1 - Kennesaw State University



Biology 2107/03 Name ______________________________

Fall 2000 Final Examination

Version A

• Write your name in the correct space on the mark-sense sheet and the exam booklet. Both the exam booklet and the mark-sense sheet must be turned in at the end of the period.

• Indicate the version letter (A, B, C, or D) in the “Key ID” box in the upper left corner of the mark-sense sheet.

• Each question has only one correct answer. When a group of choices is used for more that one question, a choice may be used more than once.

• You may write in the exam booklet, but only the mark-sense sheet will be graded. No other paper, scratch paper, etc., may be used.

• Students must turn in the exam before leaving the room for any reason. A student may not continue working on the exam after having left the room.

• If you want your final grade posted, write “Please Post” under your name on the mark-sense sheet. Both the lab and lecture grades will be posted.

100 questions

1. What is the reduced electron donor that is oxidized in the first step of the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

(a) oxygen (d) NADPH

(b) water (e) carbohydrate

(c) CO2

2. When the reduced electron donor is oxidized in the first step of the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis, what does it become?

(a) oxygen (d) NADP

(b) water (e) carbohydrate

(c) CO2

3. Which of the following best describes the absorption of light by chlorophylls a and b?

(a) Chlorophylls a and b absorb all wavelengths of visible light equally well.

(b) Chlorophylls a and b do not absorb visible light, but only absorb light of higher energy levels (such as ultraviolet light).

(c) Chlorophylls a and b do not absorb visible light, but only absorb light of lower energy levels (such as ultraviolet light).

(d) Chlorophylls a and b predominately absorb only certain wavelengths of visible light (the action spectrum). Other wavelengths, in the green range, are reflected.

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The following choices are used for questions 4 - 9.

(a) antennae pigments

(b) reaction centers

(c) thylakoids

(d) stroma

4. This is the location where the light-independent reactions (Calvin-Benson cycle) take place.

5. This is the location where CO2 is reduced to form carbohydrate.

6. This is a network of chlorophyll molecules that absorb most of the light for photosynthesis.

7. These specialized chlorophyll molecules use the energy of light to initiate an electron transport chain.

8. These are stacked membranes in the chloroplast where the photosynthetic electron transport chain is located.

9. P680 and P700 are examples of these.

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10. Which of the following best describes the function of the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

(a) To produce ATP and NADPH, which are necessary for the light independent reactions.

(b) To reduce CO2 and form carbohydrates.

(c) To use O2 to oxidize carbohydrates and form CO2, which is necessary for the light independent reactions

(d) To absorb light energy and then to re-emit it at a lower wavelength

(e) To produce ADP and NADP, which are necessary for the light independent reactions.

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The following choices are used for questions 11 - 19.

(a) G0 (d) S

(b) G1 (e) M (Mitosis)

(c) G2

11. This refers to the stage in which the nucleus of the cell divides.

12. In a dividing cell, the chromosomes are in an unreplicated state throughout this stage. Note: The term “dividing cell” refers to a cell that is proceeding through all the stages of the cell cycle and is destined to divide (as contrasted with a mature cell that no longer divides).

13. Sister chromatids are formed during this stage.

14. This stage is also known as stationary phase.

15. This is the stage during which chromosomes are visible with a compound light microscope.

16. This is the stage during which DNA replication takes place.

17. When a cell has reached its final state of maturity and no longer divides, it goes into this stage.

18. This is the stage between the period of DNA replication and the division of the nucleus.

19. This stage is divided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

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20. The cell cycle is carefully regulated by a biochemical cascade that determines whether or not the cell will divide. Between which two stages of the cell cycle does one find the major regulation of the cycle?

(a) Between G1 and S

(b) Between G2 and S

(c) Between S and M

(d) Between M and G1

21. Sister chromatids

(a) are genetically identical, because they come from the process of DNA replication.

(b) are very similar genetically, but not necessarily identical, because they come from two different parents.

(c) are connected to each other at the centromere.

(d) More than one of the above statements is true.

(e) None of the above are true.

22. Homologous chromosomes

(a) are genetically identical, because they come from the process of DNA replication.

(b) are very similar genetically, but not necessarily identical, because they come from two different parents.

(c) are connected to each other at the centromere.

(d) More than one of the above statements is true.

(e) None of the above are true.

23. During meiosis

(a) a haploid germ line cell divides to form diploid gamete cells.

(b) the homologous chromosomes of a germ line cell are separated.

(c) the nucleus of the germ line cell divides to form two identical nuclei, each with the same number of chromosomes as the germ line cell nucleus.

(d) More than one of the above statements is true.

(e) None of the above are true.

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The following choices are used for questions 24 - 28.

(a) Interphase (d) Anaphase

(b) Prophase (e) Telophase

(c) Metaphase

24. If a dividing cell is treated with colchicine (a chemical that inhibits spindle fiber formation), then division will stop at this stage.

25. This term is used to collectively refer to G1, S, and G2.

26. During this stage, the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the spindle apparatus.

27. During this stage, the daughter chromosomes decondense and form two new nuclei at the poles of the spindle apparatus.

28. During this stage, the sister chromatids separate and become daughter chromosomes.

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29. A certain species has a haploid chromosome number of 46. What is its diploid number?

(a) 11.5 (d) 92

(b) 23 (e) 184

(c) 46

30. When two haploid cells combine during fertilization, the resulting cell is called a

(a) zygote (d) gonad

(b) gamete (e) graft

(c) gemmule

31. In animals, germ line cells are located in organs called

(a) zygotes (d) gonads

(b) gametes (e) grafts

(c) gemmules

32. In animals, meiosis takes place in organs called

(a) zygotes (d) gonads

(b) gametes (e) grafts

(c) gemmules

33. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Both DNA strands of the double-stranded DNA of a gene are used as a template during transcription.

(b) The template DNA strand of a gene has an identical nucleotide sequence to the RNA it encodes (except that it has T’s instead of U’s)

(c) The template DNA strand of a gene is complementary to the RNA it encodes

(d) DNA does not serve as a template during transcription.

(e) Transcription refers to the synthesis of proteins on a ribosome.

34. Which of the following best describes the action of an aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme?

(a) It attaches an amino acid to a rRNA molecule.

(b) It attaches an amino acid to a tRNA molecule.

(c) It attaches an amino acid to a mRNA molecule.

(d) It synthesizes tRNA by attaching ribose nucleotides into a chain.

(e) It synthesizes tRNA by attaching ribose nucleotides into a chain.

35. To which site on the ribosome does the next aminoacyl tRNA bind during the elongation phase of translation?

(a) The transcriptional (T) site

(b) The replicative (R) site

(c) The aminoacyl tRNA (A) site

(d) The peptidyl tRNA (P) site

(e) The ouatta (O) site

36. A promoter

(a) is a protein that binds to RNA polymerase to enhance the process of transcription.

(b) is a DNA sequence to which RNA polymerase binds.

(c) is a DNA sequence to which ribosomes bind.

(d) is the location where DNA replication begins.

(e) is an initiation factor in the process of translation.

37. A certain mutation in E. coli is a chain-termination (or nonsense) mutation. Compared to the wild type, one of the nucleotide bases in the mutant is substituted for another so that a sense codon UCG in the coding region is changed into the stop codon UAG. This means that translation terminates prematurely, resulting in a protein that is too short to carry out its enyzmatic functions.

It is possible to isolate another E. coli mutant gene called a nonsense suppressor mutation. If cloned into the strain with the chain-termination mutation, the nonsense suppressor causes the normal wild type characteristics to return. However, the nonsense suppressor gene does not encode the same protein as the chain termination gene. What does the nonsense suppressor encode?

(a) The nonsense suppressor encodes a repressor protein that blocks transcription of the chain-termination gene.

(b) The nonsense suppressor encodes the aminoacyl tRNA synthetase specific for tRNA with the anticodon AGC.

(c) The nonsense suppressor encodes a tRNA molecule with the anticodon AGC.

(d) The nonsense suppressor encodes a tRNA molecule with the anticodon AUC.

(e) The nonsense suppressor encodes a transcriptional termination protein.

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The following choices are used for questions 38 - 45.

(a) DNA replication

(b) transcription

(c) translation

(d) More than one of the above.

(e) None of the above.

38. In this process, the monomer units in the newly formed polymer chain base-pair directly with the nucleotides on the template.

39. The end product of this process is a pair of homologous chromosomes attached at the centromere.

40. This process is synonymous with protein synthesis.

41. This process is synonymous with chromosomal replication.

42. This process is synonymous with glycolysis.

43. This process can be blocked when a repressor protein binds to the promoter region.

44. In this process, the sequence of monomers on a newly formed polymer chain is determined by the nucleotide sequence of a DNA template.

45. This process occurs on ribosomes.

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46. How does deoxyribose differ from ribose?

(a) Ribose is found in DNA, and deoxyribose is found in RNA.

(b) Deoxyribose has an additional –OH group not found in ribose.

(c) Deoxyribose is a component of nucleotides, and ribose is a component of amino acids.

(d) More than one of the above.

(e) None of the above.

47. A nucleotide consists of

(a) an amino acid attached to a tRNA molecule

(b) a small ribosomal subunit attached to a mRNA molecule and a met-tRNA molecule.

(c) a pentose sugar attached to a nitrogenous base and a phosphate molecule.

(d) More than one of the above.

48. The nitrogenous base uracil (U) is closest in structure to which of the following bases?

(a) adenine (A)

(b) thymine (T)

(c) cytosine (C)

(d) guanine (G)

The following information pertains to questions 49 – 50.

The nucleotide sequence listed below represents the transcriptional template strand of a gene.

Template DNA strand TACAGAAGTTGATGCATC

49. Which of the following is the mRNA transcribed from the template DNA?

(a) Tyr Arg Ser

(b) Met Ser Ser Thr Thr

(c) UACAGAAGUUGAUGCAUC

(d) AUGUCUUCAACUACGUAG

(e) OICU

50. Which of the following is the peptide that is produced when the mRNA is translated? (The standard 3-letter abbreviations for amino acids are used.)

(a) Tyr Arg Ser

(b) Met Ser Ser Thr Thr

(c) UACAGAAGUUGAUGCAUC

(d) AUGUCUUCAACUACGUAG

(e) OICU

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51. In the hierarchy of structural organization in living systems, a tissue

(a) is a collection of distinctively different types of cells that work cooperatively to accomplish a specific task.

(b) is a collection of very similar (or identical cells) cells that have differentiated for a specific purpose.

(c) is a collection of membrane-bound structures that collectively form the structure of a cell.

(d) is a collection of monomer units that are linked to form a single covalently-bound molecule.

(e) can refer to any level of structural organization that has a defined function or purpose.

52. The structural boundary that defines the “outside” of all cell types is the

(a) cell wall (d) cytoperiphery

(b) outer limits (e) plasma membrane

(c) basal lamella

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The following choices are used for questions 53 – 54.

(a) reproduction (d) evolution

(b) genetic encoding (e) regulated transport

(c) metabolism

53. This is the best term to describe the processes by which cells assimilate energy and raw materials from their environment.

54. This is the best term to describe changes in living organisms that result in increased ability to survive and increased diversity of species.

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The following choices are used for questions 55 - 57.

(a) Protons

(b) Electrons

(c) Neutrons

(d) More than one of the above

(e) None of the above

55. Consider these two isotopes of oxygen, oxygen-16 and oxygen-18. An atom of oxygen-16 differs from an atom of oxygen-18 in the numbers of these particles.

56. The atomic number of an atom is defined as the number of this type of particle.

57. Interactions between two different atoms are mediated primarily by this type of particle (specifically, those particles in the “valence shells” of the atoms).

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The following choices are used for questions 58 - 63.

(a) Ionic bonding

(b) Covalent bonding

(c) Polar Interactions

(d) Hydrophobic Interactions

58. This is the best term to describe the interactions between sodium and chloride ions in a salt crystal.

59. This term refers to the “sharing” of electrons between two atoms.

60. In an aqueous solution or suspension, this type of interaction is typically the strongest and most stable.

61. This is the best term to describe a glycosidic bond.

62. Hydrogen bonding, such as the type found in the secondary structures of proteins, is a specialized form of this bonding.

63. This is the best term to describe the interactions between oil molecules that have floated to the top of an oil-water mixture.

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64. A substance with a pH less than seven

(a) is acidic, and has a greater [H+] than a neutral substance.

(b) is basic (alkaline), and has a greater [H+] than a neutral substance.

(c) is acidic, and has a lower [H+] than a neutral substance.

(d) is basic (alkaline), and has a lower [H+] than a neutral substance.

(e) None of the above are true.

65. Which of the following best describes the structure of a water molecule?

(a) A central oxygen bonded to two hydrogens, with all three atoms in a straight line.

(b) A central hydrogen bonded to another hydrogen and to an oxygen, with all three atoms in a straight line.

(c) A central oxygen bonded to two hydrogens, with an angle of about 110( between the two hydrogens.

(d) A central hydrogen bonded to another hydrogen and to an oxygen, with an angle of about 110( between the second hydrogen and the oxygen.

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The following choices are used for questions 66 - 68.

(a) Hydrolysis Reaction

(b) Condensation (Dehydration) Reaction

(c) Hydrophilic

(d) Hydrophobic

(e) Heat Capacity

66. This is the best term to describe the breakdown of peptidoglycan by lysozyme.

67. This is the best term to describe the formation of a triglyceride from a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids.

68. This is the best term to describe the formation of a peptide bond.

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69. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Fatty acids with a greater degree of saturation have fewer C=C double bonds and form glycerides have higher melting points.

(b) Fatty acids with a greater degree of saturation have more C=C double bonds and form glycerides have higher melting points.

(c) Fatty acids with a greater degree of saturation have fewer C=C double bonds and form glycerides have lower melting points.

(d) Fatty acids with a greater degree of saturation have more C=C double bonds and form glycerides have lower melting points.

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The following choices are used for questions 70 - 71.

(a) This is a property of prokaryotic cells.

(b) This is a property of eukaryotic cells.

(c) This could be a property of either prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells.

70. Extensive internal membrane systems, including complex organelles having double membranes.

71. Plasma membranes containing folds that carry out metabolic processes of respiration and photosynthesis.

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The following choices are used for questions 72 – 75.

(a) nucleus

(b) mitochondrion

(c) chloroplast

(d) endoplasmic reticulum

(e) Golgi apparatus

72. The inner membrane of this organelle contains folds known as cristae.

73. Proteins destined for secretion are synthesized on ribosomes attached to the membrane of this organelle.

74. This organelle is the site of cellular respiration (the process by which oxygen is used to conserve metabolic energy in the form of ATP).

75. Most of the inside of this organelle is filled with chromatin.

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The following choices are used for questions 76 – 77.

(a) Microfilaments

(b) Microtubules

(c) Intermediate filaments

76. These are composed of actin.

77. These play a major role in maintaining the shape of cells. They also mediate changes in cell shape, such as in the pseudopods of an amoeba or the stress fiber attachments of a cell in culture.

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The following diagram shows the structure of phosphatidyl ethanolamine and applies to questions 78 - 81.

[pic]

78. Which of the following best describes the overall structure that is shown?

(a) Triglyceride (d) Phospholipid

(b) Amino Acid (e) Disaccharide

(c) Cholesterol

79. Which of the following terms best describes the part labeled “B” in the diagram?

(a) Fatty acid chain (d) Monosaccharide

(b) Amino Acid (e) Active site

(c) Polar head group

80. Which of the following terms best describes the solubility of this substance (overall structure) in water?

(a) hydrophobic (d) dualistic

(b) hydrophilic (e) multiphasic

(c) amphipathic

81. This substance is sold in powdered form by chemical supply houses. If some of the powdered form of this substance were mixed thoroughly with water, what would happen?

(a) The substance would separate from the water and float to the top.

(b) The substance would completely dissolve in the water, making a uniform solution.

(c) The substance would become chemically oxidized.

(d) The substance would become chemically reduced.

(e) The substance would form microscopic spherical vesicles, suspended in the water, with the surface of the vesicles made up of lipid bilayers.

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82. Some integral membrane proteins have the ability to move. How would you best characterize this membrane protein mobility?

(a) The proteins have free movement in all directions within, across, and through the membrane (the “free-wheeling” model).

(b) The proteins can move transversely (“flip-flop”) from one side of the membrane to the other, but they cannot move laterally (side-to-side) (the “trans-crystalline” model).

(c) The proteins can move laterally (side-to-side), but they cannot transversely (“flip-flop”) from one side of the membrane to the other (the “fluid mosaic” model).

(d) The proteins completely move out of the phospholipid bilayer and travel through the inside of the cell (through the cytoplasm) until they reach the phospholipid bilayer on the other side (the “subway shuttle” model).

(e) The proteins completely move out of the phospholipid bilayer and travel around the outside of the cell (through the aqueous fluid in which the cell is suspended) until they reach the phospholipid bilayer on the other side (the “perimeter bypass” model).

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The following choices are used for questions 83 - 84.

(a) Simple diffusion directly across a phospholipid bilayer

(b) Facilitated diffusion across a membrane

(c) Active transport across a membrane

(d) Both (a) and (b)

(e) Both (b) and (c)

83. This process is almost always mediated by a membrane-bound carrier protein.

84. This process requires the expenditure of the cell’s energy, usually in the form of ATP hydrolysis or energy stored in a concentration gradient.

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85. What is the function of the Na+-K+ ATPase pump in the plasma membrane of cells?

(a) For each cycle in its mechanism, it transports three sodium ions (Na+) into the cell, two potassium ions (K+) out of the cell, and hydrolyzes one ATP molecule.

(b) For each cycle in its mechanism, it transports three sodium ions (Na+) out of the cell, two potassium ions (K+) into of the cell, and hydrolyzes one ATP molecule.

(c) For each cycle in its mechanism, it transports three sodium ions (Na+) into the cell, two potassium ions (K+) out of the cell, and synthesizes one ATP molecule.

(d) For each cycle in its mechanism, it transports three sodium ions (Na+) out of the cell, two potassium ions (K+) into the cell, and synthesizes one ATP molecule.

86. The protein that coats endocytotic vesicles and secretory vesicles is called

(a) actin (d) clathrin

(b) tubulin (e) laughin

(c) porin

87. Read the following statements about enzyme action:

I. Enzymes are catalysts.

II. Enzymes significantly change the free energy ((G) of a reaction by changing the final equilibrium concentrations of the reactants and products.

III. Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction by creating a stabilized intermediate state known as an “Enzyme-Substrate Complex”

IV. Amino acid side chains often interact directly with the substrate.

V. The cell must manufacture a new enzyme molecule for each substrate molecule that it converts to product (the law of enzyme-substrate stoichiometry).

Which of the following is correct?

(a) Only statement I is true.

(b) Only statements I, III, and IV are true.

(c) Only statements I and III are true.

(d) Only statements I, II, and III are true.

(e) Only statements I, IV, and V are true.

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The following choices are used for questions 88 – 90.

(a) cohabitant (d) competitive inhibitor

(b) cofactor (e) noncompetitive inhibitor

(c) coenzyme

88. This is a substance that is chemically similar to the substrate of an enzyme and can bind to the enzyme’s active site, blocking access by the substrate.

89. This is a substance that is not part of the amino acid structure of an enzyme, but is required for the activity of certain enzymes. This term specifically refers to a substance that is covalently bound to the enzyme.

90. High concentrations of ATP in a cell stop the action of phosphofructokinase, one of the early enzymes in the glycolytic pathway. Structural studies have shown that the ATP does not bind to the active site of the enzyme; instead, it binds to a different location and changes the conformation of the enzyme. Which of the terms given above best describes what ATP does to phosphofructokinase?

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The following choices are used for questions 91 – 93.

(a) oxidation

(b) reduction

91. During glycolysis, NAD is converted into NADH. What has happened to the NAD?

92. A process in which an atom gains electrons.

93. Imagine a chemical reaction in which carbon dioxide is converted into methane (CH4). What has happened to the carbon atom in this reaction?

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The following choices are used for questions 94 - 97.

(a) glycolysis

(b) fermentation

(c) respiration

94. The final electron acceptor in this process is oxygen (in almost all organisms)

95. The final electron acceptor in this process is an acid or alcohol derived from pyruvic acid.

96. The net yield of ATP in this process is two ATP per molecule of glucose.

97. During this process, the carbons of pyruvic acid are completely oxidized to form three CO2 molecules.

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98. During respiration, which of the following processes is most directly responsible for the synthesis of the greatest amount of ATP?

(a) the conversion of glucose into pyruvic acid

(b) the conversion of pyruvic acid into lactic acid

(c) the conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA and CO2

(d) the citric acid (Kreb’s) cycle

(e) the respiratory electron transport chain

99. The major purpose of fermentation in bacteria and yeast is

(a) the synthesis of organic acids to regulate the pH of the organism’s environment.

(b) to provide a means for bacteria to identify each other by the production of different fermentation end products.

(c) to produce large quantities of ATP from pyruvic acid, since very little ATP is produced during glycolysis.

(d) to oxidize NADH into NAD.

(e) to regenerate ADP for the process of glycolysis.

100. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a good “common currency” of energy for the cell because

(a) it is highly unstable, breaking down rapidly to provide the cell with a “boost” of energy.

(b) its (G of hydrolysis is about –7.5 kcal/mol, making ATP hydrolysis a thermodynamically favorable reaction.

(c) the phosphate group that is released during ATP hydrolysis may become attached to a protein, causing the protein to undergo a conformational change and to do useful work.

(d) Both (a) and (b) are true.

(e) Both (b) and (c) are true.

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