SINGLE CHOISE - USMF
|SINGLE CHOISE |
| |
|The study of drugs and their effects is called: |
|a) physiology |
|b) anatomy |
|c) medicinology |
|d) pharmacology |
|e) pharmacy |
| |
|Solid form of a drug is: |
|a) solution |
|b) ointment |
|c) suspension |
|d) tablet |
|e) ampoules |
| |
|Whitch of the following is not a liquid form? |
|a) tinture |
|b) suspension |
|c) solution |
|d) powder |
|e) syrup |
| |
|An example of a semisolid form would be: |
|a) tablet |
|b) capsules |
|c) suspension |
|d) powder |
|e) cream |
| |
|Liquid form of a drug in which a partile of a drug are not completely dissolved: |
|a) suspension |
|b) ointment |
|c) capsule |
|d) tablet |
|e) gel |
| |
|What is considered the brand name? |
|a) paracetamol |
|b) acamol |
|c) non opioid analgesic |
|d) "off label" use |
|e) inhibit cyclooxygenase |
| |
|Xenobiotics are considered: |
|a) Endogenous |
|b) Exogenous |
|c) Inorganic poisons |
|d) Toxins |
|e) Ligands |
| |
|Pharmacokinetics is: |
|a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs |
|b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs |
|c) The study of mechanisms of drug action |
|d) The study of methods of new drug development |
|e) The study of pharmacological effects of drugs |
| |
|What does "pharmacokinetics" include? |
|a) Localization of drug action |
|b) Mechanisms of drug action |
|c) Biotransformatin of drugs |
|d) Interaction of substances |
|e) Side effects of drugs |
| |
|Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the ____ and pharmacodynamics is the effect of the_______: |
|a) Drug on the body; Body on the drug |
|b) Drug on a drug; Drug on a drug |
|c) Body on the drug; Drug on a drug |
|d) Body on the drug; Drug on the body |
|e) Drug on a drug; Body on the drug |
| |
|How is called the pharmacokinetic index, that shows the fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic |
|circulation? |
|a) Bioavailability |
|b) Dosage |
|c) Bioinequivalence |
|d) Drug absorption |
|e) Bioequivalence |
| |
|Which of the following statement is correct for bioavailability? |
|a) The ratio of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation and make an effect. |
|b) The time it takes for the amount or concentration of a drug to fall to 50 % |
|c) The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its concentration in plasma. |
|d) The fraction of the administrated dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation. |
|e) the ability of the administered drug metabolites to cause undesirable physiological effects. |
| |
|For intravenous (IV) dosages, what is the bioavailability assumed to be? |
|a) 0% |
|b) 25% |
|c) 50% |
|d) 75% |
|e) 100% |
| |
|Weak acids are excreted faster in _____urine and weak bases are excreted faster in _____urine: |
|a) Acidic; Alkaline |
|b) Alkaline; Acidic |
|c) Acidic; Neutral |
|d) Neutral; Alkaline |
|e) Alkaline; Neutral |
| |
|The principle of drug manipulation for excretion of a drug out of the renal tubule can be accomplished by: |
|a) Acidifying the urinary pH |
|b) Adjusting the urinary pH to protonate weakly acidic drugs |
|c) Adjusting the urinary pH to unprotonate weakly basic drugs |
|d) Adjusting the urinary pH to ionize the drug |
|e) By neutralizing the urinary pH |
| |
|What organ is responsible for metabolism in the "first pass effect"? |
|a) Brain |
|b) Heart |
|c) Kidney |
|d) Liver |
|e) Spleen |
| |
|What type of drug would be needed to enter the brain and CNS? |
|a) Hydrophilic |
|b) Hydrophobic |
|c) Lipophilic |
|d) Lipophobic |
|e) Large molecular weight |
| |
|Which of the enteral administration routes has the largest first-pass effect? |
|a) SL (sublingual) |
|b) Buccal |
|c) Rectal |
|d) Oral |
|e) IV (intravenous) |
| |
|All administration ways listed below are parenteral but one: |
|a) Intravenous |
|b) Subcutaneous |
|c) Peroral |
|d) intramuscular |
|e) subarachnoidal |
| |
|More slowly effect appears after: |
|a) intravenous administration |
|b) per oral administration |
|c) subcutaneous administration |
|d) intramuscularly administration |
|e) inhaled administration |
| |
|More rapid effect appears after: |
|a) subcutaneous administration |
|b) intramuscularly administration |
|c) intravenous administration |
|d) per oral administration |
|e) intrarectal administration |
| |
|Which of the administration routes is not often used, is painful, and has a risk of infection and adhesion? |
|a) EPI (epidural) |
|b) IA (intraarterial) |
|c) IP (intraperitoneal) |
|d) IV (intravenous) |
|e) SL (sublingual) |
| |
|Which organ or tissue would receive drug slowly? |
|a) Liver |
|b) Brain |
|c) Fat |
|d) Muscle |
|e) Kidney |
| |
|What type of drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? |
|a) Large and lipid-soluble |
|b) Large and lipid-insoluble |
|c) Small and lipid-soluble |
|d) Small and lipid-insoluble |
|e) Small and ionized |
| |
|Name the simplest way of drugs penetration through membrane? |
|a) Filtration |
|b) Pinocytosis |
|c) Active transport |
|d) Facilitated-difuzion |
|e) Co-transport |
| |
|Name the way of the penetration through the membrane that needs energy: |
|a) filtration |
|b) active transport |
|c) facilitated diffusion |
|d) simple diffusion |
|e) filtration& simple diffusion |
| |
|Which location can accumulate lipid-soluble drugs, has little or no receptors, and can hold distributed drugs like barbiturates? |
|a) Liver |
|b) Kidney |
|c) Brain |
|d) Fat |
|e) Fetus |
| |
|Which location has high blood flow and is a site of excretion? |
|a) Liver |
|b) Kidney |
|c) Brain |
|d) Fat |
|e) Fetus |
| |
|Elderly patients often have ____ muscle mass and thus a(n) ____ Vd (volume of distribution): |
|a) More; Increased |
|b) More; Decreased |
|c) Less; Increased |
|d) Less; Decreased |
|e) Less, Unchanged |
| |
|Most drugs are active in their ____ form and inactive in their ____ form: |
|a) Non-polar; Polar |
|b) Polar; Non-polar |
|c) Water-soluble; Lipid-soluble |
|d) Lipid-insoluble; Water-insoluble |
|e) Neutral; Neutral |
| |
|Which of the metabolically active tissues is the principle organ for drug metabolism? |
|a) Skin |
|b) Kidneys |
|c) Lungs |
|d) Liver |
|e) GI Tract |
| |
|What is the goal of the P450 system (microsomes pinched off from endoplasmic reticulum)? |
|a) Only metabolism of substances |
|b) Only detoxification of substances |
|c) Metabolism of substances & Detoxification of substances |
|d) Decreasing pH of compartments containing substances |
|e) Increasing pH of compartments containing substances |
| |
|Intrinsic activity is a drug's ability to elicit: |
|a) Strong receptor binding |
|b) Weak receptor binding |
|c) Response |
|d) Excretion |
|e) Distribution |
| |
|What is the object of pharmacovigilance? |
|a) Evaluation of pharmacokinetic parameters for new drugs. |
|b) Determining the therapeutic index |
|c) Monitoring of drugs introduced into therapeutic, especially side effects. |
|d) Intensive therapeutic studies of the 3rd stage on clinical evaluation. |
|e) Drugs interactions. |
| |
|The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is: |
|a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion) |
|b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion) |
|c) Endocytosis |
|d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion) |
|e) Exocytosis |
| |
|What determines the degree of movement of a drug between body compartments? |
|a) Partition constant |
|b) Degree of ionization |
|c) pH |
|d) Size |
|e) All of the above |
| |
|Which of these physical chemical properties from medicaments are essential for filtration (crossing of channel membranes) as a means of |
|crossing through cellular membranes? |
|a) Lipid solubility |
|b) Water solubility |
|c) Coefficienct of lipid/big water partition |
|d) small pKa |
|e) Affinity for a transportable system |
| |
|Name the way of the penetration through the membrane that needs the energy: |
|a) Filtration |
|b) Pinocytosis |
|c) Facilitated difuzion |
|d) Simple diffusion |
|e) Facilitated difuzion& Simple difuzion |
| |
|What is a pharmacodynamic process? |
|a) The drug is readily deposited in fat tissue |
|b) Movement of drug from the gut into general circulation |
|c) Drug metabolites are removed in the urine |
|d) The drug causes dilation of coronary vessels |
|e) Alteration of the drug by liver enzymes |
| |
|If a medication is intended to be administered per os, how is it typically administered? |
|a) Oraly |
|b) Inhaled |
|c) Rectally |
|d) Injected |
|e) Vaginaly |
| |
|What is characteristic of the oral route? |
|a) Fast onset of effect |
|b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function |
|c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver |
|d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory |
|e) Bypassing the hepatic barrier in the first - pass |
| |
|What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration? |
|a) Only water solutions can be injected |
|b) Oily solutions can be injected |
|c) No need in sterillity |
|d) The action develops slower, than at oral administration |
|e) Oily solutions can't be injected |
| |
|Tick the feature of the sublingual route: |
|a) Pretty fast absorption |
|b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion |
|c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism |
|d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses |
|e) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion |
| |
|Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration: |
|a) Rectal |
|b) Oral |
|c) Sublingual |
|d) Inhalation |
|e) Through gastric tube |
| |
|Pick out the enteral route of medicinal agent administration: |
|a) rectal |
|b) intravenous |
|c) subcutanous |
|d) inhalation |
|e) transdermal |
| |
|The volume of distribution (Vd) relates: |
|a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug |
|b) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation |
|c) An administrated dose to a body weight |
|d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma |
|e) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body |
| |
|The term "biotransformation" includes the following: |
|a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue |
|b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins |
|c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue |
|d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body |
|e) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma |
| |
|If a drug is 80% bound to blood elements or plasma proteins, what part is considered the free form? |
|a) 20% |
|b) 40% |
|c) 50% |
|d) 80% |
|e) 100% |
| |
|Specify the aim of microsomal oxidation: |
|a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound |
|b) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity |
|c) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug |
|d) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug |
|e) Microsomal oxidation takes pleace just in the kidney |
| |
|Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is: |
|a) Acetylation and methylation of substances |
|b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis |
|c) Glucuronide formation |
|d) Binding to plasma protein |
|e) Elimination through kidney |
| |
|Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation? |
|a) Acetylation |
|b) oxidation, |
|c) reduction |
|d) hydrolysis |
|e) Elimination through kidney |
| |
|Conjugation is: |
|a) Process of drug reduction by special enzymes |
|b) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases |
|c) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate |
|d) Solubilization in lipids |
|e) Reduction and oxidation by special enzymes |
| |
|Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term "receptor": |
|a) Free molecules that caries the drug to the CNS |
|b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug |
|c) Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to combine with in order to elicit its specific effect |
|d) All types of ion channels modulated by a drug |
|e) Second mesangers that participate in genes trasncription |
| |
|What does "affinity" mean? |
|a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins |
|b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor |
|c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug |
|d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug |
|e) A measure of plasmatic concentraton of a drug |
| |
|Which of the drug permeation mechanisms uses the HendersonHasselbalch equation for the ratio of solubility for the weak acid or weak base? |
|a) Pinocytosis |
|b) Lipid diffusion |
|c) Endocytosis and exocytosis |
|d) Aqueous diffusioт |
|e) Carrier molecules |
| |
|What is implied by «active transport»? |
|a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion |
|b) Transport without energy consumption |
|c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation |
|d) Transport against gradient of concentration |
|e) Filtration through the membrane pores |
| |
|If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it's called: |
|a) Partial agonist |
|b) Antagonist |
|c) Agonist-antagonist |
|d) Full agonist |
|e) Full antagonist |
| |
|Which of the ion is increased in intracellular concentration due to second messengers such as IP3? |
|a) K+ |
|b) Ca++ |
|c) Cl- |
|d) Na+ |
|e) Mg++ |
| |
|Which of the following affirmations define an agonist action? |
|a) metabolic phenomena are being triggered by activating specific and on calcium- calmodulin or calcium-phopholipid dependent phosphates. |
|b) a chemical that binds to a receptor and activates the receptor to produce a biological response |
|c) interaction between the drug and body molecules. |
|d) interaction between a drug and plasmatic proteins. |
|e) intensity of an effect, expressed through a maximal effect. |
| |
|Describe definition of an agonist? |
|a) A drug directed at parasites infecting the patient |
|b) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular activity |
|c) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity |
|d) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts |
|e) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its |
|chemical action |
| |
|The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist is called: |
|a) Competitive antagonist |
|b) Irreversible antagonist |
|c) Agonist-antagonist |
|d) Partial agonist |
|e) Chemical agonist |
| |
|The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is called? |
|a) Tachyphylaxis |
|b) Sensibilization |
|c) Abstinence syndrome |
|d) Idiosyncrasy |
|e) Tolerance |
| |
|Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is: |
|a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction |
|b) A type of drug antagonism |
|c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug |
|d) Quantitatively exaggerated response |
|e) Toxic reaction after drug administration |
| |
|Tachyphylaxis refers to definition? |
|a) Responsiveness increased rapidly after administration of a drug |
|b) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after administration of a drug (rapid tolerance) |
|c) Responsiveness increased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (hypersensitiv) |
|d) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (desensitize) |
|e) Responsiveness decreased slowly after administration of a drug |
| |
|Which of effect refers to an increased intensity of response to a drug? |
|a) Idiosyncratic |
|b) Hyporeactive |
|c) Hyperreactive |
|d) Allergy |
|e) Tolerance |
| |
|In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity the duration of action of some drugs is: |
|a) Decreased |
|b) Enlarged |
|c) Remained unchanged |
|d) Changed insignificantly |
|e) Decreased insignificantly |
| |
|Which drugs inhibit hepatic enzymes? |
|a) nicotine |
|b) prednisone |
|c) erythromycin |
|d) penicillin |
|e) fenobarbital |
| |
|Which is an example of a drug acting directly through receptors? |
|a) Mannitol for subarachnoid hemmorhage |
|b) Cancer chemotherapeutic agents |
|c) Epinephrine for increasing heart rate and blood pressure |
|d) Rezerpine to decreases high pressure |
|e) Protamine soulphate binds stoichiometrically to heparin anticoagulants |
| |
|Half life (t½ ) is the time required to: |
|a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination |
|b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite |
|c) Absorbed a half of an introduced drug |
|d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins |
|e) Total duration of treatment |
| |
|Which is the median effective dose, or the dose at which 50% of the individuals exhibit the specified quantal response? |
|a) LD50 |
|b) ED50 |
|c) EC50 |
|d) TD50 |
|e) T.I. |
| |
|What is considered the therapeutic index in animal studies? |
|a) T.I. = TD50 / ED50 |
|b) T.I. = LD50 / ED50 |
|c) T.I. = ED50 / TD50 |
|d) T.I. = ED50 / LD50 |
|e) T.I. = TD50 / ED50 & T.I. = LD50 / ED50 |
| |
|The therapeutic index for humans is: |
|a) the ratio of therapeutically doses to the minimum toxic doses. |
|b) dose which produce the therapeutically effect |
|c) is the ratio of the TD50 to the ED 50 |
|d) the doses which makes more favorable effects |
|e) the most quantity of the drug that produces maximum effect without side effects. |
| |
|What is the most relevant use of therapeutic index? |
|a) Guide for toxicity in therapeutic the setting |
|b) Multiple measures of effectiveness are possible |
|c) Measure of impunity with which an overdose may be tolerated |
|d) Toxicities may be idiosyncratic (e.g. propranolol in asthmatics) |
|e) Used just in bioequivalence study |
| |
|Describes minimal effective concentration (MEC)? |
|a) The minimal drug plasma concentration to reach therapeutic levels |
|b) The minimal drug plasma concentration to interact with receptors |
|c) The minimal drug plasma concentration to enter tissues |
|d) The minimal drug plasma concentration to produce effect |
|e) The minimal drug plasma concentration that can be detected |
| |
|If a patient misses three doses of their daily drug, which is the best solution? |
|a) Prescribe a higher dosage pill so missed doses will have less effect |
|b) Setup an appointment to have the patient evaluated |
|c) Do nothing and continue normal regimen |
|d) Wait 3 more days (week total) then return to normal regimen |
|e) Take a 4x dose at the next dose time |
| |
|What type of study for an Investigational New Drug involves neither the investigators or subjects knowing if the drug or placebo is being |
|given? |
|a) Single-blind study |
|b) Double-blind study |
|c) Placebo |
|d) Positive-control |
|e) Crossover study |
| |
|What clinical trial phase is conducted with several hundred to thousands of volunteer patients suffering from the condition the |
|investigational drug treats? |
|a) Phase 1 |
|b) Phase 2 |
|c) Phase 3 |
|d) Phase 4 |
|e) bioequivalence study |
| |
|What clinical trial phase is conducted with up to several hundred patients suffering from the condition the investigational drug is designed |
|to treat? |
|a) Phase 1 |
|b) Phase 2 |
|c) Phase 3 |
|d) Phase 4 |
|e) bioequivalence study |
| |
|What clinical trial phase involves submitting a New Drug Application, monitoring, and reporting by clinicians using the drug? |
|a) Phase 1 |
|b) Phase 2 |
|c) Phase 3 |
|d) Phase 4 |
|e) bioequivalence study |
| |
|What clinical trial phase is “first-in-man studies”, conducted in a small group of healthy volunteer? |
|a) Phase 1 |
|b) Phase 2 |
|c) Phase 3 |
|d) Phase 4 |
|e) bioequivalence study |
| |
|Name clinical study used to assess the expected in vivo biological equivalence of two proprietary preparations of a drug: |
|a) Phase 1 clinical study |
|b) Phase 2 clinical study |
|c) Phase 3 clinical study |
|d) Phase 4 clinical study |
|e) bioequivalence study |
| |
|Name liquid volatile anesthetics: |
|a) Propanidid |
|b) Nitrous oxide |
|c) Thiopental |
|d) Ketamine |
|e) Halothane |
| |
|How to prevent reflex bradycardia during anesthesia? |
|a) By atropine injection |
|b) By diazepam injection |
|c) By halothane injection |
|d) By decreasing dose of the anesthetic agent |
|e) By epinephine injection |
| |
|Which is characteristic for surgical stage with diethyl ether anesthesia? |
|a) analgesia |
|b) combative behavior |
|c) medullary paralysis |
|d) eyes initially rolling, then becoming fixed |
|e) excitement |
| |
|Which anesthetic cause "dissociative anesthesia": |
|a) Diethyl ether |
|b) Halothane |
|c) Ketamine |
|d) Sodium hydroxybutyrate |
|e) Nitrous oxide |
| |
|Which drug can be used for controlled hypotension during anesthesia: |
|a) Trimethafan |
|b) Diazepam |
|c) Atropine |
|d) Flumazenil |
|e) Sodium hydroxybutyrate |
| |
|Name drug used for all type of local anesthesia: |
|a) Cocaine |
|b) Tetracaine |
|c) Procaine |
|d) Lidocaine |
|e) Bumecaine |
| |
|Which local anesthetic has ability to constrict vessels? |
|a) Cocaine |
|b) Tetracaine |
|c) Procaine |
|d) Lidocaine |
|e) Bumecaine |
| |
|Which local anesthetic can be used for ventricular arrythmias? |
|a) Cocaine |
|b) Tetracaine |
|c) Procaine |
|d) Lidocaine |
|e) Bumecaine |
| |
|Name organic astringent: |
|a) Zinc oxide |
|b) Silver nitrate |
|c) Lead acetate |
|d) Tannin |
|e) Cooper sulphate |
| |
|Choose astringent drug: |
|a) menthol |
|b) tanninum |
|c) carbosem |
|d) mucilago amyli |
|e) medicas E |
| |
|All the preparations listed below are sedatives but one: |
|a) natrium bromide |
|b) preparations made of valerian |
|c) amphetamine |
|d) diphenhydramine |
|e) barbital |
| |
|Name indication of disulfiram: |
|a) Alcoholic coma |
|b) Acute alcohol poisoning |
|c) Withdrawal syndrome |
|d) Delirium tremens |
|e) Used to support the treatment of chronic alcoholism |
| |
|Name flumazenil mechanism of action: |
|a) Blocks competitivly benzodiazepins receptors |
|b) Blocks GABAB receptors |
|c) Increases benzodiazepins metabolism |
|d) Decreases benzodiazepins metabolism |
|e) Has GABA-mimetic action |
| |
|Name diazepam mechanism of action: |
|a) Blocks benzodiazepins receptors |
|b) Blocks GABAB receptors |
|c) Blocks GABAA receptors |
|d) GABAA receptors activation and hyperpolarization |
|e) GABAA receptors activation and depolarization |
| |
|What drug does manifest the minimal action on the rapid faze of sleeping: |
|a) phenobarbital |
|b) pentobarbital |
|c) nitrazepam |
|d) barbital |
|e) cyclobarbita |
| |
|Hypnotic drugs are used to treat: |
|a) psychoses |
|b) sleep disoders |
|c) narcolepsy |
|d) Parkinsonian disorders |
|e) acute mania |
| |
|What explains the anxiolytic action caused by diazepam? |
|a) interaction with adrenoreceptors |
|b) interaction with cholinoreceptors |
|c) interaction with benzodiazepinic receptors |
|d) interaction with opioid receptors |
|e) interaction with serotonine receptors |
| |
|Mechanism of barbiturates tolerance: |
|a) Induction of microsomal enzymes |
|b) Inhibition of microsomal enzymes |
|c) Decreased absorption in GI tract |
|d) Increased elimination through kidney |
|e) Receptors desensitization |
| |
|The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is: |
|a) Activation of GABA receptors |
|b) Antagonism of glycine receptors in the spinal cord |
|c) Blockade of the action of glutamic acid |
|d) Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase |
|e) Activation of M cholynoreceptors |
| |
|GABA A receptors (ligand-gate ) involve the movement of what ion across the membrane? |
|a) K+ |
|b) Ca++ |
|c) Cl- |
|d) Na+ |
|e) Mg++ |
| |
|Name antagonist of benzodiazepines: |
|a) unitiol |
|b) naloxone |
|c) tramadol |
|d) protamine sulphate |
|e) flumazenil |
| |
|Which of the below listed drugs manifest a minimum action upon fast sleep phase? |
|a) fenobarbital |
|b) pentobarbital |
|c) chloral hydrate |
|d) barbital |
|e) oxazepam |
| |
|Choose opioid receptor antagonist: |
|a) Morphine |
|b) Codeine |
|c) Omnopon |
|d) Naltrexone |
|e) Talamonal |
| |
|Morphine has each the effects listed EXCEPT: |
|a) myosis |
|b) constipation |
|c) bradycardia |
|d) hypothermia |
|e) hyperthermia |
| |
|Name agonist-antagonist of opiod receptors: |
|a) Metamisol |
|b) Naltrexone |
|c) Tramadol |
|d) Pentazocine |
|e) Omnopon |
| |
|Signs of opioid poisoning are, EXCEPT: |
|a) Miosis |
|b) Falling in body temperature |
|c) Increased body temperature |
|d) Respiratory depression |
|e) Hypotension |
| |
|Name antagonist of opiod analgesics: |
|a) Metamisol |
|b) Naloxone |
|c) Tramadol |
|d) Pentazocine |
|e) Omnopon |
| |
|Choose GABA-receptor agonist with analgesic properties: |
|a) Diphenhydramine |
|b) Carbamazepine |
|c) Ketamine |
|d) Baclofen |
|e) Paracetamol |
| |
|Choose α2-agonist with analgesic properties: |
|a) Diphenhydramine |
|b) Carbamazepine |
|c) Ketamine |
|d) Clonidine |
|e) Paracetamol |
| |
|Choose drug with analgesic properties administered by inhalation: |
|a) Nitrous oxide |
|b) Diphenhydramine |
|c) Carbamazepine |
|d) Ketamine |
|e) Halothane |
| |
|The main effects of non-opioid analgesics are, except: |
|a) anti-inflammatory |
|b) antiagregant |
|c) antipyretic |
|d) somnolence |
|e) analgesic |
| |
|Morphine causes following effects, EXCEPT: |
|a) Analgesic |
|b) Euphoria |
|c) Stimulation of the vagal center |
|d) Stimulation of the cough center |
|e) Segmentation of the intestine |
| |
|The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is: |
|a) Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation |
|b) Coma, depressed respiration and miosis |
|c) Miosis, tremor and hypertermia |
|d) Mydriasis, chills and abdominal cramps |
|e) Mydriasis, tremor and vomiting |
| |
|Which of the following agents is used in the treatment of acute opioid overdose? |
|a) Pentazocine |
|b) Methadone |
|c) Naloxone |
|d) Remifentanyl |
|e) Buprenorphine |
| |
|All of the following are opium derivatives EXCEPT: |
|a) codeine |
|b) thebaine |
|c) morphine |
|d) paracetamol |
|e) papaverine |
| |
|Each of the findings listed is characteristic of opioid poisoning EXCEPT: |
|a) Coma |
|b) Miosis of the pupils |
|c) Bradycardia |
|d) Low body temperature |
|e) Mydriasis |
| |
|Each of the findings listed is characteristic of opioid poisoning EXCEPT: |
|a) Coma |
|b) Myosis |
|c) Depressed respiration |
|d) Flaccidity of skeletal muscles |
|e) Elevated body temperature |
| |
|Indicate the pure opioid antagonist: |
|a) Morphine |
|b) Naltrexone |
|c) Tramadol |
|d) Pentazocine |
|e) Tramadol |
| |
|Which of the following drugs has weak µ agonist effects and inhibitory action on norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake in the CNS? |
|a) Loperamide |
|b) Tramadol |
|c) Fluoxetine |
|d) Butorphanol |
|e) Nalbuphine |
| |
|What is the difference of trimeperidine from morphine? |
|a) Analgesic activity is inferior by up to 2-4 times |
|b) Causes nausea more frequent than morphine |
|c) Inhibits respiratory center to higher degree |
|d) Duration of analgesic effect is longer |
|e) Is administered in lower dose |
| |
|Alkaloid from Papaver somniferum is: |
|a) nalbuphine |
|b) thalamonal |
|c) pentazocine |
|d) morphine |
|e) sufentanyl |
| |
|Which antiepileptic drug causes hyperplastic gingivitis? |
|a) Phenobarbital |
|b) Phenytoin |
|c) Carbamazepine |
|d) Ethosuximide |
|e) Sodium valproate |
| |
|Which one of the following drugs exerts its anticonvulsant effects by blocking sodium chanels in neuronal membranes? |
|a) Phenobarbital |
|b) Valproic acid |
|c) Diazepam |
|d) Chlorpromazine |
|e) Magnesium sulphate |
| |
|Which one of the following drugs exerts its anticonvulsant effects by blocking sodium chanels in neuronal membranes? |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Carbamazepine |
|c) Diazepam |
|d) Gabapentin |
|e) Vigabatrin |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of Parkinson′s disease? |
|a) Pilocarpine |
|b) Trihexyphenidyl |
|c) Edrophonium |
|d) Succinylcholine |
|e) Hexamethonium |
| |
|Antiparkinsonic drugs are: |
|a) Primidone + Phenytoin + Ethsuximide |
|b) Phenibut + Baclofen + Mefedol |
|c) Lorazepam + Flurazepam + Zopiclon |
|d) Madopar + Selegeline + Trihexyphenidyl |
|e) Diazepam + Lamotridgine + Valproic acid |
| |
|Effective in treating of extrapyramidal disorders caused by antipsychotic drugs: |
|a) carbidopa |
|b) trihexyphenidyl |
|c) haloperidol |
|d) amantidine |
|e) levodopa |
| |
|Name catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitor: |
|a) Carbidopa |
|b) Benserazide |
|c) Sinemet |
|d) Entacapone |
|e) Selegiline |
| |
|Choose antagonist of glutamate NMDA-receptors: |
|a) Carbidopa |
|b) Benserazide |
|c) Sinemet |
|d) Amantadine |
|e) Selegeline |
| |
|Name trihexyphenidyl side effects: |
|a) Intestinal spasm |
|b) Bradycardia |
|c) Tachycardia |
|d) Miosis |
|e) Hypersalivation |
| |
|Select antipsychotic drugs: |
|a) Diazepam, Ethosuximide, Carbamasepine |
|b) Phenobarbital, Barbital, Chloralhidrate |
|c) Levodopa, Trihexyphenidyl, Amantadine |
|d) Levomepromazine, Chlorpromasine, Droperidol |
|e) Omnopon, Morphine, Fentanyl |
| |
|The phenothiazines have a variety of actions at different receptors types. However, they do NOT appear to interact with receptors: |
|a) Dopamine |
|b) Histamine |
|c) Nicotine |
|d) Adrenoreceptors |
|e) Muscarine |
| |
|A 50-yer-old patient has periodically a period of depression follow by psychosis. Choose the drug to prevent this disorder: |
|a) Amitriptyline |
|b) Lithium carbonate |
|c) Levomepromasine |
|d) Nootropil |
|e) Vallerian |
| |
|Effective in treating acute dystonia caused by antipsychotic drugs: |
|a) carbidopa |
|b) trihexyphenidyl |
|c) haloperidol |
|d) madopar |
|e) levodopa |
| |
|Chlorpromazine would not be appropriate drug management of: |
|a) Acute mania |
|b) The amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndrome |
|c) CNS stimulants intoxication |
|d) Schizoaffective disorders |
|e) Bipolar disorders |
| |
|If one patient is taking amitriptyline and another patient is taking chlorpromazine, they are both likely to experience: |
|a) Excessive salivation |
|b) Extrapyramidal dysfunction |
|c) Gynecomastia |
|d) Increased gastrointestinal motility |
|e) Postural hypotension |
| |
|The following neuroleptic drug has sympatholytic activity: |
|a) Reserpine |
|b) Sulpiride |
|c) Risperidone |
|d) Chlorprothixene |
|e) Haloperidol |
| |
|The main effect of neuroleptics is: |
|a) antiagregant |
|b) antidopaminic |
|c) cholinomimetic |
|d) adrenomimetic |
|e) GABA-ergic. |
| |
|The following neuroleptic drug blocks both D2 and 5-HT2A receptors: |
|a) Risperidone |
|b) Sulpiride |
|c) Droperidol |
|d) Chlorprothixene |
|e) Haloperidol |
| |
|Name atypical antipsychotic drug: |
|a) Droperidol |
|b) Pimozid |
|c) Clozapine |
|d) Chlorprothixene |
|e) Haloperidol |
| |
|Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia are caused by blockade dopamine in: |
|a) The nigrostriatal system |
|b) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems |
|c) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla |
|d) The tubero-infundibular system |
|e) The scheletal muscle |
| |
|Select antiparkinsonic drugs: |
|a) Diazepam, Ethosuximide, Carbamasepine |
|b) Phenobarbital, Barbital, Chloralhidrate |
|c) Levodopa, Trihexyphenidyl, Amantadine |
|d) Levomepromazine, Chlorpromasine, Droperidol |
|e) Phenobarbital, Diazepam, Nitrazepam |
| |
|Many therapeutically useful drugs act via brain dopaminergic systems. Which one of the following mechanism exacerbates Parkinson's disease? |
|a) Inhibition of dopamine reuptake |
|b) Increase in dopamine synthesis |
|c) Activation of dopamine receptors |
|d) Inhibition of dopamine metabolism |
|e) Blockade of dopamine receptors |
| |
|The drug that increase amount of dopamine in Parkinson's disease: |
|a) bromocriptine |
|b) levodopa |
|c) selegeline |
|d) amantadine |
|e) trihexyphenidyl |
| |
|Select peripheral DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor: |
|a) Amantadine. |
|b) trihexyphenidyl |
|c) Carbidopa. |
|d) Selegiline. |
|e) Bromocriptine. |
| |
|Select nootropics (smart drugs) from the combinations: |
|a) Carbamazepine + Chlorpromazine +Haloperidol |
|b) Pyracetam + Meclofenoxat + Picamilone |
|c) Caffeine + Mesocarb + Methamphetamine |
|d) Nialamide + Maprotiline + Amitriptyline |
|e) Amphetamine + Sibutramine + Mezocarb |
| |
|Which of the following can cause ""serotonin syndrome": |
|a) Fluoxetine |
|b) Amitriptyline |
|c) Pipofezin |
|d) Imipramine |
|e) Maprotiline |
| |
|Mechanism of action of tricycle antidepressants:: |
|a) Stimulation of GABA system |
|b) Increasing of beta adrenoreceptors activity |
|c) M-cholinoreceptors block |
|d) Inhibition of mediators reuptake on the presynaptic membrane level |
|e) MAO inhibition |
| |
|The following drug blocks selectively neuronal uptake of norepinephrine: |
|a) Fluoxetine |
|b) Amitriptyline |
|c) Pipofezin |
|d) Imipramine |
|e) Maprotiline |
| |
|The following drug blocks selectively MAO-A: |
|a) Fluoxetine |
|b) Amitriptyline |
|c) Moclobemide |
|d) Imipramine |
|e) Maprotiline |
| |
|What is the principal mechanism of action of Tricyclic antidepressants? |
|a) exit receptors |
|b) diminishes monoaminoxidase activation |
|c) inhibits neuronal reuptake of monoamines |
|d) activates monoaminoxidase |
|e) stimulates neuronal reuptake of monoamines |
| |
|Which kind of substance is psychostimulants? |
|a) piracetam |
|b) baclofen |
|c) amphetamine |
|d) valproaic acid |
|e) prometazine |
| |
|Following groups are psychoanaleptics: |
|a) neuroleptics, sedatives, tranquilisators |
|b) adaptogenes, neuroleptics, nootropes |
|c) psychostimulants, antidepressants, adaptogenes |
|d) psychosomimetics, antidepressants |
|e) analgesic, neuroleptics, sedatives |
| |
|Name the nootropic agent: |
|a) Caffeine |
|b) Fluoxetine |
|c) Eleuterococci extract |
|d) Piracetam |
|e) Sydnocarb |
| |
|What amino acids is converted into catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine)? |
|a) Valine |
|b) Lysine |
|c) Proline |
|d) Tyrosine |
|e) Alanine |
| |
|Which location contains choline from phosphatidylcholine? |
|a) Milk |
|b) Liver |
|c) Eggs |
|d) Peanuts |
|e) Blood plasma |
| |
|Which of the mediator is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidasmore than the others? |
|a) Serotonin |
|b) Norepinepherine |
|c) Dopamine |
|d) Histamine |
|e) Achetylcholine |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis? |
|a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go) |
|b) α2 (Gi/Go) |
|c) β1 (Gs) |
|d) β2 (Gs) |
|e) β3 (Gs) |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction? |
|a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go) |
|b) α2 (Gi/Go) |
|c) β1 (Gs) |
|d) β2 (Gs) |
|e) β3 (Gs) |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (ratand inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction |
|velocity, and increases rennin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells? |
|a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go) |
|b) α2 (Gi/Go) |
|c) β1 (Gs) |
|d) β2 (Gs) |
|e) β3 (Gs) |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic β-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, |
|and contracts vascular smooth muscle? |
|a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go) |
|b) α2 (Gi/Go) |
|c) β1 (Gs) |
|d) β2 (Gs) |
|e) β3 (Gs) |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine? |
|a) Direct binding to the receptor |
|b) Promoting release of norepinephrine |
|c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine |
|d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine |
|e) Stimulation of monoaminoxydase |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors? |
|a) Direct binding to the receptor |
|b) Promoting release of norepinephrine |
|c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine |
|d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine |
|e) Activation of COMT |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclic antidepressants? |
|a) Direct binding to the receptor |
|b) Promoting release of norepinephrine |
|c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine |
|d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine |
|e) Activation of COMT |
| |
|At the adrenergic presynapse, what does α2 do? |
|a) Stimulates NE release |
|b) Inhibits NE release |
|c) Stimulates ACh release |
|d) Vasoconstrcition |
|e) No effect |
| |
|β2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion? |
|a) K+ |
|b) Ca++ |
|c) Cl- |
|d) Na+ |
|e) Mg++ |
| |
|Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the adrenergic |
|receptors is activated? |
|a) α1 |
|b) α2 |
|c) β1 |
|d) β2 |
|e) β3 |
| |
|Supraselective beta1 adrenergic receptor antagonist: |
|a) esmolol |
|b) metoprolol |
|c) nebivolol |
|d) propranolol |
|e) timolol |
| |
|Primary therapeutic use for central alpha2 selective adrenergic agonists: |
|a) management of arrhythmias |
|b) management of renal insufficiency |
|c) management of intraoperative hypotensive states |
|d) management of hypertension |
|e) management of Raynaud's phenomenon |
| |
|Receptors that mediate most of epinephrine's cardiac effects: |
|a) beta1 adrenergic |
|b) beta2 adrenergic |
|c) dopaminergic |
|d) alpha1-adrenergic |
|e) alpha2-adrenergic |
| |
|Concerning low-dose dopamine: interaction with this receptor causes renal, mesenteric, and coronary vasodilation: |
|a) beta1 adrenergic receptors |
|b) beta2 adrenergic receptors |
|c) dopamine D1 receptors |
|d) alpha-adrenergic |
|e) prostaglandin receptors |
| |
|Beta adrenergic receptor blockers:effects on the heart: |
|a) increase heart rate |
|b) increase contractility |
|c) reduce contractility |
|d) increase automatism |
|e) no change |
| |
|Primary mechanism by which norepinephrine acutely increases BP: |
|a) increases intravascular volume |
|b) increases heart rate |
|c) vasoconstriction at precapillary resistance muscles and veins |
|d) increases angiotensin II plasma levels |
|e) increases renine levels |
| |
|Muscarinic ACh receptors and adrenergic receptors are associated with which of the receptors? |
|a) Intracellular receptors for lipid soluble ligands |
|b) Transmembrane receptors with enzymatic cytosolic domains |
|c) G-protein coupled receptors |
|d) Ligand-gated ion channels |
|e) Non of the above |
| |
|Nicotinic N2 receptors are the ____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ____ subtype: |
|a) Neuronal; Muscular |
|b) Muscular; Neuronal |
|c) Nodal; Neuronal |
|d) Neuronal; Nodal |
|e) Sympathetic; Parasympathetic |
| |
|Name beta 2 adrebomimetic drug: |
|a) Phenylephrine |
|b) Epinepherine |
|c) Oxymetazoline |
|d) Isoprenaline |
|e) xSalbutamol |
| |
|Name the α1 drug of choice for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)? |
|a) Ephedrine |
|b) Epinepherine |
|c) Oymetazoline |
|d) Isoproterenol |
|e) Phenylephrine |
| |
|Name drug used in hypotension: |
|a) Clonidine |
|b) Methyldopa |
|c) Guanabenz |
|d) Guanfacine |
|e) Epinephrine |
| |
|Name group of drugs that is used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor? |
|a) α2-agonist |
|b) α1-agonist |
|c) β3-agonist |
|d) β2-agonist |
|e) β1-agonist |
| |
|Which of the agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure? |
|a) α1-agonist |
|b) α2-agonist |
|c) β1-agonist |
|d) β2-agonist |
|e) β3-agonist |
| |
|Name β-antagonist? |
|a) Terbutaline |
|b) Ritodrine |
|c) Salmeterol |
|d) Metoprolol |
|e) Phenylepherine |
| |
|Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the group should be |
|given to the patient? |
|a) α-agonist |
|b) α-blocker |
|c) β-agonist |
|d) β-blocker |
|e) α, β -agonist |
| |
|Name contraindication for β-blocker therapy? |
|a) Hypotension |
|b) Angina pectoris |
|c) Arrhythmias |
|d) Myocardial infarction |
|e) Glaucoma |
| |
|Which of the β-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary body? |
|a) Propranolol |
|b) Nadolol |
|c) Carvedilol |
|d) Timolol |
|e) Metoprolol |
| |
|Blocking α2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the changing in the mediator release? |
|a) Stimulate NE release |
|b) Inhibit NE release |
|c) Stimulate DA release |
|d) Inhibit DA release |
|e) No effect |
| |
|Which of the effect is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a α1-agonist drug? |
|a) Hypotension |
|b) Hypertension |
|c) Tissue necrosis |
|d) Vasodilation |
|e) Lipolysis |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic agonist can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn to quickly, leading to rebound |
|hypertension? |
|a) α1-agonist |
|b) α2-agonist |
|c) β1-agonist |
|d) β2-agonist |
|e) β3-agonist |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in 50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in |
|males, nauseas, dizziness, and sleep disturbances? |
|a) α1-agonist |
|b) α2-agonist |
|c) β1-agonist |
|d) β2-agonist |
|e) β3-agonist |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics? |
|a) α2-agonist |
|b) α1-agonist |
|c) β3-agonist |
|d) β2-agonist |
|e) β1-agonist |
| |
|Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which of the adrenergic agonists? |
|a) α2-agonist |
|b) α1-agonist |
|c) β3-agonist |
|d) β2-agonist |
|e) β1-agonist |
| |
|If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the acute responses is most likely? |
|a) Stimulation of NE release |
|b) Inhibition of NE release |
|c) Stimulation of ACh release |
|d) Inhibition of ACh release |
|e) No response due to MAO inhibitor |
| |
|Major adverse affects of the α1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the other? |
|a) Orthostatic tachycardia |
|b) Orthostatic bradycardia |
|c) Orthostatic hypertension |
|d) Orthostatic hypotension |
|e) Increased cardiac output |
| |
|Which of the effect would be intensified with the α2 blockade? |
|a) Reflex tachycardia |
|b) Reflex bradycardia |
|c) Orthostatic hypertension |
|d) No effect |
|e) Platelet clotting |
| |
|Name the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with β1-blockers: |
|a) Atrial fibrillation |
|b) Reflex tachycardia |
|c) Hypertention |
|d) Angina pectory |
|e) AV block |
| |
|Which of the groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in β2-blockers? |
|a) Asthmatics |
|b) Congestive heart failure patients |
|c) Trauma patients |
|d) Myocardial infarction |
|e) Patients with deep vein thromboses (DVTs) |
| |
|Administration of which drug can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?|
| |
|a) α1-blocker |
|b) α2-blocker |
|c) β1-blocker |
|d) β2-blocker |
|e) β3-blocker |
| |
|Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)? |
|a) K+ |
|b) Ca++ |
|c) Cl- |
|d) Na+ |
|e) H+ |
| |
|Best description of the drug nicotine is: |
|a) Muscular subtype nicotinic agonist |
|b) Muscular subtype nicotinic antagonist |
|c) Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist |
|d) Neuronal subtype nicotinic antagonist |
|e) Non of above |
| |
|With receptors are acting by Pilocarpine? |
|a) α1 adrenoreceptrs |
|b) α2 adrenoreceptrs |
|c) N Cholynoreceptors |
|d) β2 adrenoreceptrs |
|e) M cholynoreceptors |
| |
|What is pilocarpine most commonly used for? |
|a) For decreasing heart rate |
|b) To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation) |
|c) For urinary retention |
|d) Decreasing intraocular pressure |
|e) For erectile dysfunction |
| |
|What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine? |
|a) Acetylcholine agonists |
|b) Acetylcholine antagonists |
|c) Muscarinic agonists |
|d) Muscarinic antagonists |
|e) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors |
| |
|What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade)? |
|a) Bethanechol |
|b) Pilocarpine |
|c) Pirenzepine |
|d) Scopolamine |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination? |
|a) Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation |
|b) Cycloplegia (ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction) |
|c) Miosis and increased lacrimation |
|d) Mydriasis and cycloplegia |
|e) Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and miosis |
| |
|Name an adverse affect of atropine? |
|a) Increased salivation |
|b) Blurred vision |
|c) Bradycardia |
|d) Diaphoresis (sweating) |
|e) Decreased intraocular pressure |
| |
|Which drug is used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or transdermal patch): |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Scopolamine |
|c) Homatropine |
|d) Tropicamide |
|e) Pirenzepine |
| |
|Name correct drugs: mydriatics/cycloplegics, ____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last 6 hours (shor): |
|a) Atropine; Scopolamine |
|b) Scopolamine; Homatropine |
|c) Homatropine; Tropicamide |
|d) Tropicamide; Atropine |
|e) Atropine; Tropicamide |
| |
|Which from reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is mostly used for atropine intoxication? |
|a) Neostigmine |
|b) Physostigmine |
|c) Endrophonium |
|d) Donepezil |
|e) Pyridostigmine |
| |
|Which from reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia? |
|a) Neostigmine |
|b) Physostigmine |
|c) Endrophonium |
|d) Donepezil |
|e) Pyridostigmine |
| |
|Which from reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease? |
|a) Neostigmine |
|b) Physostigmine |
|c) Endrophonium |
|d) Donepezil |
|e) Pyridostigmine |
| |
|Which drug is used for dyagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis (MG)? |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Endrophonium |
|c) Homatropine |
|d) Tropicamide |
|e) Physostigmine |
| |
|In smooth muscle and glandular tissue, ACh binds to what muscarinic receptor, leading to the DAG cascade? |
|a) M1 |
|b) M2 |
|c) M3 |
|d) M4 |
|e) M5 |
| |
|In the heart and inines, what muscarinic receptor inhibits adenylyl cyclase activity? |
|a) M1 |
|b) M2 |
|c) M3 |
|d) M4 |
|e) M5 |
| |
|Which of the following is a common effect of muscarinic stimulant drugs? |
|a) Decreased peristalsis |
|b) Decreased secretion by salivary glands |
|c) Hypertension |
|d) Relaxation of ciliary muscle |
|e) Bradycardia |
| |
|Name drug which causes hypersecretion of exocrine drugs: |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Scopolamine |
|c) Pilocarpine |
|d) Ephedrine |
|e) Tropicamide |
| |
|Name drug used in intoxication with Sorin: |
|a) Pilocarpine |
|b) Neostigmine |
|c) Atropine |
|d) Aceclidine |
|e) Galantamine |
| |
|The main symptoms in intoxication with Amanita Palidum and organophosphates are: |
|a) bronchospasm + bradycardia + miosis |
|b) myasthenia + olyguria + hyposalivation |
|c) sphincters constriction + bronchodilation |
|d) hypomotility + tachycardia + cycloplegia |
|e) mydriasis + olyguria + hyposalivation |
| |
|Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of action? |
|a) Acetylcholine |
|b) Methacholine |
|c) Carbachol |
|d) Bethanechol |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Name the M-cholinimimetic agent: |
|a) Carbachol |
|b) Pilocarpine |
|c) Acetylcholine |
|d) Bethanechol |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Neostigmine acts through blocking: |
|a) cholinetransferase |
|b) acetyl-CoA |
|c) adenylatecyclase |
|d) acetylcholinesterase |
|e) phosphodiesterase |
| |
|Which of the following cholinomimetics is a plant derivative with lower potency than nicotine but with a similar spectrum of action? |
|a) Lobeline |
|b) Pilocarpine |
|c) Carbachol |
|d) Acetylcholine |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Which one of the following drugs has been used in ophthalmology, but causes intaoculary hypotension: |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Echothiophate |
|c) Pilocarpine |
|d) Ephedrine |
|e) Tropicamide |
| |
|The mechanism of action of indirect-acting cholinomimetic agents is: |
|a) Binding to and activation of muscarinic or nicotinic receptors |
|b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine |
|c) Stimulation of the action of acetylcholinesterase |
|d) Releasing acetylcholine from storage sites |
|e) Decrease releasing of acetylcholine from storage sites |
| |
|Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor: |
|a) Dipiroxime |
|b) Carbachol |
|c) Galantamine |
|d) Pilocarpine |
|e) Aceclidine |
| |
|Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is irreversible? |
|a) Physostigmine |
|b) Galantamine |
|c) Neostigmine |
|d) Armine |
|e) Pilocarpine |
| |
|By using cholinomimetics following effects might be established: |
|a) rise of cardiac contraction frequency |
|b) vasoconstriction |
|c) bronchospasm |
|d) decrease of renal secretion |
|e) relaxation of smooth muscle in gastrointestinal tract |
| |
|Which of the following is a common effect of cholinomimetic drugs? |
|a) Decreased peristalsis |
|b) Decreased secretion by salivary glands |
|c) Hypertention |
|d) Inhibitoon of sweat glands |
|e) Spasm of accommodation |
| |
|Indications of cholinomimetics include following states EXCEPT: |
|a) intoxication with Atropine |
|b) glaucoma |
|c) myasthenia |
|d) stimulation of the respiration |
|e) bronchial asthma |
| |
|Cholinomimetics have follow effects EXCEPT: |
|a) bradyckardia |
|b) bronchospasm |
|c) xerosthomia |
|d) lacrimation |
|e) miosis |
| |
|Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type: |
|a) Heart |
|b) Glands |
|c) Smooth muscle |
|d) Endothelium |
|e) Eye smooth muscle |
| |
|The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT: |
|a) Salivation, lacrimation, nausea, vomiting |
|b) Dryness of mouth, hyperpyrexia, hallucination |
|c) Headache, abdominal colic |
|d) Bradycardia, hypotension and shock |
|e) Nausea, vomiting, bradycardia |
| |
|Select the drug that you will administrate in intoxication with mushrooms and organophosphates: |
|a) Pilocarpine |
|b) Neostigmine |
|c) Atropine |
|d) Cizaprid |
|e) Tubocurarine |
| |
|Which of the following cholinomimetic activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors? |
|a) Lobeline |
|b) Pilocarpine |
|c) Nicotine |
|d) Acetylcholine |
|e) Aceclidine |
| |
|Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs: |
|a) Edrophonium |
|b) Physostigmine |
|c) Carbachol |
|d) Dipiroxime |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Which of the following is a common effect of muscarinic stimulant drugs? |
|a) Decreased peristalsis |
|b) Decreased secretion by salivary glands |
|c) Hypertention |
|d) Inhibitoon of sweat glands |
|e) Miosis |
| |
|Choose the broncholitic mechanism of atropine: |
|a) Excitement of M-cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi |
|b) β2 adrenoreceptors stimulation in the smooth muscle of bronchi |
|c) Stimulation of N-cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi |
|d) Inhibition of adenosine-receptors |
|e) Blocking of M-cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi |
| |
|Patients complain of dry or "sandy" eyes when receiving large doses of: |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Hexamethonium |
|c) Pilocarpine |
|d) Carbachol |
|e) Lobeline |
| |
|Choose drug used in motion sickness: |
|a) Tropicamide |
|b) Ipratropium |
|c) Scopolamine |
|d) Homatropine |
|e) Oxitropium |
| |
|The pharmacologic actions of scopolamine most closely resemble those of: |
|a) Hexamethonium |
|b) Atropine |
|c) Succinylcholine |
|d) Pilocarpine |
|e) Aceclidine |
| |
|Compared with atropine, scopolamine has all of the following properties EXCEPT: |
|a) More marked central effect |
|b) Less potent in decreasing bronchial, salivary and sweat gland secretion |
|c) More potent in producing mydriasis and cycloplegia |
|d) Lower effects on the heart |
|e) Lower effect on the bronchial muscle and intestines |
| |
|Indicate the drug, which is rapidly distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic agents? |
|a) Pilocarpine |
|b) Scopolamine |
|c) Homatropine |
|d) Ipratropium |
|e) Oxitropium |
| |
|The mechanism of atropine action is: |
|a) Competitive ganglion blockade |
|b) Competitive muscarinic blockade |
|c) Competitive neuromuscular blockade |
|d) Noncompetitive neuromuscular blockade |
|e) Inhibition of cholinesterase |
| |
|Indicate following preparation, which provokes the longest term effect of mydriasis: |
|a) scopolamine |
|b) ephedrine |
|c) Platyphylline |
|d) Epinephrine |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is used for acute toxic effects of mushrooms poisoning? |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Pilocarpine |
|c) Pralidoxime |
|d) Aceclidine |
|e) Edrophonium |
| |
|The main symptoms in intoxication with mushrooms and organophosphates are: |
|a) sphincters constriction + mydriasis + bronchodilation |
|b) myasthenia + olyguria + hyposalivation |
|c) bradycardia + bronchospasm + miosis |
|d) hypomotility + tachycardia + cycloplegia |
|e) olyguria + cycloplegia+ tachycardia |
| |
|M3 receptor subtype is located: |
|a) In the myocardium |
|b) In sympathetic postganglionic neurons |
|c) On effector cell membranes of glandular and smooth muscle cells |
|d) On the motor end plates |
|e) In parasympathetic ganglia |
| |
|The treatment of the antimuscarinic effects can be carried out with: |
|a) Neostigmine |
|b) Hexametonium |
|c) Homatropine |
|d) Scopolamine |
|e) Acetylcholine |
| |
|What phenomena of atropine is being used to establish a diagnose in ophthalmology? |
|a) miosis |
|b) mydriasis |
|c) spasm of acommodation |
|d) circular iris muscle contraction |
|e) intraocular pressure growth |
| |
|The remedy used in intoxication with organophosphates: |
|a) cizaprid |
|b) armine |
|c) phenytoin |
|d) pylocarpine |
|e) atropine |
| |
|Which of the following drugs has been used in ophthalmology, but causes mydriasis and cycloplegia lasting more than 24 hours? |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Echothiophate |
|c) Edrophonium |
|d) Ephedrine |
|e) Tropicamide |
| |
|Which one of the following drugs has been used in ophthalmology, but causes mydriasis and cycloplegia lasting more than 24 hourrs? |
|a) Plathyphylline |
|b) Atropine |
|c) Scopolamine |
|d) Izoprenaline |
|e) Echothiophate |
| |
|Atropine has the effects EXCEPT: |
|a) dry moth |
|b) mydriasis |
|c) hypersalivation |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) atony of smooth muscle |
| |
|Choose the broncholitic mechanism of atropine:: |
|a) Blockage of M- cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi |
|b) Excitement of beta2 adrenoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi |
|c) Stimulation of adenilatcyclase |
|d) Direct action on the smooth muscle of bronchi |
|e) Excitement of M cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi |
| |
|Which one of the following statements about scopolamine is false? |
|a) It has depressant actions on CNS |
|b) It may cause hallucinations |
|c) It is poorly distributed across the placenta to the fetus and across blood-brain barrier |
|d) It may prevent motion sickness and vertigo when applied as a patch to the skin |
|e) It is from the same group with atropine. |
| |
|Choose the drug belonging to selective beta2-adrenomimics: |
|a) x Salbutamol |
|b) Isoprenaline |
|c) Salmeterol |
|d) Terbutaline |
|e) Hexoprenaline |
| |
|Select the side-effect characteristic for non-selective beta-adrenomimics: |
|a) Depression of the breathing centre |
|b) Tachycardia |
|c) Peripheral vasoconstriction |
|d) Dry mouth |
|e) Miosis |
| |
|Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used especially as an anti-asthmatic? |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Ipratropium |
|c) Platiphylline |
|d) Metacin |
|e) Pirenzepine |
| |
|Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used mostly as intestinal spasmolytic? |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Ipratropium |
|c) Platiphylline |
|d) Metacin |
|e) Pirenzepine |
| |
|The main effects of ganglion-blocking drugs are, EXCEPT: |
|a) vasodilatation and hypotension |
|b) hyposecretion |
|c) increase of intraoculary pression |
|d) bronchospasm |
|e) relaxation of the smooth muscles and contraction of the sphincters |
| |
|Tubocurarine blocks the action of acethylcholine and similar agonists at: |
|a) Muscarinic receptor site |
|b) Neuromuscular junction |
|c) Parasimpathetic ganglia |
|d) Axonal transmission |
|e) Simpathetic ganglia |
| |
|Which of the following agents is a short-acting ganglion blocker? |
|a) Homatropine |
|b) Trimethaphane |
|c) Hexamethonium |
|d) Pancuronium |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Ganglion blocking drugs are used for the following states EXCEPT: |
|a) Hypertensive crises |
|b) Controlled hypotension |
|c) Cardiovascular collapse |
|d) Pulmonary edema |
|e) Malignant hypertension |
| |
|The shortest duration hypotensive activity is characteristic for: |
|a) Reserpine |
|b) Guanethidine |
|c) Treperium iodide |
|d) Tropaphen |
|e) Propranolol |
| |
|Agents that produce neuromuscular blockade act by inhibiting: |
|a) Interaction of acetylcholine with cholinergic receptors |
|b) Release of acetylcholine from prejunctional membrane |
|c) Packaging of acetylcholine into synaptic vesicles |
|d) Reuptake of acetylcholine into the nerve ending |
|e) Metabolism of acetylcholine |
| |
|Which of the following drugs has "double-acetylcholine" structure? |
|a) Tubocurarine |
|b) Carbachol |
|c) Atropine |
|d) Atracurium |
|e) Suxamethonium |
| |
|Indicate the depolarizing agent: |
|a) Suxamethonium |
|b) Tubocurarine |
|c) Vecuronium |
|d) Atracurium |
|e) Pancuronium |
| |
|Neuromuscular blockade by suxamethonium may be prolonged in patients with: |
|a) Renal failure |
|b) An abnormal variant of plasma cholinesterase |
|c) Cardiac failure |
|d) Acute hypotension |
|e) Gastric ulcer |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant? |
|a) Pancuronium |
|b) Succinylcholine |
|c) Hexamethonium |
|d) Scopolamine |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Which of the following neuromuscular blockers causes transient muscle fasciculations? |
|a) Atracurium |
|b) Pancuronium |
|c) Suxamethonium |
|d) Tubocurarine |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Depolarizing agents include all of the following properties EXCEPT: |
|a) Interact with nicotinic receptor to compete with acetylcholine without receptor activation |
|b) React with the nicotinic receptor to open the channel and cause depolarisation of the end plate |
|c) Cause desensitization, noncompetive block manifested by flaccid paralysis |
|d) Cholinesterase inhibitors do not have the ability to reverse the blockade |
|e) Can caused transient muscle fasciculations |
| |
|Which neuromuscular blocking agent has the potential to cause the greatest release of histamine? |
|a) Suxamethonium |
|b) Tubocurarine |
|c) Pancuronium |
|d) Vecuronium |
|e) Atracurium |
| |
|Which of the following muscular relaxants causes hypotension and bronchospasm? |
|a) Vecuronium |
|b) Suxamethonium |
|c) Tubocurarine |
|d) Pancuronium |
|e) Atracurium |
| |
|Indicate the neuromuscular blocker, which causes tachycardia: |
|a) Tubocurarine |
|b) Atracurium |
|c) Pancuronium |
|d) Suxamethonium |
|e) Vecuronium |
| |
|Which neuromuscular blocking agent is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma? |
|a) Tubocurarine |
|b) Suxamethonium |
|c) Pancuronium |
|d) Vecuronium |
|e) Atracurium |
| |
|Indicate the agent, which effectively antagonizes the neuromuscular blockade caused by nondepolarizing drugs: |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Neostigmine |
|c) Acetylcholine |
|d) Pralidoxime |
|e) Scopolamine |
| |
|Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents cause cardiac arrhythmias? |
|a) Vecuronium |
|b) Atracurium |
|c) Tubocurarine |
|d) Pipecuronium |
|e) Suxamethonium |
| |
|Witch substance can be mostly used in acute rhinitis? |
|a) clonidine |
|b) nafasoline |
|c) salbutamol |
|d) izoprenaline |
|e) phenylefrine |
| |
|Which of the following effects is associated with beta3-receptor stimulation? |
|a) Lipolysis |
|b) Decrease in platelet aggregation |
|c) Bronchodilation |
|d) Tachycardia |
|e) Hyperglicemia |
| |
|Indicate the beta1-selective agonist: |
|a) Isoproterenol |
|b) Dobutamine |
|c) Metoprolol |
|d) Epinephrine |
|e) Ephedrine |
| |
|Mechanism of action of Clonidine: |
|a) Inhibition of rennin-angiotensine system |
|b) Activation of β-adrenoreceptors |
|c) Activation of alfa2-presynaptic adrenoreceptors |
|d) Blockage of alfa2 adrenoreceptors |
|e) Inhibition of cholinergyc system |
| |
|Select the drug that acts on the bronchi selectively: |
|a) Epinephrine |
|b) Ephedrine |
|c) Norepinephrine |
|d) Salbutamol |
|e) Izoprenaline |
| |
|Which of the following agents is an alfa1-selective agonist? |
|a) Norepinephrine |
|b) Fenilephrine |
|c) Ritodrine |
|d) Ephedrine |
|e) Epinephrine |
| |
|By what mechanism does clonidine lower blood pressure? |
|a) Decreased heart rate by direct action on S-A node |
|b) Direct action on the emetic center causing nausea and vomiting |
|c) Direct action on blood vessels causing vasodilatation |
|d) Stimulation of α2-adrenoreceptors with inhibition of noradrenaline release |
|e) None of the above |
| |
|Location of beta 2 adrenoreceptors includes following places EXCEPTS: |
|a) Vessels |
|b) Presynaptic membrane |
|c) Liver |
|d) Bronchi |
|e) Juxtaglomerular cells |
| |
|Sympathetic stimulation is mediated by: |
|a) Release of norepinephrine from nerve terminals |
|b) Activation of adrenoreceptors on postsynaptic sites |
|c) Release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla |
|d) N-cholinoreceptors stimulation in sympathetic ganglia |
|e) All of the above |
| |
|Which of the following sympathomimetics acts indirectly? |
|a) Epinephrine |
|b) Norepinephrine |
|c) Ephedrine |
|d) Naphasoline |
|e) Fenilephrine |
| |
|What is the mechanism of action of ephedrine? |
|a) inhibit eliberation of acetylcholine |
|b) stimulate eliberation of acetylcholine |
|c) stimulate eliberation of norepinephrine |
|d) inhibit eliberation of norepinephrine |
|e) doesn't have an effect on eliberation of neurotransmitters |
| |
|Phenylephrine causes: |
|a) Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosa |
|b) Increased gastric secretion and motility |
|c) Increased skin temperature |
|d) Miosis |
|e) All of the above |
| |
|Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by: |
|a) Alfa1 receptor |
|b) Alfa 2 receptor |
|c) Beta1 receptor |
|d) Beta 2 receptor |
|e) Beta 3 receptor |
| |
|What kind of drug is contraindicated in the pregnancy because of stimulation of the delivery? |
|a) alcohol |
|b) salbutamol |
|c) indomethacine |
|d) furosemide |
|e) ergometrine |
| |
|In which of the following tissues both alfa and beta adrenergic stimulation produces the same effect? |
|a) Blood vessels |
|b) Intestine |
|c) Uterus |
|d) Bronchial muscles |
|e) Platelets |
| |
|The effects of sympathomimetics on blood pressure are associated with their effects on: |
|a) The heart |
|b) The peripheral resistance |
|c) The venous return |
|d) Juxtaglomerular apparatus |
|e) All of the above |
| |
|Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is contained in all of the following tissues EXCEPT: |
|a) Bronchial muscles |
|b) Heart |
|c) Pupillary dilator muscle |
|d) Fat cells |
|e) Juxtaglomerular apparatus |
| |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is a nonselective beta-blocker without intrinsic sympathomimetic or local anesthetic activity and used for the |
|treatment of life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias? |
|a) Propranolol |
|b) Oxprenolol |
|c) Nadolol |
|d) Sotalol |
|e) Atenolol |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is a reversible nonselective alfa, beta antagonist? |
|a) Labetalol |
|b) Phentolamine |
|c) Metoprolol |
|d) Propranolol |
|e) Prasosine |
| |
|Select the mechanism of action of propranolol: |
|a) stimulation of beta1-adenoreceptors |
|b) blockage of beta2 adrenoreceptors |
|c) blockage of alpha, beta adrenoreceptors |
|d) blockage of beta1, beta2 adrenoreceptors |
|e) stimulation of M, N cholynoreceptors |
| |
|Which of the following beta receptor antagonists is preferable in patients with asthma, diabetes or peripheral vascular diseases? |
|a) Propranolol |
|b) Metoprolol |
|c) Nadolol |
|d) Sotalol |
|e) Timolol |
| |
|Indicate the indirect-acting adrenoreceptor blocking drug: |
|a) Tolazoline |
|b) Reserpine |
|c) Carvedilol |
|d) Prazosin |
|e) Propranolol |
| |
|Name property of salbutamol: |
|a) neselective Beta-adrenomimetic |
|b) selective action on Beta2-adrenergic recetors |
|c) marked cardiac effects |
|d) positive marked inotropic, batmotropic, chronotropic and dromotropic |
|e) rise of bronchial and uteral tonus. |
| |
|Location of beta2 adrenoreceptors includes following places EXCEPT:: |
|a) vessels |
|b) ciliary muscle |
|c) liver |
|d) bronchi |
|e) juxtaglomerular cells |
| |
|Select the mechanism of action of propranolol: |
|a) stimulation of β1- adrenoreceptors |
|b) blockage of β 2 adrenoreceptors |
|c) stimulation of α1- adrenoreceptors |
|d) blockage of α,β adrenoreceptors |
|e) blockage of β1, β 2 adrenoreceptors |
| |
|Select the mechanism of action of metoprolol: |
|a) blockage of β1, β 2 adrenoreceptors |
|b) blockage of αβ adrenoreceptors |
|c) blockage of β 1 adrenoreceptors |
|d) stimulation of β2 adrenoreceptors |
|e) stimulation of β1 adrenoreceptors |
| |
|Name beta adrenoblocker drug: |
|a) neostigmine |
|b) hydralazine |
|c) propranolol |
|d) atropine |
|e) clonidine |
| |
|What type of drug is propranolol? |
|a) Anticonvulsive |
|b) Antihypertensive |
|c) Antihistamine |
|d) Antinauseant |
|e) Antipyretic |
| |
| |
|What would be contraindicated for propranolol? |
|a) Hypertension |
|b) Essential tremoк |
|c) Angina |
|d) Tachycardia |
|e) Asthma |
| |
|Select the mechanism of action of metoprolol: |
|a) stimulation of β2 adrenoreceptors |
|b) blockage of β1 adrenoreceptors |
|c) blockage of α,β adrenoreceptors |
|d) blockage of β1, β 2 adrenoreceptors |
|e) stimulation of α1- adrenoreceptors |
| |
|Indirect action includes all of the following properties EXCEPT: |
|a) Displacement of stored catecholamines from the adrenergic nerve ending |
|b) Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines already released |
|c) Interaction with adrenoreceptors |
|d) Inhibition of the release of endogenous catecholamines from peripheral adrenergic neurons |
|e) MAO inhibition |
| |
|From witch group is phentolamine? |
|a) non-selective α-blocker |
|b) selective α1-blockers |
|c) selective (1-blockers |
|d) selective (2-blockers |
|e) Non-selective (-blocker |
| |
|Mechanism of action of prazosin : |
|a) Alpha-1 receptor blocker |
|b) Beta-1 receptor blocker |
|c) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor |
|d) Calcium channel blocker |
|e) Alpha-2 receptor blocker |
| |
|Indicate the reversible nonselective alfa-receptor antagonist, which is an ergot derivative: |
|a) Ergotamine |
|b) Prazosin |
|c) Phenoxybenzamine |
|d) Fenilephrine |
|e) Carvedilol |
| |
|Nonselective alfa-receptor antagonists are most useful in the treatment of: |
|a) Asthma |
|b) Cardiac arrhythmias |
|c) Urinary retention |
|d) Pheochromocytoma |
|e) Chronic hypertension |
| |
|Indicate the adrenoreceptor antagonist drug, which is a rauwolfia alkaloid: |
|a) Prazosin |
|b) Propranolol |
|c) Sotalol |
|d) Reserpine |
|e) Phentolamine |
| |
|Which one of the following statements about sympatholytics is fals? |
|a) Affect noradrenaline synthesis |
|b) Affect noradrenaline release |
|c) Affect noradrenalne reuptake |
|d) Bind covalently to the alfa- receptor an produce an irreversible effect |
|e) Inhibit influx of Ca 2+ through presynaptic membrane and inhibit in this way mediators release |
| |
|What is the drug of choice for an anaphylactic reaction? |
|a) Adenosine |
|b) Atropine |
|c) Epinephrine |
|d) Dobutamine |
|e) Midazolam |
| |
|Name the sympatholythic drug: |
|a) Labetalol |
|b) Prazosin |
|c) Guanethidine |
|d) Clonidine |
|e) Propranolol |
| |
|With one of the following statements about sympatholytics is fals?: |
|a) block alfa, beta adrenoreceptors |
|b) affect noradrenaline release |
|c) affect noradrenalne uptake. |
|d) affect noradrenaline synthesis |
|e) inhibit the flux of Ca 2+ through presynaptic membrane and inhibit in this way mediators release |
| |
|Specify the level of action of sympatholitics: |
|a) blockage of alfa adrenoreceptors |
|b) stimulation of adrenoreceptors |
|c) act on the presynaptic level. |
|d) adrenaline destruction |
|e) blockage of beta adrenoreceptors |
| |
|The agent is from sympatholitics group: |
|a) prazosine |
|b) hydralazine |
|c) diazoxide |
|d) propranolol |
|e) reserpine |
| |
|Dopamine-mediated renal vasodilation is caused by which receptor(s) system(s): |
|a) Beta2 adrenergic receptors |
|b) Beta1 adrenergic receptors |
|c) Dopamine D1 and D2 postsynaptic receptors |
|d) Muscarinic receptors |
|e) Leukotriene receptors |
| |
|Drugs prescribed to relax the smooth muscles of the bronchial tubes are called: |
|a) Bronchospastics |
|b) Bronchodilators |
|c) Broncoconstrictors |
|d) Anticonvulsants |
|e) Muscle relaxants |
| |
|What is the mechanism of action of trypsin? |
|a) Direct action on the bronchial glands. |
|b) fluidification of sputum, depolymerization of proteins. |
|c) Stimulates bronchial muscles and ciliated epithelium. |
|d) Rising secretion and fluidification of sputum. |
|e) Intensive secretion of reflexive bronchial glands. |
| |
|What is the indication for chymotrypsin? |
|a) pregnancy |
|b) purulent and necrotic processes |
|c) enterobiosis |
|d) duodenal ulcer |
|e) angina pectoris |
| |
|Indicate the drug belonging to antitussive of narcotic type of action: |
|a) Glaucine hydrochloride |
|b) Aethylmorphine hydrochloride |
|c) Noscapine |
|d) Oxeladine |
|e) Pentoxiverine |
| |
|Which of the following drugs are being used as expectorants? |
|a) potassium chloride |
|b) magnesium sulfate |
|c) sodium sulfate |
|d) potassium iodide |
|e) calcium carbonate |
| |
|Mechanism of action of bromhexine? |
|a) breaks off S-S groups and bind with them. In this way decrease viscosity of the bronchi mucus. |
|b) irritates gastric mycousa membrane and increase bronchi secretions |
|c) inhibits cough center in the bulb |
|d) breaks off mucopolysaharide and mucoproteic groups. Also it stimulates secretion of surfactant. |
|e) stimulates CNS in subcortical lever and bulb. |
| |
|Indicate the expectorant with the reflex mechanism: |
|a) Sodium benzoate |
|b) Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis |
|c) Trypsin |
|d) Ambroxol |
|e) Acetylcistein |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is proteolytic enzyme? |
|a) Potassium iodide |
|b) Desoxiribonuclease |
|c) Carbocysteine |
|d) Acetylcysteine |
|e) Sodium benzoate |
| |
|Mechanism of broncholytic action of isoprenaline: |
|a) blocking of M-cholinoreceptors from smooth muscles of the bronchi |
|b) direct influence on the smooth muscles of the bronchi |
|c) excitment of beta-adrenoreceptors of smooth muscles of the bronchi. |
|d) depression of phosphodiesterase activity |
|e) non f the above |
| |
|Choose the drug that block leucotriene receptors: |
|a) Budesonide |
|b) Sodium cromoglycate |
|c) Zileuton |
|d) Beclometazone |
|e) Zafirlucast |
| |
|Drug used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include: |
|a) beclomethasone |
|b) cromoglycate sodium |
|c) ipratropium |
|d) isoprenaline |
|e) all of the above |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is a 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOX) inhibitor? |
|a) Ibuprofen |
|b) Zileuton |
|c) Methamizole |
|d) Diclofenac |
|e) Zafirlukast |
| |
|Name the drug belonging to membranestabilizing agents: |
|a) Zileutin |
|b) Sodium cromoglycate |
|c) Zafirlucast |
|d) Montelucast |
|e) Aminophylline |
| |
|Choose pharmacodynamic particularity of aminophylline: |
|a) inhibits respiratory center in bulb |
|b) biliary motility depression |
|c) bronchial relaxation |
|d) decreasing cardiac activity |
|e) increased mast cell degranulation |
| |
|Name drug contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma: |
|a) Propranolol |
|b) Clonidine |
|c) Enalapril |
|d) Nifedipine |
|e) Salmeterol |
| |
|Which drug is a leukotriene receptor antagonist D4 (LTD4)? |
|a) ibuprofen |
|b) zileuton |
|c) zafirleukast |
|d) diclofenac |
|e) aspirin |
| |
|Which drug is an inhibitor of 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOG)? |
|a) zafirlukast |
|b) zileuton |
|c) beclomethasone |
|d) montelukast |
|e) terbutaline |
| |
|Mechanism of action of aminophylline consists in:: |
|a) stimulates phosphodiesterase |
|b) decreasing of intracellular сAMP |
|c) rising of mast cells degranulation |
|d) xblock of adenozinic receptors |
|e) inhibition of hyaluronidase |
|Mechanism of action of aminophylline: |
|a) phosphodiesterase stimulation |
|b) phosphodiesterase inhibition |
|c) increasing of mast. degranulation |
|d) modification of membrane permeability for Ca+ |
|e) inhibition of hyaluronidase |
| |
|Name the main therapeutic effect of methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline: |
|a) Vasoconstriction in many vessels |
|b) Decrease in the amount of camp in mast cells |
|c) Bronchodilation |
|d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase |
|e) Sedation |
| |
|A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronckodilator effect is: |
|a) Sodium Cromoglycate |
|b) ephedrine |
|c) Isoprenaline |
|d) Metoprolol |
|e) Salbutamol |
| |
|Select the drug that acts selectively on the Beta 2 receptors of the bronchi: |
|a) epinephrine |
|b) ephedrine |
|c) norepinephrine |
|d) salbutamol |
|e) izoprenaline |
| |
|What is therapeutic effect of ethanol in pulmonary edema? |
|a) dehydration |
|b) analgesia |
|c) antispume effects |
|d) decreasing of the arterial tension in the small circulation |
|e) stimulation of the respiratory center |
| |
|What kind of action have morphine in pulmonary edema? |
|a) Dehydration |
|b) Diuretic |
|c) Antispume |
|d) Decreasing of the arterial pressure in the small circulation |
|e) Sedative action. |
| |
|Witch kind of action will be in ganglioblockers administration in pulmonary edema? |
|a) dehydration |
|b) diuretic action |
|c) anti-spume action |
|d) antihypertension action |
|e) sedative action |
| |
|The main effect of ganglion blocking drugs in pulmonary edema is: |
|a) dehydration |
|b) hypotensive |
|c) bronchodilation |
|d) antiallergic |
|e) anti-foaming |
| |
|With one of the following statements about ethanol is false? |
|a) xdoesn’t cross the biological barrier |
|b) the drug is distributed to most body tissues |
|c) its volume of distribution is equivalent to that of total body water. |
|d) is rapidly and completely absorbed |
|e) causes withdrawn syndrome |
| |
|What kind of the remedies is used in bronchial asthma? |
|a) Propranolol |
|b) Naphasoline |
|c) Dobutamine |
|d) Salmeterol |
|e) Norepinephrine |
| |
|Pharmacodynamics of disodium chromoglycate: |
|a) Bronchospasmolitic |
|b) Stabilization of the mast cell membrane. |
|c) Antihistaminic |
|d) Antispastic |
|e) Anntiinflamatory |
| |
|Mechanism of action of sodium cromoglycate: |
|a) produce a lymphopenia, particularly of T lymphocytes by destribution of cell into the lymphoid tissue |
|b) produces mast cell stabilization (depression of release of histamine, neuropeptides, antagonism of tachykinin receptors, inhibition of PAF |
|interaction with platelets and eosinophils) |
|c) blocks H1 histaminoreceptors |
|d) alteration of lymphocyte function |
|e) stimulate beta2 adrenoreceptors of bronchi |
| |
|What kind of drug is used in bronchial asthma? |
|a) propranolol |
|b) nafasoline |
|c) doputamine |
|d) ozagrel |
|e) norepinephrine |
| |
|A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronchodilator effect is: |
|a) Salbutamol |
|b) Fenoterol |
|c) Nedocromil |
|d) ephedrine |
|e) Isoprenaline |
| |
|Drug used in asthma often causing tachycardia and tremor is: |
|a) Beclomethasone |
|b) Cromolyn sodium |
|c) Ipratropium |
|d) Orciprenaline |
|e) All of the above |
| |
|What is therapeutic effect of ethanol in pulmonary edema? |
|a) Dehydration |
|b) Analgesia |
|c) Anti-foaming effects |
|d) Decreasing of the arterial tension in the small circulation |
|e) Stimulation of the respiratory center |
| |
|Which of the following anti-asthmatic drugs may worsen gastric ulcer? |
|a) epinephrine |
|b) prednisolone |
|c) salbutamol |
|d) isoprenaline |
|e) disodium cromoglycate |
| |
|This drug acts by inhibiting nucleotide phosphodiesterase type III: |
|a) Amiodarone |
|b) Milrinone |
|c) Propanolol |
|d) Enalapril |
|e) Valsartan |
| |
|This drug should probably not be administered to a patient with congestive heart failure because the drug may further reduce contractility; |
|the drug should probably also not be prescribed to an asmatic since the drug may increase bronchiolar smooth muscle tone: |
|a) Digoxin |
|b) Terbutaline |
|c) Propranolol |
|d) Atropine |
|e) Doxazosine |
| |
|Initial drug(s) for management of mild to moderate heart failure: |
|a) Parenteral inotropic drugs, e.g. dobutamine |
|b) Hydralazine |
|c) Furosemide |
|d) Captopril |
|e) Torasemide |
| |
|Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility? |
|a) Digoxin |
|b) Lidocaine |
|c) Propranolol |
|d) Quinidine |
|e) Verapamil |
| |
|A positive cardiac inotropic agent? |
|a) Amrinone |
|b) Amiodarone |
|c) Atenolol |
|d) Salbutamol |
|e) Mannitol |
| |
|Longest acting from digitals: |
|a) Digoxin |
|b) Digitoxin |
|c) Both |
|d) Neither |
| |
|Name positive inotropic drug of glycoside structure: |
|a) Dopamine |
|b) Digoxin |
|c) Dobutamine |
|d) Adrenalin |
|e) Methyldopa |
| |
|Diuretic most likely to cause hypokalemia: |
|a) Triamterene |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Spironolactone |
|d) Furosemide |
|e) Acetazolamide |
| |
|Choose the drug with longest duration of action? |
|a) strophantine |
|b) celanide |
|c) corglicon |
|d) digoxine |
|e) digitoxine |
| |
|An elderly male patient has essential hypertension, congestive heart failure, and type I insulin-dependent diabetes. His congestive failure |
|developed secondary to coronary vascular disease associated with hyperlipidemia. What antihypertensive drug(s) may be most appropriate for |
|this patient? |
|a) Chlorothiazide |
|b) Captopril |
|c) Propranolol |
|d) Metoprolol |
|e) Hexamethonium |
| |
|A drug devoid of negative inotropic effects and is effective in the treatment of cardiac insufficiency: |
|a) amantadine |
|b) papaverine |
|c) digoxine |
|d) clonidine |
|e) metoprolol |
| |
|The primary cause of digitalis toxicity is: |
|a) Intracellular calcium overload |
|b) Intracellular potassium overload |
|c) Increased parasympathetic activity |
|d) Increased adrenocorticosteroid levels |
|e) All of the above |
| |
|In the therapy of congestive heart failure, the most important pharmacologic action of digitalis is its ability to: |
|a) produce diuresis in edematous patients |
|b) reduce venous pressure |
|c) increase myocardial contractile force |
|d) increase heart rate |
|e) decrease pacemaker automaticity in cells of the bundle of His |
| |
|A positive cardiac inotropic agent: |
|a) Amrinone |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Propranolol |
|d) Salbutamol |
|e) Neostigmine |
| |
|Glycosides are indicated in: |
|a) Cardiac right blockade |
|b) Ventricular tachyarrhythmias |
|c) Atrio-ventricular blocks |
|d) Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias |
|e) W.P.W. syndrome. |
| |
|Potentiate hypokalemia associated with digoxin therapy: |
|a) insulin |
|b) spironolactone |
|c) furosemide |
|d) indomethacine |
|e) imipramine |
| |
|Antihypertensive: action based on inhibition of norepinephrine release from adrenergic nerve endings: |
|a) Propranolol |
|b) Guanethidine |
|c) Hexamethonium |
|d) Phentolamine |
|e) Prazosine |
| |
|A severe hypertensive crisis is treated with: |
|a) epinephrine |
|b) salbutamol |
|c) trimetaphan |
|d) diazepam |
|e) tubocurarine |
|The drug with the most useful effects in the treatment of inoperable metastatic pheochromocytoma secreting mostly norepinephrine is: |
|a) clonidine |
|b) minoxidil |
|c) phentolamine |
|d) propranolol |
|e) reserpine |
| |
|Which of these following antihypertensives are an alpha 1- adrenoblocker? |
|a) Hydralazine |
|b) Propranolol |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Nifedipine |
|e) Prazosin |
| |
|Name the hypotensive remedy from beta- adrenoblokers?: |
|a) Hydrochlorthyazide |
|b) Methyldopa |
|c) Clonidine |
|d) Hydralazine |
|e) Metoprolol |
| |
|Vasoconstriction, aldosterone secretion, and renin release suppression occur upon activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. How |
|would captopril affect these responses? |
|a) Blocks all three |
|b) Blocks only vasoconstriction |
|c) Blocks all except vasoconstriction |
|d) Blocks only renin release |
|e) No effect |
| |
|Side effects of this antihypertensive agent includes tachycardia, angina, reversible lupus-like syndrome: |
|a) Propranolol |
|b) Hexamethonium |
|c) Hydralazine |
|d) Diazoxide |
|e) Metoprolol |
| |
|Following preparation groups belong to antihypertensive drugs but one exception: |
|a) alpha- adrenoblockers |
|b) alpha- adrenomimetics |
|c) beta- adrenoblockers |
|d) alpha-2-central adrenomimetics |
|e) sympatholytics |
| |
|Principal mechanisms by which beta adrenergic receptor blockade decreases BP: |
|a) Vasodilation-- arteriolar |
|b) Vasodilation -- venular |
|c) Reduced heart rate and reduced myocardial contractility |
|d) Blockade of angiotensin II receptors |
|e) Decreased central sympathetic outflow |
|Antihypertensive drugs belonging to the same class: |
|a) Doxazosin, prazosin, metoprolol |
|b) Nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem |
|c) Clonidine, guanabenz, terazosin |
|d) Lisinopril, fosinopril, guanadrel |
|e) Propranolol, labetalol, dinoprostol |
| |
|Select Ca channel-blocking drugs: |
|a) nifedipine + diltiazem + verapamil |
|b) trinitrolong + nitrong + isosorbide dinitrat |
|c) minoxidil + pinacidil + nicorandil |
|d) aminophylline + xantinol nicotinates + carbocromen |
|e) dipyridamol + lidoflazine |
| |
|Name hypotensive remedy, which act on the renin-angiogenesis system: |
|a) propranolol |
|b) spironolactone |
|c) bendazole |
|d) captopril |
|e) hydrochlorothiazide |
| |
|Place of action of clonidine: |
|a) Inhibition of rennin-angiotensine system |
|b) Activation of beta adrenoreceptors |
|c) Activation of alpha2 presynaptic adrenoreceptors |
|d) Blockage of alpha2 adrenoreceptors |
|e) Inhibition of cholinergyc system |
| |
|By what mechanism does clonidine lower the blood pressure?: |
|a) Decreased heart rate by direct action on S-A node |
|b) Direct action on the emetic center causing nausea and vomiting |
|c) Direct action on blood vessels causing vasodilatation |
|d) Stimulation of alfa2 adrenoreceptors with inhibition of noradrenaline realizing |
|e) None of the above |
| |
|This antihypertensive compound will inhibit both α-and β-receptor functions: |
|a) Atenolol |
|b) Labetalol |
|c) Both |
|d) Neither |
| |
|Choose the drug which increases cardiac output: |
|a) Norepinephrine |
|b) Methyldopa |
|c) Phenylephrine |
|d) Angiotensinamide |
|e) Diazoxide |
| |
|Indicate the vasoconstrictor of endogenous origin: |
|a) Ephedrine |
|b) Phenylephrine |
|c) Xylomethazoline |
|d) Angiotensinamide |
|e) Profetur |
| |
|Choose the synthetic vasoconstrictor having an adrenomimic effect: |
|a) Norepinephrine |
|b) Epinephrine |
|c) Phenylephrine |
|d) Angiotensinamide |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|General unwanted effects of vasoconstrictors are: |
|a) Increase of arterial pressure |
|b) Increase of cardiac output |
|c) Decrease of peripheral blood flow |
|d) Increase of blood volume |
|e) Dispnoe |
| |
|Which statement describes the pathway of nitric oxide (NO)? |
|a) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilation |
|b) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasodilation |
|c) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction |
|d) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilation |
|e) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction |
| |
|By what mechanism does nitroglycerine lower the blood pressure? |
|a) Direct action on the emetic center causing nausea and vomiting |
|b) Direct action on blood vessels causing vasodilatation |
|c) Decreased heart rate by direct action on S-A node |
|d) Stimulation of α 2 adrenoreceptors with inhibition of noradrenaline realizing |
|e) None of the above |
| |
|Which type of receptors can be activated by angiotensinamide: |
|a) Adrenergic alpha-1 receptors |
|b) Cholinergic receptors |
|c) Dopaminergic receptors |
|d) Angiotensin's receptors |
|e) Adrenergic beta-1 receptors |
| |
|For increasing blood pressure in case of low cardiac output the following agents must be used: |
|a) Ganglioblockers |
|b) Vasoconstrictors |
|c) Positive inotropic drugs |
|d) Diuretics |
|e) M-cholinomimetics |
| |
|Name the unwanted effects of clonidine: |
|a) Parkinson's syndrome |
|b) Sedation, dry mouth, and hypotension |
|c) Gray baby syndrom |
|d) Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia |
|e) Psychostimulant effect |
|A severe hypertensive crisis is treated with: |
|a) atropine |
|b) levodopa |
|c) benzohexonium |
|d) diazepam |
|e) amphetamine |
| |
|The longest anti-hypotensive action can be observed by administrating of: |
|a) epinephrine |
|b) phenylephrine |
|c) dopamine |
|d) norepinephrine |
|e) isoturon |
| |
|Indicate hypotensive beta-adreno blocker remedy: |
|a) hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) methyldopa |
|c) clonidine |
|d) hydralazine |
|e) metoprolol |
| |
|Antiarrhythmic drug with antimalarial and antipyretic effects: |
|a) Tocainide |
|b) Procainamide |
|c) Metoprolol |
|d) Quinidine gluconate |
|e) Lidocaine |
| |
|Choose the drugs from Group IB antiarrhythmic drugs: |
|a) quinidine, ajmaline, procainamide |
|b) flecainide, encainide, propafenone |
|c) phenytoine, lidocaine, mexiletine |
|d) verapamil, galapamil, diltiazem |
|e) amiodarone, adenosine |
| |
|Preferred in the treatment of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome: |
|a) Morphine |
|b) Carbamazepine |
|c) Amantadine |
|d) Verapamil |
|e) Nifedipine |
| |
|Antiarrhythmic drug: long-term use associated with a lupus-related side effect: |
|a) Quinidine gluconate |
|b) Propranolol |
|c) Procainamide |
|d) Verapamil |
|e) Adenosine |
| |
|Preferred for acute management of angina: |
|a) Nitroprusside sodium |
|b) Hydralazine |
|c) Sublingual nitroglycerin |
|d) Propranolol |
|e) Minoxidil |
| |
|Name antianginous mechanism ov validol: |
|a) musculotropic coronarodilatory action |
|b) reflectory coronarodilatory action |
|c) inotropic negativ effect |
|d) peripheral vessels dilation |
|e) stimulation of cardiac contractility |
| |
|Which of the following antianginal agents is a myotropic coronary dilator: |
|a) Dipyridamole |
|b) Validol |
|c) Atenolol |
|d) Alinidine |
|e) Nitroglycerine |
| |
|Which of the following antianginal agents refers to reflex coronary dilators: |
|a) Dipyridamole |
|b) Validol |
|c) Atenolol |
|d) Alinidine |
|e) Nitroglycerine |
| |
|Mechanism of action of diltiazem : |
|a) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor |
|b) Blockade of calcium channels |
|c) Alpha-1 receptor antagonists |
|d) Beta-1 receptor antagonist |
|e) Beta-2 receptor agonist |
| |
|Witch antiarrhythmic is for the first choice in ventricular arrhythmias in myocardial infarction? |
|a) Quinudine |
|b) Amiodarone |
|c) Lidocaine |
|d) Propranolol |
|e) Niphedipine |
| |
|Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of obesity? |
|a) Bromocriptine |
|b) Cimetidine |
|c) Ergotamine |
|d) Ondansetron |
|e) Sibutramine |
| |
|Indicate the serotonin antagonists preventing vomiting? |
|a) scopolamine |
|b) ondansetron |
|c) diphenhydramine |
|d) atropine |
|e) droperidol |
| |
|Which of the following drugs may cause reversible gynecomastia? |
|a) Omeprazole |
|b) Pirenzepine |
|c) Cimetidine |
|d) Sucralfate |
|e) Pirenzepine |
| |
|What vitamine belongs to cytoprotective gastric mucosa? |
|a) Choline |
|b) Orotic acid |
|c) Pangamic acid |
|d) 5- methyl methionine (sulfonium chloride) |
|e) Polyphenol |
| |
|All of the following agents intensify the secretion of gastric glands except: |
|a) Pepsin |
|b) Gastrin |
|c) Histamine |
|d) Somatostatin |
|e) Prostaglandin E |
| |
|Name the drug that causes metabolic alkalosis: |
|a) Sodium bicarbonate |
|b) Cimetidine |
|c) Pepto-Bismol |
|d) Carbenoxolone |
|e) Famotidine |
| |
|Which drug is an analog of prostaglandin E1? |
|a) Misoprostole |
|b) De-nol |
|c) Sucralfate |
|d) Omeprazole |
|e) Lansoprasole |
| |
|Name antacid that causes constipation: |
|a) Sodium bicarbonate |
|b) Aluminium hydroxide |
|c) Calcium carbonate |
|d) Magnesium oxide |
|e) Almagel |
| |
|The effect of omeprazole on a parietal cellular level manifests itself through: |
|a) competitive inhibition of gastrinic effect |
|b) competitive inhibition of histamines on a H2-receptor level |
|c) irreversible inhibition of H+/K+ ATPase |
|d) irreversible inhibition of adenylate cyclase |
|e) blocking of prostaglandin receptors |
| |
|Name the drug forming a physical barrier to HCL and Pepsin: |
|a) Ranitidine |
|b) Sucralfate |
|c) Omeprazole |
|d) Pirenzepine |
|e) Sodium bicarbonate |
| |
|Name drug used in gastric ulcer complex treatment: |
|a) chloroquine phosphate |
|b) metronidazole |
|c) chiniophone |
|d) pyrimethamine |
|e) solusurmine |
|Alkaloid of opium with potent smooth muscle relaxant properties: |
|a) phenytoin |
|b) papaverine |
|c) digitalis |
|d) reserpine |
|e) propranolol |
| |
|Name the drug, which inhibits peristalsis: |
|a) Castor oil |
|b) Bisacodyl |
|c) Loperamide |
|d) Sorbitol |
|e) Metoclopramide |
| |
|Namer an emetic drug of central action: |
|a) Ipecacuanha derivatives |
|b) Promethazine |
|c) metoclopramide |
|d) Apomorphine hydrochloride |
|e) zinc sulphate |
| |
|Name the metoclopramide’s mechanism of antiemetic action: |
|a) H1and H2-receptor blocking effect |
|b) M-cholinoreceptor stimulating effect |
|c) D2 -dopamine and 5-HT3-serotonin receptor blocking effect |
|d) M-cholinoblocking effect |
|e) stimulation of D2 -dopamine and 5-HT3-serotonin receptor |
| |
|Name the emetic agent having a reflex action: |
|a) Ipecacuanha derivatives |
|b) Apomorphine hydroclorid |
|c) Chlorpromazine |
|d) Metoclopramide |
|e) cytostatics |
| |
|Name an antiemetic agent which is related to neuroleptics: |
|a) Apomorphine hydroclorid |
|b) Nabilone |
|c) domperidone |
|d) chlorpromazine |
|e) Metoclopramide |
| |
|Name the laxative drug belonging to osmotic laxatives: |
|a) Docusate sodium |
|b) Bisacodyl |
|c) Phenolphthalein |
|d) Sodium phosphate |
|e) Bulk laxatives |
| |
|Which of the laxative and purgative preparation listed below acts exclusively on the small intestine level? |
|a) purgative antrachinone |
|b) castor oil |
|c) phenolphthalein |
|d) magnesium sulfate |
|e) paraffin oil |
| |
|Laxatives and purgatives can act through whichever mechanism listed below but one: |
|a) stimulates motility through an irrigative mechanism. |
|b) stimulates direct cholinergic receptors |
|c) difussion growth plus active water and electrolytes secretion |
|d) water retention in the intestines through hydrophilic and osmotic force. |
|e) direct softening of defecation |
| |
|The mechanism of stimulant purgatives is: |
|a) Increasing the volume of non-absorbable solid residue |
|b) Increasing motility and secretion |
|c) Altering the consistency of the feces |
|d) Increasing the water content |
|e) makes feces softer and more easily passed |
| |
|Arginine is part of a substance group listed below: |
|a) Cholecystokinetic |
|b) Choleretic |
|c) Astringent |
|d) Hepatoprotective |
|e) Antiflatulent |
| |
|Choose hepatoprotective preparations: |
|a) papaverine |
|b) olive oil |
|c) silymarin |
|d) calcium salt |
|e) apomorphine |
| |
|Name a hepatoprotector: |
|a) papaverine |
|b) essentiale |
|c) apomorphine |
|d) lipase |
|e) atropine |
| |
|Name the drug used in chronic pancreatitis: |
|a) apomorphine |
|b) bisacodyl |
|c) pancreatine |
|d) cimetidine |
|e) All of the above |
| |
|Select the medication that ameliorate digestion. |
|a) tripsine, chimotripsine, chimopsine |
|b) fibrinolizine, alteplase, streptokinase |
|c) pepsine, digestal, abomine |
|d) hialuronidase, ronidase, lecozim |
|e) cholinesterase, monoaminoxidase |
| |
|Phenylbutazone belongs to following derivatives: |
|a) pyrazolone |
|b) salicylates |
|c) oxicam |
|d) anthranilic acid |
|e) indoleacetic acid |
| |
|Anti-Inflammatory effect of glucocorticoids is caused by: |
|a) inhibition of phospholipase A2 with reduced synthesis of prostaglandins and leukotriene |
|b) reducing the migration of macrophages in the inflammatory foci |
|c) reduce capillary permeability |
|d) the influence of macrophages by blocking the formation of free radicals |
|e) all of the listed |
| |
|Name specific effects for NSAIDs: |
|a) antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic |
|b) immunosuppressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic |
|c) antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory |
|d) anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, antihistaminic |
|e) analgesic, antihistamine, immunosuppressive |
| |
|Name drug from indole acetic derivatives? |
|a) ibuprofen |
|b) indomethacin |
|c) mefenamic acid |
|d) diclofenac |
|e) piroxicam |
|The selective non steroid anti-inflammatory drug is: |
|a) ibuprofen |
|b) naproxen |
|c) nimesulid |
|d) paracetamol |
|e) diclofenac |
| |
|Name drug from oxicam: |
|a) piroxicam |
|b) indomethacin |
|c) mefenamic acid |
|d) diclofenac |
|e) paracetamol |
| |
|Which NSAIDs is a COX-2 selective NSAIDs? |
|a) piroxicam |
|b) indomethacin |
|c) celecoxib |
|d) diclofenac |
|e) ibuprofen |
| |
|Which NSAIDs is a non-selective NSAIDs? |
|a) piroxicam |
|b) rofecoxib |
|c) celecoxib |
|d) meloxicam |
|e) parecoxib |
| |
|What is the contraindication for NSAIDs? |
|a) rheumatism, inclusive and nonarticulary |
|b) the development of gastric ulcer |
|c) deforming osteoarthrosis |
|d) lumbago |
|e) osteoarthritis |
| |
|Which of the following NSAIDs is a selective COX-2 inhibitor? |
|a) Piroxicam |
|b) Indomethacin |
|c) Celecoxib |
|d) Diclofenac |
|e) Acetylsalicylic acid |
| |
|Choose a steroidal anti-inflammatory drug: |
|a) Phenylbutazone |
|b) Ketoprofen |
|c) Ketorolac |
|d) Triamcinolone |
|e) Hydroxychloroquine |
| |
|Corticoids are indicated in: |
|a) colagenoses |
|b) viral diseases |
|c) AIDS |
|d) immunodeficiency |
|e) herpetic diseases |
| |
|The primary objective for designing drugs that selectively inhibit COX-2 is to |
|a) Decrease the risk of nephrotoxicity |
|b) Improve anti-inlammatory effectiveness |
|c) Lower the risk of gastrointestinal toxicity |
|d) Reduce the cost of treatment of rheumatoid arthritis |
|e) Selectively decrease thromboxane A2 without effects on other eicosanoids. |
| |
|Mechanism of action of non steroid anti-inflammatory preparations: |
|a) Antiemetic effect |
|b) Increasing prostaglandin's synthesis |
|c) Cyclooxigenase inhibition |
|d) Activation of lysosomic enzymes |
|e) Decreasing of neutrophils migration |
| |
|Antiinflammatory steroids often induce: |
|a) hypoglycemia |
|b) hypotension |
|c) hyponatriemia |
|d) buffalo hump |
|e) abdominal colics |
| |
|Name indication for Diclofenac sodium: |
|a) Extraarticular rheumatism |
|b) Gastroduodenal ulcer |
|c) Hemmorrhagic diathesis |
|d) nonspecific ulcerous colitis |
|e) Bronchial asthma |
| |
|Mechanism of action of anti inflammatory steroids consists of: |
|a) Stimulation of Phospholipase A2 |
|b) Inhibition of Phospholipase A2 |
|c) Producing of prostaglandins rises |
|d) Stimulates phosphodiesterase |
|e) blocks beta- adrenergic receptors |
| |
|Mechanism of action of steroidal anti-inflammatory consists in: |
|a) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase |
|b) Stimulation of adenylate cyclise |
|c) Inhibition of phospholipase A2, which is necessary for arachidonic acid. |
|d) Rising in mast cells degranulation. |
|e) Depressing heart activity |
| |
|Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins: |
|a) Sodium salicylate |
|b) Bromhexine |
|c) Colchicine |
|d) Aminophylline |
|e) Carsil |
| |
|The analgesic action of salicylates is the result of: |
|a) the irritability of the reticular pathways |
|b) hypothalamic effect |
|c) cortical effect |
|d) peripheral effect |
|e) opioid receptors stimulation |
| |
|The toxicity spectrum of acetylsalicylic acid does not include: |
|a) Respiratory alkalosis |
|b) Metabolic acidosis |
|c) Hyperprothrombinemia |
|d) Increased risk of peptic ulcer |
|e) Increased risk of encephalopathy in children with viral infection |
| |
|Select nonselective non-steroid anti-inflammatory drug: |
|a) phenytion |
|b) ascorbic acid |
|c) indomethacin |
|d) morphine |
|e) phenobarbital |
| |
|Oral doses may cause gastric irritation and may even cause gastrointestinal bleeding: |
|a) Levomepromazine |
|b) Ampicillin |
|c) Acetylsalicylic acid |
|d) Diphenhydramine |
|d) Loratadine |
| |
|Which of the following statements concerning the anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs are TRUE? |
|a) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from inhibition of cyclooxygenase |
|b) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from inhibition of phospholipase A2 |
|c) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from induction of cyclooxygenase II |
|d) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from inhibition of leucotriens |
|e) All of the answers |
| |
|Which group of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the alpha-adrenoreceptor-blocking effect? |
|a) Alkylamines |
|b) Ethanolamines |
|c) Ethylenediamines |
|d) Phenothiazines |
|e) Piperidines |
| |
|Effects of antihistamines are, EXCEPT: |
|a) Euphoria and /or disphorya |
|b) Anticholinergic peripheral effect |
|c) Low blood pressure |
|d) Antiemetic |
|e) Sedation |
| |
|Name H1 antihistamine from II generation: |
|a) loratadine |
|b) diphenhydramine |
|c) suprastine |
|d) promethazine |
|e) chlorpheniramine |
| |
|Antihistamines H1 aren’t used in: |
|a) the vertigo and Meniere's disease |
|b) psychotic disorders |
|c) allergic symptoms (rhinitis, urticaria) |
|d) nausea and vomiting in pregnancy |
|e) sleep disorders |
| |
|These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for the anticholinergic effect, EXCEPT: |
|a) Alkylamines (propylamines) |
|b) Piperazines |
|c) Ethylenediamines |
|d) Phenothiazines |
|e) Imidasols |
| |
|These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for sedative effects, EXCEPT: |
|a) Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine |
|b) Ethanolamines (aminoalkyl ethers); i.e. Diphenhydramine |
|c) Ethylenediamines; i.e. Chlorophiramine |
|d) Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine |
|e) Imidasols: i.e. Antasoline |
| |
|Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the best antiemetic action? |
|a) Alkylamines |
|b) Ethanolamines |
|c) Piperazines; |
|d) Ethylenediamines; |
|e) Imidasols: i.e. |
| |
|Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the highest local anesthetic effect? |
|a) Alkylamines (propylamines); i.e. Brompheniramine |
|b) Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine, Fexofenadine |
|c) Ethylenediamines; i.e. Chlorophiramine |
|d) Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine |
|e) Imidasols: i.e. Antasoline |
| |
|Side effect of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists is: |
|a) Aplastic anemia |
|b) Vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing |
|c) Sedation |
|d) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding |
|e) Ventricular arrhtythmias |
| |
|Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is recognized for as second-generation antihistamines? |
|a) Alkylamines ; i.e. chlorphenamine |
|b) Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine, Fexofenadine |
|c) Ethylenediamines; i.e. Chlorophiramine |
|d) Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine |
|e) Imidasols: i.e. Antasoline |
| |
|Which of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the serotonin-blocking effect? |
|a) Diphenhydramine |
|b) Cyproheptadine |
|c) Chlorophiramine |
|d) Antasoline |
|e) Promethasine |
| |
|Many antihistamines have additional nonhistamine-related: these are likely to include all of the following EXCEP: |
|a) Antimuscarinic reduction in bladder tone |
|b) Local anesthetic effects if the drug is injected |
|c) Anti-motion sickness effects |
|d) Increase in total peripheral resistance |
|e) Sedation |
| |
|Which of the below listed preparation doesn’t inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins? |
|a) Indomethacin |
|b) Diclofenac |
|c) Piroxicam |
|d) Dyphenhydramine |
|e) Ibuprofen |
| |
|Mechanism of action of diphenhydramin: |
|a) inhibit α- adrenoreceptors |
|b) inhibit dopaminoreceptors |
|c) inhibit H1- receptors |
|d) inhibit Purinergic receptors |
|e) inhibit Serotoninergic receptors. |
| |
|Which receptors block diphenhydramine chloride to cause anti-allergic action? |
|a) H1-histaminoreceptors |
|b) H2-histaminoreceptors |
|c) alpha1-adrenoreceptors |
|d) alpha2-adrenoreceptors |
|e) alpha, beta-adrenoreceptors |
| |
|Gold-salts drugs are: |
|a) methotrexate, azathioprine, cyclosporine |
|b) auranofin, gold sodium thiomalate, aurothioprol |
|c) hydrocortisone, prednesolone, dexamethasone |
|d) nimesulid, meloxicam, celecoxib |
|e) diclofenac, ibuprofen, naproxen |
| |
|Class of cyclosporine A is: |
|a) Interferons |
|b) Immunosuppressive agents |
|c) Monoclonal antibodies |
|d) Immunoglobulins |
|e) H1 antihistamines |
| |
|The most important side effect of interferon gamma is: |
|a) Hypertension |
|b) Pulmonary edema |
|c) Nephrotoxicity |
|d) Fatigue |
|e) Hepatotoixicity |
| |
|Immunomodulating agent is: |
|a) Sirolimus |
|b) Levamisole |
|c) Tacrolimus |
|d) Promethasine |
|e) Cyproheptadine |
| |
|Indication for interferon alpha administration is: |
|a) Autoimmune diseases |
|b) Rheumatoid arthritis |
|c) Organ transplantation |
|d) Hepatitis C virus infection |
|e) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding |
| |
|Name immunomodulatory preparations from cytokines:recombined interleukins: |
|a) Chipferon, Reaferon |
|b) Amyxin, Arbidol |
|c) Timogen, Imunofan |
|d) Pyrogenic, Prodighiozan |
|e) Roncoleuchin, Betaleuchin. |
| |
|Which one of the following compounds enhances immune function in vitro and in clinical trials decreases the symptoms of the common cold? |
|a) Echinacea |
|b) Feverfew |
|c) Garlic |
|d) Milk Thistle |
|e) Melatonin |
| |
|Name the main indication for administration of interferon alpha: |
|a) autoimmune diseases |
|b) rheumatoid arthritis |
|c) organ transplantation |
|d) hepatitis C |
|e) atopic asthma |
| |
|Name minor immunosuppressive preparations: |
|a) cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil |
|b) chloroquine, hydroxychloroquine |
|c) mercaptopurine, azathioprine |
|d) cyclosporine, tacrolimus |
|e) tacrolimus, actinomycin |
| |
|Glycosidic anthracyclene antibiotoc effective in treatment of acute leukemias, malignant lymphomas, and a number of solid tumors: |
|a) Doxorubicin |
|b) Vinblastine |
|c) Penicillin |
|d) Emetine |
|e) Vincristine |
| |
|Choose a slow-acting anti-inflammatory drug: |
|a) Phenylbutazone |
|b) Ketoprofen |
|c) Ketorolac |
|d) Triamcinolone |
|e) Hydroxychloroquine |
| |
|Which one of the following drugs reduces the activity of phospholipase A2: |
|a) Aspirin |
|b) Ibuprofen |
|c) Misoprostol |
|d) Prednisolone |
|e) Zafirlukast |
| |
|Choose a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug from pyrazolone derivatives: |
|a) Phenylbutazone |
|b) Ketoprofen |
|c) Ketorolac |
|d) Triamcinolone |
|e) Hydroxychloroquine |
| |
|Name an endocrine drug, which is an amino acid derivative: |
|a) Insulin |
|b) Hydrocortisone |
|c) Calcitonin |
|d) Thyroxin |
|e) Prednesolone |
| |
|Name an endocrine drug, which is a peptide derivative: |
|a) Insulin |
|b) Prednisolone |
|c) Nandrolone |
|d) Progesterone |
|e) Thyroxin |
| |
|Which one of the following compounds is not a hormone? |
|a) Thyroxine |
|b) Somatotropin |
|c) Vasopressin |
|d) Bromocriptine |
|e) Oxytocin |
| |
|Indicate the use of parathyroid hormone: |
|a) spasmophilia |
|b) pregnancy |
|c) acute renal insufficiency |
|d) hyperglycemia |
|e) Addison disease |
| |
|Indications of vasopressin is following: |
|a) Diabetes mellitus |
|b) Hypertension |
|c) Pituitary diabetes insipidus |
|d) Incompleted abortion |
|e) Acromegaly |
| |
|Which of the following organs is a target for prolactin? |
|a) Liver |
|b) Adrenal cortex |
|c) Thyroid |
|d) Mammary gland |
|e) Pancreas |
| |
|What kind of drug is contraindicated in pregnancy because of high uterine stimulation? |
|a) oxytocin |
|b) salbutamol |
|c) fenoterol |
|d) drotaverine |
|e) acetylsalicylic acid |
| |
|Which of the following hormones is produced by the thyroid gland? |
|a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone |
|b) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone |
|c) Triiodothyronine |
|d) Adrenaline |
|e) Parathormone |
| |
|Corticosteroids are contraindicated in: |
|a) crisis of bronchial asthma |
|b) status asthmaticus |
|c) allergic rhinitis |
|d) colagenosis |
|e) hypertention |
| |
|Which of the following compounds is not a hormone? |
|a) Tamoxifen |
|b) Somatomedin |
|c) Somatotropin |
|d) Thyroxine |
|e) Vasopressin |
| |
|Name the estrogen inhibitor: |
|a) Leuprolide |
|b) Tamoxifen |
|c) Flutamide |
|d) Anastrozole |
|e) Testosterone |
| |
|Name the antiandrogen drug: |
|a) Flutamide |
|b) Aminoglutethimide |
|c) Tamoxifen |
|d) Testosterone |
|e) Carbapenem |
| |
|Toxic effects of the corticosteroids do not include: |
|a) Growth inhibition |
|b) Hypertention |
|c) Hypoglicemia |
|d) Psychosis |
|e) Salt retention. |
| |
|Potentiates the hypokalemia associated with cortisol therapy: |
|a) Glucagon |
|b) Calcium |
|c) Furosemide |
|d) Pyridoxine |
|e) Imipramine |
| |
|Name an antiestrogen drug: |
|a) Aldosterone |
|b) Bromocriptine |
|c) Carbimazole |
|d) Tamoxifen |
|e) Hydrocortisone |
| |
|Triphasic contraceptive is: |
|a) nonoxynol |
|b) tricvilar |
|c) regulon |
|d) divina |
|e) marvelone |
| |
|Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of hyperprolactemia? |
|a) Bromocriptine |
|b) Cimetidine |
|c) Ergotamine |
|d) Ondansetron |
|e) Sumatriptan |
| |
|A hormone that acts to stimulate absorption of calcium and phosphate from the intestine: |
|a) Calcium |
|b) Calcitonin |
|c) Sodium etidronate |
|d) Vitamin D |
|e) Fluoride |
| |
|Name the drug that has the strongest action in water retention in the body: |
|a) aldosteron |
|b) progesterone |
|c) estradyol |
|d) cortocosteron |
|e) testosteron |
| |
|Glucocorticoids are contraindicated in: |
|a) Bronchial asthma |
|b) Status astmaticus |
|c) Allergic rhinitis |
|d) Collagenoses |
|e) Diabetus mellitus |
| |
|Prednisone is contraindicated in: |
|a) crisis of the bronchial asthma |
|b) status asthmaticus |
|c) allergic rhinitis |
|d) collagenosis |
|e) duodenal ulcer |
| |
|Name the indication for estrogens in oncological practice: |
|a) Leukemia |
|b) Cancer of prostate |
|c) Endometrial cancer |
|d) Brain tumors |
|e) Cancer of thyroid gland |
| |
|Hormone androgen preparations have following indications but one: |
|a) Insufficient renal anemia treatment |
|b) inoperable breast cancer in woman during postmenopause |
|c) hypogonadism |
|d) lactic suppression |
|e) breast cancer in men |
| |
|The rate of secretion of thyrotropin is controlled by: |
|a) The amount of iodine in the thyroid gland |
|b) The amount of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland |
|c) The concentration of thyroid hormones in blood |
|d) The concentration of catecholamines in blood |
|e) The concentration of cortisol in blood |
| |
|Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus? |
|a) Ergometrine |
|b) Oxytocin |
|c) Vasopressin |
|d) Methylergometrine |
|e) Quinine |
| |
|What drug might be useful for triggering and obtaining labor term? |
|a) Ergometrine |
|b) Oxytocine |
|c) Dinoprost |
|d) Methylergometrine |
|e) Quinine |
|Indicate the mechanism of contraception being based on preparations, which contains estrogen and gestagen: |
|a) Spermatocidal action |
|b) Annihilation of spermatozoic activities. |
|c) Development inhibition of the follicle and implantation disturbances of the fertilized ovary. |
|d) Cervical liquefaction |
|e) Contribution to the proliferation of uterine mucosa |
| |
|Hormones are: |
|a) Products of endocrine gland secretion |
|b) Mediators of inflammatory process |
|c) By-products of tissue metabolism |
|d) Products of exocrine gland secretion |
|e) Products of arachydonic acid cascade |
| |
|Give the definition of hormone analogues: |
|a) Naturally occurring substances but slightly different from hormones |
|b) Naturally occurring substances but less efficacious than hormones |
|c) Naturally occurring substances having the same structure but different pharmacological properties than hormones |
|d) Synthetic compounds, which resemble the naturally occurring hormones |
|e) Naturally occurring substances |
| |
|Name hormones produced by the hypothalamic gland: |
|a) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) |
|b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) |
|c) Aldosterone |
|d) Estradiol |
|e) Prednesolone |
| |
|Name the hormonal preparation of hypothalamus: |
|a) Thyreotoxin |
|b) Somatostatine |
|c) Hydrocortisone |
|d) Glucagon |
|e) Insulin |
| |
|Which of the following hormone is not synthesized in the hypothalamus? |
|a) Vasopressin |
|b) Thyrotropin-realizing hormone |
|c) Oxytocin |
|d) Luteinizing hormone |
|e) Corticotropin- releasing hormone |
| |
|Name hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland: |
|a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) |
|b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) |
|c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH) |
|d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) |
|e) Aldosterone |
| |
|How does oxytocin change the sensitivity of the myometrium during the period of pregnancy? |
|a) decreasing |
|b) nonessential decreasing |
|c) no changes |
|d) nonessential increasing |
|e) increasing |
| |
|Choose the indication for anabolic steroids: |
|a) Obesity |
|b) Formation of bony callus |
|c) Myxedema |
|d) Arterial hypertension |
|e) Hyperglycemia |
| |
|Vasopressin possesses the following: |
|a) Antidiuretic property |
|b) Vasodilatation property |
|c) Release of a thyroid hormone into the plasma |
|d) Diuretic property |
|e) Release of a adrenal hormone into the plasma |
| |
|Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus? |
|a) Ergometrine |
|b) Oxytocin |
|c) Vasopressin |
|d) Methylergometrine |
|e) quinine |
| |
|Excessive doses of thyroid hormone may cause each of the following EXCEPT: |
|a) angina pectoris |
|b) cardiac decompensation |
|c) adrenal insufficiency |
|d) psychotic behavior |
|e) constipation |
| |
|Concerning testosterone, all of the following are true EXCEPT: |
|a) it is a major male hormone |
|b) it is highly effective by the oral route |
|c) it is reduced to dihydrotestosterone in the body |
|d) it is produced by the testes, ovaries, and adrenal cortices |
|e) about 99% of testosterone in plasma is bound to protein |
| |
|Thyrotropin stimulates the following processes: |
|a) Concentration of iodine by thyroid follicles |
|b) Iodination of thyroglobulin |
|c) Release of thyroxine and triidothyronine |
|d) De-iodination of thyroid hormones |
|e) Release of calcitonine |
| |
|Thyroid hormones produce various pharmacological effects. Indicate the wrong statement: |
|a) Decrease of the basal metabolic rate in the body |
|b) Increase in the rate and force of contraction of the heart |
|c) Increase in the blood level of cholestrol |
|d) Increase in the heat production |
|e) Decrease body mass |
| |
|Insulin is a polypeptide hence: |
|a) It is resistant to destruction by gastric juice |
|b) It is destroyed by gastric juice |
|c) It is not a polypeptide |
|d) It is metabolized immediately by cellular enzymes |
|e) It is used in diabetes mellitus |
| |
|Witch drug is indicated in diabetes insipitus? |
|a) oxytocin |
|b) vasopresin |
|c) angiotensin |
|d) ephedrine |
|e) prazosin |
| |
|Which drug is preferentially indicated in diabetes mellitus, type II? |
|a) tolbutamine |
|b) vasopresin |
|c) glucagon |
|d) insulin |
|e) gonadotropine |
| |
|Which of the following is true for glucagon? |
|a) Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver |
|b) Stimulates the secretion of insulin by beta cells |
|c) Inhibits glucose utilization by skeletal muscle |
|d) Inhibits uptake of aminoacids by cells |
|e) Stimulates the secretion of calcitonine by beta cells |
| |
|Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by: |
|a) Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in muscle and adipose tissues |
|b) Competitive inhibiting of intestinal alpha-glucosidases and modulating the postprandial digestion and absorption of starch and |
|disaccharides |
|c) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut |
|d) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin |
|e) Replacement therapy |
| |
|Insulin cannot be administered by: |
|a) Oral route |
|b) Intravenous route |
|c) Subcutaneous route |
|d) Intramuscular route |
|e) Artificially pancreas |
| |
|Choose the pair of hormones that have agonistic effects on blood sugar levels: |
|a) Calcitonin and PTH |
|b) Adrenalin and Glucagon |
|c) Glucagon and Glucose |
|d) ADH and Aldosterone |
|e) Insulin and Glucagon |
| |
|Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases? |
|a) herpetic keratitis |
|b) status asthmaticus |
|c) lymphoma maligna |
|d) rheumatoid arthritis |
|e) chronic hepatitis |
| |
|Effects of the glucocorticoids do not include: |
|a) Reduction in circulating lymphocytes |
|b) Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis |
|c) Increased skin protein synthesis |
|d) Increased blood glucose |
|e) Altered fat deposition |
| |
|Choose following indications for antithyroid preparations: |
|a) cretinism |
|b) diabetes mellitus |
|c) impotence |
|d) thyrotoxicosis |
|e) myxedema |
| |
|Mineralocorticoid drug cause: |
|a) Increased catabolism |
|b) Increased Na+ retension and К+ excretion |
|c) Increased gluconeogenesis |
|d) Deposition of fat on shoulders, face and abdomen |
|e) Increased К+retension and Na+ excretion |
| |
|Prednisone can determine every side effect listed below but one: |
|a) Arterial Hypertension |
|b) Gastroduodenal ulcer |
|c) Retention of sodium and water |
|d) Hyperpotassemia |
|e) Central nervous excitation |
| |
|Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by: |
|a) Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B cells) |
|b) Suppression of cyclooxygenase II expression |
|c) Activation of phospholipase A2 |
|d) Activation of cyclooxygenase II expression |
|e) All of the answers |
| |
|Which of the following glucocorticoids is a long-acting drug? |
|a) Prednisolon |
|b) Dexamethasone |
|c) Triamcinolone |
|d) Cortisone |
|e) All of the answers |
|Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following, EXCEPT: |
|a) Acute peptic ulcers |
|b) Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition, moon faces) |
|c) Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo) |
|d) Hypomania or acute psychosis |
|e) High arterial pressure |
| |
|Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following: |
|a) Adrenal suppression |
|b) Insomnia, behavioral changes (primarily hypomania) |
|c) Rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face - moon faces |
|d) Diabetus mellitus type II |
|e) All of the answers |
| |
|Indicate the mechanism of contraception based on preparations, which contains estrogen and gestagen: |
|a) Spermicide action |
|b) Annihilation of spermatozoic activities |
|c) Development inhibition of the follicle and implantation disturbances of the fertilized ovary. |
|d) Cervical liquefaction |
|e) Contribution to the proliferation of uterine mucosa |
| |
|Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases? |
|a) Rheumatoid arthritis |
|b) Status asthmaticus |
|c) Lymphoma maligna |
|d) Herpetic keratits |
|e) Chronic hepatits |
| |
|Glucocorticoids are hormonal steroids: |
|a) Having an important effect on intermediary metabolism, cardiovascular function, growth, and immunity |
|b) Having principally salt-retaining activity |
|c) Having androgenic or estrogenic activity |
|d) Having thyroid stimulating activity |
|e) All of the answers |
| |
|Which of the following glucocorticoids is an intermediate-acting drug? |
|a) Cortisone |
|b) Triamcinolone |
|c) Betamethasone |
|d) Dexamethasone |
|e) All of the answers |
| |
|Which of the following glucocorticoids is a short- to medium-acting drug? |
|a) Prednisolon |
|b) Dexamethasone |
|c) hydrocortisone |
|d) Cortisone |
|e) All of the answers |
|Which of the following substances has the most intense salt and water retention? |
|a) estradiol |
|b) progesterone |
|c) aldosterone |
|d) corticosterone |
|e) testosterone |
| |
|Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid: |
|a) inhibs irreversibly platelet cyclooxygenase |
|b) stimulates platelet biosynthesis of TxA2 |
|c) inhibits prostacycline PgI2 biosynthesis |
|d) inhibits PgI1 biosynthesis |
|e) inhibits PgE2 biosynthesis |
| |
|Indicate the effect of protamine sulphate: |
|a) antifybrinolytic |
|b) antidot of heparine |
|c) thrombolytic |
|d) local hemostatic |
|e) nonspecific hemostatic |
| |
|Note the mechanism of action of cumarins: |
|a) are active in vivo and in vitro |
|b) blocks synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X by inhibition of epoxi-reductase |
|c) are vitamine C antimetabolits |
|d) often cause thromboses |
|e) administered only intramusculary |
| |
|Which stage of arterial thrombosis is inhibited by acetylsalicylic acid: |
|a) adderation of platelets to colagen |
|b) arahydonic acid release |
|c) formation of thromboxan A2 |
|d) activation of thromboxan A2 receptors |
|e) inhibition of adenilatcyclase-AMPc system |
| |
|Indicate the antithrombotic drug with fibrinolytic action: |
|a) alteplaze |
|b) sulphinpirazon |
|c) warfarin |
|d) heparin |
|e) dypiridamole |
| |
|Which antitrombotic drug activates AT III: |
|a) streptokinaze |
|b) sulphinpirazone |
|c) warfarin |
|d) heparin |
|e) acetylsalicylic acid |
| |
|Indicate the antidote of oral anticoagulants: |
|a) etamsilat |
|b) carbazocrome |
|c) aprotinine |
|d) vitamine K iv and blood transfuzion |
|e) fibrinogen |
| |
|Name the reason of acetylsalicylic acid long duration: |
|a) high half-life |
|b) concentration in thombocytes |
|c) inactivates ireversibilly platelet cyclooxigenase |
|d) lysis of fibrin |
|e) slow absorption |
| |
|Which drug is better for long-term prophylaxis of venous thrombosis? |
|a) acenocumarol |
|b) heparin intravenuosly |
|c) streptokinase |
|d) acetylsalycilic acid |
|e) dypiridamole |
| |
|Which drug is from Coumarin derivates? |
|a) sulphinpirazone |
|b) acenocumarol |
|c) acetylsalycilic acid in low dose |
|d) carbazocrom |
|e) dypiridamole |
| |
|Name the drug which can't be used as local hemostatic: |
|a) epinephrine |
|b) tromboplastin |
|c) trombin |
|d) fibrin |
|e) fitomenadione |
| |
|Indicate heparine antagonist: |
|a) trombin |
|b) acenocumarol |
|c) menadion |
|d) protamine sulphate |
|e) fibrinogen |
| |
|All preparations listed below might be used for local homeostasis but one exception: |
|a) fibrin |
|b) phytomenadion |
|c) thrombin |
|d) epinephrine |
|e) thromboplastin |
| |
|Indicate the mechanism of action of indirect anticoagulants: |
|a) inhibits thromboplastine activity |
|b) fixes calcium ions in blood |
|c) inhibts gama-carboxilation of protrombin and proconvertin in liver |
|d) activates antithrombin III |
|e) activates factors IX,X,XI,XII and calicrein |
| |
|What is specific for iron drugs, prescribed intravenously: |
|a) can increase sideremia les then oral drugs |
|b) iron from this drugs is fixt initially by reticulo-endotelial system |
|c) restore landfills weaker than oral preparations |
|d) they require an acid medium |
|e) side effects more rare and less pronounced then oral drugs |
| |
|Indicate the topical drug used to stop hemorrhage from little vessels: |
|a) fitomenadion |
|b) calcium chloride |
|c) acetylsalycilic acid |
|d) trombin |
|e) fibrinogen |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacologic feature of iron drugs: |
|a) it is absorbed mostly in the stomach |
|b) daily recquest in healthy - 1 mg and 1,4 mg in women |
|c) food and stomach antacids increase bioavailability for absorption |
|d) absorption is not higher in patients with iron deficiency anemia than in healthy people, because it's transported stably by specific |
|proteins |
|e) after iron absorption is carried by the plasma erythrocytes |
| |
|Indicate the antagonist of indirect anticoagulants: |
|a) fitomenadion |
|b) calcium chloride |
|c) protamine sulphate |
|d) aprotinin |
|e) epinephrine |
| |
|Tick the mechanism of action of sodium citrate: |
|a) fixes calcium ions |
|b) inhibits trombin activation |
|c) decreases tromboplastine synthesis |
|d) inhibs protrombine and proconvertin synthesis in liver |
|e) increases platelet aggregation |
| |
|Aminocapronic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of: |
|a) Acute myocardial infarction |
|b) Bleeding after fibrinolytic therapy |
|c) Heart failure |
|d) Multiple pulmonary emboli |
|e) Myocardial infarction |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacologic feature of heparin: |
|a) heparin is obtained from human tissue |
|b) heparin is badlly absorbed from digestive tub |
|c) speed of elimination of heparin is not dose-dependent |
|d) effect of heparin can be antagonized by nadroparin |
|e) heparin does not pass into the breast milk |
| |
|Indicate heparin antagonist: |
|a) naloxone |
|b) naltrexon |
|c) flumazenil |
|d) protamine sulphate |
|e) disulfiram |
| |
|Choose the mechanism of action of heparin: |
|a) activates prothrombin and other factors of coagulation. |
|b) binds to and activates endogenous antithrombin III. (ATIII). |
|c) activates physiologic fibrinolytic system,that degradate fibrin into fragments |
|d) inhibits COX and decreases synthesis of tromboxan, that has aggregant effect. |
|e) interferes with the normal posttranslational modification of clotting factors in the liver, a process that depends on vitamin K. |
| |
|Which of the following antiaggregans inhibits prostaglandin synthesis? |
|a) dextran 40 |
|b) dypiridamole |
|c) prostacyclin |
|d) acetylsalycilic acid |
|e) ticlopidin |
| |
|Indicate low-molecular-weight heparin: |
|a) acenocumarol |
|b) heparin |
|c) sodium citrate |
|d) nadroparine |
|e) warfarin |
| |
|Indicate the drug that stop bleeding by vassoconstrictive action: |
|a) epinephrine |
|b) menadion |
|c) menadiol |
|d) fibrinogen |
|e) fitomenadion |
| |
|Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid: |
|a) inhibits the activity of tromboplastine and impairs the passage of prothrombin in thrombin |
|b) fixes calcium ions in blood |
|c) inhibits thromboxan synthesis |
|d) activates antithrombin III |
|e) activates factors IX, X, XI, XII and calicrein |
| |
|A 26-year-old woman comes to the outpatient clinic with a complain of rapid heart rate and easy fatigability. Laboratory work up reveals low |
|hemoglobin and microcytic red cell size. The most suitable therapy will be: |
|a) ferrous sulfate |
|b) folic acid |
|c) iron |
|d) pyridoxine |
|e) cyanocobalamin |
| |
|What is the onset of furosemide at intravenous administration: |
|a) after 25 minutes and lasts for 4 ore |
|b) after 3-4 minutes and lasts for 1-2 ore |
|c) after 10 minutes and lasts for 6 ore |
|d) after 60 minutes and lasts for 24 ore |
|e) after 25 minutes and lasts for 4-8 ore |
| |
|Which kind of action will be in furosemide administration in pulmonary edema? |
|a) dehydration |
|b) antidiuretic action |
|c) anti-foam action |
|d) antihypertensive action |
|e) sedative action |
| |
|Name diuretic drug with antiepileptic properties: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Etacrinic acid |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Triamterene |
| |
|The drug inhibits the carbonic anhydrase enzyme: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Amiloride |
| |
|Which one of the following statements about spironolactone is TRUE? |
|a) Spironolactone reverses many of the manifestations of aldosteronism |
|b) Spironolactone is also an androgen antagonist and as such is used in the treatment of hirsutism in women |
|c) Spironolactone is useful as a diuretic |
|d) All the answers |
|e) No one answer |
| |
|All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true, EXCEPT: |
|a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition leads to increased reabsorption of NaHCO3 |
|b) Loop diuretics decrease Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site on the Na+/K+/2Clcotransporter |
|c) In general, the potency of a diuretic is determined by where it acts in the renal tubule |
|d) Hydrochlorothiazide decreases urinary calcium excretion |
|e) Diuretics decrease edema in the body |
| |
|The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Triamteren |
| |
|The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Ethacrinic acid |
| |
|The drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks Na+ channels in the collecting tubules: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Furosemide |
|d) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|e) Indapamid |
| |
|The drug inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase: |
|a) Sulthiame |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Triamteren |
| |
|Name carboanhydrase inhibitor diuretics: |
|a) hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) spironolactone |
|c) furosemide |
|d) triamterene |
|e) acetazolamine |
| |
|Which kind of diuretic is more active in treatment of glaucoma? |
|a) acetazolamide |
|b) hydrochlorthiazide |
|c) ethacrinic acid |
|d) furosemide |
|e) triamteren |
| |
|Sustained use of this drug results in increased plasma urate concentrations: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Both of the above |
|d) Neither of the above |
|e) Their associated administration |
| |
|Chronic use of this drug can lead to metabolic acidosis: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Furosemide |
|d) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|e) Triamteren |
| |
|The drug acts at the proximal tubule: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Triamteren |
| |
|The drug can be used to treat glaucoma: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Both of the above |
|d) Neither of the above |
|e) Their association |
| |
|The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect: |
|a) Amiloride |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Indapamid |
| |
|The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine: |
|a) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Furosemide |
|d) Acetazolamide |
|e) Manitol |
| |
|The drug can cause ototoxicity: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Both of the above |
|d) Neither of the above |
|e) just their associated administration |
| |
|Which of the following diuretics may cause deafness (ototoxicity) in case of an overdose? |
|a) hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) furosemide |
|c) acetazolamide |
|d) spironolactone |
|e) triamterene |
| |
|Diuretics with action in thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle (TAL): |
|a) chlortalidon + clopamide |
|b) mannitol, urea |
|c) spironolactone + amiloride + triamterene |
|d) furosemide + ethacrine acid + bumetamide |
|e) cyclopentazide + polythiazide |
| |
|The drug is sometimes part of fixed-dose combinations used to treat essential hypertension: |
|a) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Both of the above |
|d) Neither of the above |
|e) Their associated administration |
| |
|Choose short-acting drug: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Spironolactone |
|d) Acetazolamide |
|e) Polythiaside |
| |
|The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective: |
|a) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Both of the above |
|d) Neither of the above |
|e) Their associated administration |
| |
|The drug acts only in loop Henle, ascending part: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Both of the above |
|d) Neither of the above |
|e) Their associated administration |
| |
|Which of the following diuretic groups act above the collecting tube? |
|a) thiazides |
|b) loop diuretics |
|c) carbonic anhydrase inhibitor |
|d) antialdosteronics |
|e) osmotic diuretics |
| |
|The drug can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: |
|a) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Spironolactone |
|d) Mannitol |
|e) Amilorid |
| |
|The drug should never be administered to patients taking potassium supplements: |
|a) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) Amilorid |
|c) Furosemide (Lasix) |
|d) Neither of the above |
|e) Their associated administration |
| |
|The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Osmotic diuretics |
| |
|The drug acts at the proximal tubule: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Osmotic diuretics |
| |
|The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Osmotic diuretics |
| |
|The drug is the most potent diuretic: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Cardiac glycosides |
| |
|Which kind of diuretic is more active in acute renal failure ? |
|a) triamteren |
|b) furosemide |
|c) indapamide |
|d) hydrochlorthiazide |
|e) acetazolamide |
| |
|Name agent - aldosterone antagonist: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Spironolactone |
|c) Dichlothiazide |
|d) Captopril |
|e) Bumetamide |
| |
|The drug acts by competitively blocking the NaCl cotransporter: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Osmotic diuretics |
| |
|The drug is one of the most potent diuretics: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Indapamid |
| |
|The drug inhibits sodium and chloride transport in the early distal tubule: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Manitol |
| |
|The drug acts in the collecting tubules: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Osmotic diuretics |
| |
| |
|The drug blocks the sodium/potassium/chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Manitol |
| |
|Choose antagonist of aldosterone: |
|a) aminoglutethimide |
|b) mitotan |
|c) spironolactone |
|d) ketoconazole |
|e) miphepristone |
| |
|The drug can cause ototoxicity: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Manitol |
| |
|Drug used in night enuresis: |
|a) Osmotic diuretics |
|b) Loop diuretics |
|c) Thiazide diuretics |
|d) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|e) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
| |
| |
|These agents must be given parenterally because they are not absorbed when given orally: |
|a) Osmotic diuretics |
|b) Loop diuretics |
|c) Thiazide diuretics |
|d) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|e) Thiazide like diuretics |
| |
|Amiloride acts at this nephron site: |
|a) Proximal convoluted tubule |
|b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle |
|c) Distal convoluted tubule |
|d) Collecting duct |
|e) All nephron |
| |
|These drug may be used in the treatment of recurrent calcium nephrolithiasis: |
|a) Mannitol |
|b) Ethacrinic acid |
|c) Hydrochlorthiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Acetazolamide |
| |
|Furosemide acts at this nephron site: |
|a) Proximal convoluted tubule |
|b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle |
|c) Distal convoluted tubule |
|d) Collecting duct |
|e) Glomerules |
| |
|The drug is the least (less) potent diuretic: |
|a) Mannitol |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Indapamid |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Hydrochorthiazide |
| |
| |
|Acetazolamide acts at this nephron site: |
|a) Proximal convoluted tubule |
|b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle |
|c) Distal convoluted tubule |
|d) Collecting duct |
|e) All nephron |
| |
|Amiloride acts at this nephron site: |
|a) Proximal convoluted tubule |
|b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle |
|c) Distal convoluted tubule |
|d) Collecting duct |
|e) All nephron |
| |
|The drug inhibiting the cotransport of sodium, potassium, and chloride in Loop Henle: |
|a) Torasemid |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Triamterene |
|d) Manitol |
|e) Indapamid |
| |
|Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Triamterene |
|d) Manitol |
|e) Indapamid |
| |
|Mechanism of action of osmotic diuretics includes: |
|a) They inhibit sodium chloride transport in the early segment of the distal convoluted tubule |
|b) This drugs inhibit the cotransport of sodium, potassium, and chloride |
|c) They increase osmotic pressure of plasma, increase minute-volume of blood and increase also the renal circulation and filtration |
|d) Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase in the brush border and intracellular carbonic anhydrase in the PCT cell |
|e) They are antagonist (competitive or noncompetitive) of aldosterone in the collecting tubules |
| |
|The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule: |
|a) Ethacrinic acid |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Polythiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Triamterene |
| |
|The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Triamterene |
| |
|Choose non-competitive antagonist of spironolactone: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Furosemide |
|d) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|The drug that inhibit carbonic anhydrase: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Mannitol |
| |
|The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect: |
|a) Amiloride |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Triamterene |
| |
|The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine: |
|a) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Furosemide |
|d) Acetazolamide |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|The drug can promote sodium loss in patients with low (e.g., 40 ml/min) glomerular filtration rates: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Amiloride |
| |
|The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Amiloride |
| |
|The drug can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: |
|a) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Acetazolamide |
|d) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|The drug is the most potent diuretic: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Aldosteron's antagonists |
| |
|The drug acts by competitively blocking the NaCl cotransporter: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Aldosteron's antagonists |
| |
|The drug is one of the most potent diuretics: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Ethacrinic acid |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|The drug inhibits sodium and chloride transport in the early distal tubule: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|The drug acts in the collecting tubules: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Osmotic diuretics |
| |
|The drug blocks the sodium/potassium/chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|The drug is usually given in combination with a thiazide diuretic: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Bumetanide |
| |
|What diuretic is contraindicated in cardiac insufficiency? |
|a) furosemide |
|b) hydroclorothiazide |
|c) acetazolamide |
|d) spironolactone |
|e) mannitol |
| |
|Diuretic that acts in loop Henle is: |
|a) Indapamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Mannitol |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Acetazolamide |
| |
|An important therapeutic effect of loop diuretics is: |
|a) Decreased blood volume |
|b) Decreased heart rate |
|c) Increased serum sodium |
|d) Increased total body potassium |
|e) Metabolic acidosis |
| |
|Spironolactone acts at this nephron site: |
|a) Proximal convoluted tubule |
|b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle |
|c) Distal convoluted tubule |
|d) Collecting duct |
|e) Glomerulus |
| |
|These drugs may be used in the treatment of recurrent calcium nephrolithiasis: |
|a) Osmotic diuretics |
|b) Loop diuretics |
|c) Thiazide diuretics |
|d) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|e) Furosemide |
| |
|Furosemide acts at this nephron site: |
|a) Proximal convoluted tubule |
|b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle |
|c) Distal convoluted tubule |
|d) Collecting duct |
|e) Glomerulus |
| |
|The drug is the least potent diuretic: |
|a) Osmotic diuretics |
|b) Loop diuretics |
|c) Thiazide diuretics |
|d) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|e) Thiazide-like diuretics |
| |
|Acetazolamide acts at this nephron site: |
|a) Collecting duct |
|b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle |
|c) Distal convoluted tubule |
|d) Proximal convoluted tubule |
|e) Glomerulus |
| |
|Amiloride acts at this nephron site: |
|a) Proximal convoluted tubule |
|b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle |
|c) Distal convoluted tubule |
|d) Collecting duct |
|e) Glomerulus |
| |
|The drug competitively blocks chloride channels and prevents movement of sodium, potassium, and chloride into the renal tubular cells: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Triamterene |
|d) Mannitol |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|Choose anti gout drug: |
|a) salbutamol |
|b) propranolol |
|c) allopurinol |
|d) carvedilol |
|e) atenolol |
| |
|Has been used in the treatment of gout: |
|a) Loperamide |
|b) Probenecid |
|c) Both |
|d) Neither |
| |
|Effective in the treatment of gout by inhibition of the movement of leukocytes into the inflamed joint: |
|a) Sodium salicylate |
|b) Acetylcysteine |
|c) Colchicine |
|d) Acetaminophen |
|e) Sulfinpyrazone |
| |
|Electrolytes are responsible for: |
|a) Acid-base balance |
|b) Blood sugar levels |
|c) Hemoglobin levels |
|d) Hormone levels |
|e) Enzymes level |
| |
|What vitamin is inactivated by pyrazinamide? |
|a) Vitamin B6 |
|b) Vitamin B1 |
|c) Vitamin A |
|d) Vitamin C |
|e) Vitaimin K |
| |
|List typical characteristics of acid folic: |
|a) Inhibits central nervous system |
|b) acts on coagulation of blood. |
|c) occurs as a formation of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides. |
|d) Stimulates central nervous system. |
|e) act directly on plasminogen. |
| |
|Which vitaminic preparation is being used in scurvy? |
|a) thiamine |
|b) cyanocobalamin |
|c) pyridoxine |
|d) ascorbic acid |
|e) biotin |
| |
|Name the indications for Vitamin K preparations: |
|a) Keratits |
|b) Rheumatoid arthritis |
|c) Angina Pectoris |
|d) Parenchymal hemorrhage |
|e) Muscle pain |
| |
|Vitamins are: |
|a) Inorganic nutrients needed in small quantities in the body |
|b) Organic substances needed in very large quantities in the body |
|c) An organic compound and a vital nutrient that an organism requires in limited amounts. |
|d) Products of endocrine gland secretion |
|e) Any of numerous proteins or conjugated proteins produced by living organisms and functioning as specialized |
| |
| |
|Antienzymes are: |
|a) a substance that inhibits or counteracts the action of an enzyme |
|b) substances that prevent vitamins from exerting their typical metabolic effects |
|c) any of numerous proteins or conjugated proteins produced by living organisms and functioning as specialized atalysts for biochemical |
|reactions |
|d) nonprotein organic substances that usually contain a vitamin or mineral |
|e) products of endocrine gland secretion |
| |
|Select the fat-soluble vitamin: |
|a) Ascorbic acid |
|b) Tocopherol |
|c) Thiamine |
|d) Riboflavin |
|e) Piridoxin |
| |
|Beri-beri is caused by the deficiency of: |
|a) Riboflavin |
|b) Ascorbic acid |
|c) Nicotinic acid |
|d) Thiamine |
|e) Riboflavin |
| |
|Select a water-soluble vitamin: |
|a) Vitamin A |
|b) Vitamin E |
|c) Vitamin D |
|d) Vitamin B1 |
|e) Vitamin K |
| |
|Which of the following vitamins is responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium,: |
|a) Vitamin К |
|b) Vitamin A |
|c) Vitamin D |
|d) Vitamin E |
|e) Vitamin B1 |
| |
|Which of the following vitamins can be also synthesized from a dietary precursor? |
|a) Vitamin С |
|b) Vitamin A |
|c) Vitamin B1 |
|d) Vitamin B6 |
|e) Vitamin P |
| |
|Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of: |
|a) Collagen |
|b) Hormone |
|c) Ascorbic Acid |
|d) Red Blood Cells |
|e) Vitamin P |
| |
|Vitamin C deficiency is called: |
|a) Rickets |
|b) Scurvy |
|c) Cancer |
|d) Cold |
|e) Beri-beri |
| |
|Which of the following statements concerning pyridoxine (vitamin B6) functions is true: |
|a) Active functional form is pyridoxal phosphate, which is an essential coenzyme for transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids |
|b) Active group of the coenzymes nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and nicotinamide-adenine phosphate (NADP) |
|c) Essential constituent of flavoproteins, flavin mononucleotide (FMN) and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) |
|d) An extremely important antioxidant, which protects cell membrane lipids from peroxidation by breaking the chain reaction of free radical |
|formation to which polyunsaturated fatty acids are particularly vulnerable |
|e) Active functional form is dihydroergocalciferol |
| |
|Name the main function of Vitamin A in the body: |
|a) Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin |
|b) Vision, |
|c) Normal cell development and reproduction |
|d) Bone and body growth |
|e) All of the above |
| |
|Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called: |
|a) Rickets |
|b) Pernicious anemia |
|c) Scurvy |
|d) Poor circulation of the red blood cells |
|e) Beri-beri |
| |
|The vitamin Folate works together with ______________to produce new red blood cells |
|a) Vitamin D |
|b) Vitamin B12 |
|c) Vitamin A |
|d) Vitamin B6 |
|e) None of the above |
| |
|Which of the following vitamins is also known as an antisterility factor? |
|a) Vitamin E |
|b) Vitamin B6 |
|c) Vitamin B1 |
|d) Vitamin C |
|e) Vitamin D |
| |
|Characterictic of Vitamin B12: |
|a) Is present in large amounts in green, leafy vegetables |
|b) Prevents goiter |
|c) Prevents scurvy |
|d) Requires intrinsic factor secreted in the stomach to aid its absorption |
|e) Prevents Beri-beri disease |
|.Whch of the following is a function of Vitamin B12 |
|a) Red blood cell formation |
|b) Normal cell development and reproduction |
|c) Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin |
|d) just anti-oxidant action |
|e) Vision, bone and body growth |
| |
|Indicate the influence of ergocalciferol upon metabolic processes: |
|a) stimulates nucleic acid synthesis |
|b) depresses nucleic acid synthesis |
|c) increases the permeability of the intestinal epithelium for calcium and phosphor. |
|d) stimulates alpha-keto acid decarboxylation |
|e) inhibits alpha-keto acid decarboxylation |
| |
|Which of the following vitamins is also known as an anti-sterility factor? |
|a) tocopherol |
|b) piridoxine |
|c) thiamine |
|d) fitomenadione |
|e) ascorbic acid |
| |
|Which of the following vitamins is also known as a haemostatic agents? |
|a) tocopherol |
|b) piridoxine |
|c) thiamine |
|d) fitomenadione |
|e) ascorbic acid |
| |
|Dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia are characteristics of: |
|a) Dry beri-beri |
|b) Pyridoxine deficiency |
|c) Scurvy |
|d) Pellagra |
|e) Cholesterol deficiency |
| |
|Scurvy is: |
|a) A disease caused by deficiency of vitamin C and characterized by spongy bleeding gums, bleeding under the skin, and weakness |
|b) Extreme dryness of the conjunctiva resulting from a disease localized in the eye or from systemic deficiency of vitamin A |
|c) A disease caused by deficiency of niacin in the diet |
|d) All of the answers |
|e) A disease caused by deficiency of vitamin K |
| |
|Pellagra is: |
|a) A disease caused by a deficiency of niacin (vit. PP) in the diet and characterized by skin eruptions, digestive and nervous system |
|disturbances, and eventual mental deterioration |
|b) Inflammation of several nerves at one time caused by a deficiency of thiamin, marked by paralysis, pain, and muscle wasting. |
|c) A severe form of anemia most often affecting elderly adults caused by a failure of the stomach to absorb vitamin B12 |
|d) All of the answers |
|e) A severe form of anemia most often affecting children |
| |
| |
|Characterize vitamins: |
|a) are all synthesized in the body |
|b) provide energy |
|c) are necessary for proper growth and development |
|d) all are hormons |
|e) needed in large amounts |
| |
|Which of the following vitamins is given along with isoniazide in treatment of tuberculosis? |
|a) Nicotinic acid |
|b) Riboflavin |
|c) Pyridoxine |
|d) Ascorbic acid |
|e) Vitamin A |
| |
|Which of the following vitamins is used in megaloblast anemia? |
|a) Vitamin B12 |
|b) Vitamin BC |
|c) Vitamin PP |
|d) Vitamin D |
|e) Vitamin A |
| |
|Which of the following enzymes is used in cancer therapy? |
|a) Pepsin |
|b) Urokinase |
|c) L-asparaginase |
|d) Lydaze |
|e) Aprotinine |
| |
|Loosening of teeth, gingivitis and hemorrhage occur in the deficiency of: |
|a) Vitamin К |
|b) Vitamin В1 |
|c) Vitamin B6 |
|d) Vitamin C |
|e) Vitamin A |
| |
|A 30-year-old woman who was suffering from untreatable gastric carcinoma underwent a gastrectomy. A deficiency of which one of the following |
|vitamins will develop as a result of this procedure and must be treated with? |
|a) Vitamin B6 |
|b) Vitamin B12 |
|c) Vitamin C |
|d) Vitamin D |
|e) Vitamin E |
| |
|Name vitamin obtained from sunlight: |
|a) Vitamin A |
|b) Vitamin D |
|c) Vitamin K |
|d) Vitamin E |
|e) Vitamin C |
| |
|Name vitamin synthesized from bacteria in the intestines: |
|a) Vitamin A |
|b) Vitamin D |
|c) Vitamin K |
|d) Vitamin E |
|e) Vitamin C |
| |
|Name easily destroyed vitamin: |
|a) Vitamin A |
|b) Vitamin D |
|c) Vitamin K |
|d) Vitamin E |
|e) Vitamin C |
| |
|Clinical uses of vitamin D do not include: |
|a) Osteoporosis |
|b) Nutritional rickets |
|c) Intestinal osteodystrophy |
|d) Hyperparathyroidism |
|e) Chronic renal failure |
| |
|Vitamin A deficiency causes: |
|a) Beri-beri |
|b) night blindness |
|c) Scurvy |
|d) Megaloblastic anemia |
|e) Pellagra |
| |
|Name ion that helps muscles to contract and relax, thereby helping to regulate heartbeat: |
|a) Iron |
|b) Calcium |
|c) Cobalt |
|d) Iodide |
|e) Sulfur |
| |
|Along with potassium, plays a role in fluid balance: |
|a) Iron |
|b) Sodium |
|c) Cobalt |
|d) Iodide |
|e) Sulfur |
| |
|Charactericitc of fat-soluble vitamins: |
|a) Are more stable than water-soluble vitamins |
|b) Are found in all foods |
|c) Must be supplied daily |
|d)Cannot be stored in the body |
|e) Non of the above |
| |
|If a person has vitamin K deficiency, which of the following is likely to occur? |
|a) Acne |
|b) Formation of blood clots A |
|c) Excessive bleeding |
|d) Acidosis |
|e) Non of the above |
| |
|Which of the following antienzymes is a trypsin inhibitor? |
|a) Aprotinine |
|b) Sulbactam |
|c) Aminocaproic acid |
|d) Disulfiram |
|e) Cylastatine |
| |
|Which of the following antienzymes is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor: |
|a) Physostigmine |
|b) Selegiline |
|c) Aminocaproic acid |
|d) Acetazolamide |
|e) Disulfiram |
| |
|Which of the following antienzymes is a fibrinolysis inhibitor? |
|a) Clavulanic acid |
|b) Sulbactam |
|c) Aminocaproic acid |
|d) Disulfiram |
|e) Selegiline |
| |
|Which of the following antienzymes is a cholinesterase inhibitor? |
|a) Physostigmine |
|b) Selegiline |
|c) Aminocaproic acid |
|d) Disulfiram |
|e) Sulbactam |
| |
|Which of the following enzymes improves GIT functions (replacement therapy): |
|a) Pepsin |
|b) Urokinase |
|c) L-asparaginase |
|d) Lydaze |
|e) 5-LOX |
| |
|Which of the following antienzymes is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor: |
|a) Physostigmine |
|b) Selegiline |
|c) Acetazolamide |
|d) Disulfiram |
|e) Sulbactam |
| |
|Which of the following antienzymes is an aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor? |
|a) Tazobactam |
|b) Sulbactam |
|c) Aminocaproic acid |
|d) Disulfiram |
|e) Physostigmine |
| |
|Which of the following antienzymes is a xantine oxidase inhibitor? |
|a) Physostigmine |
|b) Allopurinol |
|c) Aminocaproic acid |
|d) Acetazolamide |
|e) Disulfiram |
| |
|Which of the following enzymes has fibrinolytic activity? |
|a) Pepsin |
|b) Urokinase |
|c) L-asparaginase |
|d) Lydaze |
|e) COX-1 |
| |
|Which of the following antienzymes is an aromatase inhibitor used in cancer therapy? |
|a) Physostigmine |
|b) Allopurinol |
|c) Aminocaproic acid |
|d) Aminoglutethimide |
|e) Acetazolamide |
| |
|Name enzymes with antimicrobial properties: |
|a) hyaluronidase |
|b) asparaginase |
|c) bactisubtil |
|d) panzynorm |
|e) urokinase |
| |
|What's the definition of "antibiotics"? |
|a) non-organic or synthetic substances that selectively inhibit growth of other microorganisms |
|b) substance produced by some microorganisms or their synthetic analogs that selectively kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms |
|c) substances produced by certain microorganisms or their synthetic analogs inhibit the growth of body cells |
|d) synthetic analogues of natural substances that kill protozoa and helminthes |
|e) non of the above |
| |
|What is the minimum duration of antibacterial treatment?: |
|a) not less than one day |
|b) not less than 5 days |
|c) not less than 10-14 days |
|d) not less than three weeks |
|e) not less than 1 month |
| |
|The mechanism of bacterial resistance to penicilins can be described as: |
|a) Inactivation of drug by beta-lactamases |
|b) Overproduction of PBPs |
|c) Overproduction of peptidoglycans |
|d) Breakdown of penicillins by the immune system |
|e) Rapid biotransformation |
| |
|Antibiotics are chemicals produced by? |
|a) Cancer cells |
|b) Viruses |
|c) Bacteria |
|d) Protozoa |
|e) Microorganisms |
| |
|What antibiotic should be used for the treatment of fever with unknown origin? |
|a) Antibiotics should not be used |
|b) Cephalosporins |
|c) Macrolides |
|d) Aminoglycosides |
|e) Penicillins |
| |
|Bactericidal effect is: |
|a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division |
|b) Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth |
|c) Destroying of bacterial cells |
|d) Formation of bacterial L-form |
|e) Stimulation of bacterial cell division |
| |
|Bacteristatic effect is: |
|a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division |
|b) Bacteria killing |
|c) Destroying of bacterial cells |
|d) Formation of bacterial L-form |
|e) Stimulation of bacterial cell division |
| |
|Name bactericidal drug? |
|a) Cephalosporins |
|b) Trimethoprim |
|c) Macrolides |
|d) Lincosamides |
|e) Choramphenicol |
| |
|A(n) ____ drug will halt bacterial growth but not deplete it, while a(n) ____ drug will kill bacteria: |
|a) Bactericidal; Antibiotic |
|b) Antibiotic; Bacteriostatic |
|c) Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic |
|d) Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal |
|e) Antibiotic; Bactericidal |
| |
|When treating meningitis, one of the steps to achieve the MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration) is by injecting antibiotic where? |
|a) Epidural space |
|b) Subdural space |
|c) Subarachnoid space |
|d) Subpial space |
|e) Corneal space |
| |
|Penicillin is a ____ drug and tetracycline is a ____ drug: |
|a) Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic |
|b) Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal |
|c) Bactericidal; Bactericidal |
|d) Bacteriostatic; Bacteriostatic |
|e) Fungicidal; Bactericidal |
| |
|Penicillin was first discovered when colonies of staphylococci lysed when contaminated with what? |
|a) Penicillium bacteria |
|b) Penicillium virus |
|c) Penicillium fungi |
|d) Penicillium parasite |
|e) Penicillium protozoa |
| |
|Penicillin G is ____ to penicillinase and methicillin is ____ to penicillinase. Both are considered ____ spectrum antibiotics: |
|a) Resistant; Sensitive; Narrow |
|b) Resistant; Sensitive; Broad |
|c) Sensitive; Resistant; Narrow |
|d) Sensitive; Resistant; Broad |
|e) Resistant; Resistant; Broad |
| |
|What enzyme is the main target for penicillin? |
|a) Transglucosylases |
|b) Transpeptidases |
|c) D-alanine carboxykinases |
|d) glucoronuyltransferase |
|e) Dihidropteroat synthetase |
| |
|Which antibiotic is considered extended-spectrum as it can fight pseudomonal aeroginosa, enterobacter species, proteus, bacteroids fragilis, |
|and many klebsiella? |
|a) Oxacillin |
|b) Ampicillin |
|c) Amoxicillin |
|d) Penicillin G |
|e) Carbencillin |
| |
|Which next antibiotic would be used to treat Neisseria gonorrhoeae if the patient was allergic to penicillins? |
|a) Ticarcillin |
|b) Carbencillin |
|c) Ceftriaxone |
|d) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin) |
|e) Penicillin V |
| |
|Clavulanate is added to amoxicillin (Augmentin) to protect the drug molecule. This results in a ____ bioavailability and a change from dosage |
|three times a day to ____ times a day. However, this produces a high incidence of diarrhea: |
|a) Increase; Four |
|b) Increase; Two |
|c) Decrease; Four |
|d) Decrease; Two |
| |
|Clavulanic acid and sulbactam ____ antibiotics, and are added to give better ____ properties and effects: |
|a) Are; Antibacterial |
|b) Are; Pharmacokinetic |
|c) Are not; Antibacterial |
|d) Are not; Pharmacokinetic |
| |
|Name antibiotic considered the least toxic? |
|a) Ticarcillin |
|b) Oxacillin |
|c) Ampicillin |
|d) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin) |
|e) Chloramphenicol |
| |
|Imipenem/Cilastatin is an example of a: |
|a) Antibiotic + inhibitor of penicillinase |
|b) Combination from 2 antibiotics to increase spectrum of action |
|c) Antibiotic + inhibitor of renal enzyme dehydropeptidase |
|d) Antibiotic + inhibitor of beta lactamase |
|e) 2 antibiotics to decrease side effects |
| |
|Several families of drugs such as penicillins and cephalosporins act to ____ the bacterial ____ and thereby promoting lysis. The mechanism is |
|through prevention of murein (peptidoglycan) synthesis: |
|a) Weaken; Cell membrane |
|b) Weaken; Cell wall |
|c) Strengthen; Cell membrane |
|d) Strengthen; Cell wall |
|a) Inhibit protein synthesis |
| |
|What is the most frequent side effect, which occurs after administrating of benzyl penicillin? |
|a) Agranulocytosis |
|b) Anemia |
|c) Renal insufficiency |
|d) Allergy |
|e) Dysbacteriosis |
| |
|Severe allergic reactions are more common with what family of drugs? |
|a) Tetracyclines |
|b) Macrolides |
|c) Cephalosporins |
|d) Penicillins |
|e) Sulfonamides |
| |
|Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-monobactams: |
|a) Ampicillin |
|b) Bicillin-5 |
|c) Aztreonam |
|d) Imipinem |
|e) Tienam |
| |
|Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis is: |
|a) Erythromycin |
|b) Rifampicine |
|c) Chloramphenicol |
|d) Imipinem |
|e) Cycloserine |
| |
|Which antimicrobial remedy is excreted in bile in active concentrations?: |
|a) ampicillin |
|b) kanamycin |
|c) griseofulvin |
|d) sulfizoxazolul |
|e) nalidixic acid |
| |
|Mechanism of penicillins' antibacterial effect is: |
|a) Inhibition of transpeptidation in the bacterial cell wall |
|b) Inhibition of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell |
|c) Activation of endogenous proteases, that destroy bacterial cell wall |
|d) Activation of endogenous phospholipases, which leads to alteration of cell membrane permeability |
|e) Activation of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell |
| |
|Name the main indication for benzylpenicillin: |
|a) salmonelosis |
|b) typhoid fever |
|c) subacute endocarditis |
|d) syphilis |
|e) tuberculosis |
| |
|Which from penicillins is an aminopenicillin? |
|a) Methicillin |
|b) Ampicillin |
|c) Penicillin G |
|d) Penicillin V |
|e) Carbencillin |
| |
|Which of the penicillins produces a higher incidence of diarrhea? |
|a) Cloxacillin |
|b) Ampicillin |
|c) Amoxicillin |
|d) Augmentin |
|e) Penicilin G |
|IV rd Generation Cephalosporins have a ____ spectrum of antimicrobial activity and are considered ____: |
|a) Broad; Bactericidal |
|b) Broad; Bacteristatic |
|c) Narrow; Bactericidal |
|d) Narrow; Bacteristatic |
|e) Narrow; Fungistatic |
| |
|Cephalosporin from I-st generation for parenteral administration is: |
|a) cefazolin |
|b) cefamandole |
|c) cephachlor |
|d) cefipime |
|e) cefadroxil |
| |
|Which of the bacteria would not be affected by a second-generation cephalosporin, but would be affected by ceftazidime? |
|a) Staphylococcus |
|b) Streptococcus |
|c) Listeria |
|d) Enterococcus |
|e) Pseudomonas |
| |
|Which of cephalosporin generation should be given for gram-negative bacterial meningitis? |
|a) First-generation cephalosporin |
|b) Second-generation cephalosporin |
|c) Third-generation cephalosporin |
|d) First-generation cephalosporin, just parenteral drug |
|e) Cephalosporin should not be given |
| |
|Describes ceftazidime and cefepime: |
|a) First-generation cephalosporins |
|b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity |
|c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity |
|d) Third-generation cephalosporins |
|e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity |
| |
|Describes cefazolin and cephalexin: |
|a) First-generation cephalosporins |
|b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity |
|c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity |
|d) Third-generation cephalosporins |
|e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity |
| |
|Describes cefmetazole, cefotetan, and cefoxitin: |
|a) First-generation cephalosporins |
|b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity |
|c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity |
|d) Third-generation cephalosporins |
|e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity |
|Describes cefaclor and cefuroxime: |
|a) First-generation cephalosporins |
|b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity |
|c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity |
|d) Third-generation cephalosporins |
|e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity |
| |
|Describes cefoperazone and ceftriaxon: |
|a) First-generation cephalosporins |
|b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity |
|c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity |
|d) Third-generation cephalosporins |
|e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity |
| |
|Which of the microorganisms would be treated with a first-generation cephalosporin? |
|a) E. Coli |
|b) Klebsiella |
|c) Proteus |
|d) Staphylococcus |
|e) Enterobacter |
| |
|A 2-mo-old male neonate presents with a thick eye discharge. The mother admits to having sexual partners and complains of a vaginal discharge.|
|Exams of both eyes of infant reveals a thick purulent discharge and conjunctival congestion and edema. Corneal ulcerations was also noted. |
|Conjunctival swabs on gram staining revealed presence of gram-negative diplococci and many polymorphonuclear cells. What organism, which can |
|be treated with penicillin G or a third-generation cephalosporin, is the most likely cause? |
|a) C. trachomatis |
|b) T. pallidum |
|c) N. gonorrhea |
|d) H. ducreyi |
|e) H. influenza |
| |
|Macrolids are ____ ribosomal subunit inhibitors that are ____ at low concentrations and ____ at high concentrations: |
|a) 30s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic |
|b) 30s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal |
|c) 50s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic |
|d) 50s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal |
| |
|Although erythromycin is not normally effective with gram-negative bacteria, cell wall deficient forms of E. coli and Proteus mirabilis |
|(L-forms) are exceptions. These are seen in recurrent: |
|a) Pneumonia |
|b) Upper respiratory tract infections |
|c) Urinary tract infections |
|d) Gastroenteritis |
|e) Endocarditis |
| |
|Name bactericidal antibiotic - the drug of choice for pneumonia caused by H. influenzae? |
|a) Erythromycin |
|b) Clarithromycin |
|c) Azithromycin |
|d) Dirithromycin |
|e) Telithromycin |
| |
|A patient presents with mild symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and coughing. However, they show little sign of bacterial infection. Lab |
|blood results show infection is present and the physician chooses to use a macrolide antibiotic. What agent was most likely the cause of the |
|patient's symptoms? |
|a) Streptococcus pyogenes |
|b) Streptococcus agalactiae |
|c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
|d) Listeria monocytogenes |
|e) Streptococcus pneumoniae |
| |
|Which of the organs is the main organ for biotransformation of macrolides such as erythromycin (90%) and clarithromycin? |
|a) Spleen |
|b) Kidneys |
|c) Brain |
|d) GI tract |
|e) Liver |
| |
|An 8-yr-old child presents with pharyngitis and fever of 3 days duration. Microbiology lab confirms translucent beta-hemolytic colonies. Past |
|history includes a severe allergic reaction to amoxicillin when used for ear infection. Which one of the аntimicrobial agents as an oral drug |
|is most likely appropriate in terms of both effectiveness and safety? |
|a) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin) |
|b) Cefaclor |
|c) Doxycycline |
|d) Vancomycin |
|e) Azithromycin |
| |
|Aminoglycosides are effective only against which of the microbs and are a good choice for septicemia (a serious toxicity)? |
|a) Gram-positive aerobic bacteria |
|b) Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria |
|c) Gram-negative aerobic bacteria |
|d) Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria |
|e) Just Streptococcus pneumoniae |
| |
|Aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis through binding to ____ bacterial ribosome subunits. They cause leakage of intracellular |
|contents and thus are ____: |
|a) 30s; Bactericidal |
|b) 30s; Bacteriostatic |
|c) 50s; Bactericidal |
|d) 50s; Bacteriostatic |
| |
|Describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides at low dosages: |
|a) Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly |
|b) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins |
|c) Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins containing incorrect amino acids. |
|d) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codon |
|e) No effect on protein synthesis |
| |
|Describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides at high dosages: |
|a) Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins |
|containing incorrect amino acids. |
|b) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codon |
|c) Complete inhibition of protein causing ribosomes to become trapped at the |
|AUG strand condons of mRNA |
|d) Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly |
|e) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins |
| |
|Following administration of aminoglycosides, where would concentrations be the lowest? |
|a) Prostate |
|b) Brain |
|c) Vitreous fluid |
|d) CSF |
|e) Intracellular |
| |
|Accumulation of aminoglycosides is most common in what location? |
|a) Liver capsule |
|b) Renal medulla |
|c) Nephrons |
|d) Renal cortex |
|e) Spleen |
| |
|Which of the following drugs can be mixed with aminoglycosides, such as for use against Staphylococcus aureus? |
|a) Diuretics |
|b) NSAIDs |
|c) Cisplatin |
|d) Amphotericin B |
|e) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin) |
| |
|Which of the antimicrobial drugs is combined with isoniazid to treat tuberculosis? |
|a) Neomycin |
|b) Streptomycin |
|c) Amikacin |
|d) Kanamycin |
|e) Gentamicin |
| |
|AE is a 75-yr-old man with sepsis resulting from a urinary tract infection. He has allergies to beta-lactam antibiotics and erythromycim. The |
|result of blood cultures are positive for P. aeroginosa; the urine culture is positive for P. aeroginosa and E. coli. From aminoglycoside |
|class, which one would you choose? |
|a) Neomycin |
|b) Streptomycin |
|c) Netilmicin |
|d) Kanamycin |
|e) Gentamicin |
| |
|The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is: |
|a) Kanamycin |
|b) Tobramycin |
|c) Streptomycin |
|d) Amikacin |
|e) Neomycin |
| |
|Cephalosporines are drugs of choice for treatment of: |
|a) Gram-negative microorganism infections |
|b) Gram-positive microorganism infections |
|c) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if penicillins have no effect |
|d) Only bacteroide infections |
|e) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if vancomicin have no effect |
| |
|Carbapenems are effective against: |
|a) Only Gram-positive microorganisms |
|b) Only Gram-negative microorganisms |
|c) Only bacteroide infections |
|d) Broad-spectum |
|e) Very Narrow spectrum |
| |
|Benzylpenicillin acts on the level of: |
|a) cytoplasmatic membrane |
|b) Bacterial wall |
|c) Cytoplasm of a bacterial cell |
|d) proteine synthesis |
|e) Ribosome of a bacterial cel |
| |
|Which of the antimicrobial drugs would be used to treat methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)? |
|a) Nafcillin |
|b) Vancomycin |
|c) Gentamycin |
|d) Erythromycin |
|e) Clindamycin |
| |
|Penicillin is used in combination with what drug to enhance antibacterial action in the treatment of enterococcal endocarditis? |
|a) Sulfonamides |
|b) Cephalosporins |
|c) Macrolides |
|d) Aminoglycosides |
|e) Fluoroquinolones |
| |
|Prophylactic penicillin is indicated in patients with rheumatic carditis. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, which drug should be used?|
| |
|a) Sulfonamides |
|b) Cephalosporins |
|c) Macrolides |
|d) Aminoglycosides |
|e) Fluoroquinolones |
| |
|At what level penicillin work? |
|a) cytoplasmic membrane |
|b) cellular wall |
|c) cell bacterial ribosome |
|d) bacterial cell nucleus |
|e) bacterial cell cytoplasm |
| |
|Specify the antibacterial mechanism of action of benzyl penicillin: |
|a) disturbance of synthesis of the components of microbial walls |
|b) change of the permeability of cytoplasmatic membranes of microorganisms |
|c) Competitive antagonism with folic acid in bacterial cell |
|d) inhibits coenzyme A activity |
|e) membrane permeability distarbances |
| |
|Specify the action spectrum for biosynthetic penicillins: |
|a) Gram-positive and Gram-negative cocci, Corynebacterium diphtheria, spirokets, Clostridium |
|b) Corynebacterium diphtheria, mycobacteria |
|c) Gram positive cocci, viruses |
|d) gram-negative cocci, Rickettsia, fungal |
|e) mycobacteria, viruses, Corynebacterium diphtheria |
| |
|Antibacterial mechanism of penicillin is: |
|a) inhibiting the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls. |
|b) inhibition of bacterial beta-lactamases |
|c) activation of endogenous protease that destroys the cell wall |
|d) phospholypase endogenous activation, with subsequent alteration of membrane permeability |
|e) inhibition of nucleic acids |
| |
|Cephalosporins are the first choice in treatment: |
|a) Gram-positive |
|b) Gram-negative |
|c) Gram-negative and gram-positive, if penicillins are not effective |
|d) only infections with bacteroides |
|e) only for infections caused by protozoa |
| |
|Classified generally as a ˝third generation˝ cephalosporin: |
|a) Cefazolin |
|b) Cefachlor |
|c) Cephalexin |
|d) Cefotaxime sodium |
|e) Cefamandol |
| |
|Available as tables for oral administration: |
|a) thienam |
|b) cephalexin |
|c) benzatin-benzylpenicillin |
|d) procaine benzyl penicillin |
|e) cefazolin |
| |
|Action spectrum for carbapenems is: |
|a) just gram-positive |
|b) just gram-negative |
|c) only infections with bacteroides |
|d) broad-spectrum |
|e) only for infections caused by mycobacteria. |
| |
|Name aminoglycoside antibiotic: |
|a) erythromycin |
|b) gentamicin |
|c) vancomycin |
|d) polymyxin |
|e) lincomycin |
| |
|Drug from imipenems: |
|a) methicillin |
|b) isoniazid |
|c) tazocine |
|d) atropine |
|e) tienam |
| |
|Name side effect characteristic for aminoglycosides: |
|a) hepatotoxicity |
|b) SNC toxicity |
|c) ototoxicity |
|d) cardiotoxicity |
|e) mielotoxicity |
| |
|The main side efects of aminoglycosides are EXCEPT: |
|a) Ototoxicity |
|b) Nephrotoxicity |
|c) Extrapyramidal disorders |
|d) Neuromuscular blockade |
|e) nause and vomiting |
| |
|Aminoglycosides have the following spectrum of action: |
|a) gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic, spirochete |
|b) The broad spectrum, exception - Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
|c) gram-negative microorganisms, anaerobic |
|d) The broad spectrum, exception - anaerobes and viruses |
|e) gram-negative cocci, Rickettsia, fungal |
| |
|Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause loss of equilibrium and ototoxicity? |
|a) Canamycin |
|b) Ethambutol |
|c) Isoniazid |
|d) Para-aminosalicylic acid |
|e) Rifabutin |
| |
|Has the capacity to cause ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neuromuscular blockade: |
|a) vancomycine |
|b) augmenthine |
|c) cefachlor |
|d) erythromycin |
|e) gentamicin |
| |
|Named one of the major indications of aminoglycosides: |
|a) typhus |
|b) streptococcal angina |
|c) meningitis |
|d) typhoid |
|e) coli bacillary pyelonephritis |
| |
|Name the adverse effects of aminoglycosides: |
|a) pancytopenia |
|b) hepatotoxicity |
|c) ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity |
|d) mucosal gastroinitestinale irritation |
|e) agranulocytosis |
| |
|Macrolides include of from the following drugs EXCEPT: |
|a) clarithromycin |
|b) olethetrin |
|c) kanamycin |
|d) roxythromycin |
|e) oleandomycin |
| |
|What are the characteristics for lincosamides? |
|a) broad-spectrum; bactericidal effect. |
|b) influence predominantly anaerobes, gram negative cocci. |
|c) broad-spectru; bacteriostatic effect |
|d) influence predominantly anaerobes, gram positive cocci |
|e) gram-negative cocci, gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli. |
| |
|What is the adverse reaction for lincosamides? |
|a) nephrotoxicity |
|b) carcinogenic effect |
|c) pseudomembranous colitis |
|d) respiratory irritation |
|e) ototoxicity and neurotoxicitae. |
| |
|Chloramphenicol mechanism of action is: |
|a) Changes the shape of 30 rRNA to cause mRNA to be read incorrectly |
|b) Binds to 50s rRNA and inhibits formation of peptide bond |
|c) Binds to 50s rRNA and prevents movement along mRNA |
|d) Interferes with the tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA codon |
|e) Inhibits folic acid metabolism |
| |
|Which antibiotic most easily penetrate into the CNS: |
|a) benzylpenicillin |
|b) streptomycin |
|c) chloramphenicol |
|d) tetracycline |
|e) erythromycin |
| |
|A bacteremic patient is being treated with an antibiotic. Following one week of therapy, this patients develops severe bone marrow depression |
|resulting in pancytopenia. Which antibiotic is the most likely cause of this patient's toxic reaction? |
|a) Doxycycline |
|b) Chloramphenicol |
|c) Azithromycin |
|d) Gentamycin |
|e) Ciprofloxacin |
| |
|A one-yr-old baby who has been diagnosed with brain abscess is undergoing an antibiotic treatment. The baby develops abdominal distention, |
|emesis, and irregular respiration. Name antibiotic that is the most likely cause of this baby's toxic reaction? |
|a) Oxytetracycline |
|b) Amikacin |
|c) Clarithromycin |
|d) Sparfloxacin |
|e) Chloramphenicol |
| |
|Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, are effective against rare infections. Which of the epidemic infections that can be treated with |
|doxycycline is associated with voluminous rice-water diarrhea and may be seen as an epidemic in third world countries? |
|a) Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi) |
|b) Rabid fever (Francisella tularensis) |
|c) Black plague (Yersinia pestis) |
|d) Brucellosis (Brucella species) |
|e) Cholera (Vibrio choler) |
| |
|Among the side effects of tetracycline that may be seen in children taking the drug for long or short periods is: |
|a) depression of bone growth |
|b) ototoxicity |
|c) nefrotoxicity |
|d) gastrointestinal irritation |
|e) allergy |
| |
|Which drug from tetracyclines should be used for spirochetes Borellia burgdorferi.? |
|a) Demeclocycline |
|b) Doxycycline |
|c) Tetracycline |
|d) Oxytetracycline |
|e) Minocycline |
| |
|What kind of side effect is more frequent in tetracycline administration? |
|a) Agranulocytoses |
|b) Anemia |
|c) Renal disturbances |
|d) Allergic reaction |
|e) Bones destruction and teeth coloration |
| |
|Which of the types of drugs binds to teeth and can cause discoloration? |
|a) Tetracyclines |
|b) Macrolides |
|c) Cephalosporins |
|d) Penicillins |
|e) Sulfonamides |
| |
|What is the most common adverse reaction for tetracyclines? |
|a) Prolonged bleeding |
|b) Aplastic anemia |
|c) Bloody diarrhea |
|d) Seizures |
|e) Tooth enamel dysplasia |
| |
|Patients on tetracycline should due which of the following to prevent toxicity? |
|a) Brush their teeth |
|b) Exercise regularly |
|c) Limit exposure to sunlight |
|d) Rest at least six hours each night |
|e) Eat a complete diet including meat and dairy |
| |
|A patient presents with pain in their right side. After physical exam and testing, a fatty liver is found. History is negative for excessive |
|alcohol use. Name classe of antibiotics that could have caused this: |
|a) Tetracyclines |
|b) Aminoglycosides |
|c) Cephalosporins |
|d) Fluoroquinolones |
|e) Sulfonamides |
| |
|Name drug associated with gray baby syndrome? |
|a) Demeclocycline |
|b) Doxycycline |
|c) Tetracycline |
|d) Oxytetracycline |
|e) Chloramphenicol |
| |
|Which drug would be given to a patient with rickettsia who is allergic to doxycycline? |
|a) Demeclocycline |
|b) Tetracycline |
|c) Chloramphenicol |
|d) Minocycline |
|e) Oxytetracycline |
| |
|What antibiotic has strong bactericidal effect? |
|a) tetracycline |
|b) macrolide |
|c) penicillins |
|d) chloramphenicol |
|e) aminoglycoside |
| |
|What remedy is from macrolides group? |
|a) neomycin |
|b) doxycycline |
|c) erythromycin |
|d) cefotaxime |
|e) imipenem |
| |
|What kind of side effect is more frequent in penicillin's administration? |
|a) agranulocytoses |
|b) anemia |
|c) renal disturbances |
|d) allergic reaction |
|e) disbacteriosis |
| |
|Erythromycin works by which of the mechanisms? |
|a) Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes |
|b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase |
|c) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase |
|d) Inhibition of fungal membrane |
|e) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis |
| |
|What are the specific adverse effects of erythromycin: |
|a) agranulocytosis |
|b) acoustic-vestibular disorders |
|c) nausea , vomiting and gastrointestinal irritation |
|d) apnea with neuromuscular |
|e) polyneuritis |
| |
|What remedy is from carbapenem group? |
|a) aztreonam |
|b) amoxicillin |
|c) imipinem |
|d) clarithromycin |
|e) doxycycline |
| |
|What remedy-is from tetracycline group? |
|a) doxycycline |
|b) streptomycin |
|c) clarithromycin |
|d) amoxicillin |
|e) penicillin |
| |
|Name antibiotic from lincosamides: |
|a) gentamicin |
|b) streptomycin |
|c) clindamycin |
|d) neomycin |
|e) kanamycin |
| |
|Name antibiotic that inhibits RNA synthesis: |
|a) erythromycin |
|b) rifampicin |
|c) chloramphenicol |
|d) imipinem |
|e) azithromycin |
| |
|Aminoglycosides are effective against: |
|a) Gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms, spirochetes |
|b) Broad-spectum, except Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
|c) Gram negative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms |
|d) Broad-spectum, except anaerobic microorganisms and viruses |
|e) Only anaerobic microorganisms |
| |
|Which of the antimicrobial drug would affect gram-negative aerobes (versus gram-positive cocci/bacilli)? |
|a) Nafcillin |
|b) Vancomycin |
|c) Gentamycin |
|d) Erythromycin |
|e) Clindamycin |
| |
|Choose the characteristics of chloramphenicol: |
|a) Broad-spectum. not active against chlamydia. |
|b) Influences only the Gram-positive microorganisms. |
|c) Influences only the Gram-negative microorganisms. |
|d) Broad-spectum. Active also against chlamydia. |
|e) Narrow-spectrum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect. |
| |
|May be fatal to neonates owing to an inability to conjugate the drug with glucuronic acid: |
|a) Chloramphenicol |
|b) Polymyxin B |
|c) Erythromycin |
|d) Kanamycin |
|e) Neomycin |
| |
|Which of the following antibiotics penetrate the easiest in cephalorachidian liquid? |
|a) benzathine benzyl penicillin |
|b) streptomycin |
|c) chloramphenicol |
|d) tetracycline |
|e) erythromycin |
| |
|The drug chloramphenicol is risky for which categories of patients? |
|a) Neonates |
|b) Congestive heart failure patients |
|c) Obese patients |
|d) Adult males |
|e) Geriatric patients |
| |
|Name drug that can cause irreversible bone marrow depression, leading to aplastic anemia: |
|a) Oxytetracyclinу |
|b) Minocycline |
|c) Chloramphenicol |
|d) Tetracycline |
|e) Demeclocycline |
| |
|Chloramphenicol has the following unwanted effects: |
|a) Nephrotoxicity |
|b) Pancytopenia |
|c) Hepatotoxicity |
|d) Ototoxicity |
|e) Hypertension |
| |
|Erythromycin may produce following side effects: |
|a) Agranulocytosis |
|b) Vestibular disorders |
|c) Hepatoxic effects |
|d) apnea caused by neuromuscular blocker |
|e) Polineuritis |
| |
|Name following antibiotic, which is used for abdominal typhus treatment: |
|a) benzathine benzylpenicillin |
|b) benzylpenicillin potassium |
|c) tetracycline |
|d) cloramphenicol |
|e) kanamycin |
| |
|Pick out substance that inhibits the human enzyme dehydropeptidase: |
|a) Cilastatin |
|b) Sulbactam |
|c) Sultiam |
|d) Aztreonam |
|e) Tazobactam |
| |
|Cilastatin can therefore be combined intravenously with ______________ in order to protect it from renal dehydropeptidase: |
|a) imipenem |
|b) meropenem |
|c) carbepenem |
|d) aztreonam |
|e) Tazobactam |
| |
|Choose the characteristics of lincozamides: |
|a) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect. |
|b) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram negative cocci. |
|c) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect. |
|d) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci |
|e) Influence mainly the aerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci |
| |
|What kind of remedy will color tears in red-orange color? |
|a) cloramphenicol |
|b) rifampicine |
|c) metronidazol |
|d) carbenicilline |
|e) neomycine |
| |
|Lincozamides have the following unwanted effect: |
|a) Nephrotoxicity |
|b) Cancerogenity |
|c) Pseudomembranous collitis |
|d) Irritation of respiratory organs |
|e) Nonspecific ulcerative colitis |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections treatment: |
|a) Co-trimoxazol |
|b) Griseofulvin |
|c) Amphotericin B |
|d) Nitrofungin |
|e) Vancomicin |
| |
|Mechanism of Amphotericin B action is: |
|a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis |
|b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis |
|c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis |
|d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability |
|e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis |
| |
|Witch drug is from quinolones? |
|a) nitroxoline |
|b) nalidixic acid |
|c) furazolidon |
|d) co-trimoxazole |
|e) furasolidone |
| |
|Mechanism of sulfonamides' antibacterial effect is: |
|a) Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase |
|b) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase |
|c) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase |
|d) Activation of DNA gyrase |
|e) Inhibition of dihydropteroate oxydase |
| |
|Mechanism of action of sulphonamides is: |
|a) To inhibit alaninaminotransferase. |
|b) To inhibit dihydropteroatsynthetase |
|c) To inhibit H K ATPase |
|d) To inhibit the enzyme transpeptidase |
|e) To inhibit monoaminoxidase |
| |
|Name sulfonamides, which act only in the intestinal area: |
|a) Sulfocarbamides |
|b) Ftalilsulfatiazol |
|c) Sulfacetamide |
|d) Sulfa Ethiodol |
|e) Sulfadimidine |
| |
|Sulphonamides with gastrointestinal action: |
|a) streptocide, sulphacarbamide, sulphadimidine |
|b) lidaprim, sulphaton, co-trimoxazole |
|c) sulphacethamide, sulphadiazine |
|d) sulphaguanide, sulphasalazine, salazodine. |
| |
|What kind of side effects may Sulfonamides produce? |
|a) Colestasis |
|b) Chrystalluria |
|c) Pseudomembranous Colitis |
|d) Neuromuscular Block |
|e) Balance Disturbances |
| |
|Sulfonamides and nalidixic acid can cause hemolysis in patients that are deficient in what enzyme? |
|a) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase |
|b) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase |
|c) Glucose 6-phosphate |
|d) Glucokinase |
|e) Fructokinase |
| |
|The enzyme that sulfonamides inhibit (para-aminobenzoic acid, PABis needed for bacterial production of which of the substrat which is required|
|for synthesis of DNA, RNA, and protein? |
|a) Murein |
|b) Niacin |
|c) Folic acid |
|d) Arachidonic acid |
|e) Phosphodiesterase |
| |
|Bactrim is an effective and cheap medication containing a sulphonamide and trimethoprim. Which enzyme is targeted by trimethoprim? |
|a) Monohydropteroate synthase |
|b) Monohydrofolate reductase |
|c) Dihydropteroate synthase |
|d) Dihydrofolate reductase |
|e) Phosphodiesterase |
| |
|Combination of sulfonamides with trimethoprim: |
|a) Decreases the unwanted effects of sulfonamides |
|b) Increases the antimicrobial activity |
|c) Decreases the antimicrobial activity |
|d) Increases the elimination ofsulfonamides |
|e) Decreases the elimination ofsulfonamides |
| |
|Name sulphonamide drug: |
|a) streptomycin |
|b) penicillin |
|c) co-trimoxazole |
|d) chloramphenicol |
|e) clarithromycin |
|e |
|mechanism of action of sulfonamides? |
|a) Changes the shape of 30 rRNA to cause mRNA to be read incorrectly |
|b) Binds to 50s rRNA and inhibits formation of peptide bond |
|c) Binds to 50s rRNA and prevents movement along mRNA |
|d) Interferes with the tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA codon |
|e) Inhibits folic acid metabolism |
| |
|Show mechanism of action of sulphonamides: |
|a) Inhibition of RNA-polymerase |
|b) Have the competitive antagonism with paraaminobenzoic acid |
|c) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase |
|d) Activation of dihydropholatreductase |
|e) Inhibition of cell wall |
| |
|Sulfonamides have been considered the agents of choice in the treatment of : |
|a) pneumonia |
|b) allergy |
|c) cellulites |
|d) inflammation |
|e) acute pain |
| |
|Which enzyme is targeted by sulfonamide? |
|a) Monohydropteroate synthase |
|b) Monohydrofolate reductase |
|c) Dihydropteroate synthase |
|d) Dihydrofolate reductase |
|e) Tetrahydrofolate reductase |
| |
|Name sulfonamide would be used to treat ulcerative colitis? |
|a) Sulfacetamide |
|b) Trimethoprim |
|c) Co-trimazole |
|d) Sulfamethoxazole |
|e) Sulfasalazine |
| |
|Co-trimazole is used in patient who develop P. carinii pneumonia. This type of pneumonia is seen in what type of patient? |
|a) Neonates |
|b) Elderly |
|c) Immune compromised |
|d) Patients taking warfarin |
|e) Patients with glucose-6-phosphate deficiency |
| |
|Name sulfonamide used topically for ocular infections? |
|a) Sulfacetamide |
|b) Trimethoprim |
|c) Co-trimazole |
|d) Sulfamethoxazole |
|e) Sulfasalazine |
| |
|Which drug is used in bacterial infections of the eyes? |
|a) sulphaguanide |
|b) sulphadimethoxine |
|c) sulfacetamide |
|d) sulphadiazine |
|e) sulphaton |
| |
|Mechanism of Trimethoprim' action is: |
|a) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase |
|b) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase |
|c) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase |
|d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase |
|e) Inhibition of aldoreductase |
| |
|Which of the effetcs was accomplished with second-generation fluoroquinolones? |
|a) Decreased potency (toxicity) |
|b) Increased potency (effectiveness) |
|c) Decreased protein binding (less drug-drug interaction) |
|d) Added activity against anaerobes |
|e) Improved gram-positive antibiotic activity |
| |
|Fluoroquinolones inhibit which topoisomerase in gram-positive bacteria? |
|a) I |
|b) II |
|c) III |
|d) IV |
|e) non of the above |
| |
|Which group of drugs can cause CNS symptoms and have a tendancy to damage cartiledge, thus should never be given to children under the age of |
|18? |
|a) Penicillins |
|b) Cephalosporins |
|c) Macrolides |
|d) Aminoglycosides |
|e) Fluoroquinolones |
| |
|Name the antibacterial drug - a nitrofurane derivative: |
|a) Nitrofurantoin |
|b) Trimethoprim |
|c) Ciprofloxacin |
|d) Nystatin |
|e) Metronidazole |
| |
|Name the antibacterial drug - a nitroimidazole derivative: |
|a) Clavulanic acid |
|b) Metronidazole |
|c) Nitrofurantoin |
|d) Doxycycline |
|e) Nystatin |
| |
|Witch drug is from 8-oxyquinolinics? |
|a) nitroxoline |
|b) nalidixic acid |
|c) furazolidon |
|d) co-trimoxazole |
|e) tetracycline |
| |
|Name the antibacterial drug - a quinolone derivative: |
|a) Nitrofurantoin |
|b) Nalidixic acid |
|c) Streptomycin |
|d) Metronidazole |
|e) Nystatin |
| |
|Name the antibacterial drug - a fluoroquinolone derivative: |
|a) Chloramphenicol |
|b) Nitrofurantoin |
|c) Nalidixic acid |
|d) Ciprofloxacin |
|e) Metronidazole |
| |
|Name the main indications for nitrofuranes: |
|a) Infections of respiratory tract |
|b) Infections of urinary and gastro-intestinal tracts |
|c) Syphilis |
|d) Tuberculosis |
|e) As a disinfectant |
| |
|Name the indications for metronidazole: |
|a) Intra-abdominal infections, vaginitis, enterocolitis |
|b) Pneumonia |
|c) As a disinfectant |
|d) Influenza |
|e) Tuberculosis |
| |
|Mechanism of action of metronidazol: |
|a) Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking ribosomal movement along messenger RNA |
|b) The drug undergoes a reductive bioactivation of its nitro group by ferredoxin (prezent in anacrobie parasites) to form reactive cytotoxic |
|products |
|c) The drug blocks glucose uptakc, which leads to decreased formation of ATP |
|d) It may act by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation or by activating ATP-ases |
|e) Inhibits synthesis of cell wall of microbes |
| |
|The mechanism of fluoroquinolones' action is: |
|a) Inhibition of phospholipase C |
|b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase |
|c) Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesis |
|d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability |
|e) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis |
| |
|Fluoroquinolones are active against: |
|a) Gram negative microorganisms only |
|b) Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae only |
|c) Gram positive microorganisms only |
|d) Variety of Gram-negative and positive microorganisms, including Mycoplasma and Chlamidiae |
|e) Only protozoa and anaerobes |
| |
|Fluoroquinolones works by which mechanisms? |
|a) Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes |
|b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase |
|c) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase |
|d) Inhibition of fungal membrane |
|e) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis |
| |
|The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is: |
|a) Gentamycin |
|b) Penicillin |
|c) Chloramphenicol |
|d) Doxycycline |
|e) Tetracycline |
| |
|The main drugs used in lues? |
|a) tetracycline |
|b) benzylpenicillins |
|c) erythromycin |
|d) co-trimoxazole |
|e) Chloramphenicol |
| |
|Mechanism of Cycloserine's action is: |
|a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis |
|b) Inhibition of RNA synthesis |
|c) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis |
|d) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis |
|e) Inhibition of DNA synthesis |
| |
| |
|Mechanism of Streptomycin action is: |
|a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis |
|b) Inhibition of protein synthesis |
|c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis |
|d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability |
|e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis |
| |
|Which chemotherapies may produce reactions from the disulfiram type? |
|a) cloramfenicol |
|b) gentamicin |
|c) metronidazol |
|d) clotrimazol |
|e) ofloxacin |
| |
|Antifungal polyene macrolide that preferentially binds to fungal ergosterol which alters cellular permeability: |
|a) ketoconazole |
|b) amphotericin B |
|c) flucytosine |
|d) grisefulvin |
|e) clotrimazole |
| |
|Amphotericin and nystatin are what type of antifungal drugs? |
|a) Polyenes |
|b) Azoles |
|c) Pyrimidines |
|d) imidasole’s |
|e) bis- quaternary ammoniac salts |
| |
|An azole most commonly used for topical treatment of candidiasis: |
|a) amphotericin B |
|b) clotrimazole |
|c) griseofulvin |
|d) flucytosine |
|e) none of the answers |
| |
|Antifungal agent useful in treatment of candidiasis: |
|a) Amphotericin B |
|b) Nystatin |
|c) Both |
|d) Neither |
| |
|Polyene used topically; active against most Candida species--most commonly used for suppression of local candidal infection: |
|a) miconazole |
|b) terbinafine |
|c) nystatin |
|d) fluconazole |
|e) flucytosine |
| |
|Inhibition of fungal squalene epoxidase is this antifungal drug's mechanism of action: |
|a) ketoconazole |
|b) fluconazole |
|c) terbinafine |
|d) nystatin |
|e) flucytosine |
| |
|Given by i.v. administration, the drug of choice for nearly all life-threatening mycotic infections--usually used as the initial induction |
|regiment: |
|a) ketoconazole |
|b) itraconazole |
|c) flucytosine |
|d) amphotericin B |
|e) nystatin |
| |
|First available reverse transcriptase drug for treatment of HIV-1; a deoxythymidine analogue: |
|a) foscarnet |
|b) zidovudine |
|c) amantidine |
|d) indinavir |
|e) remantadine |
|Saquinavir and ritonavir are what type of drugs? |
|a) Fusion inhibitors |
|b) Ion channel blockers |
|c) Polymerase inhibitors |
|d) Protease inhibitors |
|e) Neuraminidase inhibitors |
| |
|Amantadine and rimantadine are what type of drugs? |
|a) Fusion inhibitors |
|b) Ion channel blockers |
|c) Polymerase inhibitors |
|d) Protease inhibitors |
|e) Neuraminidase inhibitors |
| |
|Zanamivir and oseltamivir are what type of drugs? |
|a) Fusion inhibitors |
|b) Ion channel blockers |
|c) Polymerase inhibitors |
|d) Protease inhibitors |
|e) Neuraminidase inhibitors |
| |
|HIV protease inhibitor: |
|a) rimantadine |
|b) ribavirin |
|c) saquinavir |
|d) stavudine |
|e) remantadine |
| |
|These drug is prophylactic against influenza A virus infection with 80% efficacy: |
|a) zidovudine |
|b) saquinavir |
|c) ribavarine |
|d) acyclovir |
|e) amantadine |
| |
|Effective antiviral agent, which is also approved for use in the treatment of Parkinson disease: |
|a) Idoxuridine |
|b) Amantadine |
|c) Vidarabine |
|d) Cytarabine |
|e) Trifluridine |
| |
| |
|Name standard therapy for CMV infections? |
|a) Idoxuridine |
|b) Cytarabine |
|c) Ganciclovir |
|d) Vidarabine |
|e) Zidovudine |
| |
|Therapy for viral infections is aimed at which of the following? |
|a) Enhancing CD4 counts |
|b) Enveloping viral infected cells |
|c) Lysing viral infected cells |
|d) Destroying viruses directly |
|e) Preventing or delaying viral replication |
| |
|Protease inhibitors (PIs) block which of the following steps in the viral life cycle? |
|a) Binding |
|b) Reverse transcription |
|c) Integration |
|d) Transcription |
|e) Assembly |
| |
|AZT (Retrovir), also called zidovudine, is used in the treatment of HIV by inhibiting which step in the viral life cycle? |
|a) Binding |
|b) Reverse transcription |
|c) Integration |
|d) Transcription |
|e) Translation |
| |
|Acyclovir is phosphorylated by viral kinsases at which step? |
|a) First (mono-phosphate) |
|b) Second (di-phosphate) |
|c) Third (tri-phosphate) |
|d) Transcription |
|e) Translation |
| |
|AZT (Zidovudinhas) what mechanism of action? |
|a) Blocks viral absorption |
|b) Blocks uncoating stage |
|c) Blocks early protein synthesis |
|d) Blocks reverse transcriptase |
|e) Blocks packaging and assembly |
| |
|Mechanism of action of zidovudine: |
|a) It induce the formation of enzymes, that phosphorylates a factor witch blocks peptide chain initiation, a phosphodiesterase that degrades |
|terminal nucleotides of t RNA and enzymes that activate kinase |
|b) They inhibit the first steps in replication of the influenza A and rubella viruses |
|c) inhibits reverse transcriptase of HIV-1 and HIV-2 and causes chain termination in viral DNA |
|d) it is active against herpes simplex virus and varicella- zoster virus, by inhibition of DNA- polymerase |
|e) inhibit protein formation in viruses |
| |
| |
|Name the drug used for HIV infection treatment, a derivative of nucleosides: |
|a) Acyclovir |
|b) Zidovudine |
|c) Gancyclovir |
|d) Trifluridine |
|e) Amantadine |
| |
|Name the drug from antivirale group with wide spectrum of action: |
|a) Saquinavir |
|b) Interferon alfa |
|c) Didanozine |
|d) Acyclovir |
|e) 3 Zidovudine |
| |
|Most likely to cause additive myelosuppresion in an HIV patient also receiving ganciclovir for CMV retinitis: |
|a) didanosine |
|b) zidovudine |
|c) zalcitabine |
|d) saquinavir |
|e) amantadine |
| |
|Used to treat HSV (herpes): |
|a) zidovudine |
|b) acyclovir |
|c) interferon |
|d) ribavirin |
|e) amantadine |
| |
|Monophosphorylation of this antiviral drug is catalyzed by virus-specified protein kinase phosphotransferase in CMV-infected cells and by |
|viral thymidine kinase in HSV-infected (herpes) cells: |
|a) ganciclovir |
|b) foscarnet |
|c) cidofovir |
|d) valacyclovir |
|e) amantadine |
| |
| |
| |
|Mechanism of paraaminosalicylic acid action is: |
|a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis |
|b) Inhibition of folate synthesis |
|c) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase |
|d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase |
|e) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis |
| |
|Indication for isoniazid: |
|a) Meningococcal meningitis |
|b) Typhoid fever |
|c) Subacute endocarditis |
|d) Lues |
|e) Tuberculosis |
| |
|Which of the following pairs of substances is matched? |
|a) Ceruloplasmin - copper |
|b) Deferoxamine - iron |
|c) Isoniazid - pyridoxine |
|d) Vitamin B12 - zinc. |
| |
|The most important drug for treatment of all types of tuberculosis is: |
|a) Augmentine |
|b) Isoniazid |
|c) Aminosalicylic acid |
|d) Ampicylline |
|e) Clarithromycin |
| |
|Which one of the following side effects is more characteristic for ethambutol: |
|a) proteinuria |
|b) decreased visual acuity |
|c) nongouty polyarthralgia |
|d) hemolysis |
|e) methemoglobinemia |
| |
|The important drugs for treatment of tuberculosis are: |
|a) penicillin, cloramphenicol, gentamicin |
|b) isoniazid, riphampicin, ethambutol |
|c) aminosalicylic acid, nitroxoline, furazidine |
|d) norepinephrine, ephedrine, epineprine |
|e) atropine, neostigmine, aceclidine |
| |
|The most common reaction to isoniazid therapy, if pyridoxine is not given concurrently, is: |
|a) peripheral neuritis |
|b) hypersensitivity |
|c) optic neuritis |
|d) dryness of mouth |
|e) convulsions |
| |
|Name drug used specifically only in M. leprae: |
|a) Dapsone |
|b) Isoniazid |
|c) Rifampin |
|d) Pyrazinamide |
|e) Streptomycin |
| |
|Name drug that can cause reversible optic neuritis: |
|a) Ethambutol |
|b) Isoniazid |
|c) Rifampin |
|d) Pyrazinamide |
|e) Streptomycin |
| |
|A 34-year-old man under treatment for pulmonary TB has acute-onset right big toe pains, swelling, and low-grade fever. His physical exam is |
|consistent with gouty arthritis, and he is found to have high serum uric acid levels. Name anti-TB drug that is the most likely cause of this |
|patient's UA levels? |
|a) Isoniazid |
|b) Pyrazinamide |
|c) Cycloserine |
|d) Rifampin |
|e) Ethionamide |
| |
|Isoniazid inhibits mycolid acid synthesis, disrupting bacterial walls and is associated with hepatotoxicity, peripheral and central |
|neuropathy, and optic neuritis. What vitamin should be given as a supplement with isoniazid to help prevents these effects? |
|a) Vitamin A |
|b) Vitamin K |
|c) Vitamin B6 |
|d) Vitamin B12 |
|e) Vitamin E |
| |
|Name aminoglycoside only used for tuberculosis: |
|a) Ethambutol |
|b) Isoniazid |
|c) Rifampin |
|d) Pyrazinamide |
|e) Streptomycin |
| |
|A patient returns complaining of a reddish-orange color in their urine, saliva, sweat, and tears. Which drug from anti TBC drugs was the |
|patient likely taking? |
|a) Dapsone |
|b) Isoniazid |
|c) Rifampicin |
|d) Pyrazinamide |
|e) Streptomycin |
| |
|Name a pro-drug that is activated by tuberculosis and can cause hyperuricemia? |
|a) Ethambutol |
|b) Isoniazid |
|c) Rifampin |
|d) Pyrazinamide |
|e) Streptomycin |
| |
|Which of the following is considered a second-line antitubercular agent? |
|a) Para-aminosalicyclic acid |
|b) Isoniazid |
|c) Rifampin |
|d) Pyrazinamide |
|e) Streptomycin |
| |
|Name the antimycobacterial drug belonging to first-line (I group) agents: |
|a) para-aminosalicylic acid |
|b) Isoniazid |
|c) Kanamycin |
|d) Pyrazinamide |
|e) Prothyonamide |
| |
|Name the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to antibiotics: |
|a) Isoniazid |
|b) PAS |
|c) Ethambutol |
|d) Rifampin |
|e) Pyrazinamide |
| |
|Mechanism of Izoniazid action is: |
|a) Inhibition of protein synthesis |
|b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis |
|c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis |
|d) Inhibition of ADP synthesis |
|e) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase |
| |
|Mechanism of Rifampin action is: |
|a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis |
|b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase |
|c) Inhibition of topoisomerase II |
|d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis |
|e) Inhibition of protein synthesis |
| |
|Mechanism of Streptomycin action is: |
|a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis |
|b) Inhibition of protein synthesis |
|c) Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis |
|d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability |
|e) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis |
| |
|Name unwanted effect of ethambutol: |
|a) Cardiotoxicity |
|b) Immunotoxicity |
|c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness |
|d) Hepatotoxicity |
|e) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity |
| |
|Name unwanted effect of streptomycin: |
|a) Cardiotoxicity |
|b) Hepatotoxicity |
|c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness |
|d) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neuromuscular blockage |
|e) Immunotoxicity |
| |
|Name the antimalarial drug having a gametocidal effect: |
|a) Mefloquine |
|b) Primaquine |
|c) Doxycycline |
|d) Sulfonamides |
|e) Quinidine |
| |
|Name the drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis and treatment: |
|a) Chloroquine |
|b) Quinidine |
|c) Quinine |
|d) Sulfonamides |
|e) Metronidazole |
| |
|Name the group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect: |
|a) Aminoglycosides |
|b) Tetracyclins |
|c) Sulfonamides |
|d) Penicillins |
|e) Carbapenems |
| |
|What antimalarial preparation has an anti inflammmatory action? |
|a) Chloroquine |
|b) Quinine |
|c) Primetamin |
|d) Primaquine |
|e) Emetine |
| |
|Name the drug used for trichomoniasis treatment: |
|a) Metronidazole |
|b) Suramin |
|c) Pyrimethamine |
|d) Tetracycline |
|e) Quinidine |
| |
|Name the drug used for balantidiasis treatment: |
|a) Azitromycin |
|b) Tetracycline |
|c) Quinine |
|d) Trimethoprim |
|e) Quinidine |
| |
|Name the drug, blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction of helminthes: |
|a) Levamisole |
|b) Mebendazole |
|c) Piperazine |
|d) Niclosamide |
|e) Suramin |
| |
|Describe niclosamide mechanism of action: |
|a) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, and death of helminthes |
|b) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes |
|c) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake |
|d) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes |
|e) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes |
| |
|Describe praziquantel mechanism of action: |
|a) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes |
|b) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake |
|c) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes |
|d) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes |
|e) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium |
| |
|Describe piperazine mechanism of action: |
|a) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake |
|b) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes |
|c) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes |
|d) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes |
|e) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes |
| |
|Describe mebendazole mechanism of action: |
|a) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes |
|b) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes |
|c) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake |
|d) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes |
|e) Increasing cell membrane permeability for sodium |
| |
|Name the drug, inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes: |
|a) Niclosamide |
|b) Piperazine |
|c) Praziquantel |
|d) Metronidazole |
|e) Mebendazole |
| |
|Name the drug for nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment: |
|a) Niclosamide |
|b) Praziquantel |
|c) Pyrantel |
|d) Metronidazole |
|e) Bithionol |
| |
|Name the drug for cestodosis (tapeworm invasion) treatment: |
|a) Piperazine |
|b) Praziquantel |
|c) Pyrantel |
|d) Ivermectin |
|e) Metronidazole |
| |
|Name the drug for echinococcosis treatment: |
|a) Suramin |
|b) Mebendazole or Albendazole |
|c) Piperazine |
|d) Iodoquinol |
|e) Metronidazole |
| |
|Adverse drug interactions may occur due to alteration of: |
|a) pharmacodynamics |
|b) distribution |
|c) excretion |
|d) absorption |
|e) all of them |
| |
|Universal antagonist is: |
|a) unitiol |
|b) protamine sulfate |
|c) naloxone |
|d) atropine |
|e) flumazenil |
| |
|antagonist of heparin: |
|a) unitiol |
|b) protamine sulfate |
|c) naloxone |
|d) atropine |
|e) flumazenil |
| |
|antagonis of pilocarpine: |
|a) unitiol |
|b) protamine sulfate |
|c) naloxone |
|d) atropine |
|e) flumazenil |
| |
|antagonis of diazepam: |
|a) unitiol |
|b) protamine sulfate |
|c) naloxone |
|d) atropine |
|e) flumazenil |
| |
|antagonis of opioids: |
|a) unitiol |
|b) protamine sulfate |
|c) naloxone |
|d) atropine |
|e) flumazenil |
| |
|Mutliple choice |
|Specify the areas of study of pharmacokinetics? |
|a) absorption of medicinal substances |
|b) types of action of drugs |
|c) distribution of drug substances in the body |
|d) drug biotransformation |
|e) pharmacological effects of drug substances |
| |
|What is an action of the body on a drug? |
|a) Absorption |
|b) Distribution |
|c) Mechanism of action |
|d) Excretion |
|e) Side effects |
| |
|Specify the correct statements about the definition of pharmacology: |
|a) studying methods of preparing, standardization and quality assessment of medicines |
|b) studying methods of storage and distribution of drugs in the pharmaceutical market |
|c) study drug substances interaction with cells of living organisms |
|d) study the effectiveness and safety aspects of drug substances |
|e) studying methods of medical treatment of pathologies of living organisms |
| |
|Specify the correct statements about the definition of the drugs: |
|a) any substance or mixture of substances used for prophylaxis |
|b) any substance or mixture of substances intended for diagnosis |
|c) any substance or mixture of substances used with curative purpose |
|d) any substance or mixture of substances intended for deratization |
|e) any substance or mixture of substances intended for use as an insecticide |
| |
|Describe etymology of the word pharmacology? |
|a) tissue |
|b) drug |
|c) herb |
|d) poison |
|e) science |
| |
|List solid drugs pharmaceutical formulation: |
|a) dragées |
|b) pomade |
|c) plaster |
|d) species |
|e) film |
| |
|List semisolid (soft) pharmaceutical formulation: |
|a) suppositories |
|b) pomade |
|c) plaster |
|d) species |
|e) film |
| |
|List the liquid pharmaceutical formulation: |
|a) decoction |
|b) pomade |
|c) balsam |
|d) species |
|e) emulsion |
|What kinds of reactions occurring in stage II of drugs biotransformation: |
|a) hydrolysis |
|b) sulfo conjugation |
|c) oxidation |
|d) glucuroconjugation |
|e) acetylation |
| |
|What kinds of reactions occurring in stage I of drugs biotransformation: |
|a) oxidation |
|b) glucuroconjugation |
|c) reduction |
|d) hydrolysis |
|e) sulfation |
| |
|Name parts of a phase II substrate? |
|a) Glucuronic acid |
|b) Sulfuric acid |
|c) Acetic acid |
|d) Amino acids |
|e) Cytochrome P450 |
| |
|Name parts of a phase I: |
|a) Oxidations |
|b) Reductions |
|c) Conjugations |
|d) Excretion |
|e) Hydrolyses |
| |
|Drug biotransformation: |
|a) biotransformation products can be toxic |
|b) takes place just for orally administered drugs |
|c) mainly, but not exclusively in the liver |
|d) biotransformation is not influenced by the drugs |
|e) biotransformation products are never toxic |
| |
|Major receptor role(s): |
|a) mediates agonist effects of drugs |
|b) mediates antagonist effects of drugs |
|c) mediates volume of distribution |
|d) mediates clearance |
|e) important for drug action selectivity |
| |
|List properties that can favor absorption by passive diffusion: |
|a) the macromolecular structure |
|b) high proportion of unionized form in case of electrolytes |
|c) peptidic structure in oral administration |
|d) high lipophilicity |
|e) low lipophilicity |
|Which statements are correct for the filtration as one of the ways of penetration of membranes? |
|a) occurs only for small water-soluble molecules |
|b) energy needs |
|c) requires the presence of specialized carrier system |
|d) occurs only for electrolytes |
|e) involves a flow of water |
| |
|Passive diffusion is dependent on: |
|a) small degree of ionization |
|b) pKa of the substance |
|c) pH of the medium |
|d) the presence of a specialized carrier system |
|e) the use of energy |
| |
|Specialized transport systems: |
|a) passive diffusion |
|b) filtration |
|c) pinocytosis |
|d) active transport |
|e) facilitated diffusion |
| |
|Choose right statements for active transport as one of the ways of penetration of membranes: |
|a) energy needs |
|b) is done against the concentration gradient |
|c) requires a specialized carrier system |
|d) occurs only for small molecules and water soluble |
|e) occurs only soluble molecules |
| |
|List routes of administration avoiding the liver: |
|a) peroral |
|b) duodenal |
|c) sublingual |
|d) rectal |
|e) by intragastric sonde |
| |
|Concerning oral administration -- disadvantages: |
|a) least economical |
|b) drug taken orally may cause emesis |
|c) drug taken orally may be destroyed by gastric acidity |
|d) drug taken orally may be metabolized by gastrointestinal flora |
|e) drug taken orally may be in consistently absorbed due to the presence of food |
| |
| |
|What drugs can cause rebound phenomenon at the suddenly stopping of a long treatment? |
|a) clonidine |
|b) captopril |
|c) furosemide |
|d) prazosin |
|e) xpropranolol |
| |
|Characteristic of Cytochrome P450: |
|a) is found in the endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes |
|b) is involved in phase II metabolism |
|c) is induced by phenytoin |
|d) is inhibited by cimetidine |
|e) induction of P450 reduces the effect of warfarin |
| |
|Name parameters of pharmacokinetics: |
|a) bioavailability |
|b) half life |
|c) volume of distribution |
|d) the therapeutic window |
|e) clearance |
| |
| |
|Concerning oral administration advantages: |
|a) convenient - portable, no pain, easy to take. |
|b) drug taken orally may cause emesis |
|c) drug taken orally may be destroyed by gastric acidity |
|d) no need to sterilize drug |
|e) drug taken orally may be inconsistently absorbed due to the presence of food |
| |
|Roots of administration that avoid "first-pass" hepatic effects: |
|a) sublingual |
|b) oral |
|c) transdermal |
|d) lower rectal suppositories |
|e) inhalation |
| |
|Concerning renal drug excretion: |
|a) almost all drugs are filtered by the glomerulus |
|b) a lipid-soluble, filtered drug will likely be reabsorbed by passive diffusion |
|c) water soluble drugs are less excreted than lipid soluble drugs |
|d) weak acids are excreted faster in alkaline urinary pH |
|e) weak acids are excreted slowly in alkaline urinary pH |
| |
|What is required for drug bioequivalence? |
|a) Same active ingredients |
|b) Same strength or concentration |
|c) Same dosage form |
|d) Same route of administration |
|e) Same side effects |
| |
|Which is an advantage of prolonged release medications? |
|a) Less frequent administration |
|b) Therapeutic effect overnight |
|c) sustained blood levels |
|d) Patient compliance |
|e) More fluctuation in plasma concentration |
| |
|Concerning influence of age on drug responses: variation in response usually due to: |
|a) reduced cardiac output |
|b) reduced hepatic perfusion |
|c) decreased body fat |
|d) increased protein binding |
|e) decreased renal function |
| |
|These agents must be given parenterally because they are not absorbed when given orally: |
|a) Osmotic diuretics |
|b) Loop diuretics |
|c) Penicillins |
|d) Macrolides |
|e) Aminoglycosydes antibiotics |
| |
|Name contraindications to morphine: |
|a) bronchial asthma |
|b) acute abdomen |
|c) intense postoperative pain |
|d) respiratory depression |
|e) children under 2 years |
| |
|Specify the adverse effects of metamizol: |
|a) leukopenia and agranulocytosis |
|b) gastric cancer |
|c) allergic reactions |
|d) methemoglobinemia |
|e) cardiotoxicity |
| |
|Indicate how morphine affects the CNS: |
|a) inhibits the cough center |
|b) excites the vagus nerve center |
|c) stimulating the respiratory center |
|d) stimulates the thermoregulatory center |
|e) causes light sleep |
| |
|What is the mechanism of constipation caused by morphine? |
|a) excitation of opioid receptors in the gut |
|b) direct excitation of neurons from vomiting center |
|c) chemoreceptors excitement of the "trigger zone" of vomiting center |
|d) increase sphincter tone |
|e) increasing the secretion |
| |
|What is the mechanism of action of morphine: |
|a) opioid receptor blockade |
|b) inhibits nociceptors |
|c) stimulate opioid receptors |
|d) stimulates the release of mediators |
|e) blocking the release of mediators |
| |
|Effects of morphine on the digestive system: |
|a) increasing of the bile elimination |
|b) diarrhea |
|c) intestine segmentation |
|d) relaxation of the sphincters |
|e) contraction of the sphincters |
| |
|The blood brain barrier is highly permeable to: |
|a) diclofenac |
|b) paracetamol |
|c) indometacine |
|d) morphine |
|e) acetylsalicylic acid |
| |
| |
|List CNS centers that are stimulated by morphine: |
|a) cough |
|b) respiratory |
|c) vagus nerve |
|d) thermoregulation |
|e) optic nerve |
| |
|Choose neuroendocrine effects of morphine: |
|a) increase in cortisol levels |
|b) decrease in cortisol levels |
|c) decrease in gonadotropin-releasing factor |
|d) decrease in corticotropin releasing factor |
|e) increase in gonadotropin-releasing factor |
| |
|Name characteristics of the opioid analgesics: |
|a) depression of the respiratory center |
|b) adequate absorption when given orally |
|c) miosis |
|d) depression of the cough center |
|e) bronchospasm |
| |
|Choose physiological effects of morphine: |
|a) constipation |
|b) miosis |
|c) respiratory depression |
|d) mydriasis |
|e) chronic diahrrea |
| |
|Choose physiological effect typically associated with opioids: |
|a) mydriasis |
|b) miosis |
|c) bradycardia |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) constipation |
| |
|Name mechanism of action of opioid analgesics: |
|a) Bind to opioid receptors on inhibitory fibers, stimulating them |
|b) Inhibit neurotransmitter release |
|c) Inhibit opioid receptors |
|d) Prevent pain impulse transmission to the brain |
|e) Do not work centrally |
| |
|Contraindications/caution for opioid use are: |
|a) patients with lungs oedema |
|b) patients with bones fractures |
|c) patients with cerebral edema |
|d) abdominally unclear pain |
|e) children under 3 years |
| |
|Name effects of morphine: |
|a) myosis |
|b) constipation |
|c) bradycardia |
|d) hypothermia |
|e) hyperthermia |
| |
|Name antagonist of opioids? |
|a) naltrexone |
|b) naloxone |
|c) flumazenil |
|d) pentazocine |
|e) tramadol |
| |
|Name mechanism concerning the nausea resulting from morphine administration: |
|a) results from stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone for emesis |
|b) results from stimulation of H1 histaminoreceptors from vestibular apparatus |
|c) is overcome by morphine antagonist |
|d) is due because of tachycardia and hypertention |
|e) results from stimulation of cough center |
| |
|Name characteristic of opioid poisoning: |
|a) Coma |
|b) Myosis |
|c) Depressed respiration |
|d) Mydriases |
|e) Elevated body temperature |
| |
|Name the main effects of non-opioid analgesics: |
|a) antimicrobial |
|b) antiagregant |
|c) antipyretic |
|d) somnolence |
|e) analgesic |
| |
|Choose the effects of paracetamol: |
|a) Anti-diuretic |
|b) Analgesic |
|c) Antipyretic |
|d) Antiaggregant |
|e) Anticoagulant |
| |
| |
|With regard to salicylate: |
|a) it is rapidly exreted by the kidney if the urine is rendered acidic |
|b) the same group as aspirin |
|c) it causes hypeglycemia |
|d) it potentiates the activity of warfarin |
|e) it has powerful antipyretic properties |
| |
|Choose correct affirmations concerning antiaggregant effect of acetylsalicylic acid: |
|a) Low doses (81-325 mg/day) are sufficient for antiagregant effect |
|b) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase |
|c) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits Phospholipase A2 |
|d) Acetylsalicylic acid has also analgesic, and anti-inflammatory effects |
|e) Acetylsalicylic acid stimulates lipocortin 1 |
| |
|Specify the correct pharmacological characteristics on phenobarbital: |
|a) cause somnolence upon awakening and marked residual sedation |
|b) cause seizures at higher doses |
|c) does not generate interactions with other drugs |
|d) is indicated in epilepsy |
|e) powerful enzyme inducer |
| |
|Anticonvulsant drugs are: |
|a) selegiline |
|b) pimozide |
|c) carbamazepine |
|d) valproic acid |
|e) phenytoin |
| |
|What drugs are anticholinergic antiparkinsonian drugs: |
|a) trihexyphenidyl |
|b) amantadine |
|c) levodopa |
|d) selegiline |
|e) benactyzine |
| |
|Benzodiazepines indications: |
|a) epilepsy |
|b) parkinsonism |
|c) neurosis |
|d) depression |
|e) seizure by unknown genesis |
| |
|What is characteristic of zolpidem? |
|a) It is a benzodiazepine derivative. |
|b) Stimulates benzodiazepine receptors. |
|c) Enhances GABAergic processes in the CNS. |
|d) Less influence on sleep structure compared to barbiturates. |
|e) Much less addictive than benzodiazepines and barbiturates |
| |
|Choose drugs with anxiolytic effects: |
|a) flumazenil |
|b) propranolol |
|c) amphepramon |
|d) alprazolam |
|e) diazepam |
| |
|Choose zolpidem characteristics: |
|a) short duration of action |
|b) long duration of action |
|c) from barbiturates group |
|d) used for the treatment of obesity |
|e) used for the treatment of insomnia |
| |
|Side effects of benzodiazepines are: |
|a) reducing symptoms of anxiety |
|b) psychologic dependencies |
|c) insomnia |
|d) Rebound effect |
|e) decrease mental concentration |
| |
|What substances belonging to the group of benzodiazepines? |
|a) nitrazepam |
|b) barbital |
|c) diazepam |
|d) chlorpromazine |
|e) meprobamate |
| |
|Name sedative preparations: |
|a) natrium bromide |
|b) valerian drugs |
|c) amphetamine |
|d) caffeine |
|e) barbital |
| |
|What effects are caused by phenytoin? |
|a) antianginal |
|b) antihypertensive |
|c) antiarrhythmic |
|d) antiepileptic |
|e) antipsychotic |
| |
|Which drugs can be used as antiepileptic? |
|a) paracetamol |
|b) chlorpromazine |
|c) morphine |
|d) carbamazepine |
|e) phenytoin |
| |
|Name the possible side effects in therapy with tranquilizers: |
|a) increased skeletal muscle tone |
|b) disturbance of coordination of movements |
|c) somnolence |
|d) drug addiction |
|e) extrapyramidal disorders |
| |
|Tranquilizers indications: |
|a) psychotic disorders accompanied by hallucinations |
|b) neurotic states |
|c) psychotic disorders accompanied by delirium |
|d) insomnia |
|e) depression, somnolence |
| |
|Mention effects characteristic for benzodiazepines tranquilizers group: |
|a) anxiolytic |
|b) hypnotic |
|c) anticonvulsant |
|d) antipsychotic |
|e) antagonizes the action of anesthetics, hypnotics and narcotic analgesics |
| |
|Name benzodiazepines: |
|a) fenazepam |
|b) haloperidol |
|c) diazepam |
|d) chlorpromazine |
|e) droperidol |
| |
|Name drugs without major influence on paradoxical sleep: |
|a) Zolpidem |
|b) Pentobarbital |
|c) Barbital |
|d) Pentobarbital |
|e) Zopiclon |
| |
|Name the pharmacological properties of nitrazepam? |
|a) Inhibits GABA ergic processes in the CNS |
|b) Enhances GABA ergic processes in the CNS. |
|c) It possesses anxiolytic properties. |
|d) Causes sedative effect. |
|e) Enhances the central effects of alcohol. |
| |
|Mechanism of action for benzodiazepines: |
|a) benzodiazepines interact with benzodiazepinic receptors on the GABA receptor |
|b) block sodium channels in neuronal membranes |
|c) the frequency of chloride ion channel opening is increased |
|d) inhibits Ca 2+ currents, especially in thalamic neurons |
|e) enhancing K+ channel permeability |
| |
|Choose correct statement about buspirone: |
|a) causes sedative effect |
|b) causes strong excitement effect |
|c) causes muscle-relaxing action |
|d) causes muscle contracted action |
|e) has a low tendency to induce drug dependence |
| |
|Anxiolytics are mainly used in the treatment of: |
|a) Neuroses |
|b) Psychosis |
|c) Insomnia |
|d) Status epilepticus |
|e) Acute hypotension |
| |
|Bromism is manifested by: |
|a) Apathy |
|b) Memory disorder |
|c) Acne bromica |
|d) Rhinitis |
|e) Extrapyramidal disorders |
| |
|What are the advantages of benzodiazepine hypnotics compared with barbiturates? |
|a) Possesse greater therapeutic range. |
|b) Don’t cause tolerance and Rebound |
|c) Less influence on sleep structure. |
|d) Don’t have essential influence on hepatic microsomal enzymes |
|e) Don’’t potentiate other substances influencing the CNS. |
| |
|Flumazenil is used as an antidote in: |
|a) Zopiclone overdose |
|b) Zolpidem overdose |
|c) Pentobarbital overdose |
|d) Chloral hydrate overdose |
|e) Nitrazepam overdose |
| |
|Name the pharmacological properties of flumazenil: |
|a) Benzodiazepine receptor agonist. |
|b) Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. |
|c) Used as an antagonist of benzodiazepine receptor stimulated by hypnotics. |
|d) Opioid receptor agonist. |
|e) Antagonist of the opioid receptor. |
| |
|List symptoms of barbiturates poisoning: |
|a) Inhibition of the CNS |
|b) Inhibition of reflex activity |
|c) Hypertensive crisis |
|d) Tahypnoe |
|e) Extreme sleepiness or even coma |
| |
|Determine the main signs of acute intoxication with barbiturates: |
|a) excitation. |
|b) comatose state. |
|c) inhibition of respiration. |
|d) decrease of reflex excitability. |
|e) decrease in blood pressure. |
| |
|Name the phenomena that may occur in prolonged use of barbiturates: |
|a) Tolerance |
|b) Dependence |
|c) Extrapyramidal disorders |
|d) The induction of liver enzymes |
|e) Inhibition of hepatic enzymes |
| |
|The main task of the treatment of acute barbiturate poisoning: |
|a) To establish adequate breathing |
|b) Analeptics in mild forms of poisoning |
|c) Benzodiazepins as antagonist |
|d) Flumazenil injection |
|e) Hemodialysis in renal failure |
| |
|Name psychostimulants: |
|a) Phenylethylamine |
|b) Paraaminophenol's derivates |
|c) Piperidines |
|d) Sydnonimines |
|e) Methylxanthines |
| |
|Neuroleptics indications: |
|a) psychosis |
|b) parkinsonism |
|c) neuroleptanalgesia |
|d) central origin vomiting |
|e) epilepsy |
| |
|Name characteristic effects of antipsychotics: |
|a) antipsychotic |
|b) xanti-vomiting |
|c) sedative |
|d) motor hyperactivity |
|e) antagonizes the action of anesthetics, hypnotics and narcotic analgesics |
| |
|Indicate the adverse effects of neuroleptics: |
|a) extrapyramidal disorder |
|b) euphoria |
|c) potentiating the action of alcoholic drinks |
|d) sexual disorders |
|e) dependence |
| |
|Name neuroleptic preparations: |
|a) chlorpromazine |
|b) phenelzine |
|c) haloperidol |
|d) trifluoperazine |
|e) imipramine |
| |
|Choose phenothiazine derivatives: |
|a) Chlorprothixene |
|b) Chlorpromazine |
|c) Haloperidol |
|d) Trifluoperazine |
|e) Sulpiride |
| |
|Choose "atypical" antipsychotic drugs: |
|a) Sulpiride |
|b) Clozapine |
|c) Chlorprothixene |
|d) Chlorpromazine |
|e) Haloperidol |
| |
|List side effects of chlorpromazine: |
|a) Extrapiramidal disorders |
|b) Decreased blood pressure with dizziness |
|c) The patient salivates excessively |
|d) May deposit in ocular tissues with visual disturbances |
|e) Hypertension |
| |
|How to manage extrapyramidal toxicity of neuroleptics? |
|a) By decreasing the dose |
|b) By increasing the dose |
|c) By concomitant use of cholinoblockers |
|d) By concomitant use of cholinomimetics |
|e) By concomitant use of adrenomimetics |
| |
|List adverse neurologic effects of lithium: |
|a) Tremor |
|b) Sedation |
|c) Weight gain |
|d) Excitability |
|e) Psychosis |
| |
|Choose antimanic drugs: |
|a) Lithium carbonate |
|b) Carbamazepine |
|c) Sodium valproate |
|d) Phenazepam |
|e) Diazepam |
| |
| |
|Which one of the following statements concerning the treatment of bipolar affective disorders is accurate? |
|a) Excessive intake of sodium chloride enhances the toxicity of lithium |
|b) Lithium does not cross the placental barrier |
|c) Lithium will alleviate the manic symptoms within 24 hours |
|d) above 1,5 mmol/l lithium produces a variety of toxic effects |
|e) Drug therapy with neuroleptics may be required at the initiation of lithium therapy |
| |
|Sedation is more likely with: |
|a) Sulpiride |
|b) Risperidone |
|c) Chlorprothixene |
|d) Chlorpromazine |
|e) Clozapine |
| |
|Choose advantages of clozapine compared with haloperidol: |
|a) It causes less extrapyramidal disorders |
|b) It does not affect prolactin production |
|c) It affects prolactin production |
|d) It does not cause agranulocytosis |
|e) It does not cause seizures |
| |
|List indication of phenothiazine derivatives: |
|a) schizoaffective disorder |
|b) Vomiting |
|c) Psychosis |
|d) Extrapyramidal disorders |
|e) The amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndrome |
| |
|Haloperidol is used in: |
|a) schizoaffective disorder |
|b) Vomiting |
|c) Psychosis |
|d) Extrapyramidal disorders |
|e) The amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndrome |
| |
|Indicate the adverse effects of chlorpromazine: |
|a) sexual disorders |
|b) hyperthermia |
|c) extrapyramidal disorder |
|d) hypotension |
|e) psychostimulant |
| |
|Site(s) of chlorpromazine receptor blockade: |
|a) serotonin - 5-HT2 receptor |
|b) beta adrenergic receptor |
|c) H1 histaminic receptor |
|d) muscarinic cholinergic receptor |
|e) alpha adrenergic receptor |
| |
|Antipsychotic endocrine effect(s) are: |
|a) amenorrhea-galactorrhea |
|b) decreased libido in men |
|c) hypoprolactinemia |
|d) increased testosteron |
|e) hyperprolactinemia |
| |
|Indicate pharmacodynamic effects of tranquilizing drugs: |
|a) anxiolytic |
|b) myorelaxant |
|c) anticonvulsant |
|d) psychostimulants |
|e) antipsychotic |
| |
|Name benzodiazepines indications: |
|a) neurotic syndrome |
|b) psychotic episode |
|c) striated muscle contracture states |
|d) status epilepticus |
|e) induction of general anesthesia |
| |
|Name levomepromazine indications: |
|a) acute psychosis with psychomotor agitation |
|b) schizophrenia |
|c) manic phases of bipolar disorder |
|d) acute depression |
|e) hypotension |
| |
|Name cortical psychostimulant drugs : |
|a) caffeine |
|b) amphetamine |
|c) amfepramone |
|d) trifluoperazine |
|e) lobeline |
| |
|Name the bulb stimulants: |
|a) camphor |
|b) bemegrid |
|c) niketamide |
|d) droperidol |
|e) mezocarb |
| |
|Named antidepressants: |
|a) imipramine |
|b) amitriptyline |
|c) phenelzine |
|d) haloperidol |
|e) chlorprothixene |
| |
|Choose antidepresants -nerve terminal reuptake inhibitor: |
|a) fluoxetine |
|b) desipramine |
|c) timolol |
|d) reserpine |
|e) methoxamine |
| |
|How to start antidepressants? |
|a) Start with low doses |
|b) Start with the big doses to achieve the best effect |
|c) Increase dosage rapidly as tolerated |
|d) Maintain typical dose for at least 7 months |
|e) Maintain typical dose for at least 4 to 8 weeks |
| |
|Choose antidepressant with psychostimulant effect: |
|a) Amitriptyline |
|b) Pipofezine |
|c) Nialamide |
|d) Fluoxetine |
|e) Moclobemide |
| |
|Choose correct statement about imipramine: |
|a) The therapeutic effect sets in after 2-3 weeks |
|b) The therapeutic effect sets in after 2-3 years |
|c) Is contraindicated in glaucoma |
|d) It is not indicated to be combined with non-selective MAO inhibitors |
|e) is used in the treatment of schizoaffective disorder |
| |
|Choose correct statement about fluoxetine: |
|a) is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class |
|b) blocks intensively M-cholinoreceptors |
|c) is frequently used to treat major depressive disorder |
|d) is a phenothiazine with actions similar to chlorpromazine |
|e) The therapeutic antidepressant effect develops rapidly in 2-3 days |
| |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacological effects of nootropics: |
|a) antipsychotic |
|b) antidepressant |
|c) enhance metabolic processes |
|d) acts on the specific receptors |
|e) improves associative CNS functions |
| |
|The following are true about the drugs used in general anaesthetic: |
|a) ether is a volatile liquid |
|b) ciclopropan is a gas |
|c) ketamine is used intravenously |
|d) propofol is from opioid derivatives |
|e) enflurane is used intravenously |
| |
|Name intravenous anesthetics: |
|a) Propanidid |
|b) Nitrous oxide |
|c) Thiopental |
|d) Ketamine |
|e) Halothane |
| |
|List requirements for general anesthetics: |
|a) Must start quickly |
|b) Must be without excitatory stage |
|c) To have good control over the depth of anesthesia |
|d) Recovery should be long |
|e) Must start slowly |
| |
|What is characteristic for neuroleptanalgezia? |
|a) development of a general analgesic effect |
|b) combination of fentanyl and droperidol as talamonal |
|c) psychic indifference |
|d) loss of consciousness in therapeutic dose |
|e) without total loss of consciousness. |
| |
|What is Neuroleptanalgesia? |
|a) It is characterized by general quiescence, psychic indifference and intense analgesia without total loss of consciousness |
|b) a state of unconsciousness, analgesia and amnesia, with skeletal muscle relaxation and loss of reflexes |
|c) Combination of Fentanyl and Droperidol as Talamonal |
|d) Is the condition that results when sensory transmission from local area of the body to the CNS is blocked |
|e) Used for endoscopies, angiography and minor operations |
| |
|For neuroleptanalgesia are used: |
|a) fentanyl |
|b) morphine |
|c) ketamine |
|d) droperidol |
|e) propofol |
| |
|Choose rationale for adding epinephrine to local anesthetic solutions: |
|a) cardiovascular stimulation |
|b) increased systemic absorption |
|c) higher anesthetic concentration near nerve fibers |
|d) prolongation of conduction blockade |
|e) reduced systemic absorption |
| |
|Ethanol properties: |
|a) causes protein coagulation in high concentration |
|b) of 70% concentration can be used as an antiseptic |
|c) can be used to disinfect the skin before injections are given, |
|d) used as anti-foaming in pulmonary edema |
|e) used to treat gastrointestinal erosions |
| |
|Name disulfiram mechanism of action: |
|a) Inhibits ethyl alcohol absorption in stomach |
|b) Inhibits ethyl alcohol absorption in small intestine |
|c) Inhibits ethyl alcohol elimination through kidney |
|d) Delay alcohol oxidation |
|e) Leads to acetaldehyde accumulation |
| |
|Describe characteristics of ethanol: |
|a) after ingestion, ethanol is rapidly and completely absorbed |
|b) it is distributed to the most body tissues |
|c) it is not distributed into the body |
|d) mechanism of action: is not fully understood |
|e) bind with ethanol receptors |
| |
|Name drugs used in treatment for alchololism: |
|a) disulfiram |
|b) protamine sulphate |
|c) naltrexone |
|d) fluoxetine |
|e) flumazenil |
| |
|Which drugs are used to build up negative reaction to ethyl alcohol: |
|a) Disulfiram |
|b) Apomorphine |
|c) Morphine |
|d) Diazepam |
|e) Clonidine |
| |
|Antiepileptic drugs decrease pathologically enhanced excitability of brain neurons by: |
|a) Inhibition of GABAergic processes |
|b) Intensifying GABAergic processes. |
|c) Inhibition of neuronal sodium channels. |
|d) Inhibition of neuronal calcium channels. |
|e) The antagonism with M cholinoreceptors effects . |
| |
|What is characteristic of sodium valproate? |
|a) Inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain |
|b) Enhances GABA-ergic processes in the brain. |
|c) It is used to prevent various manifestations of epilepsy (grand mal, petit mal, focal epilepsy (partial seizures)). |
|d) It is used only to prevent petit mal. |
|e) It is used only to prevent grand mal. |
| |
|What is characteristic of carbamazepine: |
|a) Inhibits membrane sodium channels in neurons. |
|b) It is effective only for petit mal prevention. |
|c) It is effective in all types of epilepsy. |
|d) It inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain. |
|e) Enhances GABA-ergic processes in the brain. |
| |
|What is characteristics of phenobarbital? |
|a) Inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain. |
|b) Enhances GABA-ergic processes in the brain |
|c) Sedative effect. |
|d) It is used to prevent grand mal. |
|e) It is used to prevent petit mal. |
| |
|What is characteristic of diazepam? |
|a) Is a benzodiazepine derivative. |
|b) Is a benzodiazepine receptor agonist. |
|c) EnhanceGABAergic processes in the CNS. |
|d) It inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain. |
|e) In the status epilepticus is administered intravenously. |
| |
|Name the remedies used to prevent major crises: |
|a) Phenytoin. |
|b) Ethosuximide. |
|c) Carbamazepine |
|d) Phenobarbital. |
|e) Sodium valproate. |
| |
|Name the remedies used for minor crisis prevention: |
|a) Phenytoin. |
|b) Ethosuximide. |
|c) Carbamazepine. |
|d) Phenobarbital. |
|e) Sodium valproate. |
| |
|Name the remedies used to prevent partial seizures: |
|a) Ethosuximide. |
|b) Carbamazepine. |
|c) Lamotrigine. |
|d) Phenytoin. |
|e) Sodium valproate. |
| |
|Name the remedies used to prevent myoclonic seizures: |
|a) Phenytoin. |
|b) Ethosuximide. |
|c) Phenobarbital. |
|d) Sodium valproate. |
|e) Clonazepam. |
| |
|Name the remedies used for status epilepticus: |
|a) Ethosuximide. |
|b) Carbamazepine. |
|c) Diazepam. |
|d) Thiopental Sodiu. |
|e) Nitrous Oxide. |
| |
|As antiparkinson remedies are used: |
|a) The dopamine receptor blockers |
|b) Dopaminomimetics |
|c) Non-selective MAO inhibitors. |
|d) MAO-B inhibitors. |
|e) Cholinoblockers |
| |
|Name the adverse effects of levodopa: |
|a) Nausea. |
|b) Vomiting. |
|c) Excitation. |
|d) Drowsiness. |
|e) Hallucinations. |
| |
|Name the adverse effects of levodopa: |
|a) Arrhythmias. |
|b) Orthostatic hypotension. |
|c) Dyskinesia. |
|d) Dependence. |
|e) Skeletal muscles hypertonus |
| |
|Name the measures that can be used to decrease cardiovascular and digestive side effects of levodopa: |
|a) The inhibition of acetylcholinesterase |
|b) Inhibition of peripheral dopa-decarboxylase. |
|c) DOPA decarboxylase inhibition in the CNS. |
|d) To block peripheral dopamine receptors. |
|e) The administration of haloperidol. |
| |
|Name the preparations that stimulate dopamine receptors in the CNS: |
|a) Selegiline. |
|b) Amantadine. |
|c) Trihexyphenidyl. |
|d) Bromocriptine. |
|e) Apomorphine. |
| |
|What is characteristic of selegiline? |
|a) Inhibits MAO-A and MAO-B. |
|b) It selectively inhibits MAO-B. |
|c) More effective than levodopa. |
|d) It is used usually in combination with levodopa. |
|e) Typically administered in monotherapy. |
| |
|What adverse effects of trihexyphenidyl are determined by the influence of peripheral cholinoreceptors? |
|a) Dry mouth. |
|b) Increased intraocular pressure. |
|c) Tachycardia. |
|d) Motor excitation |
|e) Bradycardia. |
| |
|Choose correct statement about trihexyphenidyl: |
|a) Should be administered with caution in glaucoma |
|b) Most effectively decreases tremor |
|c) Most effectively decreases rigidity |
|d) Most effectively decreases hypokinesia |
|e) Causes bradycardia |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacological effects of M-cholinomimetics: |
|a) NO-mediated vasodilatation |
|b) constipation |
|c) increased intraocular pressure |
|d) spasm of accommodation |
|e) tachycardia |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacological effects of M-cholinomimetics: |
|a) urinary retention |
|b) lowering intraocular pressure |
|c) miosis |
|d) increasing myocardial oxygen consumption |
|e) increase in blood pressure |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacological effects of M-cholinomimetics: |
|a) diarrhea |
|b) hypersalivation |
|c) mydriasis |
|d) diaphoresis |
|e) bradycardia |
| |
|The effects of direct-acting cholinergic agonists include: |
|a) mydriasis |
|b) myosis |
|c) spasm of accomodation |
|d) decrease intraoculary pressure |
|e) increased lacrimation |
| |
|Name indications of M-cholinomimetics: |
|a) glaucoma |
|b) bronchial asthma |
|c) atony of the urinary bladder |
|d) cardiac arrest |
|e) intestinal atony |
| |
|Name indications of M-cholinomimetics: |
|a) xerostomia |
|b) bronchoobstructive syndrome |
|c) intestinal colics |
|d) gastric ulcer |
|e) atony of the urinary bladder |
| |
|Name M-cholinomimetics: |
|a) aceclidine |
|b) galanthamine |
|c) pilocarpine |
|d) atropine |
|e) suxamethonium |
| |
|Name anticholinesterases remedies: |
|a) carbacholine |
|b) neostigmine |
|c) pilocarpine |
|d) physostigmine |
|e) acetylcholine |
| |
|The following are true about physostigmine: |
|a) it is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor |
|b) it is a nonreversible cholinesterase inhibitor |
|c) it acts only on the muscarinic receptors |
|d) it acts only on the nicotinic receptors |
|e) it causes miosis |
| |
|Pharmacologic characteristic of physostigmine: |
|a) causes accommodative spasm |
|b) causes conjunctival vasoconstriction |
|c) increases the intraocular pressure |
|d) causes smooth muscle contraction |
|e) can be used in hypotonia of gastrointestinal system |
| |
|Describe effects of pilocarpine: |
|a) is an alkaloid derived from plant |
|b) is a direct acting muscarinic agonist |
|c) causes contraction of the longitudinal muscles of the ciliary body |
|d) causes myriasis |
|e) causes miosis |
| |
|Mydriasis occurs with: |
|a) atropine |
|b) scopolamine |
|c) carbachol |
|d) neostigmine |
|e) acetylcholine |
| |
|Muscarinic agonists are: |
|a) pilocarpine |
|b) atropine |
|c) aceclidine |
|d) scopolamine |
|e) platyphylline |
| |
|The effects of muscarinic agonists include: |
|a) reduced intraocular pressure |
|b) increased intraocular pressure |
|c) spasm of accomodation |
|d) increased lacrimation |
|e) contraction of the pupillary sphincter muscle |
| |
|Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors include: |
|a) physostigmine |
|b) atropine |
|c) edrophonium |
|d) pyridostigmine |
|e) scopolamine |
| |
|The systemic side effects of pilocarpine include: |
|a) constipation |
|b) excessive sweating |
|c) spasm of accommodation |
|d) bronchial spasm |
|e) dry mouth |
| |
|The side effects of pilocarpine include: |
|a) dry eye |
|b) increased sweating |
|c) bronchiolar spasm |
|d) increased salivation |
|e) constipation |
| |
|The following are true about pilocarpine: |
|a) used in bronchal asthma |
|b) used for glaucoma |
|c) causes mydriasis |
|d) causes miosis |
|e) stimulates the secretion of large amounts of saliva and sweat |
| |
|Choose anticolynestarase drugs: |
|a) Clonidine |
|b) Guanethidine |
|c) Neostigmine |
|d) Atropine |
|e) Physostigmine |
| |
|The following are cholinomimetics with irreversible action: |
|a) Pilocarpine |
|b) Tabex |
|c) Armine |
|d) Soman |
|e) Pirophos |
| |
|Choose drugs that can produce miosis: |
|a) ipratropium bromide |
|b) tropicamide |
|c) armine |
|d) atropine |
|e) pilocarpine |
| |
|What are the pharmacological characteristics related to neostigmine? |
|a) is an anticholinesterase drug |
|b) works by directly stimulating the cholinergic receptors |
|c) is indicated in postoperative hypotonia or atony of gastrointestinal and bladder |
|d) is contraindicated in bronchial asthma, Parkinson's disease, heart failure |
|e) has a good bioavailability after oral administration |
| |
|Indicate anticholinesterases properties: |
|a) stimulates the synthesis of acetylcholine |
|b) directly stimulates cholinergic receptors |
|c) increases the tone of smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract |
|d) inhibits the hydrolysis of acetylcholine |
|e) inhibits the synthesis of acetylcholine |
| |
|Name effects of anti-cholinesterase preparations: |
|a) miosis and lowering intraocular pressure |
|b) increased smooth muscle tone of internal organs |
|c) intensified secretion of bronchial and digestive glands |
|d) tachycardia, and increased blood pressure |
|e) mydriasis |
| |
|Characteristics of neostigmine: |
|a) inhibits the action of cholinesterase |
|b) inhibits M cholinoreceptors |
|c) causes miosis |
|d) is used in the x-ray diagnosis of intestine disease |
|e) causes bradycardia |
| |
|Cholinomimetics used in glaucoma: |
|a) pilocarpine |
|b) atropine |
|c) scopolamine |
|d) aceclidine |
|e) scopolamine |
| |
|The following eye drops causes cycloplegia: |
|a) tropicamide |
|b) phenylephrine |
|c) atropine |
|d) pilocarpine |
|e) aceclidine |
| |
|Side effects of depolarizing muscle relaxants: |
|a) muscle pain |
|b) miosis |
|c) potassium release |
|d) diarrhea |
|e) muscle fasciculations |
| |
|Indicate muscle relaxants |
|a) suxamethonium |
|b) isoprenaline |
|c) ephedrine |
|d) norepinephrine |
|e) tubocurarine |
| |
|What are the effects M cholinoblockers on the digestive tract? |
|a) smooth muscle relaxation |
|b) smooth muscle spasm |
|c) the relaxation of the sphincter |
|d) sphincter spasm |
|e) gland hypersecretion |
| |
|Named drugs used in organophosphate derivatives poisoning: |
|a) neostigmine |
|b) atropine |
|c) physostigmine |
|d) obidoxim |
|e) pilocarpine |
| |
|Treatment of intoxication with organophosphates: |
|a) II phase 2-4ml Atropine i/m, or i/v after 1-2 ml every 10 min. |
|b) I phase -attack doze 1-2 ml Atropine s/c or i/m after, 0,5 ml s/c or i/m every 30 min. |
|c) II phase 4-8 ml Atropine i/v or i/m after 2-3ml every 3-8 min. |
|d) I phase 2-4ml Atropine i/m, or i/v after 1-2 ml every 10 min. |
|e) III phase 4-8 ml Atropine i/v or i/m after 2-3ml every 3-8 min. |
| |
|In organophosphate poisoning, this agent(s) may be capable of re-activating inhibited acetylcholinesterase: |
|a) isonitrosyne |
|b) mecamylamine |
|c) pilocarpine |
|d) trimedoxim |
|e) atropine |
| |
|Name M cholinoblockers indications: |
|a) bronchial asthma |
|b) gastrointestinal spasms and colics |
|c) tachycardia |
|d) hypertention |
|e) sinus bradycardia |
| |
|Name M cholinoblockers effects in the eye: |
|a) mydriasis |
|b) increase intraocular pressure |
|c) cycloplegia |
|d) miosis |
|e) decrease intraocular pressure |
| |
|Indicate adverse effects of atropine: |
|a) dry mouth and dysphagia |
|b) bronchospasm with dyspnea |
|c) atonic constipation |
|d) urinary retention |
|e) miosis |
| |
|The pairing of the following drugs and their side-effects are correct: |
|a) atropine - dry mouth |
|b) scopolamine - pernicious anaemia |
|c) neostygmine - bone marrow suppression |
|d) cititon -hepatic fibrosis |
|e) aceclidine – miosis |
| |
|Characteristis of atropine: |
|a) inhibits the sweat glands |
|b) mydriasis |
|c) causes hyperpyrexia in overdose |
|d) bronchospasm |
|e) is more sedative than scopolamine |
| |
|Characteristic of atropine: |
|a) blocks nicotinic acethylcholine receptors |
|b) dries bronchial and salivary secretion |
|c) diminishes the risk of vagal cardiac arrest |
|d) is used to avoid unwanted side effects of neostigmine |
|e) causes loss of accommodation |
| |
|With regard to the effect of atropine: |
|a) mydriasis is the result of paralysis of the constrictor muscle of the pupil |
|b) causes cycloplegia |
|c) miosis |
|d) bronchospasm |
|e) diarrhea |
| |
|Indicate adverse effects of M cholinomimetics: |
|a) dyspnoea and bronchial asthma attacks in asthmatics |
|b) constipation |
|c) urinary retention |
|d) bradycardia |
|e) colics |
| |
|Name effects of cholinomimetics: |
|a) bradycardia |
|b) bronchospasm |
|c) xerosthomia |
|d) lacrimation |
|e) miosis |
| |
|The effects of muscarinic agonists include: |
|a) spasm of accommodation |
|b) bradycardia |
|c) mydriasis |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) miosis |
| |
|Name primary effects of stimulating muscarinic M receptors? |
|a) Release of nitric oxide (vasodilation) |
|b) Iris contraction (miosis) |
|c) Ciliary muscle contraction and accommodation of the lens (near vision) |
|d) Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions |
|e) Hyposalivation |
| |
|Name effects of stimulating muscarinic M receptors? |
|a) Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity |
|b) Increased GI tract tone and secretions |
|c) Vasoconstrcition |
|d) Penile erection |
|e) Contraction of urinary detrusor muscle and relaxation of urinary sphincter |
| |
|Indicate anticholinesterases: |
|a) neostigmine |
|b) edrophonium |
|c) physostigmine |
|d) pilocarpine |
|e) carbachol |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacological effects of atropine in the digestive system: |
|a) increase tone and peristalsis |
|b) salivary hyposecretion |
|c) antispasmodic effect |
|d) reduction of gastric secretion |
|e) diarrhea |
| |
|Note nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs: |
|a) tubocurarine |
|b) atropine |
|c) pilocarpine |
|d) pancuronium |
|e) suxamethonium |
| |
|Name drugs that cause non-depolarising blockade of the neuromuscular junction during anaesthesia: |
|a) scopolamine |
|b) physostigmine |
|c) pancuronium |
|d) tubocurarine |
|e) suxamethonium |
| |
|Cholinomimetics have following effects: |
|a) bronchospasm |
|b) tachycardia |
|c) bradycardia |
|d) midriasis |
|e) bronchodilation |
| |
|Characteristics of pilocarpine are: |
|a) It is a tertiary amine alkaloid |
|b) It causes miosis |
|c) Causes a decrease in secretory and motor activity of gut |
|d) It is useful in the treatment of glaucoma |
|e) Causes increased intraocular pressure |
| |
|Which of the following cholinomimetics are indirect-acting? |
|a) Lobeline |
|b) Neostigmine |
|c) Pilocarpine |
|d) Galantamine |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Indicate the location of N-cholinoreceptors: |
|a) Parasimpathetic autonomic ganglia |
|b) Simpathetic autonomic ganglia |
|c) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions |
|d) Autonomic effector cells |
|e) Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor zone |
| |
|Indicate the location of M3 cholinoreceptor type: |
|a) Heart |
|b) Glands |
|c) Smooth muscle |
|d) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions |
|e) Eye smooth muscle |
| |
|Cholinoblocking drugs cause: |
|a) Bronchodilation |
|b) Mydriasis |
|c) Bradycardia |
|d) Tachycardia |
|e) Xerostomia |
| |
|The following are true about physostigmine: |
|a) it is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor |
|b) it causes bronchodilation |
|c) it causes intestinal spasm |
|d) it exites N cholinoreceeptors |
|e) it causes miosis |
| |
|Characteristics of physostigmine: |
|a) causes accommodative spasm |
|b) causes conjunctival vasoconstriction |
|c) increases the intraocular pressure |
|d) causes smooth muscle contraction |
|e) can be used in hypotonia of gastrointestinal system |
| |
|Characteristics of pilocarpine: |
|a) is an alkaloid derived from plant |
|b) is a direct acting muscarinic agonist |
|c) causes contraction of the cilliary muscles |
|d) causes mydriasis |
|e) has a greater effect on patients with blue iris than brown iris. |
| |
|Name the results of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning: |
|a) Diarrhea |
|b) Miosis |
|c) Mydriasis |
|d) Bronchodilation |
|e) Hypersalivation |
| |
|The effects of direct-acting cholinergic agonists include: |
|a) mydriasis |
|b) miosis |
|c) spasm of accomodation |
|d) decrease intraocular pressure |
|e) xerostomia |
| |
|Contraindications to the use of muscarinic agonists: |
|a) diarrhea |
|b) bronchial asthma |
|c) treatment of diminished salvation, secondary to radiation |
|d) peptic ulcer |
|e) myasthenia gravis |
| |
|Cardiovascular effects of cholinomimetics: |
|a) negative chronotropic |
|b) vasoconstriction |
|c) decreased AV nodal conduction velocity |
|d) negative inotropism |
|e) positive inotropism |
| |
|Anticholinesterases used moslty to treat myasthenia gravis: |
|a) neostigmine |
|b) pyridostigmine |
|c) acetylcholine |
|d) pylocarine |
|e) armine |
| |
|The effects of muscarinic agonists include: |
|a) reduced intraocular pressure |
|b) reduced aqueous production |
|c) accommodative myopia |
|d) increased lacrimation |
|e) contraction of the pupillary sphincter muscle |
| |
|Associated with parasympathetic activation (direct effects): |
|a) increased GI motility |
|b) urinary retention |
|c) decrease cardiac contractility |
|d) decreased GI motility |
|e) increase heart rate |
| |
|Localization of muscarinic cholinergic receptors: |
|a) sweating glands |
|b) heart |
|c) postsynaptic membrane of the vegetative ganglia |
|d) neuro-musular junction |
|e) eyes |
| |
|Indirect-acting cholinomimetic: |
|a) neostigmine |
|b) acetylcholine |
|c) carbachol |
|d) edrophonium |
|e) atropine |
| |
|Mechanism(s) of vasodilation mediated by the cholinergic system: |
|a) acetylcholine stimulates M3 cholinoreceptors on endothelial cells |
|b) acetylcholine stimulates beta-2-adrenoreceptors |
|c) acetylcholine inhibits alpha-1-adrenoreceptors |
|d) acetylcholine inhibit alpha-2- adrenoreceptors |
|e) cholinergic activation promotes nitric oxide release from endothelial cells |
| |
|Associated with excessive vagal tone: |
|a) total heart block |
|b) mydriasis |
|c) bradyarrhythmias |
|d) tachyarrhythmias |
|e) smouth muscle contraction |
| |
|Effect(s) of muscarinic agonists on the gastrointestinal and urinary tracts: |
|a) increased glands secretion |
|b) decrease ureteral peristalsis |
|c) increased contraction amplitude |
|d) relax sphincters |
|e) decreased intestinal peristalsis |
| |
|Clinical uses of neostigmine: |
|a) treatment of reduced salivation secondary to radiation therapy |
|b) stimulation of postoperative urinary bladder |
|c) in people with myasthenia gravis |
|d) treatment of gastric ulcer |
|e) intoxication with atropine |
| |
|Opthalmological uses of cholinomimetics: |
|a) for the visualization of the retina |
|b) treatment of glaucoma |
|c) used along with mydriatic agent in breaking iris-lens adhesions |
|d) acetylcholine may be used as a miotic |
|e) acetylcholine may be used as a midriatic |
| |
|Choose major contraindications for muscarinic agonists: |
|a) atony af the intestine |
|b) peptic ulcer |
|c) intestinal spasm |
|d) glaucoma |
|e) bronchial asthma |
| |
|Anticholinesterases: used in treating glaucoma: |
|a) tropicamid |
|b) phyzostigmine |
|c) aceclidine |
|d) atropine |
|e) armine |
| |
|General clinical uses of anticholinesterases: |
|a) treatment of paralytic ileus and urinary bladder atony |
|b) glaucoma treatment |
|c) myasthenia gravis management |
|d) antagonist-assisted reversal of neuromuscular blockade produced by depolarizing neuromuscular-blocking drugs |
|e) antagonist-assisted reversal of neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing neuromuscular-blocking drugs |
| |
|Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors include: |
|a) physostigmine |
|b) atropine |
|c) edrophonium |
|d) pyridostigmine |
|e) scopolamine |
| |
|Cholinomimetics used in glaucoma: |
|a) pilocarpine |
|b) atropine |
|c) scopolamine |
|d) aceclidine |
|e) tropicamide |
| |
|The following muscarinic agonists work directly on both M, and N cholinoreceptors : |
|a) pilocarpine |
|b) carbachol |
|c) acetylcholine |
|d) atropine |
|e) aceclidine |
| |
|The side effects of pilocarpine include: |
|a) dry eye |
|b) increased sweating |
|c) bronchospasm |
|d) increased salivation |
|e) constipation |
| |
|The following are true about pilocarpine: |
|a) it increases the concentration of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft |
|b) it decreases intraocular presure |
|c) it causes diarrhea |
|d) it increases intraocular presure |
|e) it causes constipation |
| |
|Atropine causes: |
|a) Miosis, a reduction in intraocular pressure and cyclospasm |
|b) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia |
|c) Miosis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia |
|d) Xerostomia, constipation |
|e) Tachycardia |
| |
|Contraindications to the use of antimuscarinic drugs are all of the following: |
|a) Glaucoma |
|b) gastric ulcer |
|c) Bronchial asthma |
|d) Paralytic ileus |
|e) Atony of the urinary bladder |
| |
|Antimuscarinics are used in the treatment of: |
|a) Motion sickness |
|b) Glaucoma |
|c) Urinary retention |
|d) Bronchial asthma |
|e) Gastric hypersecretion |
| |
|The atropine poisoning includes all of the following symptoms: |
|a) Mydriasis, cycloplegia |
|b) Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin |
|c) Agitation and delirium |
|d) Bradicardia, orthostatic hypotension |
|e) Miosis |
| |
|Choose the antimuscarinic drug, which is used as a mydriatic: |
|a) Pilocarpine |
|b) Neostigmine |
|c) Homatropine |
|d) Ipratropium |
|e) Tropicamide |
| |
|Which of the following agents is used by inhalation in asthma? |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Ipratropium |
|c) Lobeline |
|d) Homatropine |
|e) Oxitropium |
| |
|Choose a M-cholinoreceptor-blocking drugs: |
|a) Scopolamine |
|b) Pipecuronium |
|c) Trimethaphan |
|d) Pilocarpine |
|e) Atropine |
| |
|Mydriasis occurs with: |
|a) atropine |
|b) tropicamide |
|c) carbachol |
|d) neostigmine |
|e) pilocarpine |
| |
|Characteristic of atropine: |
|a) blocks nicotinic acethylcholine receptors |
|b) inhibits bronchial and salivary secretion |
|c) causes bronchospasm |
|d) is used to avoid unwanted side effects of neostigmine |
|e) causes loss of accommodation |
| |
|With regard to the effects of atropine: |
|a) mydriasis is the result of paralysis of the constrictor muscle of the pupil |
|b) miosis is the result of constriction of the constrictor muscle of the pupil |
|c) increases lacrimation |
|d) it causes cycloplegia |
|e) it causes spasm of accommodation |
| |
|Name adverse effects (side-effects) commonly seen with cholinergic antagonists? |
|a) Blurred vision |
|b) Confusion |
|c) Miosis |
|d) Diarrhea |
|e) Urinary retention |
| |
|The following eye drops causes cycloplegia: |
|a) tropicamide |
|b) atropine |
|c) epinephrine |
|d) pilocarpine |
|e) aceclidine |
| |
|Atropine causes: |
|a) Bradycardia, hypotension and bronchoconstriction |
|b) Tachycardia, no effect on blood pressure and bronchodilation |
|c) Decrease in contractile strength, conduction velocity through the AV node |
|d) Tachycardia, hypertensive crisis and bronchodilation |
|e) Tachycardia and increasing of conduction velocity through the AV node |
| |
|Atropine effects: |
|a) dry mouth |
|b) pupillary dilation |
|c) miosis |
|d) increased heart rate |
|e) decresed heart rate |
| |
|Atropine block: |
|a) M1 receptor subtype |
|b) M2 receptor subtype |
|c) M3 receptor subtype |
|d) N receptor subtype |
|e) All of the above |
| |
|Atropine is used for premedication to reduce or prevent: |
|a) Bradycardia |
|b) Hypersecretions |
|c) AV block |
|d) Hiposecretion |
|e) Tachycardia |
| |
|Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs is a selective M1 blocker? |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Scopolamine |
|c) Pirenzepine |
|d) Homatropine |
|e) Telenzepine |
| |
|Atropine causes: |
|a) Spasmolitic activity |
|b) Intestinal hypermotility |
|c) Stimulation of contraction in the gut |
|d) Stimulation of secretory activity |
|e) Tachycardia |
| |
|Name effects of atropine: |
|a) dry moth |
|b) mydriasis |
|c) hypersalivation |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) bradycardia |
| |
|Name characteristics about scopolamine? |
|a) It causes psychostimulant effect |
|b) The same group as atropine is |
|c) Doesn’t across blood-brain barrier |
|d) It may prevent motion sickness and vertigo |
|e) Used in brochal asthma by inhalation |
| |
|Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug? |
|a) Suxamethonium |
|b) Hexamethonium |
|c) Pancuronium |
|d) Trepirium iodide |
|e) Azamethonium |
| |
|Which of the following agents is a neuro-muscular blocking drug? |
|a) Suxamethonium |
|b) Hexamethonium |
|c) Pancuronium |
|d) Trepirium iodide |
|e) Azamethonium |
| |
|Adverse effect(s) associated with autonomic ganglionic blockade: |
|a) Bladder dysfunction |
|b) Xerostromia |
|c) Blurred vision |
|d) Paralytic ileus |
|e) Diarrhea |
| |
|Name the main effects of ganglion-blocking drugs: |
|a) vasodilatation and hypotension |
|b) hyposecretion |
|c) increase of intraoculary pression |
|d) bronchospasm |
|e) bradycardia |
| |
|Name effects of autonomic ganglion blocking: |
|a) Anhidrosis and xerostomia |
|b) Mydriasis |
|c) Tachycardia |
|d) Hypertension |
|e) Cycloplegia |
| |
|Name the nicotinic receptor-blockers: |
|a) Azamethonium |
|b) Atropine |
|c) Tubocurarine |
|d) Neostigmine |
|e) Scopolamine |
| |
|Ganglion-blocking drug is used for: |
|a) Pulmonary edema |
|b) Hypertensive crisis |
|c) Controlled hypotension during surgery |
|d) Acute hypotension |
|e) Xerostomia |
| |
|Choose ganglionic blockers: |
|a) trimetaphan |
|b) nicardipine |
|c) azamethonium |
|d) hydralazine |
|e) prazosin |
| |
|Adverse effect(s) associated with autonomic ganglionic blockade: |
|a) paralytic ileus |
|b) blurred vision |
|c) xerostomia |
|d) bradycardia |
|e) bladder dysfunction |
| |
|Ganglionic blockers: |
|a) Prazosin |
|b) Hydralazine |
|c) Hexamethonium |
|d) Nicardipine |
|e) Azamethonium |
| |
|List therapeutic use of cytisine: |
|a) To stimulate respiration |
|b) To decrease blood pressure |
|c) To aid „quitting" smoking |
|d) In pulmonary edema |
|e) For xerostomia |
| |
|The following cause non-depolarising blockade of the neuromuscular junction during anaesthesia: |
|a) succinylcholine |
|b) physostigmine |
|c) pancuronium |
|d) tubocurarine |
|e) atropine |
| |
|Side effects of depolarizing muscle relaxants: |
|a) miosis |
|b) potassium release |
|c) muscle pain |
|d) muscle fibrilation |
|e) diarrhea |
| |
|The systemic effects of hexamethonium include all of the following: |
|a) Reduction of both peripheral vascular resistance and venous return |
|b) Partial mydriasis and loss of accommodation |
|c) Constipation |
|d) Stimulation of sweating |
|e) urinary retention |
| |
|Skeletal muscle relaxation and paralysis can occur from interruption of functions at several sites, including all of the following: |
|a) Nicotinic receptors |
|b) Muscarinic receptors |
|c) The motor end plate |
|d) Nicotinic receptors in autonomic ganglia |
|e) Muscarinic receptors in smooth muscle |
| |
|Indicate the long-acting neuromuscular blocking agent: |
|a) Pipecuronium |
|b) Atracurium |
|c) Tubocurarine |
|d) Pancuronium |
|e) Suxamethonium |
| |
|Which of the following neuromuscular blocking drugs is an intermediate-duration muscle relaxant? |
|a) Vecuronium |
|b) Tubocurarine |
|c) Pancuronium |
|d) Suxamethonium |
|e) Atracurium |
| |
|Effects seen only with depolarizing blockade include all of the following: |
|a) Hyperpotassemia |
|b) Decrease in intraocular pressure |
|c) Bronchospasm |
|d) Muscle pain |
|e) Cardiac arithmias |
| |
|Describe endogenous adrenoreceptor agonists: |
|a) are catecholamines and are rapidly metabolized by COMT and MAO. |
|b) are ofen used enteral |
|c) are inactive when given by the oral route |
|d) work ultra long into the body |
|e) have a short duration of action |
| |
|Which of the adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic? |
|a) α1 |
|b) α2 |
|c) β1 |
|d) β2 |
|e) β3 |
| |
|Location for beta1-postsynaptic receptors: |
|a) Heart |
|b) Juxtaglomerular apparatus |
|c) Pancreas |
|d) CNS |
|e) Vessels |
| |
|Name location of beta2 adrenoreceptors: |
|a) vessels |
|b) ciliary muscle |
|c) liver |
|d) bronchi |
|e) juxtaglomerular cells |
| |
|Location for beta3 receptors: |
|a) adipose tissue |
|b) CNS |
|c) vessels |
|d) skeletal muscle |
|e) salivary glands |
| |
|Clinical use(s) of alpha-1-receptor agonists: |
|a) nasal decongestant |
|b) management hypotensive states |
|c) hypertensive states |
|d) angina pectoris |
|e) bronchial asthma |
| |
|Activates alpha receptors: |
|a) metharaminol |
|b) terbutaline |
|c) phenylephrine |
|d) propranolol |
|e) isoproterenol |
| |
|Phenylephrine causes: |
|a) Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosa |
|b) Increased gastric secretion and motility |
|c) Increased skin temperature |
|d) Mydriasis |
|e) Increased blood pressure |
| |
|Which substance can be used in acute rhinitis? |
|a) clonidine |
|b) naphasoline |
|c) salbutamol |
|d) izoprenaline |
|e) xylometazoline |
| |
|Catecholamine includes following: |
|a) Ephedrine |
|b) xEpinephrine |
|c) Norepinephrine |
|d) Dopamine |
|e) Fenilephrine |
| |
|Epinephrine increases level of: |
|a) blood lactic acid |
|b) blood insulin |
|c) skeletal muscle glycogen |
|d) blood glucose |
|e) blood free fatty acids |
| |
|Direct cardiac responses to epinephrine: |
|a) increase contractility |
|b) increased rate of isometric muscle tension development |
|c) increased heart rate |
|d) decreased automaticity |
|e) decreased heart rate |
| |
|Epinephrine: therapeutic uses: |
|a) rapid relief of respiratory distress due to bronchospasm |
|b) topical hemostasis |
|c) supraventricular tachycardia |
|d) reversal of hypersensitivity reactions |
|e) to decrease blod pressure |
| |
|Principal receptors activated by norepinephrine: |
|a) alpha-adrenergic |
|b) beta1 adrenergic |
|c) beta2 adrenergic |
|d) H1 histamine reseptors |
|e) M cholynoreceptors |
| |
| |
|Distribution of alfa adrenoreceptor subtypes is associated with all of the following tissues: |
|a) Mast cell |
|b) Blood vessels |
|c) Prostate |
|d) Pupillary dilator muscle |
|e) Juxtaglomerular apparatus |
| |
|Epinephrine characteristics: |
|a) stimulates both α and β receptors |
|b) causes miosis |
|c) used in anaphylactic shock |
|d) can be used to prolong the action of local anaesthetic |
|e) used in hypertension |
| |
| |
|A nonselective beta receptor agonist causes all of the following effects: |
|a) Increase cardiac output |
|b) uterus contraction |
|c) uterus relaxation |
|d) Causes bronchoconstriction |
|e) Causes bronchodilation |
| |
|Name indirect mechanism of action of adrenomimetics: |
|a) these drugs inhibit reuptake of catecholamines by nerve terminals |
|b) directly activate their adrenoreceptors |
|c) blockade of metabolism (block of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) and increase the quantity of |
|catecholamines |
|d) activate the effects of endogenous catecholamines |
|e) activate directly the main centers from CNS |
| |
|Definition for indirect sympathomimetics: |
|a) are agents that elevate the concentration of NE at neuroeffector junctions, |
|b) they either inhibit re-uptake, facilitate release, or slow breakdown by MAO, |
|c) side chain "-hydroxyl group confers affinity for α - and β -receptors |
|d) the ability of a substance to release norepinephrine from its neuronal stores without exerting an agonist action at the adrenoceptor |
|e) can penetrate the blood-brain barrier and evoke such CNS effects as a feeling of well-being, enhanced physical activity and mood |
|(euphoria), and decreased sense of hunger or fatigue. |
| |
|Adverse effects associated with guanethidine: |
|a) Hypotension (symptomatic) |
|b) Male sexual dysfunction |
|c) Diarrhea |
|d) Constipations |
|e) Hypertension |
| |
|The effects of clonidine include: |
|a) sedation |
|b) bradycardia |
|c) dry mouth |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) hypotention |
| |
|Which of the following effects is related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation? |
|a) Bronchodilation |
|b) Vasodilatation |
|c) Tachycardia |
|d) Renine release |
|e) Bradycardia |
| |
|Beta2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects: |
|a) Stimulation of renin secretion |
|b) Hyperglicemia |
|c) Relaxation of bladder, uterus |
|d) Tachycardia |
|e) Bronchodilation |
| |
|Beta-2 selective agonist: |
|a) fenoterol |
|b) epinephrine |
|c) salbutamol |
|d) phenylephrine |
|e) labetalol |
| |
|Hyperglycemia induced by epinephrine is due to: |
|a) Gluconeogenesis |
|b) Inhibition of insulin secretion (alfa) |
|c) Stimulation of glycogenolysis (beta2) |
|d) Inhibition of insulin synthesis |
|e) Increasing in glucose absorbtion from the gut |
| |
|Action of drugs acting adrenergic system on the eyes: |
|a) Αlfa agonists cause miosis |
|b) Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis |
|c) Beta antagonists decrease the production of aqueous humor |
|d) Αlfa agonists increase the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye |
|e) Αlfa agonists increase intraocular pressure in narrow-angle glaucoma |
| |
|Αlfa-receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects: |
|a) Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle |
|b) Contraction of gastrointestinal smooth muscle |
|c) Stimulation of insulin secretion |
|d) Vasodilation |
|e) Stimulation of platelet aggregation |
| |
|Choose cardiovascular effects of dobutamine: |
|a) decreases peripheral resistance |
|b) negative inotropism |
|c) positive inotropism |
|d) negative dromotropism |
|e) positive dromotropism |
| |
|Toxicities/adverse reactions associated with sympathomimetics: |
|a) anxiety reactions |
|b) cardiac tachyarrhythmias |
|c) hypertension; cerebral hemorrhage |
|d) syncope |
|e) angina pectori |
| |
|Adverse effects associated with dopamine administration: |
|a) bradycardia |
|b) arrhythmias |
|c) hypertension |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) palpitations |
| |
|Epinephrine effects on the heart: |
|a) reduces oxygen consumption |
|b) reduces conduction |
|c) increased contraction |
|d) decreased contractility |
|e) increased rate |
| |
|Cardiac effects associated with epinephrine: |
|a) increased oxygen consumption |
|b) increased cardiac output |
|c) positive inotropic effect |
|d) decreased cardiac output |
|e) positive chronotropic effect |
| |
|Ventricular effects associated with epinephrine administration: |
|a) decreased contractility |
|b) increased contractility |
|c) decreased conduction |
|d) increased conduction |
|e) decreased automaticity |
| |
|Alpha agonist: vasoconstriction and elevated blood pressure: |
|a) ethylephrine |
|b) clonidine |
|c) terbutaline |
|d) methoxamine |
|e) prazosine |
| |
|Alpha adrenergic receptor blockers are: |
|a) atenolol |
|b) terazosine |
|c) terbutaline |
|d) phenoxybenzamine |
|e) phentolamine |
| |
|Alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker(s) - blockade of alpha1 adrenergic receptors: |
|a) proroxan |
|b) doxazosin |
|c) phentolamine |
|d) terazosin |
|e) prazosin |
| |
|Adverse effects associated with prazosin: |
|a) tachycardia |
|b) hypertension |
|c) dizziness |
|d) bradycardia |
|e) initial-dose marked orthostatic hypotension |
| |
|Characteristic of labetalol: |
|a) is a mixed alpha/beta adrenergic antagonist |
|b) xused in hypertension management |
|c) is selective alpha adrenergic antagonist |
|d) is selective beta adrenergic antagonist |
|e) can causes orthostatic hypotension |
| |
|Blocks both alpha and beta receptors: |
|a) carvedilol |
|b) diazoxide |
|c) propranolol |
|d) labetalol |
|e) timolol |
| |
|Block both alpha and beta receptors: |
|a) Atenolol |
|b) Labetalol |
|c) Metoprolol |
|d) Salbutamol |
|e) Carvedilol |
| |
|Name contraindication for Beta-non selective adrenoblockers: |
|a) Bronchial asthma |
|b) Atrial- ventricular block |
|c) Tachyarrhythmias |
|d) Angina Pectoris |
|e) Raynoud disease |
| |
|Beta- receptor activation is produced by: |
|a) pentetrasol |
|b) terphenadine |
|c) isoprenaline |
|d) phenoterenol |
|e) terbutaline |
| |
|Which drugs are beta-agonists: |
|a) Digoxin |
|b) Dobutamine |
|c) Amrinone |
|d) Salbutamol |
|e) Isoprenaline |
| |
|Adverse effects associated with beta adrenergic receptor agonists: |
|a) over usage of these drugs may predisposed to mortality in asthmatics |
|b) skeletal muscle tremor |
|c) excessive cardiovascular stimulation |
|d) bronchospasm |
|e) anxiety |
| |
|Name adverse affect of the β1 blockade: |
|a) Bradycardia |
|b) Decreased cardiac output |
|c) Tachycardia |
|d) Hypertention |
|e) Low contractility |
| |
|Clinical uses of for propranolol: |
|a) treatment of essential hypertension |
|b) management of angina |
|c) management of certain arrhythmias |
|d) prophylactic against asthma attacks |
|e) AV block |
| |
|Alpha2 selective adrenergic agonists: |
|a) phentolamine |
|b) clonidine |
|c) epinephrine |
|d) phenoxybenzamine |
|e) methyldopa |
| |
|Beta1 selective adrenergic receptor antagonist: |
|a) propranolol |
|b) timolol |
|c) nadolol |
|d) metoprolol |
|e) atenolol |
| |
|Selective beta1 blockers: |
|a) Atenolol |
|b) Propranolol |
|c) Acebutolol |
|d) Labetolol |
|e) Timolol |
| |
|Beta1 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects: |
|a) Increase in heart contractility |
|b) Bronchodilation |
|c) Miometrium relaxation |
|d) Tachycardia |
|e) Increase in conduction velocity in the atrioventricular node |
| |
|Bronchodilation is caused by: |
|a) atenolol |
|b) fenoterol |
|c) salbutamol |
|d) timolol |
|e) metoprolol |
| |
|List beta blockers: |
|a) atenolol |
|b) fenoterol |
|c) salbutamol |
|d) timolol |
|e) metoprolol |
| |
|Which of the following drugs causes bronchodilation without significant cardiac stimulation? |
|a) Isoprenaline |
|b) Fenoterol |
|c) Xylometazoline |
|d) Methoxamine |
|e) Salbutamol |
| |
|Propanolol causes: |
|a) can cause bronchospasm |
|b) can cause bronchodilation |
|c) increases blodd pressure |
|d) decreases blodd pressure |
|e) can mask hypoglycaemia induced by insulin |
| |
|The main adverse effects of phentolamine include all of the following: |
|a) Hypertenssion |
|b) Bradycardia |
|c) Tachycardia |
|d) Colaps |
|e) Hypotention |
| |
|Characteristics of phentolamine include all of the following: |
|a) Reduction in peripheral resistance |
|b) Bradicardia |
|c) Tachycardia |
|d) Stimulation of muscarinic and histamine receptors |
|e) Block alfa-adrenoreceptors |
| |
|Beta-blocking drugs-induced hypotension may be associated with their effects on: |
|a) The heart |
|b) The blood vessels |
|c) The renin-angiotensin system |
|d) Inhibition of norepinephrine release |
|e) Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake |
| |
|Clinical applications of beta-adrenergic antagonists: |
|a) treatment of hypertension |
|b) treatment of arrhythmias |
|c) Raynaud disease |
|d) bronchial asthma |
|e) management of angina pectori |
| |
|Non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker(s): |
|a) nadolol |
|b) esmolol |
|c) timolol |
|d) atenolol |
|e) metoprolol |
| |
|Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers: effects on the heart: |
|a) increased automatism |
|b) decreased contractility |
|c) increased contractility |
|d) decrease automatism |
|e) increase heart rate |
| |
|Most likely to cause dangerous bronchiolar constriction in asthmatic patients: |
|a) timolol |
|b) atenolol |
|c) nebivolol |
|d) propranolol |
|e) metoprolol |
| |
|Characteristics of beta-blocking agents include all of the following: |
|a) They occupy beta receptors and competitively reduce receptor occupancy by catecholamines or other beta agonists |
|b) They causes hypotention |
|c) They induce hypertention |
|d) They cause tachycardia |
|e) They can cause blockade in the atrioventricular node |
| |
|Principal mechanisms by which beta adrenergic receptor blockade decreases blood pressure: |
|a) blockade of angiotensin II receptors |
|b) reduced myocardial contractility |
|c) reduced heart rate |
|d) renin release suppression |
|e) they induce hypertention |
| |
|Adverse effect(s) associated with beta-adrenergic blockers: |
|a) bradycardia |
|b) bronchospasm |
|c) tachycardia |
|d) impotence |
|e) hypertention |
| |
|Beta-blocker with some intrinsic sympathomimetic properties: |
|a) practolol |
|b) sotalol |
|c) pindolol |
|d) metoprolol |
|e) propranolol |
| |
|Selective beta1 blocker(s): |
|a) alprenolol |
|b) propranolol |
|c) acebutolol |
|d) pindolol |
|e) atenolol |
| |
|Beta-receptor antagonists have all of the following cardiovascular effects: |
|a) The negative inotropic and chronotropic effects |
|b) Acute hypertention |
|c) Vasoconstriction |
|d) Vasodilation |
|e) Reduction of the release of renin |
| |
|Compared with phentolamine, prazosine has all of the following features: |
|a) Irreversible blockade of alfa 2 receptors |
|b) More often causes bradicardia |
|c) Highly selective for alfa1 receptors |
|d) Highly selective for alfa2 receptors |
|e) Persistent block of alfa1 receptors |
| |
|Characteristics of alfa-receptor antagonists include all of the following: |
|a) They cause a fall in peripheral resistance and blood pressure |
|b) They cause epinephrine reversal (convert a pressor response to a depressor response) |
|c) Bronchospasm |
|d) Hypertension |
|e) They may cause postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is a competitive antagonist at both alfa1 and alfa2 receptors? |
|a) Prazosin |
|b) Doxazosin |
|c) Labetalol |
|d) Phenoxybenzamine |
|e) Phentolamine |
| |
|List sympatholytic drugs: |
|a) clonidine |
|b) methyldopa |
|c) diazoxide |
|d) propranolol |
|e) reserpine |
| |
|Characteristics of reserpine include all of the following: |
|a) It inhibits the uptake of norepinephrine into vesicles |
|b) It decreases cardiac output, peripheral resistance and inhibits pressor reflexes |
|c) It may cause a transient sympathomimetic effect |
|d) Can be used as neuroleptic |
|e) It depletes stores of catecholamines in the brain |
| |
|Determine Beta1-adrenoceptor location: |
|a) myocardium |
|b) bronchi |
|c) juxtaglomerular apparatus |
|d) the syno-carotid zone |
|e) CNS |
| |
|Determine the preponderant location of the beta2-adrenoceptors: |
|a) bronchial muscles |
|b) skeletal muscle |
|c) uterus |
|d) myocardium |
|e) juxtaglomerular apparatus |
| |
|Indicate the effects caused by the excitation of postsynaptic alpha 1-adrenergic receptor: |
|a) mydriasis |
|b) miosis |
|c) contraction of the spleen capsule |
|d) vassoconstriction |
|e) bronchodilation |
| |
|Specify the effects caused by the excitation of beta1-adrenergic receptors: |
|a) intensification of contractility and cardiac automaticity |
|b) negative inotropic action |
|c) negative chronotropic action |
|d) miosis |
|e) to increase renin secretion |
| |
|Specify the effects caused by the excitation of beta2-adrenoceptors: |
|a) relaxation of the myometrium |
|b) bronchodilation |
|c) bronchoconstriction |
|d) vasoconstriction |
|e) contraction of the spleen capsule |
| |
|Specify peripheral alpha2-adrenomimetics: |
|a) methyldopa |
|b) clonidine |
|c) xylometazoline |
|d) naphazoline |
|e) orciprenaline |
| |
|Specify central alpha2-adrenomimetics: |
|a) xmethyldopa |
|b) clonidine |
|c) xylometazoline |
|d) naphasoline |
|e) orciprenaline |
| |
|Indicate nonselective Beta1,2-adrenomimetics: |
|a) isoprenaline |
|b) salbutamol |
|c) fenoterol |
|d) orciprenaline |
|e) epinephrine |
| |
|Characteristic of epinephrine: |
|a) stimulates α and β receptors |
|b) block α β receptors |
|c) used in anaphylactic shock |
|d) can be used to prolong the action of local anaesthetic |
|e) used in hyperglycemia |
| |
|Indicate selective Beta2-adrenomimetics: |
|a) terfenadine |
|b) salbutamol |
|c) isoprenaline |
|d) hexoprenaline |
|e) terbutaline |
| |
|Indicate adrenergic drugs with bronchodilator effect: |
|a) salmeterol |
|b) dopamine |
|c) norepinephrine |
|d) epinephrine |
|e) isoprenaline |
| |
|Name indications of epinephrine: |
|a) anaphylactic shock |
|b) cardiogenic shock |
|c) hypoglycemic coma |
|d) hyperosmolar diabetic coma |
|e) conjunctivitis |
| |
|Indicate drugs used to treat anaphylactic shock: |
|a) epinephrine |
|b) diphenhydramine |
|c) propranolol |
|d) salbutamol |
|e) phentolamine |
| |
|Indicate drugs used to treat hypoglycemic coma: |
|a) epinephrine |
|b) norepinephrine |
|c) glucagon |
|d) glucose |
|e) insulin |
| |
|Indicate the adverse effects of epinephrine: |
|a) bradycardia |
|b) tachycardia |
|c) hypoxia and tissue necrosis |
|d) anxiety, tremor |
|e) bronchospasm |
| |
|Name the beta-2-adrenomimetics indications: |
|a) imminence of spontaneous abortion |
|b) paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia |
|c) ventricular extrasystole |
|d) pectoral angina |
|e) bronchial asthma |
| |
|Name the effects of beta1- adrenomimetics: |
|a) intensification of heart contractions |
|b) tachycardia |
|c) increased heart automaticity |
|d) bronchial muscle relaxation |
|e) bronchial spasm |
| |
|Name Beta2 adrenomimetics: |
|a) salbutamol |
|b) epinephrine |
|c) ephedrine |
|d) isoprenaline |
|e) fenoterol |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristic of clonidine: |
|a) stimulates beta2-adrenergic receptors |
|b) stimulates alpha2 receptors |
|c) causes bradycardia |
|d) can cause sedation and somnolence |
|e) causes tachycardia |
| |
|The effects of clonidine include: |
|a) sedation |
|b) bradicardia |
|c) dry mouth |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) hypotention |
| |
|Indicate the specific pharmacological effects of drugs that stimulate alfa1-adrenergic receptors: |
|a) vasoconstriction |
|b) improvement of microcirculation |
|c) vasodilatation |
|d) decrease in microcirculation |
|e) decrease of blood pressure |
| |
|Indicate the effects of beta-blockers: |
|a) antihypertensive |
|b) antiarrhythmic |
|c) antiangina |
|d) antipsychotic |
|e) anxiolytic |
| |
|The following side-effects are seen in beta-antagonists: |
|a) bradycardia |
|b) hypotention |
|c) hypertention |
|d) impotence |
|e) tachycardia |
| |
|Name beta-adrenoblockers: |
|a) Propranolol |
|b) Validol |
|c) Metoprolol |
|d) Alopurinol |
|e) Oxprenolol |
| |
|The following are selective beta blockers: |
|a) pindolol |
|b) propanolol |
|c) nadolol |
|d) atenolol |
|e) acebutol |
| |
|The following are non-selective beta-blocker: |
|a) metoprolol |
|b) propranolol |
|c) oxprenolol |
|d) nadolol |
|e) sotalol |
| |
|Characteristic of propanolol: |
|a) block alfa adrenoreceptors |
|b) block beta adrenoreceptors |
|c) decreases cardiac contractility |
|d) block alfa beta adrenoreceptors |
|e) can mask hypoglycaemia induced by insulin |
| |
|Indicate beta-blocker drugs indications: |
|a) angina pectoris |
|b) acute heart failure |
|c) schizophrenia |
|d) tachyarrhythmia |
|e) sinus bradycardia |
| |
|Name indications of beta-blockers: |
|a) bronchial asthma |
|b) myocardial infarction |
|c) migraine |
|d) atrioventricular block |
|e) hypertension |
| |
|List the adverse effects of selective beta-blockers: |
|a) atrioventricular block |
|b) worsening angina pectoris |
|c) worsening of heart failure |
|d) exacerbation of bronchial asthma |
|e) spasm of peripheral vessels |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for alpha-blockers? |
|a) produce vasodilatation |
|b) bradycardia |
|c) reduce microcirculation |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) improves microcirculation |
| |
|Name contraindications of propranolol: |
|a) supraventricular tachycardia |
|b) atrioventricular block |
|c) bronchial asthma |
|d) angina pectores |
|e) Raynaud's disease |
| |
|Simpatholitics are used in: |
|a) treatment of the hypertension |
|b) myocardial infarction |
|c) severe forms oh hypertension |
|d) raynaud disease |
|e) ventricular arrhythmias |
| |
|Witch statements about sympatholytics is adequate? |
|a) affect noradrenaline synthesis |
|b) affect noradrenaline release |
|c) affect noradrenalne uptake |
|d) bind covalently to the alpha receptor an produce an irreversible effect |
|e) inhibit the flux of Ca 2+ through presynaptic membrane and inhibit in this way mediators release |
| |
|Name adverse effects of reserpine: |
|a) tachycardia |
|b) bradycardia |
|c) the excitation of the CNS |
|d) depression |
|e) the decrease intestinal motility |
| |
|Name alpha-adrenoblockers indications: |
|a) pheochromocytoma |
|b) hypertension |
|c) hypotension |
|d) ventricular arrhythmias |
|e) Raynoud disease |
| |
|Name beta-blockers indications: |
|a) hypertension |
|b) angina pectoris |
|c) migraine |
|d) bradyarrythmie |
|e) imminence of premature birth |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for propranolol: |
|a) is indicated to treat hypertension |
|b) is indicated in the treatment of migraine |
|c) possessing psycho-sedative action |
|d) possessing psychostimulant action |
|e) is administered to treat angina pectores |
| |
|Indicate the adverse effects of beta-adrenoblockers: |
|a) Rebound phenomena |
|b) increased intraocular pressure |
|c) anxiety |
|d) atherogenic action |
|e) increase the need in oxygen of myocardium |
| |
|Name astringent indications: |
|a) Poisoning with heavy metals salts |
|b) Inflammatory processes of the digestive tract |
|c) Inflammation of the skin |
|d) To antagonize with morphine |
|e) For local anesthesia |
| |
|Choose coating drugs: |
|a) Zinc oxide |
|b) Silver nitrate |
|c) Starch mucilage |
|d) Mucilage from flax seeds |
|e) Activated charcoal |
| |
|Choose adsorbants indications: |
|a) Meteorism |
|b) Diarrhea |
|c) To decrease chloralhydrate irritant properties |
|d) Inflammatory processes of the urinary tract |
|e) Acute poisoning |
| |
|Choose irritants: |
|a) Zinc oxide |
|b) Silver nitrate |
|c) Menthol |
|d) Ammonia solution |
|e) Starch mucilage |
| |
|Are effective antitussives: |
|a) ambroxol |
|b) dimemorfan |
|c) acetylcysteine |
|d) ethylmorphine |
|e) codeine |
| |
|Name drugs used in bronchial asthma treatment: |
|salbutamol |
|propranolol |
|fenoterol |
|sotalol |
|pindolol |
| |
|Name drugs avoided in bronchial asthma: |
|salbutamol |
|propranolol |
|fenoterol |
|sotalol |
|pindolol |
| |
|Name respiratory analeptics: |
|aminophilline |
|bemegrid |
|nikethamide. |
|camphor |
|prenoxdiazine |
| |
|Name the reasons of morphine used for pulmonary edema: |
|cause bronchodilation |
|relief of anxiety |
|diuretic effect |
|- increases peripheral vasodilatation |
|causes vasoconstriction |
| |
|Name antitussive drugs: |
|aminophilline |
|glaucine |
|xcodeine |
|mucaltin |
|bromhexine |
| |
|Name expectorant drugs: |
|ambroxol |
|glaucine |
|codeine |
|mucaltin |
|bromhexine |
| |
|Name opioids antitussives: |
|a) codeine phosphate |
|b) glaucina |
|c) prenoxdiazine |
|d) pronilid |
|e) ethylmorphine |
| |
|Indicate drugs used to treat bronchial asthma: |
|a) isoprenaline |
|b) orciprenaline |
|c) pentoxiverine |
|d) pronilid |
|e) prenoxdiazine |
| |
|Name side effects of aminophylline: |
|a) Arrythmia |
|b) Sudden death |
|c) Depression |
|d) Insomnia |
|e) Gastric irritation |
| |
|Indicate antiallergic drugs used to treat asthma: |
|a) terfenadine |
|b) loratadine |
|c) astemizole |
|d) platifilină |
|e) fenoterol |
| |
|Indicate effective drugs in bronchial asthma: |
|a) ipratropium |
|b) aminophylline |
|c) salbutamol |
|d) propranolol |
|e) strophantin |
| |
|Following drugs directly activate the respiratory center: |
|a) Bemegride |
|b) Caffeine |
|c) Aethymizole |
|d) Cytiton |
|e) Salbutamol |
| |
|Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment? |
|a) Methylxanthines |
|b) M-cholinoblocking agents |
|c) Beta2 -stimulants |
|d) Alfa1-stimulants |
|e) M-cholinomimetic agents |
| |
|Choose anti-asthma agents that act in part by activating pulmonary beta-receptors thus increasing cAMP: |
|a) salbutamol |
|b) methoxamine |
|c) cromolyn |
|d) terbutaline |
|e) ipratropium |
| |
|Choose methylxantines used in bronchial asthma therapy: |
|a) theophylline |
|b) cyclosporine |
|c) metaproterenol |
|d) aminophylline |
|e) ipratropium bromide |
| |
|Pick out the bronchodilator drug related to xanthine: |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Orciprenaline |
|c) Adrenaline |
|d) Theophylline |
|e) Aminophylline |
| |
|Name drugs that decrease the release of mediators ( histamine, other ABS) from mast cell. (Stabilization of mast cells): |
|a) glucocorticoids |
|b) salbutamol |
|c) sodium cromoglicate |
|d) epinephrine |
|e) cyclosporine |
| |
|The mechanisms of methylxanthines action are: |
|a) Inhibition of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (high doses) |
|b) Beta2 -adrenoreceptor stimulation |
|c) Inhibition of the production of inflammatory cytokines |
|d) Inhibition of M-cholinoreceptors |
|e) Inhibition of adenosine receptors |
| |
| |
|All of the following drugs are inhaled glucocorticoids: |
|a) Triamcinolone |
|b) Beclometazone |
|c) Sodium cromoglycate |
|d) Budesonide |
|e) Ketotifen |
| |
|Choose the drug belonging to membranestabilizing agents: |
|a) Zileuton |
|b) Sodium cromoglycate |
|c) Zafirlucast |
|d) Montelucast |
|e) Ketotifen |
| |
|Indicate the drug which is a leucotriene receptor antagonist: |
|a) Sodium cromoglycate |
|b) Zafirlucast |
|c) Zileuton |
|d) Triamcinolone |
|e) Montelucast |
| |
|Which of the following drugs are inhibitors of leukotrienes' receptors? |
|a) Montelukast |
|b) Zileuton |
|c) Ibuprofen |
|d) Diclofenac |
|e) Zafirlukast |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristic for isoprenaline: |
|a) stimulates beta1 and beta2 adrenergic receptors |
|b) stimulates just beta1 adrenoreceptors |
|c) produces tachycardia, palpitations, and tremor |
|d) is contraindicated in bronchial asthma |
|e) can be used in aerosols in bronchial asthma crisis |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristic for theophylline: |
|a) is from methylxanthines |
|b) is an ergot alkaloid derivative |
|c) has bronchodilator action, stimulates the heart and CNS |
|d) is contraindicated in bronchial asthma |
|e) is a synthetic catecholamine stimulates beta1 and beta2 adrenergic receptors |
| |
|Explain the pharmacological effects of glucocorticoids used in bronchial asthma treatment: |
|a) have marked anti-inflammatory effect |
|b) decrease bronchi edema and bronchial secretion |
|c) inhibits the respiratory system |
|d) promotes the synthesis of lipocortin |
|e) increase bronchial edema and bronchial secretion |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological peculiarities for codeine: |
|a) is an opiate drug |
|b) inhibits the cough center of the bulb |
|c) inhibit the vagus nerve center |
|d) possesses analgesic effect |
|e) possesses antipyretic action |
| |
|Indication for antitussive drugs: |
|a) cough in rib fractures |
|b) bronchitis with wet cough |
|c) cough in open pneumothorax |
|d) cough in pulmonary tumor |
|e) pneumonia with wet cough |
| |
|What drugs excites sino carotid reflexogenic zone? |
|a) caffeine |
|b) niketamidă |
|c) cititon |
|d) lobeline |
|e) bemegride |
| |
|Indicate expectorant drugs: |
|a) mucaltin |
|b) sodium hydrocarbonate |
|c) potassium iodide |
|d) codeine |
|e) morphine |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristics for prenoxidiazine: |
|a) inhibits the cough center |
|b) depresses the reflex of cough by acting peripherally |
|c) antitussive effect is equivalent to codeine’s |
|d) antitussive effect is less than codeine’s |
|e) causes tolerance and drug addiction |
| |
|Name preparations effective in status asthmaticus: |
|a) disodium cromoglycate |
|b) aminophylline |
|c) diazepam |
|d) dexamethasonum |
|e) ketotifenum |
| |
|Which of the following drugs are not 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOG) inhibitors? |
|a) Diclofenac |
|b) Metamizole |
|c) Zileuton |
|d) Ibuprofen |
|e) Zafirlukast |
| |
|Which of the following drugs are leucotreine D4 receptor (LTD) blockers? |
|a) Diclofenac |
|b) Zafirleukast |
|c) Zileuton |
|d) Ibuprofen |
|e) Montelukast |
| |
| |
|Which of these groups of drugs are used for asthma treatment? |
|a) Methylxanthines |
|b) M-cholinoblocking agents |
|c) Beta2 -stimulants |
|d) beta blockers |
|e) M cholinomimetics |
| |
|Which of the following drugs are used in treatment of bronchial asthma? |
|a) Zafirlukast |
|b) Diclofenac |
|c) Zileuton |
|d) Salbutamol |
|e) Propranolol |
| |
|Indicate disodium chromoglycate pharmacodynamic properties: |
|a) inhibits mast cell degranulation |
|b) blocks M- cholinoreceptors |
|c) inhibits the influx of calcium into the cell |
|d) decreases release histamine and other mediators of allergic reactions |
|e) stimulates beta-2-adrenoceptors |
| |
|Choose indications for disodium chromoglycate |
|a) prevention of acute bronchospasm |
|b) status astmaticus |
|c) prevention and relief of nasal allergies |
|d) hyperaldosteronism type 1 |
|e) to prevent the acute transplant rejection |
| |
|What are the mechanisms of bronchodilator action of aminophylline? |
|a) the stimulation of beta-2-adrenergic receptors |
|b) blocking adenosine receptors |
|c) antagonizing the factor of platelet aggregation |
|d) toxic doses inhibit phosphodiesterase |
|e) stimulation adenilaciclazei |
| |
|What is the mechanism of action of disodium cromoglycate to treat asthma? |
|a) prevents calcium influx into cells |
|b) causes adrenergic stimulation |
|c) is a musculotropic bronchodilator |
|d) antagonizes the action of histamine on bronchi |
|e) prevent mast cell degranulation |
| |
|What preparations are preferred for mild bronchial asthma accesses? |
|a) disodium cromoglycate |
|b) indomethacine |
|c) ketotifen |
|d) salbutamol |
|e) terbutaline |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacological effects of aminophylline: |
|a) antiarrhythmic |
|b) cardiostimulator |
|c) hypertensive |
|d) diuretic |
|e) bronchodilator |
| |
|Name inhaled glucocorticoids: |
|a) Triamcinolone |
|b) Beclometazone |
|c) Sodium cromoglycate |
|d) Budesonide |
|e) Prednesolone |
| |
|Inhibitors of cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterases (enzymes that degrade cyclic AMP): |
|a) theophylline |
|b) caffeine |
|c) carbachol |
|d) aspartate |
|e) aminophylline |
| |
|Name mecanisms of antihypertenisve effects: |
|a) Sympatic vegetative ganglia paralises |
|b) beta 1 adrenoblocking action |
|c) alfa 1 adrenostimulating action |
|d) beta 2 adrenoblocking action |
|e) alfa adrenoblocking action |
| |
|In hypertensive emergencies are used: |
|a) Diltiazem |
|b) Prazozine |
|c) Reserpine |
|d) Phenylephrine |
|e) Captopril |
| |
|Total peripheral resistance (TPR) is a determining factor for mean arterial pressure. What are correct relationships between norepinephrine, |
|minoxidil, and lisinopril and TPR? |
|a) Minoxidil : TPR increases |
|b) Fosinopril : TPR increases |
|c) Norepinephrine : TPR increases |
|d) Phenoxybenzamine : TPR increases |
|e) Minoxidil : TPR decreases |
| |
|Name antihypertensive mechanisms: |
|a) paralyzation of the vegetative sympathetic ganglions |
|b) elective stimulation of alpha 1-adrenergic receptors |
|c) paralyzation of the sympathetic-peripheric terminals |
|d) elective blocking of alpha-adrenergic receptors |
|e) blocking of beta-adrenergic receptors |
| |
|Name antihypertensive drugs: |
|a) alpha- adrenoblockers |
|b) alpha- adrenomimetics |
|c) beta- adrenoblockers |
|d) alpha-2-central adrenomimetics |
|e) sympathomimetics |
| |
|Name sympapholitics: |
|rezerpine |
|capropril |
|phentolamine |
|guanethidine |
|prazosine |
| |
|Name Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors: |
|lisionopril |
|capropril |
|phentolamine |
|enalapril |
|enalkiren |
| |
|Concerning the use of ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme ) inhibitors in heart disease: |
|a) reduces efficacy of diuretic treatment requiring higher diuretic dosages |
|b) contraindicated in hypertensive patients with hypertrophic left ventricles |
|c) reduces aldosteron level |
|d) contraindicated in diabetic patients |
|e) benefits due to reduction in circulating angiotensin II levels |
| |
|Name rennin inhibitors: |
|lisionopril |
|remikiren |
|phentolamine |
|enalapril |
|enalkiren |
| |
|Name angiotensin II receptor blockers: |
|losartan |
|remikiren |
|phentolamine |
|valsartan |
|enalkiren |
| |
|Angiotensin II receptor antagonist: |
|a) saralasyne |
|b) phenoxybenzamine |
|c) methyldopa |
|d) losartan |
|e) captopril |
| |
|Orthostatic (postural) hypotension is produced by: |
|a) ganglionic blocker |
|b) dopamine receptor activation |
|c) alpha receptor blocker |
|d) alpha receptor activation |
|e) beta receptor activation |
| |
|Most likely to increase blood pressure: |
|a) norepinephrine |
|b) timolol |
|c) phenylephrine |
|d) propranolol |
|e) captopril |
| |
|Decreases blood pressure |
|a) prazosine |
|b) phentolamine |
|c) phenylephrine |
|d) trimetaphan |
|e) propranolol |
| |
|Calcium channel blockers with predominantly vascular effects: |
|a) diltiazem |
|b) nicardipine |
|c) verapamil |
|d) nifedipine |
|e) amlodipine |
| |
|Centrally-acting antihypertensive drug: |
|a) moxonidine |
|b) captopril |
|c) methoxamine |
|d) clonidine |
|e) sodium nitroprusside |
| |
|Name izothyoureic derivates: |
|izoturon |
|dopamine |
|izoprenaline |
|profetur |
|difetur |
| |
|Name vasoconstrictors with central action: |
|niketamide |
|camphor |
|sulfocamphocaine |
|epinephrine |
|izoturon |
| |
|Name alkaloids from Ergot: |
|ergotal |
|angiotensinamide |
|ergotamine tartrate |
|epinephrine |
|dihydroergotamine |
| |
|Name effects of clonidine: |
|antihypertention |
|antihypotention |
|analgesic |
|psychostimulant |
| sedation |
| |
|Antihypertensive: action based on inhibition of norepinephrine release from adrenergic nerve endings: |
|a) brethilium |
|b) phentolamine |
|c) hexamethonium |
|d) reserpine |
|e) propranolol |
| |
|Choose antihypertensive agents: |
|a) methyldopa |
|b) guanethidine |
|c) carbidopa |
|d) epinephrine |
|e) reserpine |
| |
|Usual adverse effects of vasodilating, antihypertensive drugs: |
|a) headache |
|b) bradycardia |
|c) angina pectori |
|d) reflex tachycardia |
|e) syncope |
| |
|Adverse effects associated with ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme) inhibitor use: |
|a) hypokaliemia |
|b) dry cough |
|c) angioedema |
|d) proteinuria |
|e) hyperkalaemia |
| |
| |
|Indications for Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors: |
|treatment of hypertention |
|treatment of hypotention |
|treatment of bronchial asthma |
|treatment of familiar hyperkalemia |
|treatment of cardiac failure |
| |
|ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme) inhibitors: |
|a) trandolapril |
|b) methyldopa |
|c) timolol |
|d) captopril |
|e) nifedipine |
| |
|Vasoconstriction, aldosterone secretion, and renin release suppression occur upon activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. How |
|would captopril affect these responses? |
|a) block ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme) |
|b) blocks all except vasoconstriction |
|c) blocks only vasoconstriction |
|d) decrease angiotensine II synthesis |
|e) blocks only aldosterone secretion |
| |
|Calcium channel blocker: vasodilation, less likely to have direct cardiac effects: |
|a) nimodipine |
|b) amlodipine |
|c) verapamil |
|d) diltiazem |
|e) nifedipine |
| |
|Choose antihypertensive drugs belonging to the same class: |
|a) lisinopril |
|b) clonidine |
|c) verapamil |
|d) nifedipine |
|e) doxazosin |
| |
|Name advers effects of nifedipine: |
|hypertention |
|reflex tachycardia |
|hypotension |
|bradycardia |
|constipation |
| |
|Name adverse effects of verapamil: |
|AV-block |
|reflex tachycardia |
|low blood pressure |
|bradycardia |
|dry cough |
| |
|Why should be avoided association between beta-blockers and verapamil? |
|a) promote bronchoconstriction |
|b) both acting negative inotropically |
|c) produce angina pectoris |
|d) depress A-V node conductivity |
|e) promote peripheral vascular spasms |
| |
|Name drugs causing bradycardia having both antianginal and antiarrhythmic effects: |
|a) propranolol |
|b) isosorbide dinitrate |
|c) nitroglycerine |
|d) nifedipine |
|e) verapamil |
| |
| |
|Indicate antiarrhythmics acting on the innervation of the heart: |
|a) procainamide |
|b) propranolol |
|c) quinidine |
|d) phenytoin |
|e) atenolol |
| |
|Name class I A antiarrhythmic drugs: |
|a) verapamil |
|b) procainamide |
|c) lidocaine |
|d) metoprolol |
|e) quinidine |
| |
|Name class I B antiarrhythmic drugs: |
|a) verapamil |
|b) procainamide |
|c) lidocaine |
|d) metoprolol |
|e) phenytoine |
| |
|Name groups af drugs with antiarrhythmic propierties: |
|a) alpha-blockers |
|b) beta-blockers |
|c) potassium channel blockers |
|d) calcium channel blockers |
|e) sodium channel blockers |
| |
|Antiarrhythmic drugs classified as sodium channel blockers: |
|a) amiodarone |
|b) verapamil |
|c) lidocaine |
|d) procainamide |
|e) quinidine gluconate |
| |
|Quinidine: mechanism(s)/properties of antiarrhythmic activity: |
|a) slow rate of rise of phase 0 |
|b) prolong repolarization |
|c) activates beta-receptors |
|d) activates K channels |
|e) block sodium channel |
| |
|Prominent quinidine-mediated actions at receptors: |
|a) nicotinic agonist |
|b) H1 antagonist |
|c) alpha adrenergic antagonist |
|d) muscarinic, cholinergic antagonist |
|e) beta adrenergic agonist |
| |
|Correct match(es) between antiarrhythmic drugs and side effects: |
|a) verapamil: tachycardia |
|b) propranolol: bronchospasm |
|c) lidocaine: CNS-related side effects including paresthesias |
|d) quinidine: diarrhea, cinchonism |
|e) metoprolol: tachycardia |
| |
|Agent(s) may be effective in terminating paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)? |
|a) propranolol |
|b) dobutamine |
|c) verapamil |
|d) atropine |
|e) epinephrine |
| |
|Useful in treating third-degree (complete) heart block: |
|a) digoxine |
|b) isoprenaline |
|c) lidocaine |
|d) edrophonium |
|e) atropine |
| |
|Common drugs that induce AV block include: |
|a) digoxin |
|b) beta-blockers |
|c) atropine |
|d) isoprenaline |
|e) calcium channel blockers (verapamil) |
| |
|Procainamide side effects: |
|a) tachycardia |
|b) hypertension |
|c) drug-induced lupus |
|d) hypotension |
|e) bradycardia |
| |
|Choose class I antiarrhythmic drugs: |
|a) Quinidine gluconate |
|b) Lidocaine |
|c) Flecainide |
|d) Verapamil |
|e) Adenosine |
| |
|Procainamide side effects: |
|a) Nausea |
|b) Hypotension |
|c) Drug-induced lupus |
|d) Tachycardia |
|e) Hypertension |
| |
|Antiarrhythmic drugs classified as sodium channel blockers: |
|a) Quinidine gluconate |
|b) Procainamide |
|c) Phenytoin |
|d) Verapamil |
|e) Adenosine |
| |
|Quinidine gluconate : mechanism(s)/properties of antiarrhythmic activity: |
|a) Inhibition of sodium channel |
|b) Depression of conduction velocity |
|c) Reduced excitability |
|d) Activation of sodium channel |
|e) Activated calcim channel blockade |
| |
|Quinidine gluconate : major clinical use: |
|a) Atrial fibrillation |
|b) Atrial flutter |
|c) Ventricular tachycardia |
|d) AV block |
|e) Cardiac arrest |
| |
|Name arrhythmics: |
|a) verapamil |
|b) enalapril |
|c) metoprolol |
|d) mexiletine |
|e) amiodarone |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for lidocaine: |
|a) has tropism to certain tissues |
|b) calcium channel blocker |
|c) sodium channel blocker |
|d) can cause neuropsychiatric adverse reactions (in high doses) |
|e) peros bioavailability is reduced, and as a result is administered parenteraly |
| |
|The following are true with regard to lidocaine: |
|a) is local anesthetic |
|b) x is antiarrhythmic drug |
|c) is diuretic drug |
|d) it slows the heart by producing beta-adrenoceptor blockade |
|e) it is effective in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias |
| |
|The following are true about lidocaine: |
|a) it has a local anaesthetic action lasting for about 2 days |
|b) is more active if injected into an inflameted area |
|c) inhibits the rapid influx of sodium ions into excitable cells |
|d) its action is prolonged by the concurrent use of epinephrine |
|e) has antiarhythmic effetc |
| |
|Characteristics of lidocaine: |
|a) used to treat ventricular arythmia |
|b) is opiod analgesic |
|c) common side effects include sleepiness, muscle twitching, confusion |
|d) is an antiarrhythmic medication |
|e) used in infectous diseases |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for lidocaine: |
|a) is the choice in ventricular arrhythmias |
|b) sodium channel blocker |
|c) potassium chanel blocker |
|d) calcium channel blocker |
|e) shorten the repolarization |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristics for verapamil: |
|a) is calcium channel blocker |
|b) has a depressing action on the myocardium |
|c) increased therapeutic efficacy in heart failure |
|d) works by blocking the potassium channels |
|e) causes bradycardia |
| |
|The action of calcium blockers (verapamil) on the heart: |
|a) bradycardia; |
|b) automatism diminishing |
|c) contractility diminishing; |
|d) contractility increasing; |
|e) automatism increasing; |
| |
|Calcium channel blocker(s) most likely to affect myocardial contractility and AV conduction: |
|a) nimodipine |
|b) nicardipine |
|c) verapamil |
|d) nifedipine |
|e) diltiazem |
| |
|Agents which decreased ventricular performance: |
|a) theophylline |
|b) metoprolol |
|c) cardiac glycosides |
|d) caffeine |
|e) diltiazem |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristics of amiodarone: |
|a) block membrane sodium channels |
|b) membrane potassium channel blocker |
|c) antiarrhythmic and antianginal effects |
|d) disrupts thyroid function |
|e) is commonly associated with beta-blockers and verapamil |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for phenytoin: |
|a) Class 1 antiarrhythmic |
|b) is used in digitalis overdose-induced arrhythmias |
|c) is useful in the combination with acetylsalicylic acid |
|d) is used in the treatment of epilepsy |
|e) is calcium channel blocker |
| |
|Name reserpine indications: |
|a) mild to moderate hypertension |
|b) depression |
|c) peptic ulcer |
|d) diarrheic syndrome |
|e) alcoholic psychosis |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristic for raviten: |
|a) is an isothiourea derivative |
|b) hypertensive effect through direct action on the vascular wall |
|c) decreases and body temperature, and oxygen consumption by the organism |
|d) excites alpha1-adrenoceptors |
|e) non-peptide selective inhibitor interacting with the active center of the rennin |
| |
|Name centrally acting antihypertensive drugs: |
|a) clonidine |
|b) sodium nitroprusside |
|c) capropril |
|d) prazosine |
|e) methyldopa |
| |
| |
|Common adverse effects of clonidine are: |
|a) Orthostatic hypotension |
|b) Somnolence |
|c) diarrhea |
|d) Reflex tachycardia |
|e) Xerostomia |
| |
|Adverse effects associated with clonidine: |
|a) euphoria |
|b) tachycardia |
|c) sedation |
|d) dry mouth |
|e) anxiety |
| |
|Clonidine mechanism of action: |
|a) stimulating presynaptic α2 receptors in the brain |
|b) inhibiting presynaptic α2 receptors in the brain |
|c) inhibiting the release of norepinephrine (NE) |
|d) stimulating the release of norepinephrine (NE) |
|e) inhibiting presynaptic beta 2 receptors |
| |
| |
|Name systemic vasoconstrictor drugs groups: |
|a) alpha-adrenomimetics |
|b) beta-adrenomimetics |
|c) alpha, beta-adrenoblockers |
|d) isothiourea derivatives |
|e) alpha, beta-adrenomimetics |
| |
|Name antihypertensive preparations which acts presynaptically: |
|a) clonidine |
|b) reserpine |
|c) propranolol |
|d) guanethidine |
|e) hydralazine |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristic for captopril: |
|a) increases blood pressure |
|b) acting on the angiotensin receptors |
|c) lower blood pressure |
|d) decreases the angiotensin II level |
|e) inhibit converting enzyme |
| |
|Indicate hypotensives from alpha1-adrenoblockers: |
|a) clonidine |
|b) terazosin |
|c) prazosin |
|d) propranolol |
|e) hydralazine |
| |
|Name drugs with nitrovasodilatator mechanism: |
|a) nitroglycerine |
|b) molsidomine |
|c) sodium nitroprusside |
|d) nitrazepam |
|e) nitrofurantoin |
| |
|Name antianginal drugs which may cause tachycardia: |
|a) propranolol |
|b) nifedipine |
|c) isosorbide dinitrate |
|d) nitroglycerine |
|e) verapamil |
| |
|Indicate the mechanisms of action of antianginal drugs: |
|a) reducing the work of the heart |
|b) reduction of cardiac pre and afterload |
|c) decrease in cytoplasmic calcium |
|d) increased sympathetic tone |
|e) coronary dilatation |
| |
|Name mechanisms of action of antianginal drugs: |
|a) coronary dilatation |
|b) decrease sympathetic tone |
|c) reducing the work of the heart |
|d) increased cardiac afterload and preload |
|e) increase in cytoplasmic calcium |
| |
|Drugs clinically used for management of angina: |
|a) metoprolol |
|b) nadolol |
|c) glycerol |
|d) propranolol |
|e) salbutamol |
| |
|Drug effects that may prevent/terminate angina: |
|a) negative chronotropic drugs |
|b) peripheral vasodilators |
|c) negative inotropic drugs |
|d) positive chronotropic drugs |
|e) coronary vasodilators |
| |
|Toxicities associated with nitrates: |
|a) hypotensive reactions |
|b) drug rash |
|c) dizziness |
|d) hypertension |
|e) headaches caused by meningeal vascular dilatation |
| |
|Antianginal action of calcium channel blockers: |
|a) decreased myocardial wall tension |
|b) coronary artery dilatation |
|c) reduced afterload |
|d) increased preload |
|e) negative inotropism |
| |
|Mechanism basis/bases for antianginal effects of beta-blockers: |
|a) increased preload |
|b) decreased contractility |
|c) increased automatism |
|d) increased blood pressure |
|e) decreased heart rate |
| |
|Calcium channel blocker(s) that cause tachycardia and are most likely to worsen myocardial ischemia: |
|a) nimodipine |
|b) diltiazem |
|c) nicardipine |
|d) verapamil |
|e) amlodipine |
| |
|Main clinical uses of calcium channel blockers are: |
|a) Angina pectoris |
|b) Hypertension |
|c) Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias |
|d) A-V block |
|e) Hypotension |
| |
| |
|Ca channels blocker are: |
|a) Diltiazem |
|b) Verapamil |
|c) Propranolol |
|d) Ivabradine |
|e) Labetolol |
| |
|Characteristis of nitric oxide: |
|a) increases cardiac contractility |
|b) decreases blood pressure |
|c) causes coronarodilation |
|d) causes pulmonary vasoconstriction |
|e) is also known as endothelium relaxing factor |
| |
|Symptoms associated with nitrates: |
|a) hypertension |
|b) tachycardia |
|c) headache |
|d) hypotension |
|e) bradycardia |
| |
|Indicate the mechanisms of antianginal action of organic nitrites and nitrates: |
|a) arterioconstriction and venous constriction |
|b) decrease heart preload and afterload |
|c) decrease in cardiac oxygen consumption |
|d) coronary dilatation |
|e) increase the supply of oxygenated blood |
| |
|Side effects associated with nitrates: |
|a) Bradycardia |
|b) Hypotension |
|c) Headache |
|d) Hypertension |
|e) Diarrhea |
| |
|Pharmacologic features of nitroprusside sodium: |
|a) lead to vasoconstriction |
|b) nitric oxide activates guanylyl cyclase |
|c) forms nitric oxide |
|d) forms methemoglobin |
|e) lead to vasodilation |
| |
|Cardiovascular effects of nitroglycerin: |
|a) increased systemic vascular resistance |
|b) reduced systemic vascular resistance |
|c) ameliorates circulation in the ischemic areas |
|d) negative inotropic and chronotropic effects |
|e) significant reflex tachycardia |
| |
|Indicate side effects of organic nitrites: |
|a) hypertension |
|b) headache |
|c) hypotension |
|d) reflex tachycardia |
|e) tolerance |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for nitroglycerin: |
|a) is an organic nitrate |
|b) is a volatile explosive liquid |
|c) used in angina pectoris accesses |
|d) is used just sublingually |
|e) to avoid the sublingual use |
| |
|Indicate the effects of organic nitrates: |
|a) coronary dilatation |
|b) arterio dilation |
|c) afterload reduction |
|d) venous constriction |
|e) preload reduction |
| |
|Name antianginal molecular mechanisms of action of nitrites and nitrates: |
|a) stimulates guanylate cyclase |
|b) reduce the level of cGMP |
|c) increase the concentration of cGMP |
|d) blocks the receptors for nitrous oxide |
|e) inhibit adenosine deaminase |
| |
|Name antianginal preparations which may cause tachycardia: |
|a) propranolol |
|b) nifedipine |
|c) isosorbide dinitrate |
|d) nitroglycerine |
|e) verapamil |
| |
|Drugs clinically used for management of angina: |
|a) Atenolol |
|b) Propranolol |
|c) Salbutalol |
|d) Metoprolol |
|e) Cholecalcipherol |
| |
|All these drug groups useful in angina both decrease myocardial oxygen requirement and increase myocardial oxygen delivery: |
|a) Nitroglycerin |
|b) Isosorbide dinitrate |
|c) Atenolol |
|d) Metoprolol |
|e) Alinidine |
| |
|Which of the following statements concerning nitrate mechanism of action is true? |
|a) Therapeutically active agents in this group are capable of releasing nitric oxide (NO) in to vascular smooth muscle target tissues |
|b) Nitric oxide (NO) is an effective activator of soluble guanylyl cyclase and probably acts mainly through this mechanism |
|c) Nitrates useful in angina decrease myocardial oxygen requirementand increase myocardial oxygen delivery |
|d) Nitrates useful in angina only decrease myocardial oxygen requirement |
|e) Nitrates useful in angina only increase myocardial oxygen delivery |
| |
|The following statements concerning mechanism of nitrate beneficial clinical effect are true: |
|a) Decreased myocardial oxygen requirement |
|b) Relief of coronary artery spasm |
|c) Improved perfusion to ischemic myocardium |
|d) Increased myocardial oxygen consumption |
|e) Decreased myocardial oxygen delivery |
| |
|Side effect of nitrates and nitrite drugs are: |
|a) Orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia |
|b) Bradycardia |
|c) Throbbing headache |
|d) Tolerance |
|e) Orthostatic hypertension |
| |
|The following statements concerning antianginal mechanism of calcium channel blockers' action are true: |
|a) are capable of releasing nitric oxide (NO) in vascular smooth muscle target tissues |
|b) bind to L-type calcium channel sites |
|c) decrease myocardial oxygen requirement and increase myocardial oxygen delivery |
|d) decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation and in a cardiac muscle with a reduction in|
|contractility |
|e) bind to T-type calcium channel sites |
| |
|Which of the following antianginal agents are calcium channel blockers? |
|a) Nitroglycerin |
|b) Dipyridamole |
|c) Minoxidil |
|d) Amlodipine |
|e) Verapamil |
| |
|Which of the following antianginal agents is a beta-adrenoreceptor-blocking drug: |
|a) Dipyridamole |
|b) Validol |
|c) Atenolol |
|d) Alinidine |
|e) Propranolol |
| |
|The following agents are cardioselective beta1-adrenoreceptor-blocking drugs labeled for use in angina: |
|a) Metoprolol |
|b) Talinolol |
|c) Atenolol |
|d) Propranolol |
|e) Nadolol |
| |
|Which of the following antianginal agents is the specific bradycardic drug: |
|a) Dipyridamole |
|b) Validol |
|c) Pentoxiphylline |
|d) Alinidine |
|e) Falipamil |
| |
|Name organic nitrates: |
|nifedipine |
|nitroglycerin |
|sustac mite |
|trinitrolong |
|minoxidil |
| |
|Name classes of drugs used to treat angina pectoris: |
|alfa-adrenomimetics |
|beta-adrenomimetics |
|beta adrenoblockers |
|organic nitrates |
|Ca channel blocking drugs |
| |
|Effects of Ca channel-blocking drugs (nifedipine): |
|decrease calcium influx into smooth muscle |
|increase calcium influx into smooth muscle |
|cause vascular relaxation |
|cause vascular contraction |
|cause reflex tachycardia |
| |
|What are the adverse effects of nitrates? |
|flushing (do to vasodilation) |
|tachycardia |
|hypotention |
|hypertention |
|headache |
| |
|What are the adverse effects of nitrates? |
|met-hemoglobinaemia |
|tolerance |
|reflex tachycardia |
|bradycardia |
|hypertention |
| |
|What are the therapeutic uses for beta blockers? |
|angina pectoris |
|hypertension |
|tachyarrhythmias |
|bradyarrhythmia |
|atrioventricular block |
| |
|What type of cardiovascular side effects do beta blockers have? |
|hypotension |
|hypertension |
|tachycardia |
|bradycardia |
|atrioventricular block |
| |
|List drugs that are beta blockers: |
|metoprolol |
|validol |
|propranolol |
|trinitrolong |
|salbutamol |
| |
|List contraindication for beta blockers: |
|angina pectori |
|hypertension |
|tachyarrhythmias |
|atrioventricular block |
|decompensated cardiac failure |
| |
|List effects of nitrates: |
|increase heart rate |
|increase the supply off blood flow |
|decrease preload and afterload |
|increase blood pressure |
|decrease heart rate |
| |
|List effects of beta blockers: |
|increase heart rate |
|increase diastole duration |
|decrease cardiac contractility |
|increase blood pressure |
|decrease heart rate |
| |
|List Beta blockers contraindications: |
|hypertention |
|systolic heart failure |
|peripheral vascular disease |
|angina pectoris |
|diabetes mellitus |
| |
|Name chemical classes of calcium channel blockers: |
|benzodiazepines |
|phenylalkylamines |
|benzothiazepines |
|dihydropyridines |
|methylxanthines |
| |
|List adverse effects of calcium channel blockers: |
|hypertention |
|peripheral edema |
|hypotension |
|tachycardia or bradycardia |
|bronchospasm |
| |
|Drugs used to treat migraine: |
|nitrates |
|triptans |
|ergot alkaloids |
|nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs |
|beta blockers |
| |
|Name cerebral vasodilators: |
|a) nicergoline |
|b) nitroglycerine |
|c) cinnarizine |
|d) vinpocetine |
|e) niketamide |
| |
|Indicate the group of drugs from cerebral vasodilators: |
|a) Ca-channel blockers |
|b) Antispastic drugs |
|c) Loop diuretics |
|d) Organic nitrates |
|e) Derivatives of Vinca minor plant |
| |
|The following Ergot derivative is used for treatment of acute migraine attack: |
|a) Paracetamol |
|b) Sumatriptan |
|c) Ergotamine |
|d) Metoclopramide |
|e) Methylergometrine |
| |
|The following indol derivatives are used for treatment of acute migraine attack: |
|a) Paracetamol |
|b) Sumatriptan |
|c) Ergotamine |
|d) Metoclopramide |
|e) Zolmitriptan |
| |
|Indicate groups of drugs classified as influencing the cerebral flow: |
|a) Ca2+-channel blockers |
|b) Derivatives of GABA |
|c) Derivatives of Vinca minor plant |
|d) K+-channel blockers |
|e) Benzidiazepines |
| |
|Indicate the drugs which are Ca2+-channel blockers influencing the cerebral blood flow: |
|a) Aminalon (Gama aminobutiric acid) |
|b) Nimodipine |
|c) Cinnarizine |
|d) Heparin |
|e) Vinpocetine |
| |
|Indicate the drugs influencing the blood flow in the brain - derivatives of GABA: |
|a) Aminalon (Gama aminobutiric acid) |
|b) Picamilon |
|c) Nimodipine |
|d) Heparin |
|e) Vinpocetine |
| |
|Indicate the drugs - Vinca minor alcaloids: |
|a) Nicergoline |
|b) Warfarin |
|c) Cinnarizine |
|d) Vinpocetine |
|e) Vincamine |
| |
|The following indol derivatives are used for treatment of acute migraine attack: |
|a) Paracetamol |
|b) Sumatriptan |
|c) Ergotamine |
|d) Metoclopramide |
|e) Zolmitriptan |
| |
|What are the therapeutic benefits of tonicardiacs in heart failure? |
|a) reduce tachycardia |
|b) positive inotropic action |
|c) increase in cardiac output |
|d) vasoconstrictor action |
|e) batmotropic positive action |
| |
|Indicate drugs that can be used in heart failure: |
|a) drugs which lower the contractile force of the myocardium |
|b) vasodilating drugs |
|c) diuretics |
|d) beta-2 adrenomimetics |
|e) converting enzyme inhibitors |
| |
|Indicate adverse effects characteristic for digitalis: |
|a) bradycardia |
|b) anorexia, nausea, vomiting |
|c) headache, confusion |
|d) mydriasis and hyposalivation |
|e) visual disturbances |
| |
|ECG finding(s) consistent with digitalis intoxication include: |
|a) PQ decrese |
|b) third degree heart block |
|c) sinus bradycardia |
|d) ectopic A-V junctional beats |
|e) PQ increase |
| |
|symptoms of digitalis toxicity include the following: |
|a) tachycardia |
|b) yellow halos around lights (xanthopsia) |
|c) bradycardia |
|d) no vision affection |
|e) hallucinations |
| |
|Positive inotropic agent - phosphodiesterase inhibitor: |
|a) milrinone |
|b) dopamine |
|c) amrinone |
|d) digoxin |
|e) dobutamine |
| |
|The non-glycoside positive inotropic drugs are: |
|a) Digoxin |
|b) Strophantin K |
|c) Dobutamine |
|d) Digitoxin |
|e) Amrinone |
| |
|Primary chemical components of digoxine: |
|a) fat residues |
|b) sugar residues |
|c) steroid nucleus |
|d) lactic acid residues |
|e) lactone ring |
| |
|Cardiac glycosides: principal mechanism of action: |
|a) increases vagal nerve activity |
|b) inhibits calcium transport |
|c) inhibits Na/K ATPase |
|d) activates myocardial leukotrienes |
|e) blocks beta-adrenergic receptors |
| |
|Which of the following agents belong to cardiac glycosides? |
|a) Digoxin |
|b) Strophantin K |
|c) Amrinone |
|d) Digitoxin |
|e) Adoniside |
| |
|Choose derivatives of the plant Foxglove (Digitalis): |
|a) Digoxin |
|b) Strophantin K |
|c) Dobutamine |
|d) Amrinone |
|e) Digitoxin |
| |
|All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true: |
|a) They inhibit the Na+/K+-ATPase and thereby increase intracellular Ca2+ in myocardial cells |
|b) They inhibit the H+/K+-ATPase from parietal cell |
|c) They inhibit the Na+ K+ Cl- from loop Henle |
|d) The most frequent cause of digitalis intoxication in concomitant administration with diuretics that deplete K+ |
|e) They activate the Na+/K+-ATPase |
| |
|All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true: |
|a) They inhibit the activity of the Na+/K+-ATPase |
|b) They decrease intracellular concentrations of calcium in myocytes |
|c) They increase vagal tone |
|d) They have a very low therapeutic index |
|e) They increase the tone of sympathetic system |
| |
|All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true: |
|a) Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside of medium duration of action |
|b) Digoxin increases vagal tone |
|c) Digoxin has a longer half-life than digitoxin |
|d) Digoxin acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase |
|e) Amrinone acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase |
| |
|The manifestations of glycosides intoxication are: |
|a) Visual changes |
|b) AV block |
|c) Gastrointestinal disturbances |
|d) Pseudomembranous colitis |
|e) Atrial tachyarrhythmias |
| |
|For treatment of digitalis-induced arrhythmias are used the following drugs: |
|a) Quinidine |
|b) Phenytoin |
|c) Lidocaine |
|d) Propanolol |
|e) Procainamide |
| |
|Symptoms of digitalis toxicity: |
|a) disturbed color vision |
|b) nausea |
|c) poliuria |
|d) hypertension |
|e) first-degree A-V block |
| |
|Useful in managing serious ventricular arrhythmias due to digitalis overdosage: |
|a) metoprolol |
|b) phenytoin |
|c) phenylephrine |
|d) adenosine |
|e) potassium administration |
| |
|Indicate effects characteristic for cardiac glycosides: |
|a) negative inotropic |
|b) negative dromotropic |
|c) negative chronotropic |
|d) positive dromotropic |
|e) positive inotropic |
| |
|Indicate effects at the therapeutic doses of digoxin in the heart: |
|a) intensification of the force of contractions of the heart |
|b) bradycardia |
|c) slowing of impulse transmission through the conducting system of the heart |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) decrease heart automaticity |
| |
|Specify mechanism of action of the cardotonic glycosides: |
|a) inhibits phosphodiesterase |
|b) inhibits adenylate cyclase |
|c) inhibits Na + K-ATPase |
|d) increases calcium concentration in cells |
|e) decreases calcium concentration in cells |
| |
|How is modified the concentration of free ions in cardiomyocytes under the influence of cardiac glycosides? |
|a) increases the content of potassium ions |
|b) is reduced potassium ion content |
|c) increases the content of magnesium ions |
|d) increases the content of calcium ions |
|e) is reduced content of calcium ions |
| |
|Name cardiac glycosides indications: |
|a) acute heart failure |
|b) supraventricular tachyarrhythmias |
|c) bradycardia |
|d) angina |
|e) chronic heart failure |
| |
|Name cardiac glycosides indications: |
|a) ventricular tachycardia |
|b) supraventricular tachyarrhythmias |
|c) acute and chronic heart failure |
|d) acute myocarditis |
|e) Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome |
| |
| |
|The remedies used in intoxication with cardiac glycosides: |
|potassium chloride |
|unitiol |
|phenytoin |
|digoxine |
|strophantine |
| |
|The symptoms of cardiac glycosides intoxication: |
|bradycardia |
|tachycardia |
|altered color vision (xanthopsia) |
|broncospasm |
|hyperpotasiemia |
| |
|Drug classes used in management of heart failure: |
|a) diuretics |
|b) NSAIDs |
|c) glycozides |
|d) alpha1 adrenergic agonists |
|e) bipyridines |
| |
|Effect(s) of circulating catecholamines on cardiac function: |
|a) negative dromotropism |
|b) reduced contractility |
|c) negative chronotropism |
|d) increased cardiac output |
|e) positive chronotropism |
| |
|Example(s) of drugs that improve ventricular performance: |
|a) procainamide |
|b) amrinone |
|c) xmilrinone |
|d) propranolol |
|e) levosimendan |
| |
|Cardiac glycosides are still in use today to treat: |
|bronchial asthma |
|cardiac failure |
|atrial fibrillation or flutter |
|angyna pectori |
|acute hypertention |
| |
|Name the modifications on ECG produced by cardiac glycosides in therapeutical doses: |
|no essential modifications |
|decrease of R-R |
|low amplitude of R |
|high amplitude of R |
|increasing of R-R |
| |
|Name non glycosides cardiotonics: |
|amrinone |
|corglycon |
|milrinone |
|digoxine |
|strophantine |
| |
|Choose the positive inotropic drug of glycoside structure: |
|a) Dopamine |
|b) Digoxin |
|c) Dobutamine |
|d) Adrenalin |
|e) Strophantine |
| |
|Choose the positive inotropic drug of non-glycoside structure: |
|a) Digitoxin |
|b) Digoxin |
|c) Dobutamine |
|d) Strophanthin |
|e) Milrinone |
| |
|Name steroid glycosides: |
|amrinone |
|corglycon |
|milrinone |
|digoxine |
|strophantine |
| |
| |
|List nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|dihydroergotamine mesylate |
|sumatriptan |
|ibuprofen |
|diclofenac |
|caffeine |
| |
|List triptans mechanism of action: |
|5HT1b/1d agonist in vasculature |
|antagonist of D2 receptors |
|vasoconstriction of intracranial blood vessels. |
|vasodilatation of intracranial blood vessels. |
|block calcium channels |
| |
|Name cardiac glycosides indications: |
|a) ventricular tachycardia |
|b) supraventricular tachyarrhythmias |
|c) acute and chronic heart failure |
|d) acute myocarditis |
|e) Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome |
| |
|Name selective inhibitors of myocardial phosphodiesterase III: |
|a) theophylline |
|b) dobutamine |
|c) aminophylline |
|d) amrinone |
|e) milrinone |
| |
|Note the mechanisms of action of cardiotonic digitalis: |
|a) the inhibition of Na + / K + ATPase |
|b) the stimulation of Na + / K + ATPase |
|c) increase in cytoplasmic Ca2 + in cardiac fiber |
|d) inhibiting the release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2 + |
|e) pacemaker stimulation |
| |
|Name orexygenic drugs: |
|a) Vitamins |
|b) Bitters |
|c) Amfepramone |
|d) Insulin |
|e) Carnitine |
| |
|Name drugs that stimulate appetite: |
|a) Insulin |
|b) Bitters |
|c) Sibutramine |
|d) Vitamins |
|e) Amphetamine |
| |
|List remedies with orexigenic effect: |
|cyproheptadine |
|amphetamine |
|phenfluramine |
|insulin |
|amitryptiline |
| |
|Indicate pharmacodynamic properties of cyproheptadine: |
|a) possesses anticholinergic action |
|b) possesses H1-antihistamine action |
|c) possesses antiserotonin action |
|d) excite the receptors of mouth |
|e) decreases blood glucose |
| |
|Indicate the mechanisms of action of bitter staff: |
|a) reflex stimulate hunger center |
|b) increase appetite as a result of direct action on hunger center |
|c) stimulates the pancreas function |
|d) decreases the elimination of bile |
|e) affect reflectory the central nervous system, which signals the gut to release digestive hormones that stimulate appetite |
| |
|Name the preparations that increase the appetite: |
|a) amfepranone |
|b) insulin |
|c) sibutramine |
|d) bitter stuffs |
|e) mazindol |
| |
|Name cyproheptadine indications: |
|a) gastric ulcer |
|b) allergic rhinitis |
|c) gastritis |
|d) obesity |
|e) anorexia |
| |
|Name the antacid preparations: |
|a) Magnesium trisilicate |
|b) Atropine |
|c) Magnesium oxide |
|d) Sodium bicarbonate |
|e) sucralfate |
| |
|What drugs are contraindicated in active peptic ulcer? |
|a) phenylbutazone |
|b) pentazocine |
|c) omeprazol |
|d) diazepam |
|e) acetylsalicylic acid |
| |
|Name drugs that intensify gastrointestinal motility: |
|a) Papaverine |
|b) Metoclopramide |
|c) Domperidone |
|d) Cisapride |
|e) Neostygmine |
| |
|Name the mechanism of antiemetic action of metoclopramide: |
|a) H1 and H2-receptor blocking effect |
|b) M-cholinoreceptor stimulating effect |
|c) D2-dopamine receptor blocking effect |
|d) 5-HT3-serotonin receptor blocking effect |
|e) M-cholinoblocking effect |
| |
|Name emetic drugs with reflex action: |
|a) Ipecacuanha derivatives |
|b) Apomorphine hydroclorid |
|c) Chlorpromazine |
|d) Metoclopramide |
|e) Cuprum sulphate |
| |
|Indicate emetics: |
|a) Copper sulfate |
|b) Chlorpromazine |
|c) Pepsin |
|d) Diphenhydramine |
|e) Apomorphine |
| |
|Name antiemetics: |
|a) Metoclopramide |
|b) Ondansetron |
|c) Chlorpromazine |
|d) Apomorphine hydrochloride |
|e) Cuprum sulphate |
| |
|Name drugs with antiemetic effect: |
|a) Scopolamine |
|b) Diphenhidramine |
|c) Chlorpromazine |
|d) Cyproheptadine |
|e) Amphetamine |
| |
| |
|Choose centrally-acting anti-emetics: |
|a) thiethylperazine |
|b) cholestyramine |
|c) bismuth subsalicylate |
|d) chlorpromazine |
|e) lidocaine |
| |
|Indicate antivomiting preparations: |
|a) apomorphine |
|b) metoclopramide |
|c) thiethylperazine |
|d) Paraffin oil |
|e) diphenhydramine |
| |
|Name antacids: |
|a) Misoprostol |
|b) Magnesii oxydum |
|c) Famotidine |
|d) Almagel |
|e) Omeprasole |
| |
|Antacids are: |
|a) sodium bicarbonate |
|b) omeprazole |
|c) almagel A |
|d) cimetidine |
|e) atropine |
| |
|Drug(s) used iin eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection: |
|metronidazole |
|clarithromycin |
|amoxicillin |
|remantadine |
|tetracycline |
| |
|Choose antacids that may cause constipation: |
|aluminium hydroxidum |
|aluminium carbonas |
|almagel |
|magnesii subcarbonas |
|magnesii oxydum |
| |
|Choose antacids that may cause diarrhea : |
|aluminium hydroxidum |
|aluminium carbonas |
|almagel |
|magnesii subcarbonas |
|magnesii oxydum |
| |
|Side Effects of antiacids are: |
|a) Constipation (for Aluminum compounds) |
|b) Diarrhea (for Magnesium compounds) |
|c) Decreases absorption of other drugs |
|d) Constipation (for Magnesium compounds) |
|e) Diarrhea (for Aluminum compounds) |
| |
|Indicate gastric preparations with antisecretory effect: |
|a) omeprazole |
|b) sucralfate |
|c) cimetidine |
|d) pirenzepine |
|e) carbenoxolone |
| |
|List H2 histaminoblockers: |
|famotidine |
|omeprazol |
|lansoprazol |
|ranitidine |
|cimetidine |
| |
|List proton pump inhibitors: |
|famotidine |
|omeprazol |
|lansoprazol |
|ranitidine |
|cimetidine |
| |
|Indicate the main effects of atropine in duodenal ulcer: |
|a) stimulates the secretion of gastric glands |
|b) increases the activity of pepsin |
|c) contracts pyloric sphincter |
|d) relaxeses pylorus |
|e) decreases gastric secretion |
| |
|Gastric acid secretion is under the control of the following agents: |
|a) Histamine |
|b) Acetylcholine |
|c) Serotonin |
|d) Gastrin |
|e) Somatostatine |
| |
|Remedies used in hyposecretion of digestive glands are: |
|a) neostigmine |
|b) atropine |
|c) galantamine |
|d) scopolamine |
|e) cimetidine |
| |
|Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitors: |
|a) Pirenzepine |
|b) Ranitidine |
|c) Omeprazole |
|d) Trimethaphan |
|e) Pantoprazole |
| |
|Pharmaological pecularities of omeprazole are: |
|a) is a prodrug that needs a low pH to be active |
|b) irreversible inhibits proton pump |
|c) is a competitive H2 receptor Antagonist; |
|d) blocks all types of muscarinic receptors |
|e) Chemically neutralizes stomach acid |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is an agent of substitution (replacement) therapy? |
|a) Gastrin |
|b) Diluted hydrochloric acid |
|c) Pepsin |
|d) Carbonate mineral waters |
|e) Omeprazole |
| |
|For substitution of gastric glands secretion are used: |
|a) artificial gastric juice |
|b) natural gastric juice |
|c) pepsin |
|d) omeprazole |
|e) caffeine |
| |
|Choose the drug which is a H2-receptor antagonist: |
|a) Omeprazole |
|b) Pirenzepine |
|c) Carbenoxolone |
|d) Ranitidine |
|e) Famotidine |
| |
|Indicate pharmacodynamic properties of cimetidine: |
|a) block H2 receptors |
|b) blocks M- receptors |
|c) increases the secretion of gastric juice |
|d) H1-receptor blocking |
|e) decreases the secretion of pepsin and HC |
| |
|All of the following drugs are proton pump inhibitors: |
|a) Pantoprozole |
|b) Omeprazole |
|c) Ketoconazole |
|d) Rabeprazole |
|e) Fluconazol |
| |
|Indicate the drug belonging to M1-cholinoblockers: |
|a) Cimetidine |
|b) Ranitidine |
|c) Pirenzepine |
|d) Omeprazole |
|e) Telenzepine |
| |
|Selective M1 receptor antagonists are: |
|a) pirenzepine |
|b) atropine |
|c) telenzepine |
|d) scopolamine |
|e) neostigmine |
| |
|Choose the drug that causes constipation: |
|a) Sodium bicarbonate |
|b) Aluminium hydroxide |
|c) Calcium carbonate |
|d) Magnesium oxide |
|e) Atropine |
| |
| |
|Are H2 receptor antagonist: |
|a) mizoprostol |
|b) nizatidine |
|c) omeprazole |
|d) ranitidine |
|e) famotidine |
| |
|Indicate adverse effects of cimetidine: |
|a) inhibition of liver enzymes |
|b) hypertention |
|c) hyperacidity |
|d) tachycardia |
|e) gynecomastia |
| |
|Choose anti-ulcer agents that block proton generations by parietal cells: |
|a) lansoprazole |
|b) bismuth compounds |
|c) ranitidine |
|d) omeprazole |
|e) sucralfate |
| |
|Acting at prostaglandin EP3 receptors on parietal cells & on epithelial cells prostaglandin agonists inhibits: |
|a) acid secretion |
|b) gastrin release |
|c) pepsin secretion |
|d) mucus secretion |
|e) mucosal blood flow |
| |
|Acting at prostaglandin EP3 receptors on parietal cells & on epithelial cells prostaglandin agonists stimulates: |
|a) acid secretion |
|b) gastrin release |
|c) pepsin secretion |
|d) mucus secretion |
|e) mucosal blood flow |
| |
|Mechanism of Action of Proton Pump Inhibitors: |
|bloc H2 histaminoreceptors |
|Irreversibly bind to proton pump (H+/K+ ATPase enzyme) |
|Preventing the movement of hydrogen ions from the parietal cell into the stomach |
|bloc M3 cholinoreceptors |
|contain alkaline ions that chemically neutralize stomach gastric acid |
| |
|List indications of Proton Pump Inhibitors: |
|aErosive esophagitis |
|bZollinger-Ellison syndrome |
|cTreatment of H. pylori-induced ulcers; given with an antibiotic |
|dGastric carcinoma |
|eViral hepatitis |
| |
|Name the groups of substances that reduce the secretion of gastric juice: |
|a) M-cholinoblockers |
|b) antacid remedies |
|c) antigastrinices |
|d) H2- histaminoreceptors blockers |
|e) H1- histaminoreceptors blockers |
| |
| |
| |
|Name gastroprotective drugs: |
|a) famotidine |
|b) omeprazole |
|c) sucralfate |
|d) pirenzepine |
|e) bismuth chelate |
| |
|Name gastroprotectors: |
|a) cimetidine |
|b) bismuth salts |
|c) atropine |
|d) propantheline |
|e) sucralfate |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristic of sucralfate: |
|a) weakly interacts with intact mucosa |
|b) extensively covers the ulcer |
|c) is not absorbed and does not exert systemic effects |
|d) inhibits gastric acid secretion |
|e) possesses purgative effect |
| |
|Name mechanism of action and effects of sucralfate |
|a) protects the gastric and duodenal mucosa from acid/pepsin attack |
|b) does not decrease the concentration or total amount of acid in the stomach |
|c) It works by forming a protective layer on the ulcer to serve as a barrier against acid |
|d) is weak base that neutralize HCl in the stomach |
|e) is synthetic Analog of Prostaglandin E1 |
| |
|Name gatroprotectors drugs that forms a paste-like membrane on the surface of ulcer: |
|a) carbenoxolone |
|b) mizoprosol |
|c) omeprazole |
|d) bismuth subcitrate |
|e) sucralfate |
| |
|Severe obesity may be treated by: |
|cyproheptadine |
|amphetamine |
|phenfluramine |
|insulin |
|amitryptiline |
| |
|List remedies used in pancreatic hypersecretion: |
|x aprotinine |
|atropine |
|pancreatin |
|abomine |
|festal |
| |
|Drugs indicated in acute pancreatitis: |
|a) aprotinine |
|b) atropine |
|c) neostigmine |
|d) tramadol |
|e) natural gastric juice |
| |
|List remedies used in inadequate pancreatic secretion: |
|aprotinine |
|atropine |
|pancreatin |
|abomine |
|festal |
| |
|Name preparations used in pancreas hyposecretion as substitution: |
|a) aprotinin |
|b) digestal |
|c) misoprostol |
|d) pancreatin |
|e) triferment |
| |
|What are the mechanisms of action of aprotinin in acute pancreatitis? |
|a) suppress the secretion of pancreatic juice |
|b) facilitates the excretion of pancreatic juice in the duodenum |
|c) stimulates the activity of proteolytic enzymes in the blood |
|d) inhibits the proteolytic enzymes in the blood |
|e) inhibits the proteolytic enzymes of pancreas |
| |
|Name the drugs used in the treatment of chronic pancreatitis: |
|a) panzinorm |
|b) triferment |
|c) bisacodyl |
|d) pancreatin |
|e) cimetidine |
| |
|Indicate preparations for replacement therapy in hypoacidity of gastric juice: |
|a) pepsin |
|b) natural gastric juice |
|c) artificial gastric juice |
|d) atropine |
|e) drotaverine |
| |
|Indicate characteristic of pharmacological effects of magnesium oxide: |
|a) in large doses have purgative action |
|b) causes constipation |
|c) works longer then sodium bicarbonate |
|d) neutralizes the gastric juice |
|e) acts momentanly |
| |
|Are used in treatment of diarrhea: |
|a) apomorphine |
|b) loperamide |
|c) diphenoxylate |
|d) senadexin |
|e) bisacodil |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristic of castor oil: |
|a) irritate the stomach |
|b) irritate the bowel |
|c) act in the small intestine |
|d) is activated by intestinal juice |
|e) soften the feces by increasing its volume |
| |
|Laxatives and purgatives can act through follow mechanisms: |
|a) stimulates motility through an irritative mechanism |
|b) stimulates direct cholinergic receptors |
|c) difussion growth plus active water and electrolytes secretion |
|d) water retention in the intestines through hydrophilic and osmotic force |
|e) direct softening of defecation |
| |
|Name the drugs with antidiarrheal properties: |
|a) lopiramide |
|b) abomine |
|c) atropine |
|d) morphine |
|e) castor oil |
| |
|Name 3 types of drugs with antidiarrheal properties: |
|adsorbents, mucilaginous, opioids |
|opiates, absorbents, anticholinergics |
|osmotic laxative, anticholinergics, stool softners |
|osmotic laxative, stimulants and contact laxatives, stool softners |
|cholinomimetics, stool softners, opiates |
| |
|Indicate neurotropic spasmolytics: |
|a) papaverine |
|b) atropine |
|c) butylscopolamine |
|d) neostigmine |
|e) drotaverine |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacodynamics of myotropic spasmolitics: |
|a) H2-receptors stimulates |
|b) inhibits phosphodiesterase |
|c) inhibits H2 receptors |
|d) increases the concentration of cAMP |
|e) stimulates adenylate cyclase |
| |
|Name hepatoprotective preparations: |
|a) carbenoxolone |
|b) silymarin |
|c) sucralfate |
|d) ademethionine |
|e) liv-52 |
| |
|Name hepatoprotective preparations: |
|a) silymarin |
|b) abomine |
|c) LIV-52 |
|d) Essential |
|e) Almagel |
| |
|Name the preparations from cholelitholytics group: |
|a) cholosas |
|b) ursodeoxycholic acid |
|c) alochol |
|d) chenodeoxycholic acid |
|e) colenzim |
| |
|List tensio-active drugs used for fighting flatulence: |
|a) Dimethicone |
|b) Pancreatin |
|c) Almagel |
|d) Simethicone |
|e) atropine |
| |
|Indicate the mechanisms of action of loop diuretics: |
|a) block thiol (SH) groups of the epithelial cells enzymes of ascending part of the loop of Henle |
|b) inhibit energetic processes, diminishing the active absorption of Na, Cl and partially K ions. |
|c) inhibits carbonic anhydrase as a secondary mechanism |
|d) increases osmotic pressure in the blood vessel by attracting fluid bed |
|e) inhibit aldosterone receptors and prevent mineralocorticoid effects. |
| |
|What are the main side effects of furosemide: |
|a) retain uric acid in the body |
|b) retain potassium in the body |
|c) increases excretion of calcium ions |
|d) can cause hyperglycemia |
|e) retain magnesium in the body |
| |
|Indicate adverse effects of furosemide: |
|a) ototoxicity |
|b) hypercalcaemia |
|c) dehydration |
|d) hipernatriemie |
|e) hypokalaemia |
| |
|Adverse effect(s) associated with loop diuretics: |
|a) hyperglycemia |
|b) hyperuricemia |
|c) hypercalcemia |
|d) ototoxicity |
|e) potassium depletion |
| |
|Adverse effect(s) associated with thiazide diuretic use: |
|a) hypercalcemia |
|b) hyperglycemia |
|c) ototoxicity |
|d) potassium depletion |
|e) hyperuricemia |
| |
|Characteristic of mannitol: |
|a) is antagonist of aldosterone |
|b) is indicated just in patient with cardiac failure |
|c) is used just orally |
|d) decreases the vitreous volume |
|e) can be given in acute glaucoma |
| |
|List diuretics used to treat acute intoxication: |
|a) spironolactone |
|b) mannitol |
|c) triamterene |
|d) urea |
|e) amiloride |
| |
|Which of the following diuretics agents would be the LEAST apt to cause hypokalemic alkalosis? |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Triamterene |
|d) Manitol |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|Which of the following diuretics agents would be apt to cause hypervolemia and hypertention at the beginning of the treatment? |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Urea |
|c) Triamterene |
|d) Manitol |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|Indications for thiazides: |
|a) Diabetes mellitus |
|b) Diabetus insipitus |
|c) Hypertension |
|d) Acute glaucoma |
|e) Conn's syndrome |
| |
|Diuretics used to treat hypopotasemia: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Triamterene |
|d) Manitol |
|e) Spironolactone |
| |
|The following are true with regard to acetazolamide: |
|a) is a medication used to treat glaucoma |
|b) is a medication used to treat epilepsy |
|c) is a medication used to treat altitude sickness |
|d) is a medication used to treat pulmonary edema |
|e) is a medication used to treat acute intoxications |
| |
|Choose properties of acetazolamide: |
|a) decreases potassium secretion |
|b) increases HCO-3 elimination |
|c) may produce metabolic acidosis |
|d) may produce metabolic alkalosis |
|e) inhibits carbonic anhydrase |
| |
|Choose diuretics least likely to produce hypokalemia: |
|a) chlortalidon |
|b) amilorid |
|c) furosemide |
|d) triamterene |
|e) ethacrynic acid |
| |
| |
|Characteristics of mannitol: |
|a) is a loop Henle diuretic |
|b) is poorly absorbed from the gut |
|c) is used in the treatment of cerebral oedema |
|d) is completely filtered at the renal glomeruli and not reabsorbed from the renal tubule |
|e) is carbonic anhydrase inhibitor |
| |
|Which of the following statements about spironolactone is TRUE? |
|a) Spironolactone reverses many of the manifestations of aldosteronism |
|b) Spironolactone is also an androgen antagonist |
|c) Spironolactone is useful as a diuretic |
|d) Spironolactone is useful as an anti diabetic agent |
|e) Spironolactone is useful as an anti gout drug |
| |
|Potassium sparing diuretic: |
|a) acetazolamide |
|b) triamteren |
|c) chlorothiazide |
|d) bumetanide |
|e) amiloride |
| |
|All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true: |
|a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition leads to increased reabsorption of NaHCO3 |
|b) Loop diuretics increase Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site on the Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter |
|c) Loop diuretics decrease Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site on the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter |
|d) In general, the potency of a diuretic is determined by where it acts in the renal tubule |
|e) Hydrochlorothiazide decreases urinary calcium excretion |
| |
|These drugs should never be administered to patients taking potassium supplements: |
|a) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|b) Amilorid |
|c) Furosemide (Lasix) |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Triamterene |
| |
|The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Indapamid |
|c) Spironolactone |
|d) Sulthiam |
|e) Torasemide |
| |
|The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule: |
|a) Loop diuretics |
|b) Thiazide diuretics |
|c) Potassium-sparing diuretics |
|d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|e) Thiazide like diuretics |
| |
|List Loop diuretics: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Torasemide |
| |
|These drugs act by affecting the tubular fluid composition by increasing of osmotic pressure: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Acetazolamide |
|c) Triamterene |
|d) Mannitol |
|e) Urea |
| |
|List drugs used in gout treatment: |
|a) xallopurinol |
|b) furosemide |
|c) sulphinpyrazone |
|d) aspirin |
|e) acetazolamide |
| |
|List drugs used in gout crises: |
|a) prednisolone |
|b) aspirin |
|c) dexamethasone |
|d) penicillin |
|e) acetazolamide |
| |
|Potassium sparing diuretics: |
|a) Bumetanide |
|b) Chlorothiazide |
|c) Amiloride |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Mannitol |
| |
|The drug inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Spironolactone |
|c) Sultiam |
|d) Acetazolamide |
|e) Torasemide |
| |
|The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Indapamide |
| |
|The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors, except: |
|a) Acetazolamide |
|b) Furosemide |
|c) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|d) Spironolactone |
|e) Triamteren |
| |
|The drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks Na+ channels in the collecting tubules: |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Amiloride |
|c) Spironolactone |
|d) Triamteren |
|e) Hydrochlorothiazide |
| |
|The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect, except: |
|a) Spironolactone |
|b) Hydrochlorothiazide |
|c) Furosemide |
|d) Amiloride |
|e) Triamteren |
| |
|The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter: |
|a) Ehacrinic acid |
|b) Indapamid |
|c) Spironolactone |
|d) Furosemide |
|e) Acetazolamide |
| |
| |
| |
| |
| |
| |
| |
|Name of heparin therapeutic indications: |
|a) thrombophlebitis |
|b) thromboses and thrombembolisms |
|c) to prevent osteoporosis |
|d) cardiac and vascular surgery |
|e) anemias |
| |
|Name heparin therapeutic indications: |
|a) Thrombophlebitis |
|b) Deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism |
|c) Thrombocytopenia |
|d) Brain aneurysm |
|e) Myocardial Infarction |
| |
|Characteristics of warfarin: |
|a) inhibits the vitamin K-dependent synthesis of clotting factors |
|b) inhibit tromboxane activity |
|c) is indirect anticuagulant |
|d) is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal system |
|e) the common side effect is bleeding. |
| |
|Characteristic of warfarin: |
|a) has a higher molecular weight than heparin |
|b) is metabolized chiefly by liver |
|c) works directly binding with AT III |
|d) interferes with the production of factor II, VII, IX and X |
|e) its control is based on the prothrombin time |
| |
|Characteristic of Heparin: |
|a) is found in the human mast cells |
|b) is not active if given orally |
|c) lowers the plasma triglyceride level |
|d) binds to anti-thrombin III and increases its inactivation of thrombin |
|e) is reversed by administration of vitamin K |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristics for nadroparin: |
|a) prophylaxis of thromboembolic disease |
|b) equal anticoagulant and antifybrinolitic actions |
|c) low molecular weight heparin |
|d) high molecular weight heparin |
|e) oral and injectable administration |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological effects of heparin: |
|a) binds to the enzyme antithrombin III |
|b) inactivates thrombin, factor Xa and other proteases |
|c) has additional anti-inflammatory action |
|d) favors platelets agglutination |
|e) atherosclerotic action |
| |
|Nume indications of heparin: |
|a) thrombophlebitis |
|b) arterial thrombosis and embolia |
|c) myocardial infarction |
|d) cardiac and vascular surgery |
|e) anemia |
| |
|Name pharmacodinamic effects of cumarinic anticoagulants: |
|a) decrease hepatic synthesis of factors: II, VII, IX, X |
|b) antifibrinolytic action |
|c) are antimetabolites of vitamin K |
|d) decrease platelet aggregation |
|e) are used parenterally |
| |
|Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of dipyridamole: |
|a) inhibits TXA2 synthesis through acetilation of cyclooxygenase |
|b) blocks uptake and metabolism of adenosine |
|c) serotonin antagonist effect |
|d) inhibits phosphodiesterase and increases the AMPc |
|e) inhibits synthesis of TXA2 by blocking thromboxane synthase |
| |
|All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment: |
|a) Anticoagulant drugs |
|b) Antifibrinolitic drugs |
|c) Fibrinolitic drugs |
|d) Antiplatelet drugs |
|e) Coagulant drugs |
| |
|Choose the drug belonging to anticoagulants of direct action: |
|a) acetylsalicylic acid |
|b) Heparin |
|c) Acenocumarol |
|d) Phenandione |
|e) Nandroparin |
| |
|Choose drugs used as oral anticoagulants: |
|a) Enoxaparin |
|b) Acenocumarol |
|c) Daltreparin |
|d) Heparin |
|e) Warfarin |
| |
|Choose antiplatelet agents: |
|a) Dipyridamole |
|b) Ticlopidine |
|c) Heparin |
|d) Dazoxiben |
|e) Lamifiban |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors? |
|a) Acetylsalicylic acid |
|b) Clopidogrel |
|c) Ticlopidine |
|d) Abciximab |
|e) Eptifibatide |
| |
|Which of the following drugs are fibrinolytics? |
|a) Ticlopidine |
|b) Streptokinase |
|c) Acetylsalicylic acid |
|d) Warfarin |
|e) Alteplase |
| |
|Fibrinolytic drugs are used for following: |
|a) Acute myocardial infarction |
|b) Heart failure |
|c) Multiple pulmonary emboli |
|d) Central deep venous thrombosis |
|e) GI bleedings |
| |
|Indicate the drug belonging to fibrinoliytic inhibitors: |
|a) Aminocapronic acid |
|b) Ticlopidine |
|c) Streptokinase |
|d) Vitamin K |
|e) Tranexanic acid |
| |
| |
|Indicate the drugs used in deep venouse thrombosis: |
|a) phytomenadione |
|b) alteplase |
|c) aminocapronic acid |
|d) heparin |
|e) aprotinine |
| |
|Name phytomenadione contraindications: |
|a) tromboembolia |
|b) thrombophlebitis |
|c) blood hypercoagulability |
|d) overdose of coumarins |
|e) hipovitaminosis K |
| |
|Pharmacological characteristics of phytomenadione are: |
|a) promotes hepatic synthesis of clotting factors |
|b) the effect increases in case of liver cells damege |
|c) used to treat haemorrhages related to vitamin K deficiency |
|d) antidote is protamine sulfate |
|e) binds to the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III (AT) |
| |
|Indicate antifibrinolytic drugs: |
|a) carbazocrom |
|b) aminocaproic acid |
|c) batroxobin |
|d) aprotinine |
|e) etamsilat |
| |
|Pinpoint causes of acetylsalicylic acid should be avoided in patients under treatment with heparin: |
|a) inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K |
|b) interfers with metabolism of heparin |
|c) is fibrinolytic |
|d) inhibit the aggregation of platelets |
|e) causes hemorrage because of tromboxane inhibition |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristics of warfarin: |
|a) inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X |
|b) is avoided in pregnancy |
|c) used just intravenously |
|d) indicated in the treatment of thrombosis |
|e) is oral anticoagulant |
| |
|Name indications of heparine: |
|a) thrombophlebitis |
|b) arterial thromboses and embolia |
|c) hemophilia |
|d) brain aneurysm |
|e) myocardial infarction |
| |
|Indicate the heparin drugs with low molecular weight: |
|a) clopidogrel |
|b) enoxaparin |
|c) dalteprarin |
|d) hirudin |
|e) nadroparin |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristics of clopidogrel: |
|a) is drug of heparin |
|b) stimulates antithrombin II, and blocks thrombin and X factor |
|c) selectively and irreversibly inhibits platelets receptors of ADP and decrease aggregation |
|d) used for the prevention of thrombosis |
|e) may cause thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemorrhage |
| |
|Indicate the antiaggregant drugs: |
|a) abciximab |
|b) tirofibad |
|c) heparin |
|d) eptifibatide |
|e) acenocumarol |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristics of streptokinase: |
|a) fibrinolytic action |
|b) is indicated in thrombophlebitis |
|c) antiaggregant effect |
|d) inhibits the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver |
|e) is contraindicated in the postoperative period |
| |
|What are the differences between heparins with low molecular weight(LMWH) versus standard heparin: |
|a) oral administration for LMWH |
|b) marked inhibition of Factor Xa for LMWH |
|c) marked human thrombin inhibition for LMWH |
|d) x longer duration of action of for LMWH |
|e) for LMWH does not cause osteoporosis |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacological characteristic for coumarin anticoagulants (oral): |
|a) fast action and short-duration |
|b) inactivates the enzymes and complex factors Xa, IXa, XIIa, XIa |
|c) are active both in vitro and in vivo |
|d) in case of hemorrhagic accidents specific antidote is phytomenadione |
|e) pass through the placental barrier, and in breast milk |
| |
|Indicate pharmacological characteristics of streptokinase: |
|a) is extracted from Streptomices venezuelae cultures filtrate |
|b) activates convertion of plasminogen in plasmin (fibrinolyitic enzyme) |
|c) long half-life allows oral administration |
|d) can be useful in acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, deep vein thrombosis, peripheral artery occlusion |
|e) has not been described serious adverse reactions |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacological peculiarities of acetylsalicylic acid as platelet antiaggregatory agent: |
|a) used 1 time per week |
|b) is useful (among other information) in patients with unstable angina, suspects of myocardial infarction |
|c) its given in high doses |
|d) is given by inhibiting cyclooxygenase |
|e) main contraindications are allergy, gastrointestinal bleeding, peptic ulcer |
| |
|Indicate anti-haemorrhagics with systemic action: |
|a) heparin |
|b) nandroparine |
|c) phytomenadione |
|d) fibrinogen |
|e) blood clotting factors |
| |
|Name preparations used for local hemostasis: |
|a) epinephrine |
|b) thromboplastin |
|c) thrombin |
|d) fibrin |
|e) phytomenadion |
| |
|Indicate hemostatics with antifibrinolytic mechanism of acting: |
|a) tromboplastin |
|b) aprotinin |
|c) aminocaproic acid |
|d) etamsilate |
|e) carbazochrome |
| |
|Indicate drugs used in leucopenia: |
|a) heparin |
|b) methyluracil |
|c) cyanocobalamine |
|d) pentoxil |
|e) phenindione |
| |
|Indicate the coagulant drugs: |
|a) menadione |
|b) cyanocobalamine |
|c) thrombin |
|d) acenocumarol |
|e) heparin |
| |
|Indicate hemostatics: |
|a) acenocumarol |
|b) aminocaproic acid |
|c) warfarine |
|d) fibrinogen |
|e) heparin |
| |
|Indicate hemostatics with topic action: |
|a) heparin |
|b) trombin |
|c) menadion |
|d) human fibrine |
|e) gelatine |
| |
|Indicate direct anticoagulants: |
|a) heparin |
|b) acenocumarol |
|c) fibrinolysin |
|d) nadroparin |
|e) sodium hydrocytrate |
| |
|Indicate the indirect anticoagulants: |
|a) acenocumarol |
|b) heparin |
|c) phenindione |
|d) warfarin |
|e) sodium cytrate |
| |
|Name antifibrinolytics indications: |
|a) hyperfibrinolysis |
|b) thrombophlebitis |
|c) acute pancreatitis |
|d) traumatic, hemorrhagic and septic shock |
|e) myocardial infarction |
| |
|Name fibrinolytics indications: |
|a) pulmonary thrombembolia |
|b) acute myocardic infarction |
|c) arterial and venoase thrombosis |
|d) thrombocytopenia |
|e) hyperfibrinolysis |
| |
|Name indications of indirect coagulants: |
|a) gastric hemorrhage |
|b) thrombophlebitis |
|c) parenchymal and capillary hemorrhages |
|d) indirect anticoagulants overdose |
|e) arterial and venous thrombosis |
| |
|Indicate the mechanism of anticoagulant action of heparin: |
|a) activates antihtrombin III |
|b) decrease activity of factors IX,X,XI,XII and calicrein |
|c) inhibits tromboplastin activitaty and blocks convertion of protrombin in trombin |
|d) inhibits protrombine synthesis in the liver |
|e) activates natural fibrinolysis |
| |
|Name antiaggregants indications: |
|a) arterial thrombosis prophylaxis |
|b) myocardial infarction |
|c) ischemic cardiopathy |
|d) cerebral circulatory disorders |
|e) parenchymal and capillary hemorrhage |
| |
|Name antifibrinolytics indications: |
|a) haemorrhages caused by hyperfibrinolysis |
|b) predisposition to thrombosis |
|c) hepatic cirrhosis |
|d) streptokinase overdose |
|e) arterial thrombosis |
| |
|Indicate the mechanism of antifibrinolytic effect of aminocapronic acid: |
|a) decrease plasmin activity |
|b) inhibits synthesis of clothing factors |
|c) increase plasmin activity |
|d) use in the treatment of thrombosis |
|e) use in the treatment of acute bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity |
| |
|Indicate pharmacologic characteristics of indirect anticoagulants: |
|a) absorbed orally |
|b) inhibit epoxi-reductase that convert vit. K to active form of vit. K |
|c) they cross the placental barrier |
|d) used in hemorrhagic syndrome |
|e) are safe drugs and can be used in pregnancy |
| |
|Name the drugs which stimulates leucopoesis: |
|a) cyanocobalamine |
|b) pentoxil |
|c) iron sulphate |
|d) sodium nucleinat |
|e) coamide |
| |
|Name main characteristics of heparin: |
|a) active both in vivo and in vitro |
|b) the effect appears after 18-24 hours and last for some hours |
|c) activates antithrombin III |
|d) the effect appears almost immediately, and lasts for 3-6 hours |
|e) inbibits blood clotting only in vitro |
| |
|Which drugs decrease platelets aggregation? |
|a) dazoxiben |
|b) acetylsalycylic acid |
|c) ridogrel |
|d) streptokinase |
|e) heparin |
| |
|Inhibition of which enzymes are the base of antiaggregants actions: |
|a) monoaminoxidase |
|b) phosphodiesterase |
|c) lipooxygenase |
|d) cholinesterase |
|e) cyclooxygenase |
| |
|Name direct anticoagulants: |
|a) acenocumarol |
|b) heparin |
|c) sodium cytrate |
|d) nadroparine |
|e) streptokinase |
| |
| |
|With regard to iron drug in the human body: |
|a) it is stored chiefly in the bone marrow |
|b) 70% of iron in the body is found in the haemoglobin |
|c) it is transported in the body as transferrin |
|d) it is absorbed mainly in the ferric form |
|e) the liver excretes excess iron |
| |
|Pernicious anemia is: |
|a) A severe form of anemia most often affecting elderly adults, caused by a failure of the stomach to absorb vitamin B12 |
|b) A form of anemia in which the capacity of the bone marrow to generate red blood cells is defective, caused by a bone marrow disease or |
|exposure to toxic agents, such as radiation, chemicals, or drugs |
|c) Anemia characterized by a decrease in the concentration of corpuscular hemoglobin |
|d) Is characterized by abnormally large red blood cells, gastrointestinal disturbances, and lesions of the spinal cord |
|e) Anemia characterized by an increase in the concentration of corpuscular hemoglobin |
| |
|The administration of histamine in man can produce: |
|a) bronchodilatation |
|b) increased gastric acid secretion |
|c) vasodilation and edemas |
|d) negative chronotropic action |
|e) reduced secretion of intrinsic factors |
| |
|Indicate effects characteristic for the NSAIDs remedies: |
|a) xanti-inflammatory |
|b) antihistamine |
|c) adrenergic |
|d) ganglioblocant |
|e) analgesic |
| |
|Common Uses of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS): |
|a) used to increase intraocular pressure |
|b) used to relieve pain |
|c) used in bronchal asthma |
|d) used to treat arthritis |
|e) used to reduce signs of inflammation |
| |
|Name correctly the mechanism of action for acetylsalicylic acid: |
|a) inhibits phospholipase A2 |
|b) inhibit cyclooxygenase |
|c) decreased prostaglandin production |
|d) increases thromboxane A2 production |
|e) decreases leukotrienes |
| |
|Name effects of piroxicam: |
|a) analgesic |
|b) antispasmodic |
|c) anti-inflammatory |
|d) anxiolitic |
|e) anticoagulant |
| |
|What effects are caused by inhibition of COX synthesis? |
|a) antiplatelet |
|b) immunosuppressive |
|c) antiallergic |
|d) antipyretic |
|e) analgesic |
| |
|What are the mechanisms of action of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid? |
|a) inhibits platelet aggregation by stimulating adenylate cyclase |
|b) intensifies the synthesis of thromboxane A2 |
|c) inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane A2 |
|d) irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase |
|e) inhibits phosphodiesterase |
| |
|Name typical effects of steroidal anti-inflammatory remedies: |
|a) xanti-inflammatory |
|b) immunostimulatory |
|c) desensitizing |
|d) immunosuppressive |
|e) cholinomimetic |
| |
|Choose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Phenylbutazone |
|b) Ketoprofen |
|c) Ketorolac |
|d) Triamcinolone |
|e) Hydroxychloroquine |
| |
|Choose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs from propionic (arilpropionic) acid derivatives: |
|a) phenylbutazone |
|b) ketorolac |
|c) ibuprofen |
|d) diclofenac |
|e) naproxen |
| |
|Choose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs from indole derivatives: |
|a) Indomethacin |
|b) Sulindac |
|c) diclofenac |
|d) Ketoprofen |
|e) Naproxen |
| |
|Choose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs from oxicams: |
|a) Indomethacin |
|b) Sulindac |
|c) Piroxicam |
|d) Tenoxicam |
|e) Lornoxicam |
| |
|Choose non-selective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Meloxicam |
|b) Celecoxib |
|c) Piroxicam |
|d) Tenoxicam |
|e) Lornoxicam |
| |
|Choose selective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Meloxicam |
|b) Celecoxib |
|c) Piroxicam |
|d) Tenoxicam |
|e) Lornoxicam |
| |
|Choose steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Meloxicam |
|b) Celecoxib |
|c) Prednisone |
|d) Prednisolone |
|e) Methylprednisolone |
| |
|Choose steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs with moderate anti-inflammatory and mineralocorticoid effects: |
|a) Cortisone |
|b) Hydrocortisone |
|c) Prednisone |
|d) Prednisolone |
|e) Methylprednisolone |
| |
|Choose steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs with marked anti-inflammatory effect and practically free from effects of salt and water retention: |
|a) Cortisone |
|b) Betamethasone |
|c) Dexamethasone |
|d) Prednisolone |
|e) Methylprednisolone |
| |
|Choose slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs from gold compounds: |
|a) Sodium aurothiomalate |
|b) Aurothioprol |
|c) Auranofin |
|d) Phenylbutazone |
|e) Hydroxychloroquine |
| |
|Choose slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs from 4-aminoquinoline derivatives: |
|a) Sodium aurothiomalate |
|b) Aurothioprol |
|c) Chloroquine |
|d) Phenylbutazone |
|e) Hydroxychloroquine |
| |
|Choose slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs from cytotoxics: |
|a) Cyclophosphamide |
|b) Azathioprine |
|c) Methotrexate |
|d) Chloroquine |
|e) Hydroxychloroquine |
| |
|Choose characteristics of COX-2: |
|a) It is a constitutive enzyme expressed in most tissues |
|b) It has a "housekeeping" role in the body |
|c) It is induced in inflammatory cells when they are injured |
|d) It is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated by the inflammatory cytokine - IL-1 |
|e) It is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated by the inflammatory cytokine - TNF-alpha |
| |
|Mechanisms of action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Block COX |
|b) Block phospholipase A2 |
|c) Block 5 lipooxigenase |
|d) block synthesis of leucotriens |
|e) Decrease synthesis of prostaglandins |
| |
|Mechanisms of action of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Block Cholinestarase |
|b) Block phospholipase A2 |
|c) Activate directly COX2 |
|d) Activate 5 lipooxigenase |
|e) Decrease synthesis of prostaglandins |
| |
|Mechanisms of action of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Decrease expression of COX-2 |
|b) Increase synthesis of lipocortine |
|c) Decrease synthesis of lipocortine |
|d) Increase synthesis of prostaglandins |
|e) Decrease synthesis of leukotriens |
| |
|Choose the effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Anti-inflammatory |
|b) Analgesic |
|c) Antipyretic |
|d) Bronchodilator |
|e) Decrease blood pressure |
| |
|Choose the effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Antiagregant |
|b) Moderate desensitizing |
|c) Tocolytic |
|d) Orexigenic |
|e) Anorexigenic |
| |
|Choose peculiarities of analgesic effect of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) They are effective against mild or moderate pain |
|b) They are effective against pain arising from inflammation |
|c) Their ability to relieve headache may be related to the reduction in vasodilator prostaglandins acting on the cerebral vasculature |
|d) Their analgesic effect develops only when used in combination with opiod analgesics |
|e) Higher analgesic effect than opioids |
| |
|Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Ankylosing spondylitis |
|b) Dysmenorrhoea |
|c) Acute gout |
|d) Arterial hypertension |
|e) Bleedings from varicose veins of the esophagus |
| |
|Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Headache and migraine |
|b) Musculoskeletal injuries and pain |
|c) Osteoarthritis |
|d) Gastric ulcer |
|e) Duodenal ulcer |
| |
|Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Postoperative pain |
|b) Rheumatoid arthritis |
|c) Secondary prevention of vascular events among patients with a history of vascular events |
|d) Bronchial asthma |
|e) Hemorrhagic cerebro-vascular accidents |
| |
|Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Hyperpyrexia (fever) |
|b) Migaine |
|c) Osteoarthritis |
|d) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome |
|e) Hyperprolactinemia |
| |
|Choose specific side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) hemathopoetic deregulations |
|b) Gastrointestinal bleeding |
|c) Interstitial nephritis |
|d) Arterial hypotension |
|e) Bradycardia |
| |
|Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Bronchospasm |
|b) Renal papillary necrosis |
|c) Gastric ulcers |
|d) Bronchodilation |
|e) Osteoporosis |
| |
|Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Gastrointestinal bleedings |
|b) Thrombocytopenia |
|c) Aspirin - Reye's syndrome |
|d) Tachycardia |
|e) Hyperglycemia |
| |
|Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Suppression of gastroprotective prostaglandins in the gastric mucosa |
|b) Neutropenia |
|c) Abnormal liver function tests and rare liver failure |
|d) Moon face |
|e) Buffalo hump |
| |
|Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Aplastic anemia |
|b) Cutanous rashes |
|c) Reversible renal insufficiency |
|d) Obesity |
|e) Rebound syndrome |
| |
|Which of the following property combinations is peculiar to the majority of NSAIDs? |
|a) Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic |
|b) Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory |
|c) Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic |
|d) Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-aggregant effect |
|e) Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic |
| |
|Which of the following are NSAIDs? |
|a) Indomethacin |
|b) Clarithromycin |
|c) Metamizole |
|d) Diclofenac |
|e) Ketorolac |
| |
|Which of the following NSAIDs are not indol derivatives? |
|a) Diclofenac |
|b) Meclofenamic acid |
|c) Indomethacin |
|d) Ibuprofen |
|e) Ketorolac |
| |
|Which of the following NSAIDs are selective COX-2 inhibitors? |
|a) Diclofenac |
|b) Celecoxib |
|c) Indomethacin |
|d) Piroxicam |
|e) Nimesulid |
| |
|The following statements concerning acetylsalicylic acid are true: |
|a) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits tromboxane A2 formation |
|b) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits phospholipase A2 |
|c) Acetylsalicylic acid causes Reye syndrome |
|d) Acetylsalicylic acid irreversibly inhibits COX |
|e) Acetylsalicylic acid stimulates tromboxane A2 formation |
| |
|Indication for acetylsalicylic acid administration are the following: |
|a) Reducing elevated body temperature |
|b) Relieving severe visceral pain in acute abdomenum |
|c) Decreasing the incidence of transient ischemic attack |
|d) Treatment of gastric ulcer |
|e) Inflammatory conditions |
| |
|Anti-inflammatory effect of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs develops due to: |
|a) Decreased recruitment of WBC (White blood cells) and monocyte-macrophage into affected areas |
|b) Decreased elaboration of chemotactic substances |
|c) Increased lipocortin synthesis |
|d) Decreased lipocortin synthesis |
|e) Increased recruitment of WBC and monocyte-macrophage into affected areas |
| |
|Anti-inflammatory effect of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs develops due to: |
|a) Decreased synthesis of IL1 by monocyte-macrophage |
|b) Decreased formation of plasminogen activator |
|c) Decreased synthesis of arachidonic acid |
|d) Increased synthesis of IL1 by monocyte-macrophage |
|e) Increased formation of plasminogen activator |
| |
|Anti-inflammatory effect of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs develops due to: |
|a) Decreased fibroblastic activity |
|b) Decreased expression of COX-2 |
|c) Increased synthesis of arachidonic acid |
|d) Increased expression of COX-2 |
|e) Decreased expression of lipocortin |
| |
|Choose contraindications for steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Vaginal yeast infections |
|b) Patients who are in high risk for infection |
|c) Peptic ulcer |
|d) Systemic lupus erythematosus |
|e) Wegener's granulomatosis |
| |
|Choose contraindications for steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Fungal infections |
|b) Diabetes mellitus |
|c) Hypertension |
|d) Rheumatoid arthritis |
|e) Psoriatic arthritis |
| |
|Choose synonyms of slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) Anti-rheumatoid drugs |
|b) Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) |
|c) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) |
|d) Steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (SAIDs) |
|e) Selective COX-2 inhibitors |
| |
|Name slow-acting , anti-inflammatory drugs: |
|a) chloroquine |
|b) prednisone |
|c) diclofenac |
|d) D-penicillamine |
|e) cortisol |
| |
|What side effects can be caused by glucocorticoids? |
|a) increased blood pressure |
|b) increased intraocular pressure |
|c) central nervous system stimulation |
|d) hyperkalemia |
|e) gynecomastia |
| |
|Chronic administration of glucocorticoids results in: |
|a) hypertension |
|b) hyperkalaemia |
|c) hypercalcemia |
|d) hyperglicemia |
|e) ocular hypertension |
| |
|Corticosteroid inhibits: |
|a) inflammatory proceses |
|b) allergic reactions |
|c) immunity |
|d) gluconeogenesis |
|e) lipocortin production |
| |
|The following are true about corticosteroids: |
|a) they are synthesized in the adrenal medulla |
|b) are produced in the adrenal cortex |
|c) chronic use may predispose to cataract and retinopathy. |
|d) they suppress immune reactions |
|e) cause a movement of body fat to the face and torso |
| |
|Choose pharmacological properties of gold compounds: |
|a) Alter morphology and function of macrophages |
|b) Are used in early stages of adult and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis |
|c) Side effects are cutaneous reactions such as erythema and exfoliative dermatitis |
|d) Side effects are blood dyscrasias and renal toxicity |
|e) Block COX (cyclooxigenase) and LOX-5 (lipoxygenase -5) |
| |
|Choose correct affirmations concerning mechanisms of action of 4-aminoquinoline derivatives: |
|a) Suppress T-lymphocyte responses to mitogens |
|b) Decrease leukocyte chemotaxis |
|c) Stabilize lysosomal enzymes |
|d) Block COX-1 (cyclooxigenase 1) |
|e) Block COX-2 (cyclooxigenase 2) |
| |
|Choose correct affirmations concerning mechanisms of action of 4-aminoquinoline derivatives: |
|a) Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis |
|b) Trapping of free radicals |
|c) Block PL-A2 (phospholipase A2) |
|d) Increase expression of lipocortin |
|e) Decrease expression of lipocortin |
| |
|Name anti-inflammatory effects of 4-aminochinolinic derivatives? |
|a) do not change radiological manifestations of the disease |
|b) develop slowly, not earlier than 4-8 weeks, up to 6-12 months, with reduction of inflammation, and rheumatoid factor titre |
|c) are associated with the analgesics |
|d) appear rapidly, and are used in the acute period |
|e) are used to reduce platelet aggregation |
| |
|Choose pharmacological properties of hydroxychloroquine: |
|a) Is used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis |
|b) Is used in the treatment of juvenile chronic arthritis |
|c) Can cause retinal degeneration |
|d) Block PL-A2 (phospholipase A2) |
|e) Increase expression of lipocortin |
| |
|Choose pharmacological properties of hydroxychloroquine: |
|a) Is used for short-term treatment of acute malaria |
|b) Is used in the treatment of Systemic lupus erythematosus |
|c) Can affect the eyes |
|d) Can cause rheumatoid arthritis |
|e) Can cause Systemic lupus erythematosus |
| |
|Choose pharmacological properties of penicillamine: |
|a) works by binding heavy metals |
|b) should not be used in combination with gold compounds |
|c) it is used in the treatment of Sclerodermia |
|d) side effect is aplastic anemia |
|e) It is used in the treatment of postoperative pain |
| |
|Choose pharmacological properties of penicillamine: |
|a) Penicillamine works by binding heavy metals |
|b) It is used in the treatment of resistant cases of rheumatoid arthritis |
|c) Side effect is membranous glomerulonephritis |
|d) It is used in the treatment of aplastic anemia |
|e) It has antipyretic action |
| |
|Name drugs used in immediate-allergy : |
|a) dexamethasone |
|b) clemastine |
|c) epinephrine |
|d) metotrexat |
|e) chloroquine |
| |
|Indicate the pharmacological effects of H1-antihistamines: |
|a) antivomiting effect |
|b) hypnotic effect |
|c) antiallergic effects |
|d) gastric antisecretory effect |
|e) immunostimulatory |
| |
|Name additional nonhistamine-related effects of antihitamines: |
|a) Antimuscarinic reduction in bladder tone |
|b) Local anesthetic effects if the drug is injected |
|c) Anti-motion sickness effects |
|d) Increase in total peripheral resistance |
|e) Sedation |
| |
|Name effects of antihistamines : |
|a) Euphoria and /or disphorya |
|b) Anticholinergic peripheral effect |
|c) Vomiting |
|d) Antiemetic |
|e) Sedation |
| |
|Which of the H1 antihistamines are used to prevent vomiting? |
|a) astemisol |
|b) promethazine |
|c) terfenadine |
|d) diphenhydramine |
|e) loratadine |
| |
|These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for sedative effects: |
|a) Phenothiazines; |
|b) Ethylenediamines; |
|c) Ethanolamines |
|d) Piperidines; |
|e) Piperazines |
| |
|These histamine H1 antagonists are recognized for as second-generation antihistamines: |
|a) Phenothiazines; |
|b) Ethylenediamines; |
|c) Ethanolamines |
|d) Piperidines; |
|e) Piperazines |
| |
|Indications for administration of 1st generation histamine H1 antagonists are the following: |
|a) Treatment of sleep disorders |
|b) Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ("morning sickness") |
|c) Management of seizure states |
|d) Alcoholism |
|e) Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria) |
| |
|Side effects of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists are: |
|a) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding |
|b) Sedation |
|c) Dry mouth |
|d) Vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing |
|e) Aplastic anemia |
| |
| |
|The following are true about anti-histamines 1st generation: |
|a) they inhibit the release of histamines from mast cells |
|b) they have anticholinergic effects |
|c) they can be used as anti-emetic agents |
|d) they increase blood pressure |
|e) they reduce gastric secretion |
| |
|Name drugs from the I-generation antihistamines: |
|a) - chloropyramine |
|b) - clemastine |
|c) - loratadine |
|d) - cetirizine |
|e) - diphenhydramine |
| |
|Name contraindications for H1 antihistamines: |
|a) drivers |
|b) hepatic and renal insufficiency |
|c) depressive states |
|d) rhinitis |
|e) hight fever |
| |
|Pharmacodynamic actions of H1 antihistamines, to antagonize the effects of histamine are: |
|a) prevent bronchial spasm |
|b) prevents uterine spasm |
|c) total antagonize the effects of anaphylactic shock |
|d) prevents intestinal spasm |
|e) decrease gastric secretion |
| |
|Ketotifen has the following properties: |
|a) antiserotoninic |
|b) blocks H1 receptors |
|c) inhibit degranulation of mast cell |
|d) anticholinergic |
|e) inhibits histamine release |
| |
|Name antiallergic without sedative effects: |
|a) astemizole |
|b) diphenhydramine |
|c) loratadine |
|d) promethazine |
|e) clemastine |
| |
|Name effects of H1-antihistamines (I generation) : |
|a) antiallergic |
|b) emetic |
|c) sedative |
|d) hypothermic |
|e) orexigen |
| |
|Contraindications and precautions for H1-antihistamines 1st generation : |
|a) prostate hypertrophy |
|b) Menier disease |
|c) hypotension |
|d) liver and kidney disease |
|e) polynosis |
| |
|Name mechanism of action of H1 antihistamins: |
|a) contain a groupe ethanolamino as histamine has, works competitively |
|b) works by preventing the release of natural chemicals from cells in the body (mast cells) involved in an allergic reaction |
|c) inhibit competitively H1 receptors and the corresponding effects i. e. vasodilation and capillary permeability increase |
|d) are envisaged to enhance body's resistance against infections |
|e) do not inhibit antigen/antibodies reactions, nor histamine release, they inhibit H1 effects |
| |
|Name I generation antihistamines: |
|a) cloropiramine |
|b) clemastine |
|c) loratadine |
|d) cetirizine |
|e) x, diphenhydramine |
| |
|The following are mast cell stabilizers: |
|a) disodium cromoglycate |
|b) loratadine |
|c) ketotifen |
|d) clemastine |
|e) nedocromil |
| |
|The effects of anti-histamines of I generation: |
|a) sedation |
|b) arrhythmogenic effect |
|c) atropine like effects |
|d) anti-vomiting effect |
|e) local anesthetic effect |
| |
|Name pharmacological effects of H1-antihistamines (I generation): |
|a) antiallergic |
|b) emetic |
|c) antiparkinsonian |
|d) hypothermic |
|e) anorectic |
| |
|Indication for administration of histamine H1 antagonists is: |
|a) Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria) |
|b) Motion sickness and vestibular disturbances |
|c) Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ("morning sickness") |
|d) Gastric and duodenal ulcer |
|e) Acute pancreatitis |
| |
|These histamine H1 antagonists are recognized for as second-generation antihistamines: |
|a) Astemizole |
|b) Loratadine |
|c) Cetirizine |
|d) Clemastine |
|e) Chlorophiramine |
| |
|Indications for administration of histamine H1 antagonists are the following: |
|a) Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria) |
|b) Management of seizure states |
|c) Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ("morning sickness") |
|d) Treatment of sleep disorders |
|e) Acute psychosis |
| |
|Choose examples of second-generation antihistamine: |
|a) loratadine |
|b) cyproheptadine |
|c) astemizole |
|d) diphenhydramine |
|e) cetirizine |
| |
|Choose antihistaminics most likely to exhibit anticholinergic activity: |
|a) clemastine |
|b) terfenadine |
|c) cetirizine |
|d) astemizole |
|e) diphenhydramine |
| |
|Name therapeutic indications of cyproheptadine: |
|a) vomiting |
|b) allergic rhinitis |
|c) gastric ulcer |
|d) viral hepatitis |
|e) anorexia nervosa |
| |
|Indicate glucocorticoids effects: |
|a) antiallergic |
|b) immunostimulant |
|c) anti-shock |
|d) xanti-inflammatory |
|e) anabolic |
| |
|What is entomology immunomodulatory preparations? |
|a) extracted from insect tissues |
|b) alkaloids |
|c) containing essential and nonessential amino acids |
|d) preparations of the thymus |
|e) are polypeptides acquired by genetic engineering involving E. coli. |
| |
|What are the indications for immunomodulatory entomological preparations? |
|a) conditions with decreasing resistance body |
|b) bronchial asthma |
|c) gastrointestinal bleeding |
|d) infectious and inflammatory diseases with immunodeficiency |
|e) duodenal ulcers |
| |
|Select an endocrine drug which is an amino acid derivative: |
|a) Insulin |
|b) Hydrocortisone |
|c) Calcitonin |
|d) Levothyroxine |
|e) Liothyronine |
| |
|Select endocrine drugs which are peptide derivatives |
|a) Progesterone |
|b) Nandrolone |
|c) Prednisolone |
|d) Oxitocin |
|e) Calcitonin |
| |
|Select endocrine drugs which are steroidal derivatives: |
|a) Gonadorelin |
|b) Insulin |
|c) Levothyroxine |
|d) Hydrocortisone |
|e) Levonorgestrel |
| |
|Which of the following hormones are produced by the hypothalamus? |
|a) Estradiol |
|b) Aldosterone |
|c) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) |
|d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) |
|e) Somatostatin |
| |
|Which of the following hormones are produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary? |
|a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) |
|b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) |
|c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH) |
|d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) |
|e) Follicule-stimulating hormone (FSH) |
| |
|All of the following statements about growth hormone are true: |
|a) Stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration |
|b) Hypersecretion can result in acromegaly |
|c) Hyposecretion can result in acromegaly |
|d) It is contraindicated in subjects with closed epiphyses |
|e) It is secreted by suprarenal glands |
| |
|Correct statements about adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) include all of the following: |
|a) The oral route is the preferred rout of administration |
|b) ACTH is most useful clinically as a diagnostic tool in adrenal insufficiency |
|c) ACTH stimulates the synthesis of corticosteroids |
|d) Endogenous ACTH is also called corticotropin |
|e) ACTH inhibits the synthesis of corticosteroids |
| |
|Indications of bromocriptine are following: |
|a) Prolactin deficiency |
|b) Acromegaly caused by hyperprolactinaemia |
|c) Amenorrhea-Galactorrhea |
|d) Prolactin-secreting adenomas |
|e) Parkinson's disease |
| |
|Indications of oxitocin are following: |
|a) For control of pospartum uterine hemorrhage |
|b) Incompleted abortion |
|c) Labor and augment dysfunctional labor for conditions requiring early vaginal delivery |
|d) Heart failure |
|e) Diabetes insipidus |
| |
|Indications of vasopressin is following, except: |
|a) Incompleted abortion |
|b) Pituitary diabetes insipidus |
|c) Hypertension |
|d) Diabetes mellitus |
|e) Сontrol of postpartum uterine hemorrhage |
| |
|Vasopressin causes a pressor effect by: |
|a) All of the mechanisms |
|b) A direct action on smooth muscles of the blood vessels |
|c) Releasing and activating renin-angiotensin system |
|d) Releasing noradrenaline from the nerve terminals |
|e) Activating specific receptors on smooth muscles of the blood vessels |
| |
|Which of the following hormones is produced by the thyroid gland? |
|a) Thyroxine |
|b) Thyroid-stimulating hormone |
|c) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone |
|d) Thyroglobulin |
|e) Сalcitonine |
| |
|Thyrotrophin stimulates the following processes: |
|a) De-iodination of thyroid hormones |
|b) Release of triidothyronine |
|c) Iodination of thyroglobulin |
|d) Concentration of iodine by thyroid follicles |
|e) Release of thyroxine |
| |
|Indications of thyroid hormones are following: |
|a) For treatment of simple obesity |
|b) Hashimoto's disease |
|c) Myxedema |
|d) Cretinism |
|e) Basedov-Graves disease |
| |
|Name hormone drugs: |
|a) Thyroxine |
|b) Somatotropin |
|c) Vasopressin |
|d) Bromocriptine |
|e) Oxytocin |
| |
|The posterior pitutary secrets: |
|a) Vasopressin |
|b) Oxytocin |
|c) Growth hormone |
|d) Methylergometrine |
|e) Insulin |
| |
|Oxytocin produces the following effects: |
|a) It causes contraction of the uterus |
|b) It assists the progress of spermatozoa into the uterine cavity |
|c) It brings about milk ejection from the lactating mammary gland |
|d) It causes relaxation of the uterus |
|e) It has no effect on the milk ejection |
| |
|The adrenal cortex produces: |
|a) aldosterone |
|b) angiotensin II |
|c) deoxycorticosterone |
|d) noradrenaline |
|e) adrenaline |
| |
|Mineralocorticoid effects cause: |
|a) Deposition of fat on shoulders, face and abdomen |
|b) Increased gluconeogenesis |
|c) Increased Na retention |
|d) Increased К excretion |
|e) Increased catabolism |
| |
|The major mineralocorticoids are the following: |
|a) Cortisone |
|b) Budesonid |
|c) Hydrocortisone |
|d) Deoxycorticosterone |
|e) Fludrocortisone |
| |
|Name naturale corticosteroids: |
|a) betamethasone |
|b) cortisone |
|c) prednisolone |
|d) triamcinolone |
|e) hydrocortisone |
| |
|Side effects for prednisone: |
|a) Arterial hypertension |
|b) Gastroduodenal ulcer |
|c) Retention of sodium and water |
|d) Hyperpotassemia |
|e) Central nervous excitation |
| |
|Name effects of chronic treatment with big doses of prednisolon: |
|a) decrease of endogenous corticotropin secretion |
|b) rise of susceptibility to infections disorders |
|c) Hypoglycemia |
|d) Hydroelectrolitic disturbances |
|e) Osteoporosis |
| |
|Glucocorticoid hormones alter bone mineral homeostasis because of : |
|a) are potent osteopenic agents |
|b) direct inhibition of matrix synthesis by the osteoblast |
|c) directly stimulate the secretion of parathormone |
|d) inhibiting renal calcium excretion |
|e) decreasing parathyroid hormone stimulated bone resorption |
| |
|Name toxic effects of the corticosteroids: |
|a) Growth inhibition |
|b) Hypertention |
|c) Hypoglicemia |
|d) Psychosis |
|e) Salt retention |
| |
|Indications of glucocorticoids are following: |
|a) Skin diseases (atopic dermatitis, dermatoses, localized neurodermatitis) |
|b) Inflammatory conditions of bones and joints (arthritis, bursitis, tenosynovitis) |
|c) Postmenopausal hormonal therapy |
|d) Gastrointestinal diseases (inflammatory bowel disease) |
|e) Addison disease |
| |
|Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following: |
|a) Hypomania or acute psychosis |
|b) Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo) |
|c) Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face - moon faces) |
|d) Acute peptic ulcers |
|e) Diabetes insipidus |
| |
|The major mineralocorticoids are the following: |
|a) Aldosterone |
|b) Deoxycorticosterone |
|c) Fludrocortisone |
|d) Hydrocortisone |
|e) Cortisone |
| |
|Name side effects caused by steroids: |
|a) high blood pressure |
|b) increased intraocular pressure |
|c) CNS stimulation |
|d) hyperkalaemia |
|e) gynecomastia |
| |
|With regard to thyroxine: |
|a) synthesized by adrenal cortex |
|b) used in bronchial asthma |
|c) it is important for skeletal growth |
|d) it increases the sensitivity of receptors to catecholamines |
|e) it increases oxygen consumption |
| |
|Excessive doses of thyroid hormone may cause: |
|a) angina pectoris |
|b) cardiac decompensation |
|c) adrenal insufficiency |
|d) psychotic behavior |
|e) constipation |
| |
|Indicate the effects of thyroid hormone drugs: |
|a) increased basal metabolism |
|b) decreased basal metabolism |
|c) tachycardia |
|d) bradycardia |
|e) xtremor |
| |
| |
|Synthesis and release of thyroid hormones are controlled by: |
|a) Anterior pituitary |
|b) Hypothalamus |
|c) Blood levels of thyroid hormones |
|d) Posterior pituitary |
|e) Blood levels of cortisole level |
| |
|Currently used antithyroid drugs include the following: |
|a) Propylthiouracil |
|b) Iodine in high dosage |
|c) Thiamazole |
|d) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone |
|e) Thyroglobulin |
| |
|Indications of thyroid hormones are following: |
|a) Cretinism |
|b) Myxoedema |
|c) Hashimoto's disease |
|d) For treatment of simple obesity |
|e) Diabetus insipidus |
| |
|Characteristics of thiamazole: |
|a) Decreases thyroid hormone synthesis |
|b) Inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 in T3 |
|c) Causes neutropenia |
|d) Should be stopped if causes rashes |
|e) Decreases TSH production |
| |
|The following statements about the parathyroid hormone are true: |
|a) The parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands |
|b) The parathyroid hormone increases calcium and phosphate absorption in intestine |
|c) The parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium and decreases serum phosphate |
|d) The parathyroid hormone increases calcium excretion and decreases phosphate excretion in kidneys |
|e) The parathyroid hormone decreases calcium and phosphate absorption in intestine |
| |
|Indications for calcitonin administration are the following: |
|a) Hypercalcemia |
|b) Paget's disease |
|c) Osteoporosis |
|d) Hypophosphatemia |
|e) Wegener's granulomathosis |
| |
|Which of the following statements about calcitonin is true: |
|a) Calcitonin is secreted by parafollicular cells of the thyroid |
|b) lower blood calcium and phosphate by acting on bones and kidneys |
|c) Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption |
|d) Effects of calcitonin are to increase blood calcium and phosphate by acting on bones and kidneys |
|e) Calcitonin stimulates osteoclastic bone resorption |
| |
| |
|Indicate drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus: |
|a) insulin |
|b) insulin-zinc-protamine |
|c) glibenclamide |
|d) vasopressin |
|e) adiurecrine |
| |
|Indicate preparations used in type II diabetes mellitus? |
|a) glibutid |
|b) metfornin |
|c) glucagon |
|d) prednisolone |
|e) glibenclamide |
| |
|Insulin causes reduction in blood sugar level by the following mechanisms: |
|a) Increased glucose uptake in the peripheral tissue |
|b) Decreased glucose absorption from the gut |
|c) Diminished gluconeogenesis |
|d) Reduction of breakdown of glycogen |
|e) Increased glucose absorption from the gut |
| |
|Insulin can be administered by: |
|) Intramuscular route |
|b) Subcutaneous route |
|c) Intravenous route |
|d) Oral route |
|e) Intrarectal route |
| |
|Antidiabetic sulphonylureas act by: |
|a) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut |
|b) Increasing the uptake of glucose in peripheral tissues |
|c) Reducing the hepatic gluconeogenesis |
|d) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas |
|e) Stimulating production of insulin by the beta islet cells of pancreas |
| |
|Thiazolidinediones act by: |
|a) Diminishing insulin resistance |
|b) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut |
|c) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin |
|d) Increase glucose uptake and its metabolism in muscle and adipose tissues |
|e) All of the answers |
| |
|Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by: |
|a) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin |
|b) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut |
|c) Competitive inhibiting of intestinal alpha-ghucosidases |
|d) Modulating the postprandial digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides |
|e) Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in muscle and adipose tissues |
| |
|Biguanides are used in the following conditions: |
|a) In case of hyperglycemic shock |
|b) In case of hypoglycemic shock |
|c) To reduce insulin requirements |
|d) In over weight diabetics |
|e) As a supplement to sulphonylurea, where it is insufficient to give good results |
| |
|Biguanides are used in the following conditions: |
|a) As a supplement to sulphonylurea, where it is insufficient to give good results |
|b) In diabetes mellitus type I |
|c) To reduce insulin requirements |
|d) In case of hyperglycemic shock |
|e) In over weight diabetics |
| |
|Metformin characteristics are: |
|a) It's a biguanide drug |
|b) Used in diabetes mellitus type II |
|c) Causes anorexia and weight loss |
|d) It's a sulphonylurea drug |
|e) Used in diabetes mellitus type I |
| |
| |
|Characteristics of metformin: |
|a) is a biguanide |
|b) used in Diabetus Mellitus type II |
|c) causes anorexia and weight loss |
|d) causes hyperglycemia |
|e) is contraindicated in Diabetus Mellitus Type I |
| |
|Characteristics of Thiamazol: |
|a) decreases thyroid hormone synthesis |
|b) inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 |
|c) causes neutropenia |
|d) used in cretinism |
|e) decreases directly TSH production |
| |
|Name androgens drugs: |
|a) testosterone |
|b) estradiol |
|c) methyltestosterone |
|d) cortisone |
|e) ethinylestradiol |
| |
|The major natural estrogens produced by women are following: |
|a) Estriol |
|b) Ethinyl estradiol |
|c) Diethylstilbestrol |
|d) Estron |
|e) Estradiol |
| |
|The major synthetic estrogens are following: |
|a) Estradiol |
|b) Estron |
|c) Benzestrol |
|d) Diethylstilbestrol |
|e) Dienestrol |
| |
|Indications of synthetic estrogens are following: |
|a) For treatment of simple obesity |
|b) Diabetes mellitus |
|c) Hormonal contraception |
|d) Postmenopausal hormonal therapy |
|e) Primary hypogonadism |
| |
|Tamoxifen is, except: |
|a) Androgen |
|b) Antiestrogen |
|c) Antiandrogen |
|d) Antiprogestin |
|e) Estrogen |
| |
|Mifepristone is: |
|a) Androgen |
|b) Antiestrogen |
|c) Antiandrogen |
|d) Antiprogestin |
|e) Antiglucocorticoid |
| |
|Name Testosterone effects: |
|a) growth of genitals in a boy |
|b) muscular development |
|c) erythropoietin secretion decreased |
|d) behavioral changes in men |
|e) growth of facial, pubic & axillary hairs |
| |
|Name indication for hormone androgen preparations: |
|a) Insufficient renal anemia treatment |
|b) inoperable breast cancer in woman during postmenopause |
|c) hypogonadism |
|d) amenorhea |
|e) breast cancer in men |
| |
|Name characteristic of testosterone: |
|a) it is a major male hormone |
|b) it is highly effective by the oral route |
|c) it is reduced to dihydrotestosterone in the body |
|d) it is produced by the testes, ovaries, and adrenal cortices |
|e) it is a major female hormone |
| |
|Name Testosterone effects: |
|a) Growth of genitals in men |
|b) Muscular development |
|c) Decrease of erythropoietin secretion |
|d) Behavioral changes in men |
|e) Growth of facial, pubic & axillary hairs |
| |
| |
|Mechanism of action of oral contraceptives: |
|a) Inhibition of follicular development & ovulation |
|b) Thicken of cervical mucus |
|c) Inhibition of implantation of blastocyst in endometrium |
|d) Indirect inhibition of spermatogenesis |
|e) Activation of follicular development & ovulation |
| |
|All of the following statements about oral contraceptives are true: |
|a) The "combination pill" contains both estrogen and progestin |
|b) Ethinyl estradiol and mestranol are commonly used in oral contraceptives |
|c) The "minipill" contains progestin alone |
|d) The "triphasic pill" contains estrogen, progestin, and luteinizing hormine (LH) |
|e) The "triphasic pill" contains progestin, and luteinizing hormine (LH |
| |
|General principles of anti-infective therapy are: |
|a) Clinical judgment of microbiological factors |
|b) Definitive identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism's susceptibility |
|c) Optimal route of administration, dose, dosing frequency and duration of treatment |
|d) Identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism's susceptibility is not important |
|e) Optimal route of administration is always internally |
| |
|Which of the following antienzymes are beta-lactamase inhibitors? |
|a) Clavulanic acid |
|b) Neostigmine |
|c) Tazobactam |
|d) Aminocaproic acid |
|e) Disulfiram |
| |
|Name inhibitors of betalactamase? |
|a) clavulanic acid |
|b) tazobactam |
|c) sulbactam |
|d) ticarcillin |
|e) piperacillin |
| |
|Name antibiotics from beta lactamines: |
|a) ampicillin |
|b) rifampicin |
|c) tetracycline |
|d) benzylpenicillin |
|e) gentamicin |
| |
|Describe pharmacokinetic properties of benzylpenicillin? |
|a) resistance on gastric juice action |
|b) used just orally |
|c) in case of a healthy meninx weak penetration in cephalo rachidine liquid |
|d) most of the dose - predominantly renal elimination |
|e) sensitivity at beta-lactamase |
| |
| |
|The following medication can cause ototoxicity: |
|a) cephalexin |
|b) kanamycin |
|c) penicillin |
|d) gentamicin |
|e) vancomycin |
| |
|Name characteristics for aminoglycosides: |
|a) are absorbed well after oral administration |
|b) prevent the synthesis of protein bacterias |
|c) all generations are used in tuberculosis |
|d) excretes through glomerular filtration without significant tubular resorbtion |
|e) are used in anaerobic infections |
| |
|Aminoglycosides can be associated (acting synergistically) with antibiotics group: |
|a) tetracycline |
|b) glycopeptide |
|c) macrolide |
|d) beta-lactamins |
|e) polimixines |
| |
|The following medications can cause neuromuscular block: |
|a) gentamycin |
|b) cefuroxim |
|c) streptomycin |
|d) pilocarpine |
|e) kanamycin |
| |
|With regard to gentamicin: |
|a) it is used just orally |
|b) it is well absorbed by the small intestine |
|c) it can produce permanent vestibular nerve damage |
|d) it can cause neuromuscular block |
|e) it can produce nephrotoxicity |
| |
|The main side efects of aminoglycosides are : |
|a) Ototoxicity |
|b) Nephrotoxicity |
|c) Extrapyramidal disorders |
|d) Neuromuscular blockade |
|e) Hepatotoxicity |
| |
|Characteristics of cefuroxime: |
|a) inhibits cell wall synthesis |
|b) has cross-sensitivity with penicillin |
|c) is an enteral second-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. |
|d) is a third generation cephalosporin |
|e) is less toxic to the renal function than gentamicin |
| |
|Macrolides are naturally resistant to: |
|a) Bacillus fragilis |
|b) Pseudomonas |
|c) Chlamydia |
|d) Acinetobacter |
|e) Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
| |
|The following antibiotics are bacteriostatic: |
|a) penicillins |
|b) erythromycin |
|c) isoniazid |
|d) chloramphenicol |
|e) cephalosporins |
| |
|The following are true about tetracycline: |
|a) treat Chlamydia |
|b) should be avoided in children |
|c) are used in viral infections |
|d) broad-spectrum antibiotics |
|e) inhibit the cell wall synthesis |
| |
|Characteristics of gentamycin: |
|a) is poorly soluble in lipid and therefore needs to be given parenterally |
|b) is excreted exclusively by the kidneys |
|c) inhibits presynaptic acetylcholine release with neuro-muscular block |
|d) causes ototoxicity |
|e) inhibits cell wall synthesis of bacteria |
| |
|Characteristics of vancomycin: |
|a) inhibits bacteria DNA synthesis |
|b) is effective against Gram negative aerobic organisms |
|c) is well absorbed from the gut |
|d) is a type of glycopeptide antibiotic |
|e) stimulates the release of histamine |
| |
|Drugs that are bacteriostatic include: |
|a) cephalexin |
|b) gentamicin |
|c) chloramphenicol |
|d) tetracyclines |
|e) penicillin |
| |
|Charactristics of aminoglycosides: |
|a) are effective against anaerobic infection |
|b) cause nephrotoxicity |
|c) Very active against Gr- aerobic bacillus |
|d) are not effectively against systemic infection if given orally |
|e) cause ototoxicity |
| |
|With regard to vancomycin: |
|a) is a glycopeptide |
|b) can cause ototoxicity |
|c) is bacteriostatic in action |
|d) is bactericidal in action |
|e) causes “Red man” syndrome |
| |
|Describe vancomycin: |
|a) is an aminoglycoside. |
|b) ototoxicity and nephrotocicity common sides effects |
|c) targets the RNA of bacteria. |
|d) is used in parenterally way |
|e) is used against Gram positive bacteria. |
| |
|Describe vancomycin: |
|a) active on gram-positive cocci |
|b) is a type of glycopeptide antibiotic |
|c) causing ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity |
|d) active on gram-negative flora |
|e) bacteriostatic |
| |
|Name unwanted effects of vancomycin: |
|a) Gray baby syndrom |
|b) Ototoxicity |
|c) "Red neck" syndrome, phlebitis |
|d) Cristaluria |
|e) Pneumonitis |
| |
|Vancomicin has the following unwanted effects: |
|a) Pseudomembranous colitis |
|b) Hepatotoxicity |
|c) "Red men" syndrome |
|d) All of the above |
|e) Phlebitis |
| |
|All of the following drugs are antibiotics: |
|a) Streptomycin |
|b) Penicillin |
|c) Co-trimoxazole |
|d) Chloramphenicol |
|e) Ciprofloxacine |
| |
|Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bactericidal effect? |
|a) Tetracyclines |
|b) Macrolides |
|c) Penicillins |
|d) Aminiglycosides |
|e) Cephalosporins |
| |
|Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bacteristatic effect: |
|a) Carbapenems |
|b) Macrolides |
|c) Aminoglycosides |
|d) Cephalosporins |
|e) Tetracyclines |
| |
|Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure: |
|a) Penicillins |
|b) Cephalosporins |
|c) Carbapenems |
|d) Monobactams |
|e) Tetracyclines |
| |
|Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides and azalides: |
|a) Neomycin |
|b) Doxycycline |
|c) Erythromycin |
|d) Cefotaxime |
|e) Azithromycin |
| |
|Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-carbapenems: |
|a) Aztreonam |
|b) Amoxacillin |
|c) Imipinem |
|d) Clarithromycin |
|e) Meropenem |
| |
|Tick the drug belongs to antibiotics-cephalosporins: |
|a) Streptomycin |
|b) Cefaclor |
|c) Phenoxymethylpenicillin |
|d) Erythromycin |
|e) Cefalexin |
| |
|Tick the drug belonging to lincosamides: |
|a) Erythromycin |
|b) Lincomycin |
|c) Clindamycin |
|d) Azithromycin |
|e) Aztreonam |
| |
|Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines: |
|a) Doxycycline |
|b) Minocycline |
|c) Streptomycin |
|d) Clarithromycin |
|e) Amoxacillin |
| |
|Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides: |
|a) Gentamycin |
|b) Streptomycin |
|c) Clindamycin |
|d) Neomycin |
|e) Amoxacillin |
| |
|Tick the drug belonging to glycopeptides: |
|a) Vancomycin |
|b) Lincomycin |
|c) Neomycin |
|d) Carbenicillin |
|e) Teicoplanin |
| |
|Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are: |
|a) Beta-lactam antibiotics |
|b) Tetracyclines |
|c) Aminoglycosides |
|d) Macrolides |
|e) Glycopeptides |
| |
|All of the following antibiotics inhibit the protein synthesis in bacterial cells: |
|a) Macrolides |
|b) Aminoglycosides |
|c) Glycopeptides |
|d) Tetracyclines |
|e) Cycloserine |
| |
|Choose antibiotics from carbapenems: |
|a) Thienam |
|b) Amoxacillin |
|c) Bicillin-5 |
|d) Penicillin |
|e) Imipenem |
| |
|Pick out the beta-lactamase inhibitor for co-administration with penicillins: |
|a) Cilastatin |
|b) Sulbactam |
|c) Sultiam |
|d) Aztreonam |
|e) Tazobactam |
| |
|All of the following antibiotics are macrolides: |
|a) Erythromycin |
|b) Clarithromycin |
|c) Lincomycin |
|d) Roxythromycin |
|e) Aztreonam |
| |
|Tetracyclins have following unwanted effects: |
|a) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa, phototoxicity |
|b) Hepatotoxicity, anti-anabolic effect |
|c) Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities |
|d) Myocardial infarction |
|e) Addison syndrome |
| |
|Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides: |
|a) Erythromycin |
|b) Gentamycin |
|c) Vancomycin |
|d) Polymyxin |
|e) Kanamycin |
| |
|Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effects |
|a) Pancytopenia |
|b) Hepatotoxicity |
|c) Ototoxicity |
|d) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa |
|e) Nephrotoxicity |
| |
| |
|Name antibiotics used parenterally: |
|a) streptomycin |
|b) erythromycin |
|c) gentamicin |
|d) ampicillin |
|e) imipinem |
| |
|Choose antibiotics most likely to produce increased neuromuscular-blockade in the presence of nondepolarizing blockers: |
|a) vancomycin |
|b) kanamycin |
|c) amikacin |
|d) gentamicin |
|e) ampicillin |
| |
|Name characteristic for Aztreonam? |
|a) is a monobactam antibiotic |
|b) is active against gram-negative bacteria |
|c) is active against Pseudomonas aeroginosa |
|d) is active against protozoa |
|e) is active against helmints |
| |
|With regard to tetracycline: |
|a) directly inhibits DNA synthesis in bacteria |
|b) crosses the placenta and accumulates in foetal skeleton |
|c) side effects include poor tooth development |
|d) have a narrow spectrum of antibiotic action |
|e) used just intravenously |
| |
|Name semisynthetic tetracyclines: |
|a) tetracicline |
|b) doxycycline |
|c) metacycline |
|d) demeclocycline |
|e) minocycline |
| |
|Name spectrum of action for tetracyclines: |
|a) chlamydia |
|b) mycoplasma |
|c) brucella |
|d) helmints |
|e) rickettsiae |
| |
|What antimicrobial inhibits bacterial protein synthesis following attachment of 30 S subunits of ribosomes? |
|a) clindamycin |
|b) tetracycline |
|c) chloramphenicol |
|d) imipenem |
|e) doxycycline |
| |
|Charactristics of chloramphenicol: |
|a) inhibits cell wall synthesis |
|b) is active against Haemophilus and Neisseria |
|c) causes ototoxicity |
|d) causes aplastic anaemia |
|e) should not be given to newborns |
| |
|What remedies inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, following attachment of 50S ribosomes subunits: |
|a) chloramphenicol |
|b) clarithromycin |
|c) clindamycin |
|d) tetracycline |
|e) doxycycline |
| |
|Name pharmacological properties of chloramphenicol: |
|a) choice for systemic salmonellosis |
|b) not acting in anaerobic infections |
|c) induces gray syndrome |
|d) induced aplastic anemia |
|e) does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier |
| |
|Name the chloramphenicol causes of gray syndrome in neonates and premature: |
|a) excessive doses |
|b) baby diseases |
|c) liver enzyme deficiency of glucuronyltransferase |
|d) genetic predisposition |
|e) association with penicillins |
| |
|Concerning sulfonamides: |
|a) act as competitive inhibitors of the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase |
|b) are big group from antibiotics |
|c) certain sulfonamides are sometimes mixed with the drug trimethoprim |
|d) contraindicated in pregnancy and newborn |
|e) minimal side effects |
| |
|Charactristics of sulphonamides: |
|a) inhibit the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid to folate |
|b) are bactericidal |
|c) can be combined with trimethroprim |
|d) are used just intravenously |
|e) are a known cause of Steven-Johnson's syndrome |
| |
|Sulfonamides are effective against: |
|a) Bacteria and Chlamidia |
|b) Grame negative aerobes |
|c) Gonococcus |
|d) Echinococcus |
|e) Cytomegalovirus |
| |
|Sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects: |
|a) tendinitis and tendons ruptures |
|b) crystalluria |
|c) peripheral neuropathy |
|d) neuro-muscular block |
|e) gray baby syndrome |
| |
|Tick the antibacterial drug - a quinolone derivative: |
|a) Nitrofurantoin |
|b) Nalidixic acid |
|c) Streptomycin |
|d) Pipemidic acis |
|e) Nystatine |
| |
|The following are true about fluoroquinolone: |
|a) it acts by inhibiting DNA gyrase |
|b) ciprofloxacin is poorly absorbed by the gastrointestinal system |
|c) corneal deposition is a complication of topical ofloxacin |
|d) it is active against gram negative bacilli |
|e) have been shown to contribute to tendinopathies |
| |
|Name indications for fluoroquinolones: |
|a) Urinary tract infections |
|b) Gonorrhea |
|c) Urethritis |
|d) Treatment of pneumonia |
|e) Listeriosis |
| |
|Antimicrobials that inhibit folic acid synthesis include: |
|a) ciprofloxacine |
|b) sulfonamides |
|c) pyrimethamine |
|d) clindamycin |
|e) tetracycline |
| |
|Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to anti-microbial agents are the following: |
|a) Active transport out of a microorganism |
|b) Enlarged uptake of the drug by a microorganism |
|c) Modification of a drug's target |
|d) Reduced uptake by a microorganism |
|e) Hydrolysis of an agent via enzymes produced by a microorganism |
| |
|Antimalarial drug classification: |
|a) penicillin |
|b) metronidazol |
|c) quinine |
|d) tetracyclines |
|e) chloroquine |
| |
|Characteristics of quinine: |
|a) is a medication to treat malaria |
|b) highly effective schizonticide against P vivax, P ovale, P falciparum, P. malariae |
|c) is a medication to treat viruses infection |
|d) is antibiotic used just in anaerobes infections |
|e) is used just intravenously |
| |
|Name metronidazole indications: |
|a) amebiasis |
|b) malaria |
|c) syphilis |
|d) duodenal ulcer |
|e) anaerobic infections |
| |
|True statements about metronidazole include: |
|a) it is bacteristatic |
|b) it inhibits bacterial protein synthesis |
|c) it is most effective against Gram positive bacteria |
|d) it is most effective against Gram negative bacteria |
|e) alcohol should be avoided while taking metronidazole |
| |
|Name effective preparations in echinococcosis: |
|a) mebendazole |
|b) albendazole |
|c) piperazine |
|d) befeniu |
|e) pirviniu |
| |
|Name metronidazole indications: |
|a) tuberculosis |
|b) lambliozis |
|c) amebiasis |
|d) malaria |
|e) trichomoniasis |
| |
|Show drugs used to treat giardiasis: |
|a) levamisole |
|b) metronidazole |
|c) furazolidone |
|d) pyrantel |
|e) mebendazole |
| |
|Specify pharmacological peculiarities typical for interferons: |
|a) antiviral |
|b) immunomodulatory |
|c) antiproliferative |
|d) induce biochemical changes that create an antiviral state in infected cells |
|e) antioxidant |
| |
|Name antivirals effective against flaviviruses (hepatitis C virus): |
|a) Interferon alfa-2b |
|b) PEG-interferon alpha-2b |
|c) PEG interferon alpha-2a |
|d) foscarnet |
|e) Interferon alfa-2a |
| |
|Ganclovir characteristics: |
|a) is effective against cytomegalovirus infection |
|b) causes bone marrow failure |
|c) is effective against HIV infection |
|d) is effective against influenza |
|e) inhibits DNA polymerase |
| |
|Drugs effective against cytomegalovirus include: |
|a) acyclovir |
|b) gancyclovir |
|c) foscarnet sodium |
|d) zidovudine |
|e) amantadine |
| |
|Name drugs that inhibit viral enzymes? |
|a) acyclovir |
|b) zidovudine |
|c) ethambutol |
|d) saquinavir |
|e) indinavir |
| |
|Group of endogenous proteins that exhibit antiviral activities: |
|a) ribavirin |
|b) interferon beta |
|c) ganciclovir |
|d) vidarabine |
|e) interferon alpha |
| |
|The indication for interferon alpha administration is: |
|a) Hepatitis C virus infection |
|b) Treatment of sleep disorders |
|c) Kaposi's sarcoma |
|d) can be used to treat multiple sclerosis |
|e) All of the answers |
| |
|Name poliene antibiotics: |
|a) grizeofulvine |
|b) ristomicine |
|c) kanamycin |
|d) amphotericin B |
|e) natamycin |
| |
|Which of the following drugs is used for candidiasis treatment: |
|a) Nystatine |
|b) Ampicillin |
|c) Myconazol |
|d) Streptomycin |
|e) Gentamicin |
| |
|Name drugs that demonstrate a fungicidal effect: |
|a) Cloramphenicol |
|b) Amfotericin B |
|c) Ketoconazole |
|d) Myconazole |
|e) Imipinem |
| |
|Choose antifungal remedies: |
|a) nystatine |
|b) tropicamide |
|c) rifampicin |
|d) fluconazole |
|e) cocaine |
| |
|Name antifungal drugs from imidazole derivatives group: |
|a) econazole |
|b) flucytosine |
|c) amphotericin B |
|d) ketoconazole |
|e) miconazole |
| |
|Specify the first choice drugs in superficial candidiasis: |
|a) clotrimazole |
|b) flucytosine |
|c) nystatin |
|d) amphotericin B |
|e) ketoconazole |
| |
|Characteristic of fluconazole: |
|a) used systemically |
|b) is an antifungal medication |
|c) is an antibiotic |
|d) prevents the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol from fungal membrane |
|e) inhibits cell wall |
| |
|Name therapeutic indications of miconazole: |
|a) iv infusion in severe fungal infections with coccidioides |
|b) per os in oral and intestinal candidiasis |
|c) topic in pityriasis |
|d) intravaginal in candidiasis |
|e) per os in trichomoniasis |
| |
|Specify polyene antifungal antibiotic: |
|a) nystatin |
|b) griseofulvin |
|c) amphotericin B |
|d) flucytosine |
|e) capreomycin |
| |
|Specify anti leprous drugs: |
|a) nalidixic acid |
|b) co-trimoxazole |
|c) solasulfon |
|d) dapsone |
|e) nitroxoline |
| |
|Tick the antibiotics that have antituberculous action: |
|a) Ampicillin |
|b) Penicillin |
|c) Kanamycin |
|d) Gentamicin |
|e) Rifampicine |
| |
|Mechanism of Izoniazid action is: |
|a) Inhibition of protein synthesis |
|b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis |
|c) Inhibition of ADP synthesis |
|d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis |
|e) Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis |
| |
|Mechanism of Rifampicin's action is: |
|a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis |
|b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase |
|c) Inhibition of topoisomerase II |
|d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis |
|e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis |
| |
|Isoniazid has following unwanted effect: |
|a) Cardiotoxicity |
|b) Hepatotoxicity |
|c) Loss of hair |
|d) Immunotoxicity |
|e) Peripheral neuropathy |
| |
|Specify pharmacological typical peculiarities of Ethambutol: |
|a) is an antilepros drug |
|b) is an antituberculosis drug |
|c) mechanism of antituberculous action is bacteriostatic |
|d) mechanism of antileprous action is bactericidal |
|e) can cause optic neuritis |
| |
|Specify pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for the hormonal drugs from antitumor grups: |
|a) estrogen is used in prostate cancer |
|b) androgens are used in breast cancer |
|c) antiandrogens are used in prostate cancer |
|d) antiestrogens are used in breast cancer |
|e) aminoglutethimide inhibit aromatase |
| |
|Specify group of monoclonal antibodies from antitumor preparations: |
|a) transtuzumab |
|b) rituximab |
|c) bevacizumab |
|d) vincristine |
|e) colchicine |
| |
|Specify antitumor preparations made by vegetal origin: |
|a) vinblastine |
|b) vincristine |
|c) vinorelbine |
|d) bevacizumab |
|e) bruneomicine |
| |
|Cyclosporin A: |
|a) can only be given orally as it is too toxic to be given intravenously |
|b) it may be given prophylactically to reduce organ rejection before transplantation |
|c) causes little bone marrow suppression |
|d) causes renal impairment |
|e) acts specifially on cytotoxic T lymphocytes |
| |
|The following cytotoxic drugs are immunosuppressive drugs: |
|a) chlorambucil |
|b) cyclophosphamide |
|c) vinblastine |
|d) mielopid |
|e) timogen |
| |
|Name immunosuppressive drugs: |
|a) imupurine |
|b) thiamazole |
|c) interferon |
|d) cyclophosphamide |
|e) chlorambucil |
| |
|The Immunosuppressive agents are: |
|a) Corticosteroids |
|b) Imunofan |
|c) Cyclosporine |
|d) Tacrolimus |
|e) Interferon |
| |
|Cytotoxic agents are the following: |
|a) Azathioprine |
|b) Imupurin |
|c) Ampicillin |
|d) Cyclophosphamide |
|e) Clemastine |
| |
|Name cytostatics: |
|a) azathioprine |
|b) diphenhydramine |
|c) cyclosporine |
|d) ipratropium |
|e) mercaptopurine |
| |
|Name the indications for immunosuppressive preparations: |
|a) rheumatoid arthritis |
|b) allergic rhinitis |
|c) lack of glucose-6-fosfatdehidrogenase |
|d) organ transplantation |
|e) collagen diseases |
| |
|Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by: |
|a) Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B cells) |
|b) Inhibiting function of tissue macrophages and other antigen-presenting cells |
|c) Activation of Cyclooxygenase I&II expression that results in reducing amount of an enzyme available to produce prostaglandins |
|d) Activation of phospholipase A2 and reducing prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis |
|e) Activation of cyclooxygenase II expression that results in reducing amount of an enzyme available to produce prostoglandins |
| |
|Cyclosporine A is from the group, except: |
|a) Immunoglobulins |
|b) Monoclonal antibodies |
|c) Immunosuppressive agents |
|d) Interferons |
|e) Immunostimulating agents |
| |
|Indication for interferon alpha administration is, except: |
|a) Hepatitis C virus infection |
|b) Organ transplantation |
|c) Rheumatoid arthritis |
|d) Autoimmune diseases |
|e) Hepatitis A virus infection |
| |
|Indications for interferon alpha administration are: |
|a) Chronic granulomatous disease |
|b) Hepatitis C virus infection |
|c) Kaposi's sarcoma |
|d) Rheumatoid arthritis |
|e) Prophylaxis of sensitization by Rh antigen |
| |
|Optic neuropathy occurs in deficiency of the following vitamins: |
|a) vitamin A |
|b) phytomenadione |
|c) riboflavine |
|d) retinyl acetate |
|e) cyanocobolamine |
| |
|The following are true about vitamin A: |
|a) it is fat soluble |
|b) it is water soluble |
|c) deficiency can lead to scurvy |
|d) deficency causes pellagra. |
|e) deficiency can lead to night blindness |
| |
|Fat-Soluble Vitamins are: |
|a) Vitamin A |
|b) Vitamin D |
|c) Vitamin K |
|d) Vitamin E |
|e) Vitamin C |
| |
|The following are true about vitamin A deficiency: |
|a) causes night blindness |
|b) causes scurvy |
|c) causes pellagra |
|d) causes Beri-beri. |
|e) the immune system is impaired by vitamin A deficiency |
| |
|Name clinical uses of vitamin D: |
|a) Osteoporosis |
|b) Nutritional rickets |
|c) Scurvy |
|d) Pellagra |
|e) Beriberi |
| |
|Optic neuropathy occurs in deficiency of the following vitamin B: |
|a) Vitamin B1 |
|b) Vitamin B2 |
|c) Vitamin B3 |
|d) Vitamin B6 |
|e) Vitamin B12 |
| |
|Symptom of vitamin A deficiency are: |
|a) Night blindness - lessened ability to see in dim light |
|b) Xerophthalmia and keratomalacia |
|c) Various epithelial tissue defects |
|d) Osteoporosis |
|e) induced Parkinson disease |
| |
|Choose the correct statements relating to adverse allergic reactions: |
|a) appear due to pharmacokinetic features |
|b) does not depend on the dose |
|c) are characteristic of drugs with a high intrinsic toxicity and narrow therapeutic window |
|d) are crossed for structurally related compounds |
|e) high incidence when drugs are given orally |
| |
|Choose drug complications caused by the suspension of medication: |
|a) idiosyncrasy |
|b) the liver enzyme induction |
|c) suppression of hepatic enzymes |
|d) Rebound syndrome |
|e) absence syndrome |
| |
|Name drug complications caused by the patients hypersensitivity: |
|a) immediate immunoallergic type reactions |
|b) delayed immunoallergic type reactions |
|c) tachyphylaxis |
|d) tolerance |
|e) dysbacteriosis |
| |
|Indicate antidotes definitions: |
|a) drug possessing action to neutralize and / or elimination of toxic substances |
|b) drug preventing action to develop symptoms of intoxication with a certain toxic |
|c) drug which possess antagonistic action against a specific toxic |
|d) drug possessing agonistic action to a particular toxic |
|e) drug potentiating action of a particular toxic |
| |
|Specify how to divide antidotes according to the mechanism of action: |
|a) Physical |
|b) Chemical |
|c) Physiological |
|d) Inhibitory |
|e) Stimulatory |
| |
|Name antidotes used in morphine and other opioid analgesics intoxication: |
|a) naloxone |
|b) nalorphine hydrochloride |
|c) izonitrozin |
|d) dipiroxim |
|e) aloxim |
| |
|Name antidotes used in organophosphorus compounds poisoning: |
|a) naloxone |
|b) nalorphine hydrochloride |
|c) izonitrozin |
|d) dipiroxim |
|e) aloxim |
| |
|Indicate groups of drugs causing depression more frequently as adverse effects: |
|a) centrally acting hypotensive drugs |
|b) tranquilizers |
|c) beta-adrenoblockers |
|d) adrenomimetics |
|e) MAO inhibitors |
| |
|Specify groups or drugs frequently cause side effects such as mixed liver injury: |
|a) NSAIDs |
|b) anti-tuberculous drugs |
|c) contraceptives |
|d) beta-adrenoblockers |
|e) converting enzyme inhibitors |
| |
|Specify drugs that cause more frequently as adverse effect bronchospasm: |
|a) acetylsalicylic acid |
|b) propranolol |
|c) neostigmine |
|d) ipratropium bromide |
|e) salbutamol |
| |
|Specify preparations that cause more frequently as adverse effect orthostatic hypotension and collapse: |
|a) trimetaphan |
|b) nifedipine |
|c) clonidine |
|d) izoturon |
|e) dopamine |
| |
|Specify drugs would frequently cause anaphylaxis as a side effect: |
|a) penicillins |
|b) procaine |
|c) famotidine |
|d) omeprazole |
|e) diphenhydramine |
| |
|Specify drugs would cause more frequently as adverse effect duodenal and gastric ulcer: |
|a) prednisolone |
|b) acetylsalicylic acid |
|c) diclofenac |
|d) sucralfate |
|e) misoprostol |
| |
|Specify groups of drugs that would cause more frequently as adverse effect dysbacteriosis: |
|a) antibiotics |
|b) nitrofurans |
|c) glucocorticoids |
|d) NSAIDs |
|e) converting enzyme inhibitors |
| |
|Specify drugs possessing a major potential to develop drug addiction: |
|a) trimeperidine |
|b) diazepam |
|c) amfepramone |
|d) diclofenac |
|e) piracetam |
| |
|Which drugs can cause ototoxicity? |
|a) Furosemide |
|b) Gentamycine |
|c) Kanamycin |
|d) Acetazolamide |
|e) Scopolamine |
| |
|Which drugs can cause neuro-muscular blocking effect? |
|a) Streptomycine |
|b) Gentamycine |
|c) Kanamycin |
|d) Acetazolamide |
|e) Scopolamine |
| |
|Which drugs can cause xerosthomia? |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Diphenhydramine |
|c) Scopolamine |
|d) Neostigmine |
|e) Pilocarpine |
| |
|Which drugs can cause ventricular arhythmias? |
|a) Loratadine |
|b) Diphenhydramine |
|c) Cetirizine |
|d) Clemastine |
|e) Cyproheptadine |
| |
|Which drugs can cause somnolence? |
|a) Loratadine |
|b) Diphenhydramine |
|c) Cetirizine |
|d) Clemastine |
|e) Cyproheptadine |
| |
|Which drugs can cause constipation? |
|a) Atropine |
|b) Neostigmine |
|c) Pilocarpine |
|d) Scopolamine |
|e) Platyphylline |
| |
|Which drugs can cause specific side effect- dry cough? |
|a) Captopril |
|b) Clonidine |
|c) Salbutamol |
|d) Enalapril |
|e) Lisinopril |
| |
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