflammable gases
d. inert gases
10. Those gases that react with other materials in processes other than combustion are called: (Brauer, 235)
a. reactive gases
b. combustible gases
c. flammable gases
d. inert gases
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. Which of the following is not one of the three categories of fire hazards developed by the NFPA? (Brauer, 236)
a. health hazard
b. safety hazard
c. flammability
d. reactivity
2. Which of the following numbers would designate the existence of no special hazards in the NFPA Diamond symbol system for identification of hazardous materials? (Brauer, 237)
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
3. Which of the following NFPA Diamond numbers would inform the reader that materials will rapidly or completely vaporize at normal ambient temperatures? (Brauer, 237)
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
4. Which of the following is not an objective of fire safety in buildings? (Brauer, 238)
a. getting occupants out safely
b. preserving evidence for later analysis
c. minimizing property loss
d. minimizing interruption of operations
5. The strategy to restrict horizontal and vertical movement of fire, smoke and heat is called: (Brauer, 241)
a. stratification
b. limited movement
c. confinement
d. compartmentation
6. Which of the following is not one of the three stages of a fire? (Brauer, 241)
a. creation
b. growth
c. full development
d. decay
7. The severity of a fire in terms of intensity and duration is a function of: (Brauer, 241)
a. quantity of combustibles available
b. burning rate of combustibles
c. air available for combustion
d. all of the above
8. The maximum heat released if all combustibles in a fire area burn, including heat from combustible contents and combustible interior finish, floor and structural materials is called: (Brauer, 241)
a. British Thermal Load (BTL)
b. total combustion load
c. heat load
d. fire load
9. Each of the following is described as a method to limit the spread of fire along horizontal construction, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 243-244)
a. curtain boards
b. fire walls
c. venting
d. alarms
10. Life safety deals with providing people with a reasonable degree of safety and opportunity to exit the facility if a fire occurs. Life safety is explained in detail within: (Brauer, 248)
a. NFPA 100
b. NFPA 101
c. NFPA 110
d. NFPA 111
Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. Which of the following categories is not listed by life safety codes as a class of hazard? (Brauer, 248)
a. low
b. ordinary
c. high
d. extreme
2. There are three parts to the means of egress. Which of the following is not one of them? (Brauer, 248)
a. exit location
b. exit access
c. exit
d. exit discharge
3. This is a path leading to the entrance to an exit: (Brauer, 248)
a. exit location
b. exit access
c. exit
d. exit discharge
4. This is a protected zone of a building the leads outdoors at ground level: (Brauer, 248)
a. exit location
b. exit access
c. exit
d. exit discharge
5. This is bounded by one or more entrances to it and one or more doors to leave it at ground level: (Brauer, 249)
a. exit location
b. exit access
c. exit
d. exit discharge
6. This is located between the protected exit and outside ground where the doors do not open directly to the outside ground: (Brauer, 249)
a. exit location
b. exit access
c. exit
d. exit discharge
7. Exits are measured in terms of: (Brauer, 249)
a. exit location
b. exit units
c. exit access
d. exit discharge
8. Exit units are _______ inches wide, the average width of a man at shoulder height. (Brauer, 249)
a. 22
b. 28
c. 33
d. 38
9. The number of people expected to be present at one time in a building or floor for which exits are provided is called the: (Brauer, 249)
a. occupant capacity
b. occupant load
c. exit capacity
d. total exist units
10. How may routes of egress should be provided for each exit in effective exit design? (Brauer, 249)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Practice Questions - Bank 9
1. Which of the following computations is used to determine occupant load? (Brauer, 250)
a. floor area / allowable capacity per exit unit
b. number of exit units x floor area
c. floor area / allowable occupant load
d. number of exit units / floor area
2. Which of the following computations is used to determine the number of necessary exit units? (Brauer, 250)
a. occupant load / allowable capacity per exit unit
b. number of exit units x floor area
c. floor area / allowable occupant load
d. number of exit units / floor area
3. All of the following are kinds of heat detectors, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 251)
a. fixed temperature detectors
b. variable humidity detectors
c. rate-of-rise detectors
d. rate compensation detectors
4. These detectors are designed to operate when a preset temperature is reached: (Brauer, 251)
a. fixed temperature detectors
b. flame detectors
c. rate-of-rise detectors
d. rate compensation detectors
5. These detectors respond to fires that flame up quickly but do not react to slower changes in ambient temperature that would normally be expected: (Brauer, 251)
a. fixed temperature detectors
b. smoke detectors
c. rate-of-rise detectors
d. rate compensation detectors
6. These detectors respond to a preset temperature, but is less sensitive to thermal lag than a fixed temperature device: (Brauer, 251)
a. fixed temperature detectors
b. smoke detectors
c. rate-of-rise detectors
d. rate compensation detectors
7. These detectors monitor for certain wavelengths in the field of view of the sensing device: (Brauer, 251)
a. flame detectors
b. smoke detectors
c. rate-of-rise detectors
d. rate compensation detectors
8. These detectors sense the presence of certain gases produced by combustion in most fires: (Brauer, 252)
a. flame detectors
b. smoke detectors
c. rate-of-rise detectors
d. gas detectors
9. What type of fire involves ordinary combustibles like wood, paper, and cloth? (Brauer, 253)
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
10. What type of fire involves electrical equipment fires? (Brauer, 253)
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
Practice Questions - Bank 10
1. What type of fire involves flammable and combustible liquids, flammable gases, greases and oils? (Brauer, 253)
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
2. What type of fire involves combustible metals? (Brauer, 253)
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
3. What type of sprinkler system contains water under pressure at all times? (Brauer, 254)
a. wet-pipe system
b. dry-pipe system
c. deluge system
d. combined system
4. What type of sprinkler system contains air or nitrogen under pressure at all times? (Brauer, 254)
a. wet-pipe system
b. dry-pipe system
c. preaction
d. combined system
5. What type of sprinkler system has features of a dry-pipe system and a preaction system? (Brauer, 254)
a. wet-pipe system
b. dry-pipe system
c. deluge system
d. combined system
6. What type of sprinkler system is similar to the preaction system with all sprinklers being on all the time? (Brauer, 254)
a. wet-pipe system
b. dry-pipe system
c. deluge system
d. combined system
7. What type of sprinkler system is a special type of dry-pipe system in which pipes may or may not be under pressure and sensors are located at the sprinkler heads? (Brauer, 254)
a. wet-pipe system
b. preaction system
c. deluge system
d. combined system
8. What type of fire suppression system works by reducing the oxygen content of air and by cooling, and is most suitable for Class B fires? (Brauer, 254)
a. carbon dioxide
b. halon
c. dry chemicals
d. foam
9. What type of fire suppression system employ a number of chemicals and are most effective in suppressing Class B and C fires? (Brauer, 254)
a. carbon dioxide
b. halon
c. dry chemicals
d. foam
10. What type of fire suppression system works by interrupting the hydroxl radical of combustion? (Brauer, 254)
a. carbon dioxide
b. halon
c. dry chemicals
d. foam
Practice Questions - Bank 11
1. What type of fire suppression system works by applying gas-filled bubbles formed from water-based and other materials? (Brauer, 254)
a. carbon dioxide
b. halon
c. dry chemicals
d. foam
Subject Area IV. Topic F. Health and Wellness
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Health-promotion programs educate employees on how to maintain health. Which of the following is true concerning health-promotion programs? (NSC, OHS, 275)
a. they may be comprehensive
b. they may focus on a single risk factor
c. they may enhance both psychological and physical health
d. all of the above are true
2. Which type of health-promotion program shows greater cost efficacy? (NSC, OHS, 275)
a. a comprehensive program
b. a focused (single risk factor) program
c. a program assigned to an external contractor
d. a program conducted by employees
3. This type of health-promotion program identifies organizational risk factors, such as environmental toxins, in addition to individual risk factors: (NSC, OHS, 275)
a. a comprehensive program
b. a focused (single risk factor) program
c. a program assigned to an external contractor
d. a program conducted by employees
4. According to the Bureau of National Affairs, what percentage of worker absenteeism is avoidable through appropriate attention to the physical and emotional needs of employees? (NSC, OHS, 277)
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75
5. This type of health-promotion program focus on the early detection of and behavioral intervention into one of more detectable risk factors: (NSC, OHS, 275)
a. a comprehensive program
b. a focused (single risk factor) program
c. a disease prevention program
d. a program conducted by employees
6. This health-promotion program addresses problems through policy-level organizational changes, and personal treatments and referrals: (NSC, OHS, 275)
a. a comprehensive program
b. a focused (single risk factor) program
c. a disease prevention program
d. an ergonomics program
7. In an organization with a simple structure (see Are I, Section E), the success or failure of a health-promotion may depend on: (NSC, OHS, 276)
a. policy formulation
b. interest of the CEO
c. matrix decision-making
d. labor-management collaboration
8. Health-promotion and disease-prevention programs derive their empirical and clinical base from the academic discipline of: (NSC, OHS, 276)
a. behavior-based safety
b. homeopathy
c. behavioral medicine
d. industrial psychology
9. This academic discipline seeks to fuse the best medical and behavioral interventions to create a more health- and cost-effective approach to health-promotion program management: (NSC, OHS, 276)
a. behavior-based safety
b. homeopathy
c. behavioral medicine
d. industrial psychology
10. All of the following are relatively objective risk factors representing the focus of the majority of evaluations of health-promotion programs, EXCEPT: (NSC, OHS, 280)
a. smoking
b. stress
c. blood pressure
d. physical fitness
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimate that _____ of all premature deaths in adults in the United States are from lifestyle-related causes: (CDC)
a. 10%
b. under 20 percent
c. over half
d. virtually all
2. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimate that _____ of premature deaths are from problems that are treatable through traditional medical care: (CDC)
a. 10%
b. less than one fifth
c. over half
d. virtually all
3. The U.S. Preventive Health Services Task Force recommends 20 to 60 minutes of aerobic exercise: (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)
a. one to two times a day
b. once a week
c. one to three times a week
d. at least five times a week
4. This worksite-based program assists in the identification and resolution of productivity problems associated with employees impaired by personal concerns that may adversely affect employee job performance: (HHS)
a. health awareness program
b. drug free workplace
c. employee assistance program
d. employee healthful workplace
5. Modifiable risk factors medically relevant to wellness programs include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, xii)
a. smoking
b. lack of physical exercise
c. group dynamics
d. diet
6. Which of the following is true according to recent studies on the benefits of exercise? (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)
a. regular exercisers miss less work
b. increased productivity
c. greater concentration
d. all of the above are true
7. The U.S. Preventive Health Services Task Force recommends _____ of aerobic exercise three to five times a week: (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)
a. 20-60 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 90 minutes
d. 1-3 hours
8. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of regular exercise? (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)
a. lowered blood pressure
b. stable blood fat
c. stable body weight
d. lower cholesterol
9. All of the following are benefits of regular exercise, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)
a. lower perceived stress
b. stable blood sugar
c. stable body weight
d. higher cholesterol
10. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factors medically relevant to wellness programs? (Grant & Brisbin, xii)
a. age
b. stress reduction
c. workstation design
d. genetic proclivity
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. Stress in the workplace results in all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, xiv)
a. hypotension
b. headaches
c. back strain
d. asthma
2. Stress in the workplace results in all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, xiv)
a. hypertension
b. diabetes
c. neck strain
d. compression
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a healthy workplace? (Grant & Brisbin, 4)
a. clearly defined objectives
b. commitment to production first
c. respect and admiration for contributions
d. support for innovation
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a healthy workplace? (Grant & Brisbin, 4)
a. recognition of employees before peers
b. commitment to quality at the time of production
c. promotion of healthy lifestyles and activities
d. health policy with firm accountability
5. A wellness director needs a strong background in all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 6)
a. business management
b. physical sciences
c. safety engineering
d. counseling
6. Which of the following is a critical wellness director strength? (Grant & Brisbin, 6-7)
a. ability to motivate
b. maintain tight control
c. ability to speak and write well
d. work cooperatively
7. To perform most effectively, the wellness director needs be a subject matter expert in all of the following areas, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 12-15)
a. nutrition
b. smoking cessation
c. stress management
d. engineering controls
8. All of the following areas of expertise are important prerequisites for a wellness director, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 12-15)
a. back care
b. production processes
c. weight management
d. drug and alcohol abuse
9. Which of the following program areas of a wellness program helps to slow the rapidly escalating rate of related workers' compensation claims? (Grant & Brisbin, 6-7)
a. stress management program
b. nutritional education and weight management
c. smoking cessation program
d. drug and alcohol education and rehabilitation
10. These programs are often initiated through employee assistance programs through the community, state, or federal government: (Grant & Brisbin, 15)
a. back care
b. production processes
c. weight management
d. drug and alcohol abuse
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. In order for a wellness program to be effective it must be: (Grant & Brisbin, 16)
a. owned by management
b. narrowly defined
c. comprehensive
d. managed by employees
2. The first step to implementing a workplace wellness program is the: (Grant & Brisbin, 17)
a. development of a policy statement
b. determine a budget
c. get bids from contractors
d. survey employees
3. To determine if the wellness program is making a difference, the employer should conduct a/an: (Grant & Brisbin, 18)
a. employee survey
b. management evaluation
c. program audit
d. workplace inspection
4. All of the following would be a goal of the workplace wellness program, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 17)
a. help employees achieve a lifestyle that promotes health
b. ensure injured employees return to work as soon as possible
c. develop a workforce conscious of health and safety practices
d. increase worker productivity
5. Historically, wellness programs have: (Grant & Brisbin, 18)
a. been mandatory
b. relied on negative reinforcement
c. been completely voluntary
d. met with little enthusiasm
6. A wellness program with mandatory requirements is thought by some employees to be: (Grant & Brisbin, 18)
a. less than adequate system design
b. ineffective in the long term
c. infringement of rights
d. appropriate with employee consent
7. To determine if the wellness program is making a difference, the employer should conduct a/an: (Grant & Brisbin, 18)
a. ask employees
b. management evaluation
c. attitude check
d. baseline analysis
8. The most effective wellness program will do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 19)
a. encourage full participation
b. require full participation
c. recognize full participation
d. educate all employees on the program
9. First-year wellness programs can experience as low as 10% participation. What is the most likely cause of a very low turnout? (Grant & Brisbin, 19)
a. the program is too narrowly focused
b. management disinterest
c. failure to discipline
d. a and b above
10. Each of the following is one of the three phases to a comprehensive workplace wellness program, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 20)
a. needs and interest assessment
b. implementation of specific programs
c. monthly review of participation
d. conduct ongoing employee evaluation
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. A wellness program needs assessment will gather baseline data on all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 20-21)
a. current lifestyle
b. employee interest in wellness
c. current employee productivity
d. accident history
2. A phase one wellness program needs assessment will gather baseline data on all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 20-21)
a. current workers' compensation costs
b. current employee work schedules
c. current employee absenteeism
d. current health risk and fitness levels
3. Which of the following questionnaires would be used to acquire answers to phase one baseline data needs assessment: (Grant & Brisbin, 21)
a. force-field analysis
b. employee interest surveys
c. health and fitness assessment
d. b and c above
4. All of the following are typical components of an onsite fitness field test and health screening, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 21)
a. percent body fat
b. blood pressure
c. heart rate
d. liver function
5. All of the following are typical components of an onsite fitness field test and health screening, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 21)
a. aerobic capacity
b. muscle strength and endurance
c. skin rebound
d. flexibility
6. All of the following are typical components of an onsite fitness field test and health screening, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 21)
a. triglycerides
b. posture
c. total cholesterol
d. blood glucose levels
7. Which of the following is not typically thought to be a general long term goal of an employer wellness program? (Grant & Brisbin, 22)
a. decrease program costs
b. design and implement a program
c. generate full participation in the program
d. improve health, fitness, and productivity
8. All of the following are benefits of conducting a wellness program employee interest survey, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 25)
a. inexpensive way to start the program
b. uncovers most important program features
c. identifies volunteers and subject matter experts
d. reveals forces resisting change
9. This step in wellness program development identifies employee interests and desires so that they can be brought into line with their health needs: (Grant & Brisbin, 25)
a. budgetary review
b. health screening
c. training
d. evaluation
10. An effective method to ensure long term growth of a wellness program is to: (Grant & Brisbin, 26)
a. review budgetary requirements
b. conduct health screening
c. track program results
d. administer a survey
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Studies indicate that employee participation in workplace wellness programs is severely reduced when: (Grant & Brisbin, 20-21)
a. no program director is assigned
b. employees lack time to participate
c. program costs are charged to employees
d. employees are not trained on programs
2. The full benefits of a wellness program cannot be realized without: (Grant & Brisbin, 30)
a. full employee participation
b. a fully funded exercise program
c. lack of variety
d. management controls
3. Recovering alcoholics and substance abuse addicts experience a greater degree of success in the recovery process when ___________ is included in their wellness program: (Grant & Brisbin, 33)
a. routine work
b. frequent feedback
c. regular exercise
d. close supervision
4. This is a critical characteristic of a long-term successful wellness program: (Grant & Brisbin, 33)
a. routine
b. variety
c. feedback
d. supervision
5. This activity is frequently the most popular component of a wellness program: (Grant & Brisbin, 37)
a. running
b. dance
c. walking
d. aerobics
6. This activity is should be considered a more advanced level of activity in a wellness program: (Grant & Brisbin, 37)
a. running
b. dance
c. walking
d. aerobics
7. This wellness program activity is conducted to increase flexibility and relaxation: (Grant & Brisbin, 40)
a. running
b. dance
c. walking
d. stretching
8. A stretching program can be quite effective in achieving all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 41)
a. reduce stress
b. reduce repetitive motion injuries
c. varicose veins
d. improved productivity
9. This wellness activity integrates cardiovascular conditioning and resistance training into a class format: (Grant & Brisbin, 42-43)
a. aerobics
b. walking
c. circuit training
d. yoga
10. A disadvantage of an off-site fitness program is: (Grant & Brisbin, 44)
a. difficult to track results
b. loss of supervisory and management control
c. difficult to conduct follow-up assessment
d. all of the above
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. Which of the following is not a goal in a smoking cessation and tobacco education program? (Grant & Brisbin, 48)
a. encourage smokers to quit
b. discourage nonsmokers from starting
c. educating on secondhand smoke
d. restrict smoking areas
2. The wellness director should be aware of smoking cessation program challenges. All of the following are reasons a smoking cessation program might fail, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 48)
a. most smokers don't want to quit
b. smokers feeling intimidated by a smoke-free policy
c. smokers feeling discriminated against
d. negative workplace environment
3. It is most effective to begin a weight management program by offering a general nutrition class. Which of the following is a benefit of this approach? (Grant & Brisbin, 55)
a. it avoids the risk generating animosity
b. it singles out those who are overweight
c. it addresses unobserved diet-related risk factors
d. both a and c above
4. Which of the following is not a focus area in a weight management program? (Grant & Brisbin, 56-57)
a. reduce diet-related health risks
b. weight loss through high protein-low carbohydrate diets
c. decrease heart disease
d. decrease incidence of cancer
5. This term is defined as any force or influence which causes one to feel anxious about one's ability to continue to perform one's job duties in a satisfactory manner: (Grant & Brisbin, 62)
a. anxiety
b. fear
c. stress
d. worry
6. Stress is always perceived as negative when a worker has no control over the _______ of the stressor or the _______ of its influence: (Grant & Brisbin, 62)
a. level, frequency
b. magnitude, duration
c. type, degree
d. force, magnitude
7. Which of the following should be interviewed by the wellness director when initially designing the stress management program? (Grant & Brisbin, 64)
a. psychology professionals
b. marriage counselors
c. medical doctors
d. safety managers
8. The only effective means that a prospective employer has to determine the physical limitations of an employee candidate is through the use of a: (Grant & Brisbin, 76)
a. job application
b. preemployment job interview
c. preemployment physical exam
d. referral process
9. The goal of this program is to fully rehabilitate the worker to his or her former position of productivity and responsibility: (Grant & Brisbin, 80)
a. job hazard analysis
b. preemployment interview
c. early return to work
d. medical management
10. Employee recognition for achievement in a wellness program activity should be focused primarily on: (Grant & Brisbin, 107)
a. individual performance
b. team performance
c. accident record
d. positive peer pressure
Subject Area IV. Topic G. Security
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. The President's Commission on Law Enforcement and the Administration of Justice reported that, fear of crime led to ______ of the American population radically changing their lifestyles: (NSC, APM-SM, 7)
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 70%
2. In 1993 NIOSH published an alert regarding workplace homicide that stated homicide accounted for ________ of all such deaths: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 20%
d. 250%
3. In 1993 NIOSH published an alert regarding workplace homicide that stated homicide was the leading cause of death from occupational injury among __________: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)
a. men
b. fast food employees
c. health care professionals
d. women
4. NIOSH published the 1993 Preventing Violence in the Workplace alert for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)
a. Identify high-risk occupations and workplaces
b. Inform employers and workers about their risk
c. Require employers and workers to evaluate risk
d. Encourage researchers to gather detailed information
5. A 1996 National Institute of Justice study found that victims are seeking compensation from owners and managers of properties on which: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)
a. crimes take place with increasing frequency
b. crimes result in death
c. crimes are the result of employer negligence
d. crimes occur during hours of operation
6. In premises-liability cases, juries are told that crime was the result of a perpetrator's ability to: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)
a. commit a crime without being detected
b. repeated commit a crime on premises
c. take advantage of a lack of security
d. commit a crime during hours of operation
7. What is the lesson history has taught regarding crime? (NSC, APM-SM, 8)
a. crime is controlled when security measures are taken
b. crime will flourish where property is left to deteriorate
c. crime can occur anytime, anywhere
d. crime is inversely proportional to security measures
8. Society demands prompting the need for increased private security include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)
a. Increasing insurance rates
b. Demands for safer work environments
c. EPA regulatory requirements
d. Grow of private sector holdings
9. Society demands prompting the need for increased private security include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)
a. Increasing media coverage
b. Demands for safer work environments
c. OSHA regulatory requirements
d. Grow of private sector holdings
10. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce statistics indicate nearly 35% of all businesses failed because of: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)
a. poor business management
b. workers' compensation rates
c. internal theft and drug abuse
d. competition from overseas firms
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. The primary questions to answer when creating a security program in an organization includes all of the following except: (NSC, APM-SM, 25)
a. How can security improve profitability?
b. What must we do to protect main interests?
c. What programs are essential?
d. How to we maintain confidentiality?
2. The primary questions to answer when creating a security program in an organization includes all of the following except: (NSC, APM-SM, 25)
a. How can security improve profitability?
b. What must we do to prevent disclosure?
c. How much money is needed to fund programs?
d. How much staff is needed to carry out tasks?
3. Which of the below reflect the hierarchy upon which security programs are based? (NSC, APM-SM, 25-26)
a. environment, personnel, facility, corporate
b. personnel, environment, corporate facility
c. corporate, facility, personnel, environment
d. facility, personnel, corporate environment
4. Which of the following describes the basic strategy employed by security managers? (NSC, APM-SM, 26)
a. protect through levels of hierarchy
b. protect by setting up a series of barriers
c. protect by employing warnings, cautions, sign
d. protect through esoteric language
5. One of the critical problems in developing effective security programs is: (NSC, APM-SM, 28)
a. economic resources
b. program performance
c. goal ambiguity
d. policy consensus
6. The security manager must ensure all of the following are properly addressed, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 26)
a. Determine security needs of the company
b. Determine availability of company resources
c. Develop an acceptable strategic response
d. Ensure appropriate reactive planning
7. The security manager must ensure all of the following are properly addressed, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 26)
a. Obtain necessary budgetary approval
b. Organize approved resources
c. Focus on short-term responses
d. Establish company acceptance of plans
8. The security manager must ensure all of the following are properly addressed, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 26)
a. Ensure adequate training
b. Reduce forces resisting change
c. Develop and implement adequate control systems
d. Implement required reporting and data management systems
9. The security manager must ensure all of the following are properly addressed, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 26)
a. Ensure separation of management and labor
b. Select key areas of corporate staff responsibility
c. Ensure there is adequate backup support
d. Develop plans for active involvement by all management levels
10. The security manager must ensure all of the following are properly addressed, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 26)
a. Ensure program results are evaluated regularly
b. Ensure an improvement process is coordinated
c. Develop active involvement in asset-protection activities
d. Select key external threats and weaknesses
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. This process is only as useful as the development of countermeasures used to insure the protection of company assets: (NSC, APM-SM, 27)
a. vulnerability analysis
b. job safety analysis
c. strategic plan
d. terrorism modeling
2. The major reasons losses occur include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 27)
a. failure to recognize vulnerabilities
b. not properly reacting after the loss
c. not responding to a changing environment
d. failure to use proper software, hardware or people
3. Which of the below informs and defines responsibilities for the security function within a company? (NSC, APM-SM, 28)
a. security strategy
b. security plan
c. security policy
d. security process
4. All of the following describe motivations for effective security programs, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 28)
a. desire for reduced costs
b. create employee awareness
c. inform employees of their responsibilities
d. dissuade those who would commit crime
5. All of the following describe motivations for effective security programs, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 28)
a. involve employees in loss preventions activities
b. gain market-share through reduced losses
c. modify values, behavior, or attitudes
d. desire to provide job enhancement
6. In the estimation of those participating in a security program, a secure company environment must be: (NSC, APM-SM, 28)
a. foolproof
b. free from mistrust
c. undeniably secure
d. worth securing
7. What is considered the most important aspect of the security management process? (NSC, APM-SM, 30)
a. cost/benefit of security activities
b. response to threats, risks, and vulnerabilities
c. anticipation of threats, risks, and vulnerabilities
d. post-response evaluation and improvement
8. Which of the following is management technique to increasingly used to develop best practices within the security function: (NSC, APM-SM, 30)
a. gap analysis
b. force-field analysis
c. cost/benefit analysis
d. benchmarking
9. The internal security consultant is becoming more common in corporations for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 47)
a. enables minimum staffing
b. can ensure proper accountability
c. can serve as an emergency response source
d. can coordinate outside services
10. Which of the following defines 'risk' within the context of security? (NSC, APM-SM, 69-70)
a. the uncertainty of financial loss
b. variations between actual and expected results
c. possible occurrence of an undesirable event
d. probability that a loss has occurred or will occur
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. To prevent a crime or loss from occurring, an organization must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)
a. react quickly when a loss does occur
b. anticipate that an event can occur
c. estimate or appraise the degree of risk associated with the event
d. initiate steps to lessen the chances of the event occurring
2. To prevent a crime or loss from occurring, an organization must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)
a. anticipate that an event can occur
b. recognize and acknowledge that the even can occur
c. hope and pray the event does not occur
d. initiate steps to lessen the chances of the event occurring
3. Which of the below are the two distinct types of risk? (NSC, APM-SM, 70)
a. dynamic risk and pure risk
b. implied and assumed risk
c. actual and estimated risk
d. high and low
4. Which of the following defines dynamic risk? (NSC, APM-SM, 70)
a. risks that change with the business environment
b. risks that may result in a number of outcomes
c. risks associated with the cost of doing business
d. risks that carry no possibility of return on investment
5. Which of the following defines pure risk? (NSC, APM-SM, 70)
a. risks that change with the business environment
b. risks that may result in a number of outcomes
c. risks associated with the cost of doing business
d. risks that carry no possibility of return on investment
6. Crime and loss prevention concentrates on the assessment and control _____ factors: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)
a. pure risks
b. dynamic risks
c. static risks
d. assumed risks
7. For a crime or loss to occur, all of the following must exist at the same time, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)
a. a target or victim
b. desire to commit the crime
c. lack of consequences
d. opportunity to commit the crime
8. Crimes can be grouped loosely into which two categories: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)
a. crimes against person or state
b. crimes against persons or property
c. crimes against persons or organizations
d. crimes against private or public persons
9. The more ways a particular criminal event can occur in given circumstances, the greater is the: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. severity
b. risk
c. probability
d. certainty
10. Loss probability can be loosely grouped into all of the following categories, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. virtually certain
b. highly probable
c. improbable
d. uncertain
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. Loss probability can be loosely grouped into all of the following categories, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. probably certain
b. highly probable
c. moderately probable
d. probability unknown
2. Which of the following terms describes the negative impact a loss might have on an organization's assets? (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. risk
b. probability
c. criticality
d. severity
3. Criticality is defined as: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. a sudden positive or negative change
b. a turning point
c. an unstable condition
d. all of the above
4. Which of the following does not describe a criticality category? (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. fatal
b. moderately serious
c. relatively unimportant
d. non-injury
5. Which of the following does not describe a criticality category? (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. fatal
b. relatively fatal
c. moderately serious
d. serious unknown
6. Which of the following does not describe a criticality category? (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. fatal
b. relatively unknown
c. very serious
d. serious unknown
7. This loss would have involve loss of key personnel and the loss of a facility or equipment necessary to the manufacture of a produce: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. fatal
b. relatively fatal
c. moderately serious
d. serious unknown
8. This loss would require a major change in investment policy and have major impact on the balance sheet: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. very serious
b. relatively fatal
c. moderately serious
d. serious unknown
9. This loss would include petty larcenies or small-scale fire in nonessential areas: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. very serious
b. relatively unimportant
c. moderately serious
d. serious unknown
10. Within security risk analysis there is a close relationship between these two variables: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)
a. condition and exposure
b. probability and severity
c. probability and criticality
d. condition and severity
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Which of the following is not one of the five ways the Small Business Administration recommends to manage pure risks? (NSC, APM-SM, 72)
a. avoidance
b. reduction
c. spreading
d. restricting
2. Which of the following is not one of the five ways the Small Business Administration recommends to manage pure risks? (NSC, APM-SM, 72)
a. confrontation
b. reduction
c. transference
d. acceptance
3. Purchasing insurance is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)
a. confrontation
b. reduction
c. transference
d. acceptance
4. Installing security hardware is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)
a. spreading
b. reduction
c. transference
d. acceptance
5. Considering and including losses due to crime as just apart of doing business is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)
a. spreading
b. reduction
c. transference
d. acceptance
6. Removing a threatened object from a vulnerable location is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)
a. spreading
b. avoidance
c. transference
d. acceptance
7. Keeping the drawer of a cash register open while the store is closed is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)
a. spreading
b. avoidance
c. transference
d. reduction
8. An on-site security survey is an analysis and documentation of a location to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 75)
a. determine foreseeability of crime
b. determine adequacy of existing physical security
c. assess response procedures and methods
d. reduce or remove physical opportunity for crime
9. Which of the following is not one of the three ways to manipulate opportunities for crime so that it can be reduced to an acceptable level? (NSC, APM-SM, 77)
a. deny access
b. discourage access
c. delay access
d. detect access
10. This activity is an exhaustive examination of general characteristics and minutiae for deficiencies in security and management: (NSC, APM-SM, 78)
a. on-site survey
b. on-site audit
c. on-site inspection
d. on-site investigation
Subject Area IV. Topic H. Disaster Recovery/Emergency Response
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. The President's Commission on Law Enforcement and the Administration of Justice reported that, fear of crime led to ______ of the American population radically changing their lifestyles: (NSC, APM-SM, 7)
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 70%
2. This plan is intended to provide preplanned response to whose unexpected or disastrous events that can strike any organization: (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)
a. Emergency Management Plan
b. Fire Safety Plan
c. Hazard Communication Plan
d. Emergency Response Plan
3. The best long-term strategy for protecting employees against unforeseen emergencies in the workplace is to develop: (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)
a. an Emergency Management Plan
b. a Fire Safety Plan
c. a Hazard Communication Plan
d. an Emergency Response Plan
4. It is most acceptable to assign emergency planning duties and responsibilities to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)
a. safety committee
b. senior line management
c. safety manager
d. local fire department
5. All of the following are steps in the emergency pre-planning process, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)
a. identifying potential emergency events
b. short-term and long-term needs of workers
c. methods of protecting property, operations, people
d. initiating follow-up response to crime
6. Which of the following is not a step in the emergency pre-planning process? (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)
a. conducting job hazard analyses
b. short-term and long-term needs of workers
c. methods of protecting property, operations, people
d. restoring business operations to normal
7. Which of the following is a common element in emergency operations? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. command functions
b. communications
c. emergency staff personnel
d. all of the above
8. Which of the following types of emergencies should be addressed by the emergency management plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. natural
b. technological
c. nuclear
d. all of the above
9. All of the following are natural disasters that may require an emergency response with no outside help, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. tornado
b. flood
c. terrorist attack
d. hurricane
10. Once potential emergencies are identified, the next step in the emergency planning process is to prioritize each emergency for harm to each of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. people
b. profits
c. environment
d. property
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Which of the following is not usually considered in development of the emergency management plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. probably warning times for potential emergencies
b. changes in company operations to meet potential emergencies
c. impact of company operations on the environment
d. estimation of potential damage to property
2. A basic emergency preparedness plan will address all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. chain of command
b. alarm system
c. medical treatment
d. property inventory
3. A basic emergency preparedness plan will address all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. shutdown procedures
b. committee organization
c. evacuation procedures
d. communications system
4. A basic emergency preparedness plan will address all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. disciplinary policy
b. auxiliary power systems
c. evacuation procedures
d. communications system
5. The ultimate determinant of the complexity of an emergency management plan is: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. size of the business and location
b. number of employees
c. type of facility and associated hazards
d. work process and number of employees
6. Choosing the correct type plan for a facility is important. Which of the following is not a common type of plan to address emergencies? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. action guides/checklists
b. response plans
c. emergency management plan
d. job analysis plan
7. Choosing the correct type plan for a facility is important. Which of the following is not a common type of plan to address emergencies? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. action guides/checklist
b. inspection plan
c. emergency management plan
d. mutual aid plan
8. This plan is generally a short and simple means to describe basic procedures that must be followed: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. action guides/checklist
b. response plan
c. emergency management plan
d. mutual aid plan
9. This plan is usually very detailed and tells all responsible individuals actions that must be taken: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. action guides/checklist
b. response plan
c. emergency management plan
d. mutual aid plan
10. Sometimes this plan is written for each type of possible hazard at the site: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. action guides/checklist
b. response plan
c. emergency management plan
d. mutual aid plan
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. This plan is intended to be a reminder and, therefore, should not be used by an untrained individual: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)
a. action guides/checklist
b. response plan
c. emergency management plan
d. mutual aid plan
2. This plan is the most comprehensive plan used by business to respond to emergencies: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)
a. action guides/checklist
b. response plan
c. emergency management plan
d. mutual aid plan
3. This plan addresses procedures before, during, and after a disaster: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)
a. action guides/checklist
b. response plan
c. emergency management plan
d. mutual aid plan
4. This plan is developed with other nearby firms: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)
a. action guides/checklist
b. response plan
c. emergency management plan
d. mutual aid plan
5. This plan calls for firms to share resources and help one another during an emergency: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)
a. action guides/checklist
b. response plan
c. emergency management plan
d. mutual aid plan
6. All of the following are important sources of hazard information, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)
a. National Weather Service
b. Food and Drug Administration
c. U.S. Geological Survey studies
d. U.S. Hazard Vulnerability Community Analyses
7. Which of the following are potential environmental problems that may be produced by both small and large fires? (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)
a. production of toxic gas and dust from combustion and decomposition
b. thermal plumes that carry contamination great distances
c. disposal of contaminated water used to fight fire
d. all of the above
8. When a facility is located in a floodplain, it may most effectively use which of the following strategies to protect against a flood emergency, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)
a. sandbags
b. dikes of earth, concrete or brick
c. emergency evacuation procedures
d. any of the above
9. Which of the following is not considered an important precaution to consider in preparation for a flood? (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)
a. proper grounding to prevent from electrocution hazards
b. bracing or storing important equipment, materials, chemicals off the ground
c. employing pumps and emergency power sources
d. an emergency alarm system
10. Which of the following is not considered an important precaution to consider in preparation for a flood? (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)
a. flotation devices for critical equipment
b. protection against soil erosion that might cause structural damage
c. employing pumps and emergency power sources
d. protection of potable water supplies
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Companies regularly exposed to hurricanes should develop a plan that includes all of the following strategies, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)
a. facility constructed to withstand destructive winds
b. planned shutdown of operations based on hurricane location
c. employing pumps and emergency power sources
d. a and b above
2. Tornado and hurricane experience indicates that emergency plans should include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)
a. procedures for alerting and relocating personnel
b. assigned personnel to take care of electrical hazards
c. procedures for rapid recovery response
d. assigned personnel to remove wreckage to prevent injury
3. Experience indicates that emergency plans for tornado and hurricane disasters should include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)
a. procedures for study and analysis of the phenomenon
b. assigned personnel to take care of electrical hazards
c. scheduling regular meals and rest for repair crews
d. assigned personnel to remove wreckage to prevent injury
4. Which of the following is a strategies to protect against earthquakes? (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)
a. earthquake-resistant construction
b. flexible utility lines and water mains
c. seismic bracing of equipment and machinery
d. all of the above
5. Principle earthquake dangers include all of the following, EXCEPT? (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)
a. failure of bridges and buildings
b. relocation of population centers
c. water shortages and contamination
d. damage to roads and highways
6. Which of the following actions should be taken by the employer prior to civil strife? (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)
a. statement of legal responsibility for the safety of employees
b. disclaimer of liability for injury or property damage
c. obtain a statement of employer rights to protect property
d. both a and c above
7. This act served to mobilize and organize our nation to secure the homeland from terrorist attacks.? (DHS)
a. U.S. Threat Assessment of 1999
b. OSHAct of 1970
c. Homeland Security Act of 2002
d. William-Steiger Security Act of 2001
8. In the event of a terrorist attack, natural disaster or other large-scale emergency, which agency will assume primary responsibility for ensuring that emergency response professionals are prepared for any situation? (DHS)
a. Department of Defense
b. Federal and State OSHA agencies
c. Department of Homeland Security
d. National Fire Protection Association
9. The purpose of this act is to encourage the development and deployment of anti-terrorism technologies that will substantially enhance the protection of the nation? (See Note 1) (DHS)
a. SAFETY Act of 2002
b. OSHAct of 1970
c. Homeland Security Act of 2002
d. William-Steiger Security Act of 2001
10. Plans to manage panic in the workplace include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)
a. auxiliary medical treatment areas
b. methods for notifying employees
c. rapid dispersement of employees
d. methods for accounting for employees
Practice Questions - Bank 5
1. Plans to manage panic in the workplace include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)
a. auxiliary medical treatment areas
b. methods for notifying employees
c. rapid dispersement of employees
d. methods for accounting for employees
2. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for the increase in emergencies due to workplace accidents? (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)
a. complexity of processes
b. proliferation of hazardous chemicals
c. close proximity of facilities to residential areas
d. deteriorating condition of facilities
3. Risk assessment techniques are required by various regulations. Which of the following is not a requirement in the risk assessment process? (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)
a. labor and management analysis team
b. identify hazards
c. calculate probability of occurrence
d. develop means to respond
4. Which of the following regulations require analysis to identify hazards, calculate their probability of occurrence, and development of means of response? (see Notes 1,2, and 4) (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)
a. 40 CFR Parts 330 and 335, Extremely Hazardous Substance List and Emergency Planning and Release Notification Requirements
b. 29 CFR 1910.120, Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER)
c. 29 CFR 1910.1200 append. E, Hazard Communication Guidelines for Employer Compliance
d. all of the above
5. Which of the following regulations require analysis to identify hazards, calculate their probability of occurrence, and development of means of response? (see Note 3) (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)
a. 40 CFR 1926, Emergency Planning in the Construction Industry
b. 29 CFR 1910.146, Permit Required Confined Spaces
c. 29 CFR 1910.666, Homeland Security and Emergency Preparedness
d. Public Law No. 99-499, Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act
6. During an emergency shutdown of machinery, it is important that all of the following should be accomplished, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 154)
a. brief effective counter-measures for fires
b. continually inspect maintenance and special operations
c. prepare a emergency shutdown checklist
d. supervise any gas welding and cutting
7. Which of the following is not true concerning radioactive material? (NSC, APM-A&P, 154)
a. it cannot cause fires
b. it cannot be destroyed by fire
c. it's state can be changed by fire
d. fire renders radioactive material less dangerous
8. Which of the following is not true concerning a radioactive substance? (NSC, APM-A&P, 154-155)
a. being radio active does not affect its physical properties
b. the substance will be easier to control when its state is changed
c. being radio active does not affect is behavior when heated
d. the substance will change state (solid, liquid, gas) normally
9. If radioactive material is spilled or splashed, which of the following emergency procedures should be immediately accomplished? (NSC, APM-A&P, 155)
a. use absorbent materials such as powder, earth, or sand
b. dampen the material with a neutralizing spray
c. vacuum the material into a safe container
d. if possible, apply heat the material
10. If solid radioactive material is spread, which of the following emergency procedures should be immediately accomplished? (NSC, APM-A&P, 155)
a. use absorbent materials such as powder, earth, or sand
b. dampen the material with a water spray
c. vacuum the material into a safe container
d. if possible, apply heat the material
Practice Questions - Bank 6
1. Which of the following describes the most dangerous and likely route of entry for radioactive dust, aerosols, fumes or gases? (NSC, APM-A&P, 155)
a. ingestion
b. absorption
c. inhalation
d. injection
2. Once the risk assessment of potential emergencies has been completed, what is the next step in the planning process? (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)
a. preparing a plan of action
b. coordination with local authorities
c. prioritizing potential emergencies
d. networking with similar organizations
3. Which of the following should be involved in preparing an emergency program plan of action? (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)
a. local police and fire departments
b. production or maintenance representative
c. legal staff
d. all of the above
4. All of the following are important criteria for an effective emergency action plan, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)
a. must be a written set of plans for action
b. must be written in advance
c. developed locally within the company
d. developed in isolation from neighboring businesses
5. All of the following are important elements within a written emergency action plan, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)
a. policies, purposes, authority
b. organizational chart
c. related government regulations
d. description of potential or expected disasters
6. All of the following are important elements within a written emergency action plan, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)
a. map of the facility
b. material safety data sheets
c. list of cooperating agencies
d. central communications center
7. Which of the following is not considered an important element within a written emergency action plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 156-157)
a. phone numbers of key employees
b. plant warning system
c. shutdown procedures
d. meeting minutes
8. Which of the following is not considered an important element within a written emergency action plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 157)
a. locally related and necessary items
b. list of available equipment and resources
c. prepared news releases
d. procedures for handling visitors and media
9. Under which conditions should management exercise the emergency action plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 157)
a. surprise
b. planned
c. realistic
d. simulated
10. The director or coordinator of an emergency planning program should be appointed based on:? (NSC, APM-A&P, 157)
a. ability to respond under stress
b. position in the organization
c. rank of the director
d. ability to work well with authorities
Practice Questions - Bank 7
1. What has experience demonstrated regarding the chain of command within the disaster plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 157)
a. wide chain of command works best under stress
b. parallel chain is most effective
c. shared responsibility ensure quick decisions
d. a small chain of commend is most effective in crisis
2. All of the following is true concerning the emergency director, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 157-158)
a. the director be tested
b. the director should be a member of top management
c. the director should be the ranking manager
d. the director must be able to speak for the organization
3. The director of emergency management is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)
a. emergency operation center management
b. inspection plan
c. firefighting plan
d. rescue operations
4. The director of emergency management is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)
a. transportation
b. rescue operations
c. security and law enforcement
d. job analysis
5. Which of the following is not one of the usual responsibilities of the director of emergency management? (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)
a. damage assessment
b. mitigation and investigation
c. software and hardware selection
d. public information and media briefings
6. Which of the following is not one of the usual responsibilities of the director of emergency management? (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)
a. damage assessment
b. rumor control
c. on-scene safety functions
d. internal surveillance
7. Which of the following is not one of the usual responsibilities of the director of emergency management? (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)
a. Notifying DOL authorities
b. utilities and engineering functions
c. sheltering, feeding and counseling functions
d. morgue establishment and notification of survivors
8. This emergency director responsibility is one of the most important to ensure proper application of policies, plans, and procedures? (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)
a. accountability
b. training
c. supervision
d. resources
9. Team captain duties in a disaster plan include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)
a. supervision of training personnel
b. providing equipment
c. selecting personnel
d. all of the above
10. This OSHA regulation addresses many aspects of safety and health at hazardous waste sites: (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)
a. 29 CFR 1910.330
b. 29 CFR 1910.120
c. 29 CFR 1926.147
d. 29 CFR 1940.1200
Practice Questions - Bank 8
1. 29 CFR 1910.120, Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response, requires employers to addresses many aspects of safety and health at all of the following locations, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)
a. hazardous waste sites
b. treatment, storage, and disposal facilities
c. manufacturing facilities
d. hazardous materials emergency locations
2. Which of the following is not one of the three categories of employees requiring training by 29 CFR 1910.120, Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response? (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)
a. hazardous waste site workers
b. safety committee representatives
c. treatment, storage, and disposal workers
d. emergency responders to hazardous releases
3. This team consists of an organized group of employees, designated by the employer, who are expected to perform work to handle and control actual of potential leaks of spills of hazardous substances? (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)
a. HAZCOM Team
b. Emergency Response Team
c. HAZMAT Team
d. Emergency Waste Rescue Team
4. This employee may be an inspector, engineer, or technician that is not likely to be exposed over permissible exposure limits (PEL) and requires 24 hours of off-site instruction: (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)
a. Hazardous waste site workers
b. Occasional hazardous waste site workers
c. Treatment, storage, and disposal (TSD) workers
d. Hazardous materials emergency responders
5. This employee work on site full time and probably have been exposed to a hazardous chemical or situation (PEL) and requires 40 hours of hands-on classroom instruction followed by three days of actual field experience under a trained supervisor: (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)
a. Hazardous waste site workers
b. Occasional hazardous waste site workers
c. Treatment, storage, and disposal (TSD) workers
d. Hazardous materials emergency responders
6. After completing the 40-hour HAZMAT team training course, this employee must have eight hours of specialized training covering site safety plans, personal protective equipment selection, and health monitoring: (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)
a. Hazardous waste site workers
b. Occasional hazardous waste site workers
c. Treatment, storage, and disposal (TSD) workers
d. Hazardous waste site supervisor
7. HAZMAT team workers who only attempt to identify the involved hazardous material and then notified more qualified personnel require this training: (NSC, APM-A&P, 160)
a. 4- to 8-hour first responder operations training
b. 8-hour first responder awareness training
c. 24-hour hazardous materials technician training
d. hazard materials specialist training
8. HAZMAT team workers who need to be competent in the chemical, toxicological, and radiological behavior of particular materials must complete this training: (NSC, APM-A&P, 160)
a. 24-hour first responder operations training
b. 4- to 8-hour first responder awareness training
c. 24-hour hazardous materials technician training
d. hazard materials specialist training
9. HAZMAT team workers who perform the actual plugging, patching or sealing of a container leaking a hazardous substance must complete this training after completing the 24-hour First Responder Operations course: (NSC, APM-A&P, 160)
a. 24-hour incident commander training
b. 4- 8-hour first responder awareness training
c. 24-hour hazardous materials technician training
d. hazard materials specialist training
10. The HAZMAT team member required to complete a recommended 24-hour course and be a graduate of the 24-hour First Responder Operations course is called the: (NSC, APM-A&P, 161)
a. first responder
b. incident commander
c. hazardous materials technician
d. hazardous materials specialist
Subject Area IV. Topic I. Workplace Violence
Practice Questions - Bank 1
1. Successful company violence prevention programs usually start by forming a ____________:
a. Security detail
b. Safety committee
c. Emergency response team
d. Planning group
2. This type of violence involves verbal threats, threatening behavior or physical assaults by an assailant who has no legitimate business relationship to the workplace:
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
3. In this type of violence, the individual may be seeking revenge for what is perceived as unfair treatment by management:
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
4. In Type II violence, the person causing violence may be all of the following, except:
a. client
b. passenger
c. customer
d. employee
5. A ______________ is a condition or circumstance that may increase the likelihood of violence occurring in a particular setting:
a. HAZOP Situation I
b. risk factor
c. problematic reference
d. dangerous event
6. Studies indicate that all of the below increase the probability of violence in the workplace, except:
a. exchange of money
b. delivery of goods
c. work in a union shop
d. contact with the public
7. Which of the following is not listed as an acceptable policy regarding visitor access within facilities?
a. Require visitors to sign in and out
b. Limit access
c. Wear an identification badge
d. Conduct body searches
8. Companies have an inherent right to take action against employees who engage in disruptive or threatening behavior whether or not they have issued a written policy statement:
a. True
b. False
c. Not unless the Director approves
d. True, but only when the policy statement is communicated
9. Which of the following is not considered an advantage of formal policies?
a. informs everyone on policy
b. tells everyone who to call
c. encourages incident reporting
d. demonstrates employee commitment
10. A workplace violence policy statement should convey all of the following, except:
a. the policy covers only acts of physical violence upon employees
b. the policy covers not only acts of physical violence, but harassment, intimidation, and other disruptive behavior
c. employees are responsible for maintaining a safe and healthful work environment
d. the policy covers incidents involving all interactions between employees at all levels
Practice Questions - Bank 2
1. Definitions of workplace violence are:
a. restrictive and may create legal problems
b. inclusive and may create legal problems
c. too vague to be of any real use
d. too simplistic to be an use in a legal forum
2. To best clarify the scope of your organization's terms in the workplace violence prevention policy, you could:
a. define terms
b. use examples
c. limit definitions
d. use legal jargon
3. All of the following are considered negative consequences from using the term zero tolerance, except:
a. could create legal problems
b. perceived as an unreasonable goal
c. limit definitions
d. discourages intervention
4. It is _______ advisable to rely on profiles or early warning signs to predict violent behavior:
a. always
b. usually
c. seldom
d. never
5. The FBI Profiling and Behavioral Assessment Unit has identified all of the following as indicators of increased risk of violent behavior, except:
a. Direct or veiled threats of harm
b. Intimidating, belligerent, harassing, bullying
c. Subtle changes in behaviors
d. Statements indicating desperation
6. Installing surveillance cameras, silent alarms, metal detectors, or bullet-proof glass are examples of :
a. engineering controls
b. work practice controls
c. personal protective equipment
d. interim measures
7. Work practice or management controls include all of the following except:
a. Improved lighting around parking lots.
b. Establishing sign-in procedures for visitors.
c. Developing employee assistance programs
d. Arranging escorts for employees
8. It would be effective to consider using any one of the following prevention measures for Type I (Criminal Violence), except:
a. Obtain restraining orders
b. Leave a clear, unobstructed view of cash register from street
c. Training (include de-escalation techniques)
d. Post signs stating cash register only contains minimal cash
9. According to the text, it would be effective to consider using any one of the following prevention measures for potential Type III (Employee Relationship) violence, except:
a. effective policy for disciplinary actions
b. Provide security personnel
c. Restraining orders
d. Post signs stating cash register only contains minimal cash
10. The primary type of violence in the workplace training that may be beneficial to all employees is that which concentrates on which of the following?
a. conflict anticipation
b. conflict resolution
c. conflict determination
d. conflict reaction
Practice Questions - Bank 3
1. In workplace violence prevention training, as a minimum all employees should be trained in how to ________:
a. manage anger
b. report incidents
c. spot likely violent employees
d. react to a hostile employee
2. Which of the following should be included in incident response team training to minimize confusion during an actual incident?
a. group discussion
b. videos
c. written tests
d. practice exercises
3. All of the following strategies would be useful to de-escalate potentially violent situations in interactions with people, except:
a. encourage the person to talk and listen patiently
b. maintain a relaxed yet attentive posture
c. attempt to bargain with a threatening individual
d. acknowledge the person's feelings
4. Within the workplace violence prevention program, this report is used to assess the safety of the workplace, and to decide upon a plan of action:
a. OSHA Form 300
b. Threat Incident Report
c. Accident Investigation Report
d. OSHA 301 Form
5. Investigation categories in the violence prevention program include all of the following, except:
a. Threat assessment investigation
b. Incident/Accident investigation
c. Administrative investigation
d. Criminal investigation
6. Which of the following is the most critical requirement for administrative investigations?
a. management should ensure human resources administers discipline
b. actions should be accomplished by a line supervisor
c. actions taken should be timely
d. actions should not compromise a potential criminal prosecution
7. Immediately after an assault occurs in the workplace, an employer should focus first on providing for the __________ and __________ needs of all affected employees:
a. physical, psychological
b. emotional, physical
c. medical, psychological
d. financial, medical
8. Which of the following is not a primary reason to include all employees during a incidence of violence in the workplace?
a. discuss the cause of the violent act
b. address a plan of action
c. coordinate with law enforcement agencies
d. identify those needing further help
9. To show their support of the victims of violence in the workplace, employers should support prosecution of offenders in all of the following ways, except:
a. help the victim make court appearances
b. help the victim work with prosecutors
c. cooperate with law enforcement authorities
d. allow the victim to join a protected witness program
10. Since management bears the brunt of responsibility after a violent incident, and can find itself dealing with unfamiliar challenges under high stress, this program can be very helpful in facilitating an optimal response:
a. early return to work program
b. employee assistance program
c. police cadet program
d. formal observation program
Practice Questions - Bank 4
1. Which of the following workplace violence prevention elements is least important to evaluate after an incident occurs? (OPM)
a. ability to provide increased worksite protection
b. quality of disciplinary procedures
c. consideration of costs and benefits
d. counseling potential victims
2. Which of the following acts of violence would be most likely to subject the employer to a citation for a violation of the General Duty Clause of the OSH Act? (OSHA)
a. acts which might occur anywhere
b. acts which are predictable
c. not recognized as characteristic
d. random antisocial acts
3. Failure of an employer to implement feasible means of abatement of acts of violence hazards could result in which of the following violations? the finding of an OSH Act violation? (OSHA)
a. state and federal law
b. OSHA Guidelines
c. OSH Act
d. Better Business Bureau Guidelines
4. Which of the following is not considered by OSHA as a minimum requirement of an effective violence prevention program? (OSHA)
a. clear policy of zero accidents
b. adequate understanding of policies
c. no reprisals for reporting
d. liaison with law enforcement
5. All of the following are considered by OSHA as a minimum requirement of an effective violence prevention program, except: (OSHA)
a. clear policy of zero tolerance
b. reporting only physical violence
c. assign responsibilities and authority
d. encourage prompt reporting
6. Which of the following is not considered by OSHA as a minimum requirement of an effective violence prevention program? (OSHA)
a. affirm management commitment
b. company briefings on the program
c. limit records to assure privacy
d. encourage prompt reporting
7. The main components of any effective workplace violence prevention program include all of the following, except: (OSHA)
a. management commitment
b. employee control
c. worksite analysis
d. hazard prevention and control
8. Which of the following is not one of the main components of any effective workplace violence prevention program? (OSHA)
a. safety and health training
b. recordkeeping
c. program evaluation
d. tough-controlling leadership
9. According to OSHA, a violence prevention program worksite analysis effort includes all of the following activities, except: (OSHA)
a. job hazard analysis
b. screening surveys
c. analyzing workplace security
d. analyzing the tracking records
10. All of the following represent possible engineering control strategies for consideration in a violence prevention program, except: (OSHA)
a. incident reporting procedures
b. provide curved mirrors in hallways
c. ensure adequate exit routes
d. arrange furniture to prevent entrapment
AREA IV. ANSWER KEYS
Area IV. A. Workers’ Compensation
Bank 1
1. b. Comparative negligence
2. c. The fellow servant rule
3. d. Contributory negligence
4. a. Assumption of risk
5. b. 1911
6. c. 1916
7. d. 1948
8. d. no longer liable for negligence resulting in worker injury
9. c. Occupational Workers' Compensation Act (OWCA)
10. a. compulsory law
Bank 2
1. c. elective law
2. c. Provide multiple remedies without delay
3. d. Ensure financial relief to employers
4. d. 90 percent
5. a. compensate the worker
6. b. physical damage to the body
7. d. falls
8. c. cumulative trauma
9. b. Temporary partial disability
10. a. Temporary total disability
Bank 3
1. b. Temporary partial disability
2. c. Permanent partial disability
3. d. Permanent total disability
4. a. Loss of insurance
5. a. Equivalent wages theory
6. c. Whole-man theory
7. b. Lost wages theory
8. d. Loss of potential earnings theory
9. a. schedules
10. a. schedules
Bank 4
1. c. average weekly earnings
2. d. federal insurance
3. a. self-insured benefits
4. c. compensation payments
5. c. $100 of payroll
6. a. National Council of Compensation Insurance (NCCI)
7. a. Experience rate
8. c. Prospective rating
9. c. Schedule rate
10. a. Retrospective rating
Bank 5
1. d. Fixed rate premiums
2. c. Experience rating
3. c. four years
4. a. Drug Free Workplace Program (DFW)
5. c. in three years
6. d. the worker's employer
7. c. Proactive safety programs
8. c. discipline often
9. b. Assumption of Risk
10. d. Mental impairment
Bank 6
1. d. Mental impairment
2. b. exempts small employers
3. b. exempts small employers
4. a. broken leg at company picnic soccer game
5. d. Mental impairment
Area IV. B. Risk Management
Bank 1
1. a. risk identification
2. c. evaluating risks
3. c. Risk reduction
4. d. Liability loss
5. a. Hazard evaluation
6. c. pure risk
7. c. pure risk
8. a. any kind of risk to a business
9. d. returning to full operations
10. a. postloss
Bank 2
1. b. cost-benefit analysis
2. c. quantify
3. b. prioritize the risks
4. d. cost to implement and degree of reduction
5. b. Risk summary worksheet
6. c. enter a risk pool
7. d. administering the process
8. a. developing risk potentials
9. c. control measures
10. a. synthesis
Bank 3
1. b. payback period
2. b. Enforcing at risk behaviors
3. a. risk aversion and risk acceptance
4. a. developing risk potentials
5. b. Who was to blame
6. d. outputs
7. d. Risk calculation
8. c. risk estimation
9. b. Probalistic Risk Assessment (PRA)
10. d. Risk identification
Bank 4
1. a. R = C x E x P
2. d. duration
3. c. Risk analysis
4. a. Exposure assessment
5. b. Risk Characterization
6. c. Conditions, behaviors, systems
Area IV. C. General Liability/Product Safety
Bank 1
1. c. absolute
2. d. strict
3. a. negligence
4. b. warranty
5. c. torts
6. b. caveat emptor
7. d. privity of contract
8. a. strict liability
9. c. strict liability
10. b. Defect was not identified or obvious
Bank 2
1. a. Defendant failed in his duty toward plaintiff
2. d. Product failed to meet implied or expressed claims
3. a. The danger was obvious
4. b. implied and express
5. c. Uniform Commercial Code
6. b. express
7. c. implied
8. b. prove the product was defective
9. a. defects
10. d. express warranty
Bank 3
1. c. design defects
2. d. reliability features
3. b. promote criminal investigation of product-related deaths
4. b. manufacturing defect
5. c. res ipsa loquitur
6. a. warn in the consumer's primary language
7. d. foreseeability
8. c. the product left the defendant
9. a. sentence
10. b. engineer
Bank 4
1. a. in the workplace
2. d. bicycles
3. b. use of the product
4. c. Placement
5. a. Reinforcement
6. d. Practicality
7. c. Durability
8. a. Reliability
9. c. Readability
10. a. The potential defendant has a contributory stake in the outcome
Bank 5
1. c. non-compliance with OSHA standards
2. a. Instructions do not list manufacturer information
3. c. Conspicuous
4. b. Warnings
5. a. Instructions
6. a. Instructions
7. d. both a and c above
8. b. they describe what the product does
9. d. all of the above
10. d. Integrity
Area IV. D. Fleet Safety
Bank 1
1. b. no. of accidents x 1 mil. miles / 1 mil. miles
2. b. fleet management
3. b. driver error and vehicle failure
4. d. the motor vehicle
5. b. investigation to determine liability
6. d. all of the above
7. c. safety-controlling activities
8. a. lack of adequate supervision
9. a. accident investigation to determine fault
10. d. develop a disciplinary file for each driver
Bank 2
1. b. driver selection
2. c. driver record card
3. b. rehabilitate the driver
4. b. 1,000,000 miles driven
5. b. record noncompliance rates
6. a. interview co-workers
7. a. select a random test route
8. b. offensive driving strategies
9. a. brief report of serious accidents
10. c. correct defects as they occur
Bank 3
1. b. pretrip vehicle inspection
2. a. to stop vehicle from moving downhill
3. d. centered on the bed
4. b. Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986
5. c. 1992
6. a. Class A
7. a. Class C
8. b. name of the issuing federal agency
9. c. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
10. a. (total number of accidents x 1 million miles)/actual mileage driven.
Bank 4
1. b. driver training
2. a. Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC)
3. a. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA)
4. c. Title 49 CFR 100-185
5. c. early return to work program
6. a. medical management
7. b. long haul trucking
8. b. Twenty
9. a. three
10. d. automobile drivers
Bank 5
1. d. strains and sprains
2. a. away from work
3. c. disciplining for accidents
4. b. policing vehicle abuse
5. a. control road rage
6. d. drive in convoys when possible
7. b. are less efficient
8. c. gender
9. b. past medical history
10. d. statement of commitment
Bank 6
1. d. contract with outside agencies
2. c. remedial training
3. a. random inspections
4. b. responsibility for scheduling corrective vehicle maintenance
5. d. education level
6. a. psychological tests
7. c. Decide what action to take in order to mitigate exposure
8. a. Identify drivers that may cause an accident
9. a. maximum number of permissible moving violations
10. a. minimum number of permissible moving violations
Bank 7
1. c. refer other driver complaints to human resources for investigation
2. b. failure to conduct a MVR check after hire
3. d. new hires have a tendency to overschedule and rush
4. a. new hires are driving vehicles that differ from their personal vehicles
5. c. 10,001 lb
6. b. DOL
7. d. Motor Carrier Safety Improvement Act of 1999
8. c. it should focus on poor performance
9. a. identifying causes of accidents
10. b. holding drivers accountable for accident record
Bank 8
1. d. Defensive Driving
2. c. interacting with pedestrians
3. b. cargo and weight considerations
4. a. routes and trip planning
5. c. mailing address of employer
6. a. training location
7. d. as long as the employer employs the driver plus one year
8. a. reporting driver accidents to OSHA/State Plan within 24 hours
9. b. incident/accident reporting procedures
10. a. driver/pedestrian interaction
ANSWER KEYS AREA IV.
Area IV. E. Fire and Life Safety
Bank 1
1. d. children under 5, adults older than 40
2. a. 1 or 2
3. b. Triangle Shirtwaste Factory
4. c. electrical wiring
5. b. smoking
6. c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
7. a. fire
8. b. combustion
9. c. ignition
10. a. ignition temperature
Bank 2
1. c. piloted ignition
2. d. spontaneous combustion
3. a. humidity
4. a. hydroxl radicals
5. c. fire pyramid
6. c. fire pyramid
7. c. fire pyramid
8. d. 3000 deg F.
9. a. 5000 deg F.
10. b. heat of combustion
Bank 3
1. a. rate of combustion
2. a. increases
3. c. 380,000 BTU
4. d. 50 lbs of paper with a heat of combustion of 7,2000 BTU
5. a. fuel weight (lbs) x heat of combustion (BTU)
6. b. transference
7. a. convection
8. c. thermal gradient
9. a. geometry
10. a. radiative transfer
Bank 4
1. c. decrease pressure
2. b. carbon monoxide
3. d. foam
4. b. carbon monoxide
5. b. carbon monoxide
6. b. carbon monoxide
7. a. looseness of construction
8. c. carbon dioxide
9. a. acrolein
10. d. ammonia
Bank 5
1. a. due to their lower density
2. b. due to their higher temperature
3. a. increase in thickness
4. d. presence of horizontal openings
5. c. stack effect
6. d. b and c above
7. c. heat of combustion
8. b. vapor pressure
9. d. boiling point
10. b. combustion will not occur
Bank 6
1. a. less than 100 deg F.
2. b. lower flammable limit (LFL)
3. d. upper flammable limit (UFL)
4. d. upper flammable limit (UFL)
5. b. lower flammable limit (LFL)
6. b. flammable range
7. c. flammable gases
8. c. nonflammable gases
9. d. inert gases
10. a. reactive gases
Bank 7
1. b. safety hazard
2. a. 0
3. d. 4
4. b. preserving evidence for later analysis
5. d. compartmentation
6. a. creation
7. d. all of the above
8. d. fire load
9. d. alarms
10. b. NFPA 101
Bank 8
1. d. extreme
2. a. exit location
3. b. exit access
4. c. exit
5. c. exit
6. d. exit discharge
7. b. exit units
8. a. 22
9. b. occupant load
10. a. 1
Bank 9
1. c. floor area / allowable occupant load
2. a. occupant load / allowable capacity per exit unit
3. b. variable humidity detectors
4. a. fixed temperature detectors
5. c. rate-of-rise detectors
6. d. rate compensation detectors
7. a. flame detectors
8. d. gas detectors
9. a. Class A
10. c. Class C
Bank 10
1. b. Class B
2. d. Class D
3. a. wet-pipe system
4. b. dry-pipe system
5. d. combined system
6. c. deluge system
7. b. preaction system
8. a. carbon dioxide
9. c. dry chemicals
10. b. halon
Bank 11
1. d. foam
Area IV. F. Health and Wellness
Bank 1
1. d. all of the above are true
2. a. a comprehensive program
3. a. a comprehensive program
4. c. 50
5. c. a disease prevention program
6. a. a comprehensive program
7. b. interest of the CEO
8. c. behavioral medicine
9. c. behavioral medicine
10. b. stress
Bank 2
1. c. over half
2. b. less than one fifth
3. a. one to two times a day
4. c. employee assistance program
5. c. group dynamics
6. d. all of the above are true
7. a. 20-60 minutes
8. b. stable blood fat
9. d. higher cholesterol
10. b. stress reduction
Bank 3
1. a. hypotension
2. d. compression
3. b. commitment to production first
4. d. health policy with firm accountability
5. c. safety engineering
6. b. maintain tight control
7. d. engineering controls
8. b. production processes
9. a. stress management program
10. d. drug and alcohol abuse
Bank 4
1. c. comprehensive
2. a. development of a policy statement
3. a. employee survey
4. b. ensure injured employees return to work as soon as possible
5. c. been completely voluntary
6. c. infringement of rights
7. d. baseline analysis
8. b. require full participation
9. d. a and b above
10. c. monthly review of participation
Bank 5
1. d. accident history
2. b. current employee work schedules
3. b. employee interest surveys
4. d. liver function
5. c. skin rebound
6. b. posture
7. a. decrease program costs
8. d. reveals forces resisting change
9. b. health screening
10. c. track program results
Bank 6
1. c. program costs are charged to employees
2. a. full employee participation
3. c. regular exercise
4. b. variety
5. c. walking
6. a. running
7. d. stretching
8. c. varicose veins
9. c. circuit training
10. c. difficult to conduct follow-up assessment
Bank 7
1. d. restrict smoking areas
2. a. most smokers don't want to quit
3. d. both a and c above
4. b. weight loss through high protein-low carbohydrate diets
5. c. stress
6. b. magnitude, duration
7. a. psychology professionals
8. c. preemployment physical exam
9. c. early return to work
10. a. individual performance
Area IV. G. Security
Bank 1
1. c. 50%
2. b. 12%
3. d. women
4. c. Require employers and workers to evaluate risk
5. a. crimes take place with increasing frequency
6. c. take advantage of a lack of security
7. b. crime will flourish where property is left to deteriorate
8. c. EPA regulatory requirements
9. a. Increasing media coverage
10. c. internal theft and drug abuse
Bank 2
1. d. How to we maintain confidentiality?
2. b. What must we do to prevent disclosure?
3. c. corporate, facility, personnel, environment
4. b. protect by setting up a series of barriers
5. c. goal ambiguity
6. d. Ensure appropriate reactive planning
7. c. Focus on short-term responses
8. b. Reduce forces resisting change
9. a. Ensure separation of management and labor
10. d. Select key external threats and weaknesses
Bank 3
1. a. vulnerability analysis
2. b. not properly reacting after the loss
3. b. security plan
4. d. dissuade those who would commit crime
5. b. gain market-share through reduced losses
6. d. worth securing
7. b. response to threats, risks, and vulnerabilities
8. d. benchmarking
9. b. can ensure proper accountability
10. c. possible occurrence of an undesirable event
Bank 4
1. a. react quickly when a loss does occur
2. c. hope and pray the event does not occur
3. a. dynamic risk and pure risk
4. c. risks associated with the cost of doing business
5. d. risks that carry no possibility of return on investment
6. a. pure risks
7. c. lack of consequences
8. b. crimes against persons or property
9. c. probability
10. d. uncertain
Bank 5
1. a. probably certain
2. c. criticality
3. d. all of the above
4. d. non-injury
5. d. serious unknown
6. b. relatively unknown
7. c. moderately serious
8. a. very serious
9. b. relatively unimportant
10. c. probability and criticality
Bank 6
1. d. restricting
2. a. confrontation
3. c. transference
4. a. spreading
5. d. acceptance
6. b. avoidance
7. d. reduction
8. c. assess response procedures and methods
9. b. discourage access
10. d. on-site investigation
Area IV. H. Disaster Recovery/Emergency Preparation
Bank 1
1. c. 50%
2. a. Emergency Management Plan
3. a. an Emergency Management Plan
4. b. senior line management
5. d. initiating follow-up response to crime
6. a. conducting job hazard analyses
7. d. all of the above
8. d. all of the above
9. c. terrorist attack
10. b. profits
Bank 2
1. c. impact of company operations on the environment
2. d. property inventory
3. c. evacuation procedures
4. a. disciplinary policy
5. c. type of facility and associated hazards
6. d. job analysis plan
7. b. inspection plan
8. a. action guides/checklist
9. b. response plan
10. b. response plan
Bank 3
1. a. action guides/checklist
2. c. emergency management plan
3. c. emergency management plan
4. d. mutual aid plan
5. d. mutual aid plan
6. b. Food and Drug Administration
7. d. all of the above
8. b. dikes of earth, concrete or brick
9. d. an emergency alarm system
10. a. flotation devices for critical equipment
Bank 4
1. d. a and b above
2. c. procedures for rapid recovery response
3. a. procedures for study and analysis of the phenomenon
4. d. all of the above
5. b. relocation of population centers
6. d. both a and c above
7. c. Homeland Security Act of 2002
8. c. Department of Homeland Security
9. a. SAFETY Act of 2002
10. c. rapid dispersement of employees
Bank 5
1. c. rapid dispersement of employees
2. d. deteriorating condition of facilities
3. a. labor and management analysis team
4. d. all of the above
5. d. Public Law No. 99-499, Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act
6. c. prepare a emergency shutdown checklist
7. d. fire renders radioactive material less dangerous
8. b. the substance will be easier to control when its state is changed
9. a. use absorbent materials such as powder, earth, or sand
10. b. dampen the material with a water spray
Bank 6
1. c. inhalation
2. a. preparing a plan of action
3. d. all of the above
4. d. developed in isolation from neighboring businesses
5. c. related government regulations
6. b. material safety data sheets
7. d. meeting minutes
8. c. prepared news releases
9. c. realistic
10. a. ability to respond under stress
Bank 7
1. d. a small chain of commend is most effective in crisis
2. c. the director should be the ranking manager
3. b. inspection plan
4. d. job analysis
5. c. software and hardware selection
6. d. internal surveillance
7. a. Notifying DOL authorities
8. b. training
9. d. all of the above
10. b. 29 CFR 1910.120
Bank 8
1. c. manufacturing facilities
2. b. safety committee representatives
3. c. HAZMAT Team
4. b. Occasional hazardous waste site workers
5. a. Hazardous waste site workers
6. a. Hazardous waste site workers
7. a. 4- to 8-hour first responder operations training
8. d. hazard materials specialist training
9. c. 24-hour hazardous materials technician training
10. b. incident commander
Area IV. I. Workplace Violence
Bank 1
1. d. Planning group
2. a. Type I
3. c. Type III
4. c. customer
5. b. risk factor
6. c. work in a union shop
7. d. Conduct body searches
8. a. True
9. d. demonstrates employee commitment
10. a. the policy covers only acts of physical violence upon employees
Bank 2
1. a. restrictive and may create legal problems
2. b. use examples
3. b. perceived as an unreasonable goal
4. c. seldom
5. c. Subtle changes in behaviors
6. a. engineering controls
7. a. Improved lighting around parking lots.
8. a. Obtain restraining orders
9. d. Post signs stating cash register only contains minimal cash
10. b. conflict resolution
Bank 3
1. b. report incidents
2. d. practice exercises
3. c. attempt to bargain with a threatening individual
4. b. Threat Incident Report
5. b. Incident/Accident investigation
6. d. actions should not compromise a potential criminal prosecution
7. c. medical, psychological
8. c. coordinate with law enforcement agencies
9. d. allow the victim to join a protected witness program
10. b. employee assistance program
Bank 4
1. b. quality of disciplinary procedures
2. b. acts which are predictable
3. c. OSH Act
4. a. clear policy of zero accidents
5. b. reporting only physical violence
6. c. limit records to assure privacy
7. b. employee control
8. d. tough-controlling leadership
9. a. job hazard analysis
10. a. incident reporting procedures
References:
Questions in this study guide were derived from among the following texts:
1. Accident Prevention Manual for Business & Industry: Administration and Programs NSC, NSC Pub.
2. Accident Prevention Manual for Business & Industry: Engineering and Technology NSC, NSC Pub.
3. Analyzing Performance Problems Robert F. Mager and Peter Pipe, CEP Press.
4. Analyzing Safety System Effectiveness Dan Petersen, ASSE Pub.
5. Behavior-Based Safety Process, The Thomas R. Krause.
6. Benchmarking: The Search for Industry Best Practices that Lead to Superior Performance Robert C. Camp, Quality Resources Pub.
7. Bringing Out the Best in People Aubrey C. Daniels, McGraw Hill Pub.
8. Construction Safety Management Raymond Elliot Leavitt, Nancy Morse Sam Elson, Wiley Pub.
9. Construction Site Safety Richard Hislop, CRC Press
10. The Deming Management Method Mary Walton, Perigee Pub.
11. Epidemiology Leon Gores, W.B. Saunders Pub.
12. Ergonomics, Work and Health Stephen Pheasant, Aspen Pub.
13. Finance and Accounting for Nonfinancial Managers Weaver and Weston, McGraw-Hill
14. Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene Barbara A. Plog, Patricia J. Quinlan, NSC Pub.
15. Human Error Reduction and Safety Management Dan Petersen, Van Nostrand Pub.
16. Introduction to Environmental Technology Ann Boyce, Wiley Pub.
17. Investigating Accidents with STEP Kingsley Hendrick & Ludwig Benner, Jr., Decker Pub.
18. Making Instruction Work Robert F. Mager, CEP Press Pub.
19. Managing for Performance Perfection William C. Pope, Bonnie Brae Pub.
20. Motor Fleet Safety Manual John E. Brodbeck, NSC Pub.
21. Muskuloskeletal Disorders and Workplace Factors NIOSH, 2nd Ed. (PDF File)
22. The New Economics W. Edwards Deming, MIT/CAES Pub.
23. Occupational Health & Safety Joseph LaDou, NSC Pub.
24. Occupational Safety Management & Engineering y Willie Hammer, Prentice Hall Pub.
25. Practical Loss Control Leadership Frank E. Bird, George L. Germain, ILCI Pub.
26. Primer on Occupational Safety and Health y Frederick Blosser, BNS Books
27. Psychology of Safety, The E. Scott Geller, Lewis Pub.
28. Quality Improvement Tools & Techniques Peter Mears, McGraw-Hill Trade
29. Safety By Objectives Dan Petersen, Van Nostrand Pub.
30. Safety and Health for Engineers Roger L. Brauer, Van Nostrand Pub.
31. Safety and Health Management Planning y Ted S. Ferry, Van Nostrand Pub.
32. Safety Management y John V. Grimaldi, Rollin H. Simonds, ASSE Pub.
33. Safety Management : A Human Approach Dan Petersen, ASSE Pub.
34. Safety Through Design Wayne C. Christiansen, Fred A. Manuele, NSC Pub.
35. Techniques of Safety Management : A Systems Approach Dan Petersen, ASSE Pub.
36. Total Quality Safety Management Edward E. Adams, ASSE Pub.
37. Total Quality Safety Management and Auditing Michael B. Weinstein, Lewis Pub.
38. Violence in the Workplace Anthony Baron Ph.D., Pathfinder Pub.
39. Wellness in the Workplace: How to Plan, Implement and Evaluate a Wellness Program (Fifty Minute Ser.) Merlene T. Serman, Crisp Pub.
40. Workplace Wellness: The Key to Higher Productivity and Lower Health Costs Carol B. Grant, Robert Brisbin, Van Nostrand Pub.
41. Your Rights at Work Darien McWhirter, Wiley Pub.
Additional Study Texts
* Basic Concepts of Industrial Hygiene Ronald M. Scott.
* BLR's Safety Committee Handbook Stephen D. Bruce
* Building a Better Safety and Health Committee John P. Spath
* Construction Safety Jimmie W. Hinze.
* Effective Security Management Charles A. Sennewald.
* Environmental and Quality Systems Integration William C. Culley.
* Environmental, Health, and Safety Auditing Handbook Lee Harrison (Editor).
* Essential Health and Safety for Managers: A Guide to Good Practice in the European Union Ron Akass.
* Ergonomic Problems in the Workplace: A Guide to Effective Management James E. Roughton.
* Evolution of Management Thought, The Daniel A. Wren.
* First Aid & Safety For Dummies® Charles B. Inlander, Janet Worsley Norwood, People's Medical society.
* Fleet Safety Made Easy Jonathon D. Kujat, ABS Pub.
* Fundamentals of Occupational Safety and Health James P. Kohn, Mark A. Friend, Celeste A. Winterberger.
* Fundamentals of Risk Assessment Edited by Vlasta Molak.
* Illustrated Dictionary of Environmental Health & Occupational Safety Herman Koren.
* Implementing Total Safety Management David L. Goetsch
* Injury and Litigation Prevention: Theory and Practice Stanley H. Freeman.
* Leadership in Safety Management James R. Thomen.
* Managing Worker Safety and Health for Excellence Margaret R. Richardson.
* OSHA Inspections: Preparation and Response Richard Kaletsky.
* Psychology of Safety, The. E. Scott Geller.
* Risk Assessment and Management Handbook Rao V. Kolluru.
* Safety, Systems and People Sue and Tom Cox.
* Values-Based Safety Process, The. Terry E. McSween.
* Working Safe, E. Scott Geller.
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