Biology, 8e (Campbell) - Berkner HS AP Biology



Biology, 8e (Campbell)

Chapter 12

The Cell Cycle

Multiple-Choice Questions

3)

Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?

A)

4

B)

8

C)

16

D)

32

E)

64

5)

For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote-like cell division rather than binary fission?

A)

Binary fission would not allow for the formation of new organisms.

B)

Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear chromosomes.

C)

Cell division would be faster than binary fission.

D)

Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication.

E)

Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells.

6)

How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?

A)

The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.

B)

The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.

C)

The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.

D)

The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.

E)

The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

12)

Which term describes centromeres uncoupling, sister chromatids separating, and the two new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell?

A)

telophase

B)

anaphase

C)

prometaphase

D)

metaphase

E)

prophase

13)

If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?

A)

anaphase

B)

prophase

C)

telophase

D)

metaphase

E)

interphase

22)

Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with

A)

a single large nucleus.

B)

high concentrations of actin and myosin.

C)

two abnormally small nuclei.

D)

two nuclei.

E)

two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA.

23)

Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants

A)

the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles do not contain microfibrils.

B)

sister chromatids are identical, but they differ from one another in animals.

C)

a cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage.

D)

chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase.

E)

spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not.

25)

Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, taxol must affect

A)

the fibers of the mitotic spindle.

B)

anaphase.

C)

formation of the centrioles.

D)

chromatid assembly.

E)

the S phase of the cell cycle.

44)

Cells that are in a non-dividing state are in which phase?

A)

G0

B)

G2

C)

G1

D)

S

E)

M

65)

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?

A)

The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.

B)

The cell would never leave metaphase.

C)

The cell would never enter metaphase.

D)

The cell would never enter prophase.

E)

The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.

67)

Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?

A)

They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.

B)

When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.

C)

They are not subject to cell cycle controls.

D)

B and C only

E)

A, B, and C

72)

Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor?

A)

metastasis

B)

changes in the order of cell cycle stages

C)

lack of appropriate cell death

D)

inability to form spindles

E)

inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate

4)

If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?

A)

Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.

B)

Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traits.

C)

Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one.

D)

Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one.

E)

Add nitrogen to the soil of the offspring of this plant so the desired traits continue.

8)

What is a karyotype?

A)

The set of unique physical characteristics that define an individual

B)

The collection of all the mutations present within the genome of an individual

C)

The combination of chromosomes found in a gamete

D)

A system of classifying cell nuclei

E)

A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape

Refer to the life cycles illustrated in Figure 13.1 to answer the following questions.

[pic]

Figure 13.1

17)

Which of the life cycles is typical for animals?

A)

I only

B)

II only

C)

III only

D)

I and II

E)

I and III

20)

In part III of Figure 13.1, the progression of events corresponds to which of the following series?

A)

Zygote, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis

B)

Sporophyte, meiosis, spore, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, gametes, fertilization

C)

Fertilization, mitosis, multicellular haploid, mitosis, spores, sporophyte

D)

Gametophyte, meiosis, zygote, spores, sporophyte, zygote

E)

Meiosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis, adult, meiosis

Refer to the drawings in Figure 13.2 of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis, and answer the following questions.

[pic]

Figure 13.2

33)

Which diagram represents prophase I of meiosis?

A)

I

B)

II

C)

IV

D)

V

E)

VI

35)

Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs.

A)

The statement is true for mitosis only.

B)

The statement is true for meiosis I only.

C)

The statement is true for meiosis II only.

D)

The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.

E)

The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

Refer to the following information and Figure 13.4 to answer the following questions.

A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene, as shown in Figure 13.4.

[pic]

Figure 13.4

51)

If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene, she will produce which of the following egg types?

A)

Only blue gene eggs

B)

Only orange gene eggs

C)

1/2 blue and 1/2 orange gene eggs

D)

3/4 blue and 1/4 orange gene eggs

E)

An indeterminate frequency of blue and orange gene eggs

53)

Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the following is occurring?

A)

Asexual reproduction

B)

Meiosis II

C)

Anaphase II

D)

Crossing over

E)

Separation of homologs

56)

Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of

A)

the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.

B)

the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm.

C)

the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II.

D)

the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes.

E)

All of the above

58)

Natural selection and recombination due to crossing over during meiosis I are related in which of the following ways?

A)

Recombinants are usually selected against.

B)

Non-recombinant organisms are usually favored by natural selection if there is environmental change.

C)

Most recombinants reproduce less frequently than do non-recombinants.

D)

Recombinants may have combinations of traits that are favored by natural selection.

E)

Recombination does not affect natural selection.

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