AP Biology Mid-Term Exam



AP Biology Mid-Term Exam

Study Guide

Topic List

Unit 1 Biochemistry

Elements and Compounds

Elements Essential to Life

Atomic Structure

Covalent Bonds

Ionic Bonds

Hydrogen Bonds

Organic Chemistry

Functional Groups

Structure and Function of Macromolecules

Enzymes

Unit 2 The Cell

Eukaryotic vs Prokaryotic Cells

Eukaryotic Cell Organelle Structures and Functions

Cell Membrane Structure and Function

Cellular Transport

Unit 3 Cell Energetics

Photosynthesis

C3 C4 CAM photosynthesis

Cellular Respiration

Fermenation

Unit 4 Cell Reproduction

Cell Cycle

Mitosis

Meiosis

Sexual Life Cycles

Cancer Cells

Unit 5 Molecular Genetics

Key Experiments in DNA discovery

DNA structure

RNA structure

DNA function

Protein Synthesis

Prokaryotic Gene Expression

Eukaryotic Gene Expression

DNA Technology

Unit 6 Heredity

Gregor Mendel

Monohybrid Crosses

Dihybrid Crosses

Incomplete Dominance

Co Dominance

Sex Linked

Linkages

Polygenic Inheritance

Epistasis

Pleiotropy

Sample Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material?

A) animal

B) plant

C) archaea

D) A and B only

E) A, B, and C

2. Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a calcium atom must have

A) 20 protons.

B) 40 electrons.

C) 40 neutrons.

D) A and B only

E) A, B, and C

3. One difference between carbon-12 [pic]and carbon-14 [pic] is that carbon-14 has

A) two more protons than carbon-12.

B) two more electrons than carbon-12.

C) two more neutrons than carbon-12.

D) A and C only

E) B and C only

4. Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

E) 9

5. Desert rabbits are adapted to the warm climate because their large ears aid in the removal of heat due to the

A) high surface tension of water.

B) high heat of vaporization of water.

C) high specific heat of water.

D) buffering capacity of water.

E) dissociation of water molecules.

6. How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 8

[pic]

7. What is the name of the functional group shown in the figure above?

A) carbonyl

B) ketone

C) aldehyde

D) carboxyl

E) hydroxyl

8. Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?

A) ketone and aldehyde

B) carbonyl and carboxyl

C) carboxyl and amino

D) phosphate and sulfhydryl

E) hydroxyl and aldehyde

[pic]

9. Which molecule is water-soluble because it has a hydroxyl functional group?

10. Which molecules contain a carbonyl group?

A) A and B

B) B and C

C) C and D

D) D and E

E) E and A

11. Which molecule has a carbonyl functional group in the form of a ketone?

12. Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

A) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers.

B) Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary system, and dehydration reactions only occur in the digestive tract.

C) Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.

D) Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.

E) A and C are correct.

13. The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires which of the following?

A) removal of a water molecule

B) addition of a water molecule

C) formation of an ionic bond

D) formation of a hydrogen bond

E) both A and C

14. At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R groups) most important?

A) primary

B) secondary

C) tertiary

D) quaternary

E) all of the above

15. Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?

A) plants

B) fungi

C) bacteria

D) animals

E) B and C only

16. Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?

A) lipids

B) starches

C) proteins

D) steroids

E) glucose

17. Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?

A) ribosome

B) lysosome

C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D) mitochondrion

E) contractile vacuole

18. The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity?

A) Transport vesicles fuse with one side of the Golgi and leave from the opposite side.

B) Proteins in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.

C) Lipids in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.

D) Soluble proteins in the cisternae (interior) of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.

E) All of the above correctly describe polar characteristics of the Golgi function.

19. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following is a true statement about membrane phospholipids?

A) They can move laterally along the plane of the membrane.

B) They frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other.

C) They occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane.

D) They are free to depart from the membrane and dissolve in the surrounding solution.

E) They have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane.

20. Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?

A) The double bonds form a kink in the fatty acid tail, forcing adjacent lipids to be further apart.

B) Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content.

C) Unsaturated fatty acids permit more water in the interior of the membrane.

D) The double bonds block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids.

E) The double bonds result in a shorter fatty acid tail.

21. What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?

A) large and hydrophobic

B) small and hydrophobic

C) large polar

D) ionic

E) monosaccharides such as glucose

22. The selective permeability of biological membranes is dependent on which of the following?

A) the type of transport proteins that are present in the membrane

B) the lipid bilayer being permeable to primarily small, nonpolar molecules

C) the types of carbohydrates on the surface of the membrane

D) A and B only

E) A, B, and C

23. Where does glycolysis takes place?

A) mitochondrial matrix

B) mitochondrial outer membrane

C) mitochondrial inner membrane

D) mitochondrial intermembrane space

E) cytosol

24. The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?

A) glycolysis

B) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain

C) the citric acid cycle

D) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

E) the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP

25. In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis?

A) CO2 and H2O

B) CO2 and pyruvate

C) NADH and pyruvate

D) CO2 and NADH

E) H2O, FADH2, and citrate

26. All of the following are functions of the citric acid cycle except

A) production of ATP.

B) production of NADH.

C) production of FADH2.

D) release of carbon dioxide.

E) adding electrons and protons to oxygen, forming water.

27. Which statement regarding events in the functioning of photosystem II is false?

A) Light energy excites electrons in an antenna pigment in a photosynthetic unit.

B) The excitation is passed along to a molecule of P680 chlorophyll in the photosynthetic unit.

C) The P680 chlorophyll donates a pair of protons to NADPH, which is thus converted to NADP+.

D) The electron vacancies in P680 are filled by electrons derived from water.

E) The splitting of water yields molecular oxygen as a by-product.

28. Which of the following statements about the light reactions of photosynthesis are true?

A) The splitting of water molecules provides a source of electrons.

B) Chlorophyll (and other pigments) absorb light energy, which excites electrons.

C) ATP is generated by photophosphorylation.

D) Only A and C are true.

E) A, B, and C are true.

29. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration?

A) Respiration is the reversal of the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis.

B) Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules, while respiration releases it.

C) Photosynthesis occurs only in plants and respiration occurs only in animals.

D) ATP molecules are produced in photosynthesis and used up in respiration.

E) Respiration is anabolic and photosynthesis is catabolic.

30. If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?

A) anaphase

B) prophase

C) telophase

D) metaphase

E) interphase

31. All of the following occur during prophase of mitosis in animal cells except

A) the centrioles move toward opposite poles.

B) the nucleolus can no longer be seen.

C) the nuclear envelope disappears.

D) chromosomes are duplicated.

E) the spindle is organized.

32. Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common?

I. alternation of generations

II. meiosis

III. fertilization

IV. gametes

V. spores

A) I, IV, and V

B) I, II, and IV

C) II, III, and IV

D) II, IV, and V

E) all of the above

33. All of the following are functions of meiosis in plants except

A) production of spores.

B) reduction of chromosome number by half.

C) independent assortment of chromosomes.

D) crossing over and recombination of homologous chromosomes.

E) production of identical daughter cells.

34. Which of the following is (are) true for alleles?

A) They can be identical or different for any given gene in a somatic cell.

B) They can be dominant or recessive.

C) They can represent alternative forms of a gene.

D) Only A and B are correct.

E) A, B, and C are correct.

35. How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?

A) 4

B) 8

C) 16

D) 32

E) 64

36. A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?

A) HT

B) Hh

C) HhTt

D) T

E) tt

37. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt × BBtt will have black fur and long tails?

A) 1/16

B) 3/16

C) 3/8

D) 1/2

E) 9/16

38. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?

A) XcXc and XcY

B) XcXc and XCY

C) XCXC and XcY

D) XCXC and XCY

E) XCXc and XCY

39. A man who carries an X-linked allele will pass it on to

A) all of his daughters.

B) half of his daughters.

C) all of his sons.

D) half of his sons.

E) all of his children.

40. The following scientists made significant contributions to our understanding of the structure and function of DNA. Place the scientists' names in the correct chronological order, starting with the first scientist(s) to make a contribution.

I. Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod

II. Griffith

III. Hershey and Chase

IV. Meselson and Stahl

V. Watson and Crick

A) V, IV, II, I, III

B) II, I, III, V, IV

C) I, II, III, V, IV

D) I, II, V, IV, III

E) II, III, IV, V, I

41. In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?

A) DNA does not contain sulfur, whereas protein does.

B) DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not.

C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not.

D) A and B only

E) A, B, and C

42. In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following is true?

A) A = C

B) A = G and C = T

C) A + C = G + T

D) G + A = T + C

E) both C and D

43. Using RNA as a template for protein synthesis instead of translating proteins directly from the DNA is advantageous for the cell because

A) RNA is much more stable than DNA.

B) RNA acts as an expendable copy of the genetic material, allowing the DNA to serve as a permanent, pristine repository of the genetic material.

C) many mRNA molecules can be transcribed from a single gene, increasing the potential rate of gene expression.

D) B and C only

E) A, B, and C

44. What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence?

5'AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG

A) met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg

B) met-glu-arg-arg-gln-leu

C) met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser

D) met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu

E) met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu

45. A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following could be the maximum number of nucleotides in the DNA template strand that codes for the amino acids in this protein?

A) 3

B) 100

C) 300

D) 900

E) 1,800

46. Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle?

A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced.

B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome.

C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host.

D) A large number of phages are released at a time.

E) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations.

47. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Heterochromatin is composed of DNA, whereas euchromatin is made of DNA and RNA.

B) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in the cytoplasm.

C) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.

D) Euchromatin is not transcribed, whereas heterochromatin is transcribed.

E) Only euchromatin is visible under the light microscope.

48. In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of

A) transcription.

B) translation.

C) mRNA stability.

D) mRNA splicing.

E) protein stability.

[pic]

49. Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the figure above?

A) ligase

B) transcriptase

C) a restriction enzyme

D) RNA polymerase

E) DNA polymerase

50. Restriction fragments of DNA are typically separated from one another by which process?

A) filtering

B) centrifugation

C) gel electrophoresis

D) PCR

E) electron microscopy

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