Part 2 HazWoper Quiz (Answers)



HazWoper test Pool (Answers)

Part1

1.The individual with the most authority during an emergency response to a hazardous materials release is the Incident ________.

A. Commander

B. Specialist

C. Expert

2.True or False

Level Three emergency response teams are able to approach and seal the point where hazardous materials have been released.

3.The third level of emergency response training is for Hazardous ________ Technicians.

A. Awareness

B. Materials

C. Operations

D. Incident

4, The First Responder _____ Level is for workers who will initially respond to accidental releases (from a safe distance).

A. Materials

B. Incident

C. Operations

D. Awareness

5. The first level of training for emergency response is the First Responder ________ Level.

A. Operations

B. Materials

C. Incident

D. Awareness

6. There are ____ levels of training for emergency response.

A. 3

B. 5

C. 2

7. According to OSHA, chemicals that present -Physical Hazards- include:

A. Combustible liquids

B. Compressed gases, Oxidizers

C. Flammables, Organic Peroxides

D. Explosives, Reactive chemicals

E. All the Above

8. True or False

The doctor will provide your employer with a Written Medical Opinion, which will discuss any medical conditions which would put you at increased risk from work involving hazardous waste.

9. True or False

You do not need a medical examination if you are exposed to hazardous substances

at levels higher then their published exposure limits.

10. True or False

Before you begin working around hazardous waste, you should have an initial medical examination.

11. OSHA recommends additional examinations at least once every ____ months, but requires them every ____ months.

A. 6, 12

B. 3, 24

C.12, 24

12. You will participate in monitoring if you work in an environment where there is potential for exposure above published limits for ___days or more during a ___month period.

A. 30, 12

B. 15, 6

C. 10, 3

13. True or False

Air monitoring does not need to take place when work begins at another location in the site.

14. True or False

Some form of monitoring is necessary as long as IDLH conditions or flammable atmospheres can develop.

15. ________ ________is performed to identify and

measure the levels of contaminants in the air.

A. Medical surveillance

B. Exposure monitoring

C. Decontamination monitoring

D. All of the Above

E. None of the Above

16. Under HAZWOPER, other activities also play important roles in the prevention of overexposure

to hazardous substances, including:

A. Exposure monitoring

B. Decontamination

C. Medical surveillance

D. All the Above

17. It is important to remember that containers must be identified and _______ in a staging area prior to shipping.

A. Tagged

B. Stored

C. Classified

18. True or False

Not all containers need to be labeled. If you discover an unlabeled drum or other container, it is safe to open it.

19. True or False

Radioactive, Flammable and Shock-sensitive materials require protective shielding when being moved.

20.Drums and other containers used for storing or transporting hazardous substances

must meet the _____, _____ and _____ packaging requirements for the type of materials they contain.

A. DOT, OSHA, and RCRA

B. DOT, OSHA, IDLH

C. MSDS, DOT, OSHA

D. DOT, OSHA, EPA

21. Level __ provides the greatest degree

of skin, respiratory and eye protection.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

22. True or False

-Engineering Controls- are equipment designed to prevent or reduce your exposure to hazards.

23. Once these IDLH hazards have been controlled, a more detailed hazard evaluation can be

performed. This is called a _____ _____ _____.

A. Site Control Program

B. Site Containment Procedure

C. Site Assessment Plan

24. Site characterization:

A. Identifies the specific hazards that are present.

B. Determines the equipment, procedures and other controls necessary to protect workers at the site.

C. Both A and B

D. None of the Above

25.Your operation has a written ___________________ __________ which provides instructions on how to report and handle emergencies.

A. Emergency Response Plan

B. Emergency Reporting Program

C. Essential Response Plan

26. The Site Safety and Health Plan contains:

A. A description of your group's organizational structure

B. A comprehensive work plan for your operation, including:-Standard Operating Procedures

-A site-specific safety and health training program-Guidelines for the medical surveillance

of workers who may be exposed to hazardous waste.

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

27. You must also undergo HAZWOPER Refresher Training at least...

A. Once every five years

B. Once a year

C. Every thirty days

28. More detailed hazard information can be found on:

A. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)

B. Shipping Papers

C. Other unofficial documentation

D. Only A and B

E. All the Above

29. True or False

HAZWOPER covers workers a thazardous waste...treatment, storage and disposal facilities

and also at hazardous waste cleanup sites.

It also takes part in emergency Response operations involving hazardous substances.

30. SARA stands for:

A. Site Association Recovery Act

B. Superfund Amendment and Recovery Act

B. Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act

30. In 1980, Congress and the EPA passed

the _________________.

It provides for cleanup of hazardous materials at sites not covered under RCRA. These "Superfund Sites" are

mainly abandoned or uncontrolled hazardous waste sites.

A.CERCLA (Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act),

B. EPA (Environmental Protection Act).

C. Superfund Sites Act

31.RCRA stands for

A. Resource Contaminated and Recovery Act

B. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

C. Resource Containment and Recovery Act

Part 2

1.Each employee trained in the 40 hour training-training requirements under 1910.120(e)(3)(i),

must provide and document an additional ________days of actual on site field experience under the

supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.

A. four

B. three

C. one

2. True or False

One of the advantages of an effective site control is that it assures that all persons and equipment exiting the contaminated area are properly decontaminated.

3. What are the three types of Control Zones?

A. Hot, Warm, Cold

B. High, Medium, Low

C. First, Second, Third

4. Offensive measures are performed by:

A. First responder's

B. Members of the Emergency Response Team.

C. None of the Above

5. Each Medical Surveillance Program should be reviewed __________ to ensure that it is in compliance with current

OSHA standards concerning medical surveillance.

A. Annually

B. Semi-Annually

C. Monthly

6. Identify the hazardous substance spilled, Evaluate spill hazards, protecting personnel, communicate with appropriate personnel, follow the appropriate spill control procedures and clean up the spilled substance;

These are all a part of the:

A. Spill Clean- up Procedure

B. Spill Assignment Plan

C. Spill Assessment Procedure

7.Lower level of liquid beneath hole. Contain the spilled material by diking, retaining or diverting. Clean area around the hole. Plug the hole.

These are:

A. Offensive Strategies

B. Defensive Strategies

C. Part of the Drum Leak Procedures

8.Up righting damaged containers, Closing valves and lids, Plugging and patching damaged containers,

Shutting down process systems or depressurizing vessels are:

A. Types of Offensive Strategies

B. Types of Defensive Strategies

C. Drum Leak Procedures

9. What is the purpose of spill control and containment?

A. Prevent the spread of chemicals

B. Eliminate the cause of the spill

C. Make the chemical less harmful

D. A, B, and C

E. A and B only

10. What does Decontamination mean?

A. Putting equipment away in their proper place

B. Making sure to take a shower when you get home from work!

C. Removing or neutralizing hazardous substances from workers and their equipment.

11.Monitoring instruments include:

A. Direct reading instruments for ionizing radiation

B. Meters that read air for IDLH or other toxic condition

C. Color metric detection device

D. All of the Above

12. Every Medical Surveillance program should include:

A. Pre- employment screening

B. Periodic ( yearly) medical exams and follow up exams

C. Termination exams

D. Emergency and non-emergency treatment

E. All of the Above

13. When should monitoring of site entry

be done?

A. Before site entry

B. After site entry

C. Upon initial entry

14. True or False

A good medical surveillance program can screen out potential employees or response personnel with regards to their health and fitness and provide an early detection to chronic health problems.

15. Any emergency response personnel or waste workers who is routinely exposed to hazardous or toxic substances _____ days or more a year must be placed in a Medical Surveillance Program as required by OSHA.

A. 15

B. 30

C. 90

Part 3

1. True or False

If skin is exposed to a hazardous chemical you should remove the

contaminated clothing and wash thoroughly.

2. The information that should be on a Container Label include:

A. Handling instructions,

Hazards associated with the chemical

B. PPE, Chemical's characteristics

C. A Only

D. Both A and B

3. What should chemical containers be labeled with?

A. Chemical Name, PPE, Responsible Party

B. Chemical Name, Hazard Warning, Responsible Party

C. Only the Chemical Name is required

4. The Elephant man is an example what effect chemicals have on the human body?

A. Carinogenic effect

B. Mutagenic effect

C. Teratogenic effect

5. The lowest dose other than LD 50 of a substance introduced by any route other

than inhalation that has been reported to have caused death in humans and animals is called:

A. LD 50

B. LD LO

C. LC 50

7. What are the Routes of exposure for toxins?

A. Inhalation

B. Absorption

C. Ingestion

D. Injection

E. All of the Above

8. True or False

Toxicology is the study of the interaction between chemical agents and the human body.

9. Cleaners, Fumes, Solvents, Gas and

Polymers, Pesticides are considered

to be:

A. Toxins

B. Corrosives

C. None of the Above

10. What is caused by a sudden, short-term exposure?

A. DURATION

B. DOSE

C. DOSE/RESPONSE

D. ACCUTE EFFECT

E. CHRONIC EFFECT

11. "PEL's" for chemicals created by OSHA stands for:

A. "Permissible Exposure Liabilities"

B. "Permissible Exposure Limits"

C. "Personal Exposure Limits"

D. None of the Above

12. The quantity of chemical hazard you

are exposed to is called:

A. DURATION

B. DOSE

C. DOSE/RESPONSE

D. ACCUTE EFFECT

E. CHRONIC EFFECT

13.What are the two major sources of information about hazardous chemicals?

A. OSHA, Label on the chemical's container

B. NIOSH, Label on the chemical's container

C. MSDS, Label on the chemical's container

14.Who is responsible for all containers of hazardous chemicals entering the workplace?

A. ON SITE SUPERVISOR

B. ON SITE ADVISOR

C. ON SITE MANAGER

15. The part of the body that absorbs the most chemicals per hour is the:

A. Ear Canal

B. Abdomen

C. Forehead

D. Genital Area

E. Palm

Part 4

1. Some of the things that can affect a Respirator’s seal include:

A. Scars

B. Changes in the structure of your face caused by dentures

C. Extreme variations in weight

D. All of the Above

2. True or False

If a Respirator has been modified to accommodate wearing glasses, it must be re-certified.

3. True or False

All Personal Protective Equipment should be checked periodically for fit and condition.

4. What steps should you follow to check your PPE before using it?

A. Make sure all connections are tight

B. Look for holes or snags.

C. Examine rubber or plastic components for deterioration.

D. A and C only

E. A, B, and C

5.What type of respirator can be equipped with temperature control devices?

A. SCBA's

B. Airline Respirators

C. None of the Above

6. What type of respirator is in a small tank that can be carried on your back, and if often used by fire-fighters?

A. SCBA's

B. Airline Respirators

C. None of the Above

7. What type of respirators are generally used when there are heavy concentrations of hazardous substances

in the air or there is not enough oxygen to support normal breathing?

A. Airline Respirators

B. SCBA's

C. Air Supplying Respirators

8. Protective measures against hazards include:

A. Select and use respiratory safety equipment that has been designed for the hazard(s) we are dealing with.

B. Learn what general respiratory safety procedures we can apply.

C. Install a ventilation system to circulate fresh air in our work area.

D. A, B, and C

E. A and C only

9. Which respiratory hazard is produced from solid materials?

A. Dust

B. Mist

C. Vapors

D. Gases

E. Fumes

10.What is normally produced from chemical processes, especially from operations involving heat or pressure?

A. Gases

B. Vapors

C. Oxygen deficiency and temperature extremes

Part 5

1.What are some of the symptoms of a heart attack?

A. Difficulty in breathing.

B. Feeling pressure or tightness in the chest.

C. Nausea or indigestion.

D. A, B, and C

E. A and B only

2.If a person is experiencing shock you should:

A. Soak them in a cool bath

B. Wrap them in a blanket to keep them warm

C. Panic

3.True or False

If a person does not have a pulse, you should administer CPR if you are certified.

4.Rescue Breathing is also known as

A. Artificial regurgitation

B. Artificial respiration

C. Assisted response-breathing

5.Make a fist, with thumb sticking out. Place your thumb above the victim's navel but below the sternum. Hold the fist tight with the other hand. Make quick, strong inward-and-upward thrusts against the victim's abdomen.

The above are some of the steps describing

A. The Heimlich maneuver

B. Rescue breathing

C. The latest dance craze

6.True or False

.If you are taking prescription drugs that can make you sleepy or drowsy, it is not necessary to inform your supervisor.

7.What happens when you get a heat stroke?

A. The body's temperature control system stops working.

B. The body is unable to cool itself by sweating.

C. Both A and B

8.Overheating usually occurs starting at temperatures over ____ degrees.

A. 110

B. 95

C. 90

9.What type of injury has no open wound?

A. Simple fracture

B. Broken arm

C. Compound fracture

10.If you get a sprain or strain, apply ice for ____ minutes and remove cold for ____ minutes, repeating as recommended by your doctor.

A. 30, 15

B. 15, 30

C. You should not apply ice to a strain

Part 6

1. True or False

Where local management deems necessary, hot work permits

must be completed before beginning any spark producing operation.

2. True or False

Plastic containers may be used to contain hydrocarbons

or explosive fluids.

3. Chain of command at each work location

Methods to account for all personnel at each work location.

Evacuation process.

Assistance to professional Firefighters and EMS personnel.

These are all part of the

A. Emergency Notification Procedures

B. Emergency Protection Plan

C. Emergency Evaluation Plan

4. When operating a fire extinguisher, aim at the ________ of the fire.

A. Base

B. Back

C. Top

5.The PASS SYSTEM describes

A. Different classes of fires and what kind of extinguishers to use

B. How to operate fire extinguishers

C. Passing responsibility on to the right people

6. What class of fire is the most unusual type of fire, involving combustible metals or chemicals?

A. D

B. A

C. C

D. B

7. The "domino effect" means:

A. When an incident occurs, events pick up speed

B. Incidents spread from one area to another

C. B only

D. A and B

8. True or False

Never try and fight a fire that has spread beyond your control.

9. In an emergency situation, we need to follow the guidelines of our facility's ________ ________.

A. Emergency Plan

B. Escape Plan

C. Emergency Procedures

10. The best way to determine how prepared you are for an emergency is through a:

A. Live exercise

B. Table Top Drill

C. None of the Above

11. What type of Emergency Plan test uses diagrams or models?

A. Live exercise

B. Table-Top Drill

C. None of the Above

12. An Emergency Plan includes what following information?

A. Departments that can provide emergency assistance and equipment

B. Descriptions of all facility warning sirens and alarms.

C. Evacuation routes and procedures.

D. A and B only

E. All of the Above

Part 7

1.True or False

Outside Contractors do not need to inform "Your Company" of procedures used or hazards that may be created.

2. True or False

Outside contractors need to be notified of hazards associated with the confined space.

3. ________ ________ is the written or printed document that is provided by the employer to allow and control entry into a permit space and that contains the information specified in the Confined Space section of this module.

A. Entry Permit

B. Permit Supervisor

C. Authorized Permit

4. When using a Retrieval system, authorized entrants shall use

A. chest harness

B. full body harness

C. wrist-lets

D. A, B, or C can be used

5, What requirements apply to locations that have employees enter permit spaces to perform rescue services?

A. Be provided and trained with the proper PPE and rescue equipment

B. Receive the same training that is required of authorized entrants

C. Practice making permit space rescues and be trained in first aid and CPR

D. A and C only

E. A, B, and C

7. What type of communication method should the Attendant have with the Entrants?

A. Verbal

B. Physical

C. Visual

D. A only

E. A, B, C or a combination of A, B, C

8. Where is it necessary for the Attendant to monitor?

A. Both inside and outside the confined space

B. Inside the confined space only

C. Outside the confined space only

9. True or False

It is safe to enter a confined space without respiratory protection if it has been tested for oxygen, flammable

and toxic gases, and the values are within the proper limits.

10. The atmospheric limits for Flammable gases inside a confined space that permit entry without breathing apparatus are:

A. maximum 15% of LEL with or without breathing equipment

B. maximum 10% of LEL with or without breathing equipment

C. maximum 5% of LEL with or without breathing equipment

11. What is the order for items to be tested before entry is allowed in a confined space atmosphere?

A. Oxygen content, flammable gases/vapors, toxic gases/vapors

B. Toxic gases/vapors, flammable gases/vapors, oxygen content

C. Flammable gases/vapors, oxygen content, toxic gases/vapors

12. True or False

Permits are only valid for the shift in which the work started.

13. Who is responsible for implementing and enforcing the permit space program.

A. Operating supervisors

B. Authorized entrants

C. OSHA

13. An individual stationed outside one or more permit spaces and monitors authorized personnel is called an...

A. Authorized entrant

B. Attendant

C. Entry Supervisor

D. Entry permit

E. Entry

14. A Confined Space...

A. Contains material that can engulf entrants

B. Contains other recognized hazards

C. Can contain a potential hazardous atmosphere

D. All of the Above

15. True or False

A Confined Space is large enough to work in, but is not designed for continuous use.

Part 8

1. True or False

When handling a spill, keep hazardous materials out of storm drains and sewers.

2. If hazardous chemicals splash into the eye, the chemical's MSDS may tell you to irrigate the eyes for at least ________ minutes.

A. Five

B. Fifteen

C. Two

3. Another valuable source of emergency information is the ________ Emergency Response Guidebook.

A. DOT's

B. OSHA's

C. NIOSH

5. Turn to the ________ (bordered) pages to tell you how far to keep people from the site of release of poisonous vapors.

A. Yellow

B. Orange

C. Green

6. Improper filling out of a Bill of Lading can result:

A. It is not necessary to fill out a Bill of Lading

B. Life in jail, no parole

C. In a $200 fine.

7. What system should you use when operating a fire extinguisher?

A. OSHA

B. DOT

C. PASS

8. True or False

It is safe to store damaged packages.

9 True or False

Before handling any delivery, read the Label, MSDS, and Shipping Papers.

10. You should not accept packages that are

A. Damaged

B. Improperly marked or labeled

C. Without proper Shipping Papers

D. B and C only

E. A, B and C

11. True or False

It is not necessary for a transport vehicle shipping Hazardous Materials to have Shipping Papers.

12. What information should the MSDS provide?

A. how to reduce the risk of fire and explosion.

B. health hazard and first aid information.

C. List hazardous ingredients.

D. A, B and C

E. B and C only

12. What does the Hazardous Materials Shipping Pagers section show?

A. How to fill out the shipping pagers with the proper shipping name

B. The rules associated with hazardous materials

C. Both A and B

13. According to the Hazardous Materials Regulations Segregation requirements, an ____ indicates the materials cannot

be loaded on the same trailer, and an ____ indicates they can be loaded on the same trailer but must be segregated.

A. O, X

B. X, O

C. All Hazardous Materials can be loaded together if it is done carefully.

14. The ________ is responsible for providing the appropriate placards for a shipment.

The ________ is responsible for applying them correctly to the vehicle and maintaining them during transport.

A. Shipper, Carrier

B. OSHA, DOT

C. Carrier, Shipper

15. Hazard Class Labels and Placards...

A. Are designed to conform to DOT regulations.

B. Identify specific hazards presented by a product.

C. Both A and B

D. A only

True or False

Hydrogen Sulfide in small concentrations

is easily detectable because of its odor

of rotten eggs.

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