1: PRACTICE MANAGEMENT
18: COMMON PATHOLOGICAL AND
FUNCTIONAL DISORDERS
Which of the following is not a part of the ocular adnexa? (p297)
a. eyelids
b. lacrimal system
c. conjunctiva
d. orbit
An abnormality in which one or both eyelids
droop is known as: (p297)
a. blepharoptosis
b. entropion
c. ectropion
d. dermatochalasis
Excessive eyelid skin, commonly caused by
aging is known as: (p297)
a. blepharoptosis
b. entropion
c. ectropion
d. dermatochalasis
4. Yellowish fatty deposits that occur on the
upper and lower eyelids, usually on the
medial side are called: (p298)
a. stye
b. chalazion
c. xanthelasma
d. basal cell carcinoma
5. The tumor that typically has a raised surface
with “pearly” edges is (p299)
a. squamous cell carcinoma
b. basal cell carcinoma
c. keratocanthoma
d. skin tag
6. A tumor that a patient may describe as a “scab
that will not heal” would most likely be a:
(p299)
a. squamous cell carcinoma
b. basal cell carcinoma
c. keratocanthoma
d. skin tag
7. Which of the following is characterized by
painful, vesicular skin eruptions? (p299)
a. herpes simplex
b. herpes zoster
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. basal cell carcinoma
8. Which of the following is the first treatment
step in the majority of infant dacryocystitis?
(p299)
a. massage and antibiotic drops
b. steroid drops
c. surgery
d. observe for 3 months
9. Allergic conjunctivitis is commonly
characterized by: (p300)
a. mucopurlent discharge
b. inflammation of the conjunctiva
c. itching
d. redness
10. A raised, whitish, triangular-shaped wedge of
fibrovascular tissue on the conjunctiva is
called: (p301)
a. pinguecula
b. pterygium
c. both a & b
d. none of the above
11. A corneal dendritic figure is associated with:
(p302)
a. pinguecula
b. pterygium
c. herpes zoster
d. herpes simplex
13. Which condition are the following symptoms
associated with: epiphoria, foreign body
sensation, burning and sometimes itching?
(p302-303)
a. pinguecula
b. xanthelasma
c. keratitis sicca
d. all of the above
14. Which of the following conditions are
associated with “cells and flare”? (p303)
a. anterior uveitis
b. keratitis sicca
c. Sjögren’s syndrome
d. glaucoma
15. The most common form of glaucoma is:
(p303)
a. primary open angle glaucoma
b. acute angle closure glaucoma
c. secondary glaucoma
d. congenital glaucoma
16. A pseudophakic patient has had (p304)
a. cataract surgery
b. glaucoma surgery
c. an intraocular lens implant
d. retinal surgery
17. The leading cause of legal blindness for people
over the age of 65 in the United States is:
(p305)
a. cataract
b. glaucoma
c. eye injury
d. macular degeneration
18. Inward turning of the eyelid is known as:
(p297)
a. Ectropion
b. Entropion
c. Blepharoptosis
d. Dermatochalasis
19. A patient with xanthelasma should have
bloodwork done to check for: (p298)
a. Abnormal red blood cells
b. Abnormal white blood cells
c. Abnormal lipid levels
d. Anemia
20. The most common eyelid malignancy is:
(p299)
a. Chalazion
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Xanthelasma
21. Another name for herpes zoster is: (p299)
a. Varicella
b. Chicken pox
c. Ophthalmicus
d. Shingles
22. Which of the following types of conjunctivitis
is most commonly associated with contact lens
wear? (p300)
a. Giant papillary
b. Bacterial
c. Atopic
d. Vernal
23. Treatment for a subconjunctival hemorrhage
is: (p301)
a. Antibiotic eyedrops
b. Cold compresses and artificial tears
c. Lid scrubs and warm compresses
d. Antibiotic ointment
24. Which of the following can affect visual acuity
by extending across the cornea? (p301)
a. Pinguecula
b. Pterygium
c. Neither A nor B
d. Both A & B
25. A patient who has a corneal abrasion caused by
a tree branch is at risk for: (p302)
a. Superficial punctuate keratitis
b. Bacterial keratitis
c. Fungal keratitis
d. Exposure keratitis
26. The type of keratitis that manifests a
characteristics branch-shaped figure on the
cornea is: (p302)
a. Herpes simplex
b. Fungal
c. Bacterial
d. Superficial punctuate
27. The degenerative corneal disease that results in
irregular astigmatism is: (p302)
a. Keratoconus
b. Arcus
c. Keratitis sicca
d. Sjögren’s syndrome
28. Which of the following is not a treatment of
keratitis sicca? (p303)
a. Artificial tears
b. Punctal occlusion
c. Cautery
d. Epiphoria
29. Which of the following eye conditions would
most likely manifest a constricted pupil?
(p303)
a. keratitis sicca
b. angle closure glaucoma
c. iritis
d. open angle glaucoma
30. A pooling of blood in the anterior chamber is a:
(p304)
a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
b. Hyphema
c. Leukocyte
d. Uveitis
31. Light sensitivity, tearing, and uncontrolled
blinking can be symptoms of: (p304)
a. Primary open angle glaucoma
b. Secondary glaucoma
c. Congenital glaucoma
d. Acute angle closure glaucoma
32. Patients with _________ glaucoma have
increased optic nerve cupping and visual field
loss, despite the intraocular pressure being
within “normal” limits. (p304)
a. acute angle closure
b. primary open angle
c. secondary
d. low tension
33. Which of the following is not associated with a
posterior vitreous detachment? (p305)
a. Vitreous shrinkage
b. Decreased visual acuity
c. Floaters
d. Flashes of light
34. Which of the following surgical procedures
uses a silicone band to apply pressure to the
retina? (p305)
a. Intraocular silicone oil tamponade
b. Argon laser retinopexy
c. Pneumoretinopexy
d. Scleral buckling
35. The _____________ is the main supplier of
blood and oxygen to the retina. (p306)
a. central retinal artery (CRAO)
b. central retinal vein (CRVO)
c. optic nerve
d. choroid
36. The hallmark of proliferative diabetic
retinopathy is: (p307)
a. New blood vessel growth
b. Myopic shifts
c. The appearance of exudates
d. The appearance of Microaneurysms
37. Grave’s disease is associated with: (p308)
a. Hypertension
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Thyroid dysfunction
d. Sickle cell disease
38. Plaquenil may be prescribed for: (p308)
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypertension
c. Retinitis pigmentosa
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
39. The most notable effect of sickle cell disease on
the ocular system is: (p309)
a. Dry eyes
b. Neovascularization
c. Color vision defects
d. Visual field defects
40. Which of the following is associated with
AIDS? (p309)
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Xanthelasma
c. Arcus
d. Toxoplasmosis
41. Symptoms of entropion are… (p297)
a. tearing
b. foreign body sensation
c. possible corneal abrasion
d. all of the above
42. Symptoms of ectropion are… (p297)
a. tearing
b. possible corneal abrasion
c. inflammation
d. a & c
43. The following are most commonly caused by
age-relation…(p297)
a. entropion
b. dermatochalasis
c. ptosis
d. all of the above
44. ___________ is an inflammation (and/or
infection) of the lacrimal sac. (p299)
a. chalazion
b. hordeolum
c. dacryocystitis
d. pinguecula
45. A ________ is a yellowish-white, slightly
raised mass comprised of degenerated elastic
tissue, found in the nasal and temporal
conjunctiva. (p301)
a. pterygium
b. pinguecula
c. cataract
d. stye
46. What is another name for a stye? (p298)
a. chalazion
b. internal hordeolum
c. external hordeolum
d. xanthelasma
47. Patients over the age of sixty may present with
a ring-shaped, grayish-white deposit of
phospholipid and cholesterol near the
peripheral edge of the cornea. (p302)
a. keratitis sicca
b. keratoconus
c. arcus senilis
d. glaucoma
48. _____________ is a bilateral, hereditary,
progressive degeneration of the retina, mainly
the rods. (p305)
a. retinal detachment
b. retinitis pigmentosa
c. sclera buckling
d. retinal hole
49. Patients with______________, a chronic
connective tissue disease, generally have a
combination of dry eyes, dry mouth, and
arthritis. (p303)
a. Sjögren’s syndrome
b. glaucoma
c. keratitis sicca
d. dermatochalasis
50. _______________ is an inherited blood
disorder that affects red blood cells. An
estimated 70,000 people in the U.S. have it.
(p308)
a. AIDS
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Sickle cell disease
d. none of the above
51. Which muscle(s) raises the eyelids? (p297)
a. levator palpebrae superioris
b. ciliary
c. orbicularis oculi
d. lateral rectus
52. Surgery is usually indicated in congenital ptosis
to avoid: (p297)
a. strabismus
b. retinal detachment
c. glaucoma
d. occlusion amblyopia
53. Despite treatment, the xanthelasma often recur
in about ____ of cases. (p298)
a. 25%
b. 40%
c. 55%
d. 60%
54. A stye is most commonly associated with
(p298).
a. staphylococcus bacteria
b. inflamed Meibomian gland
c. basal cell carcinoma
d. herpes zoster
55. A clogged or inflamed Meibomian gland, an oil
secreting gland found in the tarsus of the eyelid
(p298)
a. stye
b. external hordeolum
c. chalazion
d. shingles
56. Hordeolums are usually associated with an
infection of __________, whereas chalazion are
__________ of the same glands that affect
hordeolums. (p298)
a. lipogranulomas, staph aureus
b. staph aureus, lipogranulomas
c. staphylococcus bacteria, staph aureus
d. staph aureus, staphylococcus bacteria
57. __________ is the second most common malignant eyelid tumor. (p299)
a. squamous cell carcinoma
b. basal cell carcinoma
c. sebaceous cell carcinoma
d. malignant melanoma
58. Herpes zoster or shingles, is most commonly
found in people over age ___. (p299)
a. 40s
b. 50s
c. 60s
d. 70s
59. Which area(s) can be involved in cases of
herpes zoster ophthalmicus Sebaceous cell car? (p299)
a. forehead
b. eyelids
c. conjunctiva
d. all of the above
60. Ocular disturbance(s) of herpes zoster: (p299)
a. corneal ulcers
b. secondary glaucoma
c. a & b
d. ptosis
61. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
tearing, swelling, and watery discharge and can
be caused by allergy to pollen? (p300)
a. atopic
b. bacterial
c. allergic
d. viral
62. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
mucopurlent discharge, redness, and a “gritty”
feeling; usually contagious and can be caused
by a bacterial infection? (p300)
a. allergic
b. atopic
c. bacterial
d. contact
63. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
redness, swelling, and itching and can be
caused by allergy to eyedrops or cosmetics?
(p300)
a. allergic
b. atopic
c. bacterial
d. contact
64. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
itching and ropey discharge, papillae on the
palpebral conjunctiva and most commonly
occurs in ages 3 to 25 in warm weather
climates? (p300)
a. giant papillary
b. atopic
c. vernal catarrh
d. viral
65. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by
redness, discharge, swelling, and gritty feeling;
usually contagious and can be caused by
viruses? (p300)
` a. vernal
b. viral
c. atopic
d. bacterial
66. The transparent mucous membrane that covers
the entire eye, except the cornea, is know as
the: (p300)
a. palpebral conjunctiva
b. bulbar conjunctiva
c. fornix
d. sclera
67. What membrane lines the inner lids? (p300)
a. palpebral conjunctiva
b. bulbar conjunctiva
c. fornix
d. sclera
68. The opaque, protective layer of the eye, made
of collagen and elastic fibers. (p300)
a. palpebral conjunctiva
b. bulbar conjunctiva
c. fornix
d. sclera
69. The common term for conjunctivitis is: (p300)
a. giant papillary
b. uveitis
c. pink eye
d. iritis
70. A decongestant or antihistamine eyedrop may
be given to a patient with __________ (or
allergic) conjunctivitis, while an antibacterial
eyedrop would be given in the case of bacterial
conjunctivitis. (p300).
a. atopic
b. viral
c. vernal
d. none of the above
71. Spontaneous bleeding from a blood vessel
under the conjunctiva is known as a: (p300)
a. hyphema
b. iritis
c. a & b
d. subconjunctival hemorrhage
72. The __________ is the transparent, front part of
the eye that covers the anterior chamber.
(p301).
a. sclera
b. conjunctiva
c. cornea
d. lens
73. __________ simply means inflammation of the
cornea. (p302.
a. keratitis
b. uveitis
c. iritis
d. conjunctivitis
74. A patient with __________ will report a
painful, photophobic, red eye, usually with
decreased vision and tearing. (p302)
a. herpes simplex keratitis
b. bacterial keratitis
c. exposure keratitis
d. superficial punctate keratitis
75. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections are mostly
seen by: (p302)
a. contact lens wearers
b. fingernail eye injuries
c. tree branch eye injuries
d. herpes simplex patients
76. Which type of eyedrops should never be used
in the case of a herpes simplex virus ulcer?
(p302)
a. steroid
b. antibacterial
c. antihistamine
d. all of the above
77. Which type of keratitis can develop when the
eyelids do not completely cover the cornea?
(p302)
a. herpes simplex keratitis
b. bacterial keratitis
c. exposure keratitis
d. superficial punctate keratitis
78. Which type of keratitis cause is unknown?
(p302)
a. herpes simplex keratitis
b. Thygesons’superficial punctate keratitis
c. bacterial keratitis
d. exposure keratitis
79. What method(s) are used to help correct
keratoconus? (p 302)
a. soft contact lenses
b. rigid gas-permeable lenses
c. penetrating keratoplasty
d. b & c
80. The uvea, or uveal tract, contain the pigmented,
vascular layer(s) of the eye, which are: (p303)
a. anterior iris
b. ciliary body
c. posterior choroid
d. all of the above
81. Which area(s) are involved in anterior uveitis?
(p303)
a. iris
b. ciliary body
c. posterior choroid
d. a & b
82. What are the hallmark signs of anterior uveitis?
(p303)
a. eyeball protrusion
b. leukocytes
c. keratitis
d. ptosis
83. Treatment of chronic uveitis: (p303)
a. anti-inflammatory medication
b. cylcoplegic eyedrops
c. monitor IOP
d. all of the above
84. Which is not a form of uveitis? (p303)
a. posterior
b. lens-induced
c. primary
d. heterochromic
85. Which type of uveitis is unilateral, low-grade?
inflammation of the iris and ciliary body, in
which the affected iris appears lighter in color.
(p303)
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. heterochromic
d. lens-induced
86. Which type of uveitis occurs after the lens
capsule is torn from trauma or cataract
surgery? (p303)
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. heterochromic
d. lens-induced
87. Which type of uveitis is inflammation of the
choroid? (p303)
a. anterior
b. posterior
c. heterochromic
d. lens-induced
88. _________ is a common and potentially blinding ocular condition characterized by: elevated intraocular pressure, and increase in optic nerve cupping, and defects in the visual field? (p303)
a. glaucoma
b. cataract
c. retinitis pigmentosa
d. retinal detachment
89. __________ occurs when the anterior chamber
angle becomes blocked, stopping the aqueous
outflow, which cause the intraocular pressure to
rise at a very fast rate. (p 304)
a. secondary glaucoma
b. primary open angle glaucoma
c. acute angle closure glaucoma
d. congenital glaucoma
90. Which type of glaucoma is the result of a separate ocular manifestation, or injury? (p304)
a. primary
b. acute
c. low tension
d. secondary
91. Which type of glaucoma is high intraocular
pressure in one or both eyes, from birth to six
months of age, caused by developmental
abnormalities in the anterior chamber? (p304)
a. primary
b. congenital
c. low tension
d. secondary
92. A __________ is an opacity or cloudiness of
the crystalline lens. (p304)
a. cataract
b. ptosis
c. xanthelasma
d. arcus senilis
93. Symptoms of cataract include the following
except. (p304)
a. gradual blurring
b. halos/haze around lights
c. epiphoria
d. decreased night vision
94. The ________ is the transparent, thick, jelly-
like substance that fills the posterior two thirds
of the eye. (p304)
a. cornea
b. vitreous
c. aqueous
d. none of the above
95. Which of the following surgical procedures
uses an intraocular injection of an inert gas
bubble? (p305)
a. Intraocular silicone oil tamponade
b. Argon laser retinopexy
c. pneumatic retinopexy
d. Scleral buckling
96. Which of the following surgical procedures
uses an injection of silicone oil into the
vitreous? (p305)
a. Intraocular silicone oil tamponade
b. Argon laser retinopexy
c. Pneumoretinopexy
d. Scleral buckling
97. The majority of retinal detachments originate
from: (p305)
a. retinal hole
b. retinal tear
c. a & b
d. neither a or b
98. Symptoms of macular degeneration include the
following except. (p305)
a. difficult reading small print
b. straight lines appear broken/crooked
c. hazy/dark spot in central vision
d. decreased peripheral vision
99. How many forms of macular degeneration are
there? (p305)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
100. Which form of macular degeneration is the
most severe? (p305)
a. wet
b. dry
c. age-related
d. congenital
101. All of the following are treatments that play a
role in slowing the progression of macular
degeneration except: (p305)
a. photodynamic therapy
b. pegaptan sodium injections
c. multivitamins
d. sclera buckling
102. All of the following multivitamins have been
researched to show a decrease in the
progression of macular degeneration except:
(p305)
a. vitamin E
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin D
d. Zinc
103. Central retinal vein occlusion is generally
caused by a ________. (p306)
a. hyphema
b. thrombus
c. trauma
d. plaque
104. The following patients are at greater risk for
central retinal vein occlusion except: (p306)
a. diabetes
b. myopic
c. high blood pressure
d. glaucoma
105. __________ is a metabolic disease in which
the body doesn’t produce or properly use
insulin. (p306)
a. retinitis pigmentosa
b. macular degeneration
c. sickle cell
d. diabetes mellitus
106. In some case, the first sign of diabetes in a
patient is large fluctuations in: (p306)
a. refraction
b. balance
c. IOP
d. peripheral vision
107. The early stages of diabetic retinopathy is
called: (p307)
a. vascular
b. proliferative
c. non-proliferative
d. b & c
108. Weak spots in enlarged retina blood vessels
are called: (p307)
a. exudates
b. microaneurysms
c. vein irregularities
d. arterial hemorrhages
109. The following are different stages of diabetic
retinopathy except: (p307)
a. background
b. proliferative
c. non-proliferative
d. macular degeneration
110. Which surgical procedure removes cloudy
vitreous? (p307)
a. vitrectomy
b. argon laser retinopexy
c. scleral buckling
d. Pneumoretinopexy
111. Which surgical procedure is the most common
treatment for diabetic retinopathy? (p307)
a. laser
b. vitrectomy
c. intraocular injections
d. scleral buckling
112. The most common systemic disease in
American adults with approximately one in
every four adults affected. (p307)
a. hypertension
b. high blood pressure
c. diabetes
d. a & b
113. Normally, systolic blood pressure (the first
and largest number) measures between:
(p307)
a. 110 and 120 mmHg
b. 120 and 130 mmHg
c. 130 and 140 mmHg
d. 140 and 150 mmHg
114. Diastolic blood pressure (the second, small
number measure between: (p307)
a. 55 and 65 mmHg
b. 65 and 75 mmHg
c. 75 and 85 mmHg
d. 85 and 95 mmHg
115. High blood pressure ocular findings include
the following except: (p307)
a. wide arterioles
b. vein irregularities
c. flame-shaped hemorrhages
d. cotton-wool spots
116. What is a clinical sign of the presence of
Grave’s disease? (p308)
a. exophthalmos
b. erythematosis
c. ptosis
d. iritis
117. The following are ocular symptoms of
Grave’s disease except: (p308)
a. lagophthalmos
b. amblyopia
c. optic nerve inflammation
d. fibrotic extraocular muscles
118. __________ is an acquired, autoimmune
disorder that results in fatigable muscle
weakness, made worse by activity and
improved with rest. (p308)
a. Grave’s disease
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Sickle cell disease
119. __________ is a chronic inflammatory disease
that can affect various parts of the body,
especially the skin, joints, blood, and kidneys.
(p308)
a. Grave’s disease
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
d. Sickle cell disease
120. __________ is a multi-system disorder of
opportunistic infections caused by the human
immunodeficiency virus. (p309)
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Sickle cell disease
121. __________ is a fungal infection thought to be
responsible for ocular histoplasmosis
syndrome. (p309)
a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
d. Histoplasma capulatum
122. The __________ is a protozoan that can affect
many body tissues, such as the liver, lungs,
and brain. (p309)
a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Histoplasma capulatum
d. Sickle cell disease
123. __________ results from an infected mother
passing the infection to the fetus. (p309)
a. congenital histoplasma
b. congenital sarcoma
c. congenital toxoplasmosis
d. congenital myasthenia
124. Symptoms of ocular toxoplasmosis are the following except: (p309-310)
a. inflamed retina
b. hazy vision
c. new floaters
d. severe ocular pain
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