1: PRACTICE MANAGEMENT



18: COMMON PATHOLOGICAL AND

FUNCTIONAL DISORDERS

Which of the following is not a part of the ocular adnexa? (p297)

a. eyelids

b. lacrimal system

c. conjunctiva

d. orbit

An abnormality in which one or both eyelids

droop is known as: (p297)

a. blepharoptosis

b. entropion

c. ectropion

d. dermatochalasis

Excessive eyelid skin, commonly caused by

aging is known as: (p297)

a. blepharoptosis

b. entropion

c. ectropion

d. dermatochalasis

4. Yellowish fatty deposits that occur on the

upper and lower eyelids, usually on the

medial side are called: (p298)

a. stye

b. chalazion

c. xanthelasma

d. basal cell carcinoma

5. The tumor that typically has a raised surface

with “pearly” edges is (p299)

a. squamous cell carcinoma

b. basal cell carcinoma

c. keratocanthoma

d. skin tag

6. A tumor that a patient may describe as a “scab

that will not heal” would most likely be a:

(p299)

a. squamous cell carcinoma

b. basal cell carcinoma

c. keratocanthoma

d. skin tag

7. Which of the following is characterized by

painful, vesicular skin eruptions? (p299)

a. herpes simplex

b. herpes zoster

c. squamous cell carcinoma

d. basal cell carcinoma

8. Which of the following is the first treatment

step in the majority of infant dacryocystitis?

(p299)

a. massage and antibiotic drops

b. steroid drops

c. surgery

d. observe for 3 months

9. Allergic conjunctivitis is commonly

characterized by: (p300)

a. mucopurlent discharge

b. inflammation of the conjunctiva

c. itching

d. redness

10. A raised, whitish, triangular-shaped wedge of

fibrovascular tissue on the conjunctiva is

called: (p301)

a. pinguecula

b. pterygium

c. both a & b

d. none of the above

11. A corneal dendritic figure is associated with:

(p302)

a. pinguecula

b. pterygium

c. herpes zoster

d. herpes simplex

13. Which condition are the following symptoms

associated with: epiphoria, foreign body

sensation, burning and sometimes itching?

(p302-303)

a. pinguecula

b. xanthelasma

c. keratitis sicca

d. all of the above

14. Which of the following conditions are

associated with “cells and flare”? (p303)

a. anterior uveitis

b. keratitis sicca

c. Sjögren’s syndrome

d. glaucoma

15. The most common form of glaucoma is:

(p303)

a. primary open angle glaucoma

b. acute angle closure glaucoma

c. secondary glaucoma

d. congenital glaucoma

16. A pseudophakic patient has had (p304)

a. cataract surgery

b. glaucoma surgery

c. an intraocular lens implant

d. retinal surgery

17. The leading cause of legal blindness for people

over the age of 65 in the United States is:

(p305)

a. cataract

b. glaucoma

c. eye injury

d. macular degeneration

18. Inward turning of the eyelid is known as:

(p297)

a. Ectropion

b. Entropion

c. Blepharoptosis

d. Dermatochalasis

19. A patient with xanthelasma should have

bloodwork done to check for: (p298)

a. Abnormal red blood cells

b. Abnormal white blood cells

c. Abnormal lipid levels

d. Anemia

20. The most common eyelid malignancy is:

(p299)

a. Chalazion

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

c. Basal cell carcinoma

d. Xanthelasma

21. Another name for herpes zoster is: (p299)

a. Varicella

b. Chicken pox

c. Ophthalmicus

d. Shingles

22. Which of the following types of conjunctivitis

is most commonly associated with contact lens

wear? (p300)

a. Giant papillary

b. Bacterial

c. Atopic

d. Vernal

23. Treatment for a subconjunctival hemorrhage

is: (p301)

a. Antibiotic eyedrops

b. Cold compresses and artificial tears

c. Lid scrubs and warm compresses

d. Antibiotic ointment

24. Which of the following can affect visual acuity

by extending across the cornea? (p301)

a. Pinguecula

b. Pterygium

c. Neither A nor B

d. Both A & B

25. A patient who has a corneal abrasion caused by

a tree branch is at risk for: (p302)

a. Superficial punctuate keratitis

b. Bacterial keratitis

c. Fungal keratitis

d. Exposure keratitis

26. The type of keratitis that manifests a

characteristics branch-shaped figure on the

cornea is: (p302)

a. Herpes simplex

b. Fungal

c. Bacterial

d. Superficial punctuate

27. The degenerative corneal disease that results in

irregular astigmatism is: (p302)

a. Keratoconus

b. Arcus

c. Keratitis sicca

d. Sjögren’s syndrome

28. Which of the following is not a treatment of

keratitis sicca? (p303)

a. Artificial tears

b. Punctal occlusion

c. Cautery

d. Epiphoria

29. Which of the following eye conditions would

most likely manifest a constricted pupil?

(p303)

a. keratitis sicca

b. angle closure glaucoma

c. iritis

d. open angle glaucoma

30. A pooling of blood in the anterior chamber is a:

(p304)

a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage

b. Hyphema

c. Leukocyte

d. Uveitis

31. Light sensitivity, tearing, and uncontrolled

blinking can be symptoms of: (p304)

a. Primary open angle glaucoma

b. Secondary glaucoma

c. Congenital glaucoma

d. Acute angle closure glaucoma

32. Patients with _________ glaucoma have

increased optic nerve cupping and visual field

loss, despite the intraocular pressure being

within “normal” limits. (p304)

a. acute angle closure

b. primary open angle

c. secondary

d. low tension

33. Which of the following is not associated with a

posterior vitreous detachment? (p305)

a. Vitreous shrinkage

b. Decreased visual acuity

c. Floaters

d. Flashes of light

34. Which of the following surgical procedures

uses a silicone band to apply pressure to the

retina? (p305)

a. Intraocular silicone oil tamponade

b. Argon laser retinopexy

c. Pneumoretinopexy

d. Scleral buckling

35. The _____________ is the main supplier of

blood and oxygen to the retina. (p306)

a. central retinal artery (CRAO)

b. central retinal vein (CRVO)

c. optic nerve

d. choroid

36. The hallmark of proliferative diabetic

retinopathy is: (p307)

a. New blood vessel growth

b. Myopic shifts

c. The appearance of exudates

d. The appearance of Microaneurysms

37. Grave’s disease is associated with: (p308)

a. Hypertension

b. Myasthenia gravis

c. Thyroid dysfunction

d. Sickle cell disease

38. Plaquenil may be prescribed for: (p308)

a. Hyperthyroidism

b. Hypertension

c. Retinitis pigmentosa

d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

39. The most notable effect of sickle cell disease on

the ocular system is: (p309)

a. Dry eyes

b. Neovascularization

c. Color vision defects

d. Visual field defects

40. Which of the following is associated with

AIDS? (p309)

a. Cytomegalovirus

b. Xanthelasma

c. Arcus

d. Toxoplasmosis

41. Symptoms of entropion are… (p297)

a. tearing

b. foreign body sensation

c. possible corneal abrasion

d. all of the above

42. Symptoms of ectropion are… (p297)

a. tearing

b. possible corneal abrasion

c. inflammation

d. a & c

43. The following are most commonly caused by

age-relation…(p297)

a. entropion

b. dermatochalasis

c. ptosis

d. all of the above

44. ___________ is an inflammation (and/or

infection) of the lacrimal sac. (p299)

a. chalazion

b. hordeolum

c. dacryocystitis

d. pinguecula

45. A ________ is a yellowish-white, slightly

raised mass comprised of degenerated elastic

tissue, found in the nasal and temporal

conjunctiva. (p301)

a. pterygium

b. pinguecula

c. cataract

d. stye

46. What is another name for a stye? (p298)

a. chalazion

b. internal hordeolum

c. external hordeolum

d. xanthelasma

47. Patients over the age of sixty may present with

a ring-shaped, grayish-white deposit of

phospholipid and cholesterol near the

peripheral edge of the cornea. (p302)

a. keratitis sicca

b. keratoconus

c. arcus senilis

d. glaucoma

48. _____________ is a bilateral, hereditary,

progressive degeneration of the retina, mainly

the rods. (p305)

a. retinal detachment

b. retinitis pigmentosa

c. sclera buckling

d. retinal hole

49. Patients with______________, a chronic

connective tissue disease, generally have a

combination of dry eyes, dry mouth, and

arthritis. (p303)

a. Sjögren’s syndrome

b. glaucoma

c. keratitis sicca

d. dermatochalasis

50. _______________ is an inherited blood

disorder that affects red blood cells. An

estimated 70,000 people in the U.S. have it.

(p308)

a. AIDS

b. Systemic lupus erythematosus

c. Sickle cell disease

d. none of the above

51. Which muscle(s) raises the eyelids? (p297)

a. levator palpebrae superioris

b. ciliary

c. orbicularis oculi

d. lateral rectus

52. Surgery is usually indicated in congenital ptosis

to avoid: (p297)

a. strabismus

b. retinal detachment

c. glaucoma

d. occlusion amblyopia

53. Despite treatment, the xanthelasma often recur

in about ____ of cases. (p298)

a. 25%

b. 40%

c. 55%

d. 60%

54. A stye is most commonly associated with

(p298).

a. staphylococcus bacteria

b. inflamed Meibomian gland

c. basal cell carcinoma

d. herpes zoster

55. A clogged or inflamed Meibomian gland, an oil

secreting gland found in the tarsus of the eyelid

(p298)

a. stye

b. external hordeolum

c. chalazion

d. shingles

56. Hordeolums are usually associated with an

infection of __________, whereas chalazion are

__________ of the same glands that affect

hordeolums. (p298)

a. lipogranulomas, staph aureus

b. staph aureus, lipogranulomas

c. staphylococcus bacteria, staph aureus

d. staph aureus, staphylococcus bacteria

57. __________ is the second most common malignant eyelid tumor. (p299)

a. squamous cell carcinoma

b. basal cell carcinoma

c. sebaceous cell carcinoma

d. malignant melanoma

58. Herpes zoster or shingles, is most commonly

found in people over age ___. (p299)

a. 40s

b. 50s

c. 60s

d. 70s

59. Which area(s) can be involved in cases of

herpes zoster ophthalmicus Sebaceous cell car? (p299)

a. forehead

b. eyelids

c. conjunctiva

d. all of the above

60. Ocular disturbance(s) of herpes zoster: (p299)

a. corneal ulcers

b. secondary glaucoma

c. a & b

d. ptosis

61. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by

tearing, swelling, and watery discharge and can

be caused by allergy to pollen? (p300)

a. atopic

b. bacterial

c. allergic

d. viral

62. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by

mucopurlent discharge, redness, and a “gritty”

feeling; usually contagious and can be caused

by a bacterial infection? (p300)

a. allergic

b. atopic

c. bacterial

d. contact

63. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by

redness, swelling, and itching and can be

caused by allergy to eyedrops or cosmetics?

(p300)

a. allergic

b. atopic

c. bacterial

d. contact

64. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by

itching and ropey discharge, papillae on the

palpebral conjunctiva and most commonly

occurs in ages 3 to 25 in warm weather

climates? (p300)

a. giant papillary

b. atopic

c. vernal catarrh

d. viral

65. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by

redness, discharge, swelling, and gritty feeling;

usually contagious and can be caused by

viruses? (p300)

` a. vernal

b. viral

c. atopic

d. bacterial

66. The transparent mucous membrane that covers

the entire eye, except the cornea, is know as

the: (p300)

a. palpebral conjunctiva

b. bulbar conjunctiva

c. fornix

d. sclera

67. What membrane lines the inner lids? (p300)

a. palpebral conjunctiva

b. bulbar conjunctiva

c. fornix

d. sclera

68. The opaque, protective layer of the eye, made

of collagen and elastic fibers. (p300)

a. palpebral conjunctiva

b. bulbar conjunctiva

c. fornix

d. sclera

69. The common term for conjunctivitis is: (p300)

a. giant papillary

b. uveitis

c. pink eye

d. iritis

70. A decongestant or antihistamine eyedrop may

be given to a patient with __________ (or

allergic) conjunctivitis, while an antibacterial

eyedrop would be given in the case of bacterial

conjunctivitis. (p300).

a. atopic

b. viral

c. vernal

d. none of the above

71. Spontaneous bleeding from a blood vessel

under the conjunctiva is known as a: (p300)

a. hyphema

b. iritis

c. a & b

d. subconjunctival hemorrhage

72. The __________ is the transparent, front part of

the eye that covers the anterior chamber.

(p301).

a. sclera

b. conjunctiva

c. cornea

d. lens

73. __________ simply means inflammation of the

cornea. (p302.

a. keratitis

b. uveitis

c. iritis

d. conjunctivitis

74. A patient with __________ will report a

painful, photophobic, red eye, usually with

decreased vision and tearing. (p302)

a. herpes simplex keratitis

b. bacterial keratitis

c. exposure keratitis

d. superficial punctate keratitis

75. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections are mostly

seen by: (p302)

a. contact lens wearers

b. fingernail eye injuries

c. tree branch eye injuries

d. herpes simplex patients

76. Which type of eyedrops should never be used

in the case of a herpes simplex virus ulcer?

(p302)

a. steroid

b. antibacterial

c. antihistamine

d. all of the above

77. Which type of keratitis can develop when the

eyelids do not completely cover the cornea?

(p302)

a. herpes simplex keratitis

b. bacterial keratitis

c. exposure keratitis

d. superficial punctate keratitis

78. Which type of keratitis cause is unknown?

(p302)

a. herpes simplex keratitis

b. Thygesons’superficial punctate keratitis

c. bacterial keratitis

d. exposure keratitis

79. What method(s) are used to help correct

keratoconus? (p 302)

a. soft contact lenses

b. rigid gas-permeable lenses

c. penetrating keratoplasty

d. b & c

80. The uvea, or uveal tract, contain the pigmented,

vascular layer(s) of the eye, which are: (p303)

a. anterior iris

b. ciliary body

c. posterior choroid

d. all of the above

81. Which area(s) are involved in anterior uveitis?

(p303)

a. iris

b. ciliary body

c. posterior choroid

d. a & b

82. What are the hallmark signs of anterior uveitis?

(p303)

a. eyeball protrusion

b. leukocytes

c. keratitis

d. ptosis

83. Treatment of chronic uveitis: (p303)

a. anti-inflammatory medication

b. cylcoplegic eyedrops

c. monitor IOP

d. all of the above

84. Which is not a form of uveitis? (p303)

a. posterior

b. lens-induced

c. primary

d. heterochromic

85. Which type of uveitis is unilateral, low-grade?

inflammation of the iris and ciliary body, in

which the affected iris appears lighter in color.

(p303)

a. anterior

b. posterior

c. heterochromic

d. lens-induced

86. Which type of uveitis occurs after the lens

capsule is torn from trauma or cataract

surgery? (p303)

a. anterior

b. posterior

c. heterochromic

d. lens-induced

87. Which type of uveitis is inflammation of the

choroid? (p303)

a. anterior

b. posterior

c. heterochromic

d. lens-induced

88. _________ is a common and potentially blinding ocular condition characterized by: elevated intraocular pressure, and increase in optic nerve cupping, and defects in the visual field? (p303)

a. glaucoma

b. cataract

c. retinitis pigmentosa

d. retinal detachment

89. __________ occurs when the anterior chamber

angle becomes blocked, stopping the aqueous

outflow, which cause the intraocular pressure to

rise at a very fast rate. (p 304)

a. secondary glaucoma

b. primary open angle glaucoma

c. acute angle closure glaucoma

d. congenital glaucoma

90. Which type of glaucoma is the result of a separate ocular manifestation, or injury? (p304)

a. primary

b. acute

c. low tension

d. secondary

91. Which type of glaucoma is high intraocular

pressure in one or both eyes, from birth to six

months of age, caused by developmental

abnormalities in the anterior chamber? (p304)

a. primary

b. congenital

c. low tension

d. secondary

92. A __________ is an opacity or cloudiness of

the crystalline lens. (p304)

a. cataract

b. ptosis

c. xanthelasma

d. arcus senilis

93. Symptoms of cataract include the following

except. (p304)

a. gradual blurring

b. halos/haze around lights

c. epiphoria

d. decreased night vision

94. The ________ is the transparent, thick, jelly-

like substance that fills the posterior two thirds

of the eye. (p304)

a. cornea

b. vitreous

c. aqueous

d. none of the above

95. Which of the following surgical procedures

uses an intraocular injection of an inert gas

bubble? (p305)

a. Intraocular silicone oil tamponade

b. Argon laser retinopexy

c. pneumatic retinopexy

d. Scleral buckling

96. Which of the following surgical procedures

uses an injection of silicone oil into the

vitreous? (p305)

a. Intraocular silicone oil tamponade

b. Argon laser retinopexy

c. Pneumoretinopexy

d. Scleral buckling

97. The majority of retinal detachments originate

from: (p305)

a. retinal hole

b. retinal tear

c. a & b

d. neither a or b

98. Symptoms of macular degeneration include the

following except. (p305)

a. difficult reading small print

b. straight lines appear broken/crooked

c. hazy/dark spot in central vision

d. decreased peripheral vision

99. How many forms of macular degeneration are

there? (p305)

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

100. Which form of macular degeneration is the

most severe? (p305)

a. wet

b. dry

c. age-related

d. congenital

101. All of the following are treatments that play a

role in slowing the progression of macular

degeneration except: (p305)

a. photodynamic therapy

b. pegaptan sodium injections

c. multivitamins

d. sclera buckling

102. All of the following multivitamins have been

researched to show a decrease in the

progression of macular degeneration except:

(p305)

a. vitamin E

b. vitamin C

c. vitamin D

d. Zinc

103. Central retinal vein occlusion is generally

caused by a ________. (p306)

a. hyphema

b. thrombus

c. trauma

d. plaque

104. The following patients are at greater risk for

central retinal vein occlusion except: (p306)

a. diabetes

b. myopic

c. high blood pressure

d. glaucoma

105. __________ is a metabolic disease in which

the body doesn’t produce or properly use

insulin. (p306)

a. retinitis pigmentosa

b. macular degeneration

c. sickle cell

d. diabetes mellitus

106. In some case, the first sign of diabetes in a

patient is large fluctuations in: (p306)

a. refraction

b. balance

c. IOP

d. peripheral vision

107. The early stages of diabetic retinopathy is

called: (p307)

a. vascular

b. proliferative

c. non-proliferative

d. b & c

108. Weak spots in enlarged retina blood vessels

are called: (p307)

a. exudates

b. microaneurysms

c. vein irregularities

d. arterial hemorrhages

109. The following are different stages of diabetic

retinopathy except: (p307)

a. background

b. proliferative

c. non-proliferative

d. macular degeneration

110. Which surgical procedure removes cloudy

vitreous? (p307)

a. vitrectomy

b. argon laser retinopexy

c. scleral buckling

d. Pneumoretinopexy

111. Which surgical procedure is the most common

treatment for diabetic retinopathy? (p307)

a. laser

b. vitrectomy

c. intraocular injections

d. scleral buckling

112. The most common systemic disease in

American adults with approximately one in

every four adults affected. (p307)

a. hypertension

b. high blood pressure

c. diabetes

d. a & b

113. Normally, systolic blood pressure (the first

and largest number) measures between:

(p307)

a. 110 and 120 mmHg

b. 120 and 130 mmHg

c. 130 and 140 mmHg

d. 140 and 150 mmHg

114. Diastolic blood pressure (the second, small

number measure between: (p307)

a. 55 and 65 mmHg

b. 65 and 75 mmHg

c. 75 and 85 mmHg

d. 85 and 95 mmHg

115. High blood pressure ocular findings include

the following except: (p307)

a. wide arterioles

b. vein irregularities

c. flame-shaped hemorrhages

d. cotton-wool spots

116. What is a clinical sign of the presence of

Grave’s disease? (p308)

a. exophthalmos

b. erythematosis

c. ptosis

d. iritis

117. The following are ocular symptoms of

Grave’s disease except: (p308)

a. lagophthalmos

b. amblyopia

c. optic nerve inflammation

d. fibrotic extraocular muscles

118. __________ is an acquired, autoimmune

disorder that results in fatigable muscle

weakness, made worse by activity and

improved with rest. (p308)

a. Grave’s disease

b. Systemic lupus erythematosus

c. Myasthenia gravis

d. Sickle cell disease

119. __________ is a chronic inflammatory disease

that can affect various parts of the body,

especially the skin, joints, blood, and kidneys.

(p308)

a. Grave’s disease

b. Myasthenia gravis

c. Systemic lupus erythematosus

d. Sickle cell disease

120. __________ is a multi-system disorder of

opportunistic infections caused by the human

immunodeficiency virus. (p309)

a. Systemic lupus erythematosus

b. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

c. Myasthenia gravis

d. Sickle cell disease

121. __________ is a fungal infection thought to be

responsible for ocular histoplasmosis

syndrome. (p309)

a. Toxoplasma gondii

b. Myasthenia gravis

c. Systemic lupus erythematosus

d. Histoplasma capulatum

122. The __________ is a protozoan that can affect

many body tissues, such as the liver, lungs,

and brain. (p309)

a. Toxoplasma gondii

b. Myasthenia gravis

c. Histoplasma capulatum

d. Sickle cell disease

123. __________ results from an infected mother

passing the infection to the fetus. (p309)

a. congenital histoplasma

b. congenital sarcoma

c. congenital toxoplasmosis

d. congenital myasthenia

124. Symptoms of ocular toxoplasmosis are the following except: (p309-310)

a. inflamed retina

b. hazy vision

c. new floaters

d. severe ocular pain

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