PHY–396 K. Solutions for problem set #3.
PHY?396 K. Solutions for problem set #3.
Problem 1(a): Let's begin by working out the indexology of eq. (2). Note that for all 9 combinations of i, j = x, y, z, there is only one non-vanishing term on the RHS of eq. (2), namely unit matrix I for i = j or ?ik for i = j and k = i, j. Specifically,
xx = I, yx = -iz , zx = +iy ,
xy = +iz , yy = I, zy = -ix
xz = -iy , yz = +ix , zz = I.
(S.1)
Actually multiplying the Pauli matrices (1) in all possible combinations verifies all nine of these equations and hence eq. (2).
Problem 1(b): Take any 3?vector v whose components vi are either ordinary numbers or else operators which have nothing to do with spin and therefore commute with the Pauli matrices. For all such vectors v,
v ? 2 = (vii)(vjj) = vivj ij = ij I + iijkk = (vivi)I + iijkvivjk , (S.2)
or in 3?vector notations
v ? 2 = (v2)I + i(v ? v) ? .
(S.3)
Moreover, if the components of v commute with each other, vivj = vjvi, then v ? v = 0. Indeed,
ijkvivj = -jikvivj
by antisymmetry of ijk
= -ijkvjvi
=
1 2
ijk
[vi
,
vj
]
re-labeling the summation indices i j averaging the LHS and the previous line
0 for [vi, vj] = 0.
(S.4)
1
Consequently, eq. (S.3) reduces to its first term, v ? 2 = (v2)I.
(S.5)
Problem 1(c): Thanks to eq. (S.5), for any even n = 2m = 0, 2, 4, 6, . . .
v ? 2m = (v2)m I = v2m I
while for any odd n = 2m + 1 = 1, 3, 5, . . .
v ? 2m+1 = (v2)m v ?
=
v2m+1
v? v
where v = v2. Consequently,
exp v ?
=
1 n=0 n!
v?
n
=
1 even n n!
v?
n
+
1 n!
odd n
v?
n
=
even
n
1 n!
vn
I
+
1 n!
vn
v
? v
odd n
=
vn even n n!
I+
vn n!
odd n
=
cosh(v) I
+
sinh(v)
v
? v
.
v? v
(S.6) (S.7)
(S.8)
Problem 1(d): Classically, a magnetic moment m misaligned with the external magnetic field B precesses with the Larmor frequency = GB where G is the gyromagnetic ratio of the magnetic moment to the angular momentum, G = m/J. For the atomic magnetic moment due to
2
orbital motion of the electrons G = e/2cMe (in Gauss units) while for the magnetic moment due to electrons' spins G = 2 ? e/2cMe, thus precession frequency
L
=
eB cMe
.
(S.9)
Now consider the quantum magnetic moment due to electron's spin. For the spin Hamiltonian (3), the time evolution operators is
U^ (t, t0) = exp -i(t - t0)H^ /h?
=
exp
-i(t
-
t0
)
mB h?
(B
?
)
.
(S.10)
Or in terms of the magnitude B and the direction n of the magnetic field,
U^ (t, t0) = exp
-i(t
-
t0
)
B
mB h?
(n
?
)
(S.11)
where hence
BmB h?
=
B h?
?
eh? 2cMe
=
Be 2cMe
=
L 2
,
U^ (t, t0) = exp
-i
(t
- 2
t0
)
(n
?
)
.
(S.12) (S.13)
To actually evaluate this matrix exponential, we use eq. (S.8) for v having direction n and imaginary magnitude v = -i(t - t0)/2, thus
U^ (t, t0) = cosh
-i
(t
- 2
t0)
I + sinh
-i
(t
- 2
t0)
n?
(4)
= cos
(t - t0) 2
I - i sin
(t - t0) 2
n? ,
quod erat demonstrandum.
3
Problem 1(e): Let
| = |Z+ + |Z-
(S.14)
for some complex coefficients , such that ||2 + ||2 = 1 (so that | = 1); or in
column-vector notations
| =
.
(S.15)
In this state and therefore
| ^x | | ^y | | ^z |
= + = 2 Re(), = -i + i = 2 Im(), = - = ||2 - ||2,
(S.16)
mx = -mB ? 2 Re(),
my = -mB ? 2 Im(),
mz = -mB(||2 - ||2). (S.17)
Now consider the time evolution of the state -- and hence of the magnetic moment (S.17) in a constant uniform magnetic field N . As we saw in part (d), the evolution operator U^ (t, t0) is spelled out in eq. (4). In particular, for the magnetic field in z direction, the matrix (4) becomes diagonal
U^ (t, t0) = cos = cos
(t - t0) 2
(t - t0) 2
I - i sin
(t - t0) 2
z
10 01
- i sin
(t - t0) 2
10 0 -1
=
cos
(t-t0) 2
- i sin
(t-t0) 2
0
cos
(t-t0) 2
0
+ i sin
(t-t0) 2
=
exp
-i
(t-t0) 2
0
0
exp
+i
(t-t0) 2
.
4
(S.18)
Consequently, if at the time t0
|(t0) =
0 , 0
(S.19)
then at a later time t > t0
|(t) = U^ (t, t0) |(t0) =
(t) (t)
(S.20)
for
(t) = exp
-i
(t
- 2
t0)
? 0 ,
(t) = exp
+i
(t
- 2
t0)
? 0 .
(S.21)
For the expectation value (S.17) of the electron's magnetic moment, this means that
mz (t) = -mB ||2-||2) = -mB |0|2-|0|2) = const while
i.e., time-independent , (S.22)
mx (t) + i my (t) = -mB ? 2(t)(t) = -mB ? 200 ? exp +i(t - t0) = -mB ? 2 |0| |0| ? exp i(t - t0) + i0
(S.23)
for some constant phase 0 = arg(00). Consequently,
mx (t) = -mB ? 2 |0| |0| ? cos (t - t0) + 0 , my (y) = -mB ? 2 |0| |0| ? sin (t - t0) + 0 ,
(S.24)
which in 2d terms describes a rotation of the vector ( mx , my ) with frequency . In 3d terms, this rotation of the x and y components while the z components stays constant means precession around the z axis of the magnetic field.
The bottom line is, in quantum mechanics the expectation value m of the electron's magnetic moment behaves exactly like a classical magnetic moment m: it precesses around the magnetic field's direction with the classical Larmor frequency .
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