Trivia Questions and Answers EMPLOYMENT QUESTIONS
PATC 2018 BAS Activity: ARE YOU SMARTER THAN A 10-YEAR OLD?
Trivia Questions and Answers EMPLOYMENT QUESTIONS Q: True or False: Employment should be explored with every participant at every annual review as well as during Supports Coordinator's quarterly monitoring visits.
A: True PA is an Employment First State and competitive integrated employment is the first and preferred outcome for individuals receiving services from ODP. SC's play a critical role in facilitating conversations about employment with participants. "Employment is a centerpiece of adulthood and must be available for every person. The benefits of employment for people with disabilities are significant and are the same as for people without disabilities." (Everyday Lives) Resources: Pennsylvania's Employment First policy - Executive Order 2016-03, Everyday Lives, Charting the Life Course Tools Q: What needs to happen before a Career Planning: Vocational Assessment staff completes their initial Vocational Profile for a participant? A: The staff completing their initial Vocational Profile must complete the Vocational Profile and submit it online at MyODP for review and approval from BAS in order to become certified to continue developing additional Vocational Profiles. A second Vocational Profile may NOT be developed and submitted by the same staff until their initial Vocational Profile has been approved by BAS. Only the very first/initial Vocational Profile that a provider completes must be reviewed and approved by BAS. Any subsequent Vocational Profiles submitted by the same staff person for any participants may be submitted to the SC via email for entry into the ISP without additional BAS review. Resources: BAS Career Planning - Vocational Assessment: Vocational Profile VTT Q: Name 3 of the 5 circumstances that should be considered when evaluating if a participant should be referred to the Office of Vocational Rehabilitation prior to receiving AAW Supported Employment or Career Planning services. A:
1. The individual is competitively employed and solely needs extended supports to maintain the individual's current job.
2. The individual is competitively employed and is seeking Career Planning services to find a new job, unless the purpose if job advancement which can be provided by OVR.
3. The individual has an ineligibility determination from OVR. The ineligibility determination remains valid unless the individual wants to be referred to OVR again.
4. OVR has previously closed the individual's case (with 2 exceptions: Individual has been unable to be located or contacted or individual chose not to participate or continue with OVR) or has stopped providing services to the individual because they have reached job stability as defined by OVR policy.
5. Individuals for whom an eligibility determination by OVR is not anticipated to be made within 120 days of receipt of referral.
The joint OVR/ODP bulletin has been revised and is being reissued. It is critical for all to refer to the "OVR Referral Process for ODP Employment-Related Services Bulletin" once it comes out. Training and resources will be developed regarding the new information and clarifications contained in this bulletin.
Resources: New OVR Referral Bulletin, upon release
AUTISM 101 QUESTIONS
Q: True or false: Someone with autism who can successfully communicate using speech has no communication barrier
A: False
Verbal communication is only one type of communication. A person with autism can have strong verbal skills, but may not be able to use those skills to effectively communicate their wants and needs. Language is different from fully communicating.
Q: In what 4 counties is ACAP offered?
A: Cumberland, Dauphin, Lancaster, and Chester Counties.
The Adult Community Autism Program, ACAP, is a managed care program in Pennsylvania provided through Keystone Autism Services. It is a fully integrated, comprehensive system of care that includes physical health, behavioral health, social, recreational, transportation, employment, therapeutic, educational, crisis, in-home support, and independent living services. ACAP currently has the capacity to serve 200 adults with autism in PA.
Q: Name 3 of the 5 core deficits of autism spectrum disorders.
A: The 5 core deficits are Social skills, communication, Planning/Executing, Intense Focus/Interests, Sensory sensitivities
While the DSM-V targets social and communication skills and behavior as qualifiers for the diagnosis, often people with Autism are challenged in areas like executive functioning, sensory sensitivities and intense focus and interest.
Resources: Spectrum 2.0 training
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QUALITY SERVICE REVIEWS (QSRs) QUESTIONS Q: How do providers submit quarterly summary reports?
A: QuestionPro Beginning March 1, 2018, BAS enacted a change which requires Adult Autism Waiver (AAW) providers to enter Quarterly Summary Reports (QSRs) into QuestionPro. Resources: BAW 18-08 administrative notice Q: Which AAW services require monthly progress notes be sent to the SC? A: None. AAW providers are no longer required to submit MPNs to the SCs for any service. Providers are now required to write their own QSR's, therefor there is no need to submit MPNs to the SCs.
Q: True or False: When Systematic Skill Building (SSB) and Community Support (CS) Services are both on a person's ISP, a separate QSR must be completed for each of these services.
A: True When a participant is receiving both SSB and CS, each service provider is responsible to submit their own QSRs via QuestionPro. The QSR for the SSB service will include the "Expected Outcome" and "Level of Attainment" and other data obtained from the GAS charts, while the CS QSR will report on anecdotal information gathered throughout the quarter.
AAW SC SUPERVISOR ROLE QUESTIONS Q: Whom should an SC go to first if they have a question about their role and responsibilities related to the Adult Autism Waiver? a) The BAS Regional Office Representative b) the BAS Clinical Representative c) their SC Supervisor d) the CEO of their agency
A: C. Supports Coordinators should go to their SC Supervisor for guidance. If the SC Supervisor cannot resolve the issue, then they can reach out to BAS staff with questions but BAS should not be the first point of contact. Resources: Roles and Responsibilities of the Supports Coordinator Supervisor, SC Manual 2016 Q: True or False: Prior to submitting a Critical Revision (CR) to BAS, the SC Supervisor should check that the SC has obtained and documented verbal consent from the participant for the change to the ISP. A: True The SC Supervisor is responsible for checking correct completion of all aspects of critical revisions, including consent of the participant, consent of the provider, correctly linked goals, correct service dates and providers, correct units and fiscal year, correct contingency plans, and the presence of a corresponding service note.
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Q: True or False: The SC Supervisor is responsible for reviewing all ISPs before submission to BAS. A: True The SC Supervisor is responsible for reviewing all draft ISPs for accuracy and completion and timely submitting of all ISPs to BAS. The SC Supervisors should utilize the ISP and ARP checklists that BAS provides as a tool for supervision of their SCs to ensure that the plans include the required details. Resources: AAW SC Manual ? SC Supervisor Roles and Responsibilities
APPLIED BEHAVIORAL ANALYSIS QUESTIONS Q: What does ABA stand for?
A: Applied Behavioral Analysis Q: True or False? Applied Behavioral Analysis (ABA) is a therapeutic intervention used with children who have autism or exhibit challenging behaviors.
A: False ABA is a scientific approach to assessing and understanding unique needs of an individual (regardless of age), with emphasis on teaching skills and modifying the environment to produce socially significant change. Q: There are seven dimensions of ABA outlined in a seminal article by Baer, Wolf, and Risley in 1968. Name at least two of the seven dimensions. A: 1.) Applied, 2.) Behavioral, 3.) Analytic, 4.) Technological, 5.) Conceptually systematic, 6.) Effective, & 7.) Generality The seven dimensions of ABA continue to be grounded in the ongoing research today.
BEST PRACTICES QUESTIONS Q: What role does the individual play when receiving services through AAW or ACAP?
A: The individual is at the center of all service planning and service delivery Person-centered planning is an intricate part of BAS' service delivery system. There should be emphasis on teaching skills while balancing participant's needs, wants, and desires. Q: True or False: Restrictive procedures are best practice because they are convenient for staff. A: False. Restrictive procedures should be used as a last resort after non-restrictive, less intrusive strategies have been attempted and not been successful and only to protect the health and safety of the participant. Resources: Restrictive Interventions VTT
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Q: Name at least two best instructional practices identified within the Best Instructional Practices Manual.
A: 1.) Prompting, 2.) Error correction, 3.) Reinforcement, 4.) Task analysis, & 5.) Generalization & maintenance Best Instructional Practices are grounded in peer-reviewed research and effective at teaching skills that are socially significant to the participant. Resources: Best Practices Instructional Manual
GOAL ATTAINMENT SCALING (GAS) QUESTIONS Q: What does it mean to have goals and objectives written in "GAS format?"
A: It means that there should only be 1 objective for every goal and the goal phrase must also include a goal category. Additionally, the goal statement should be the same as the behavior in the objective. "GAS format" although originally intended for services implementing GAS, is now the expectation for ALL goals and objectives on a participant's plan, which specifically is about adding a goal category to the goal phrase. Resources: Goal and Objective Cheat Sheet, Goal Categories Service Guidance Document Q: What are the four goal categories according to GAS guidelines? A: The four goal categories are: Social/Communication, Activities of Daily Living, Behavior, and Employment/Education. All goal phrases must also include one of the four goal categories previously mentioned. Please refer to the "Goal Categories" SGD for more specific guidelines about each goal category. Resources: Goal Categories Service Guidance Document Q: What are the three stages of learning? A: 1.) Skill Acquisition, 2.) Skill Fluency, & 3.) Skill Maintenance/Generalization Identifying the participant's stage of learning prior to instruction (i.e. baseline) will help to accurately develop a GAS chart that will align with the goals and objectives. More information about stages of learning can be found in the GAS manual. Resources: GAS Manual
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INCIDENT MANAGEMENT QUESTIONS
Q: The Point Person is responsible for the submission of the first section of the incident report within ______ (how much time) of the incident occurrence or being made aware than an incident occurred?
A: Within 24 hours of the incident occurrence or first being made aware than an incident occurred.
The Point Person must complete and submit the first section of the incident report within 24 hours of the incident occurring or first being made aware that an incident happened. All incidents types follow this time frame except for medication errors which must be reported within 72 hours
Resources: VTT: Incident Management Basics
Q: If the event meets the definition for a "Crisis Event Incident," the team must report it within 24 hours and convene a team meeting within how many days of the incident?
A: 10 days
Convening a team meeting within 10 days of the crisis event will allow the team to debrief, identify what strategies need to be modified or added to the Crisis Intervention Plan, or if any changes need to be made to services (in the event the participant does not have BSS).
Resources: VTT: Crisis Event: How do I determine if participant behavior rises to the level of a crisis event which is reportable in EIM? BAS Communication BAW 16-44: Revised Crisis Event Definition; Service Guidance Document: Crisis Event Decision Tree
Q: Incident Management is part of an overall risk management process. Name the steps of the risk mitigation cycle.
A: Recognize, Assess, Develop Strategies, Implement, Evaluate
Incident management and risk management are interrelated processes. Risk mitigation is an overall approach to prevent, reduce and manage severity of risk. It occurs in a cycle which includes the following steps: recognize, assess, develop strategies, implement and evaluate.
Resources: VTT: Risk Management Basics Periodic Risk Manual
PERIODIC RISK EVALUATION (PRE) QUESTIONS
Q: Who completes the PRE?
A. The SC B. The BS C. The participant D. The Family E. all of the above F. either a or b
A: F. either a or b
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The PRE is completed by either the participant's Supports Coordinator or Behavior Specialist (if applicable). If the participant has a behavioral specialist, who completes the PRE should be mutually agreed upon by the two parties and based upon who knows the participant best.
Resources: Periodic Risk Evaluation Manual Version 2 and Periodic Risk Evaluation Training
Q: True or False: The information from all PREs should remain in the participant's ISP indefinitely.
A: False.
The ISP should reflect the risks identified in the current PRE. There may be circumstances when previously identified risks have been successfully mitigated and no longer pose a risk but the team feels that it is important to keep the information in the ISP. It is important that it is clearly stated that the information is historical in nature and no longer poses a risk for the participant. The purpose of the PRE is to provide a consistent and structured process for identifying risks in order to develop strategies/plans for mitigating those risks. If previously identified risks have been successfully mitigated they no longer need to be noted as risks. There may be times when historical information related to risks needs to be retained in the ISP for context.
Resources: Periodic Risk Evaluation Manual Version 2 and the Periodic Risk Evaluation Training
Q: The PRE is one tool to assist in the identification and assessment of participant risks. What should happen next?
A. No further steps needed B. Communicate the results with the participant and family if applicable C. Team develops strategies to mitigate the risks and documents those strategies in the ISP D. Implement strategies to address and evaluations the effectiveness of those strategies E. c and d
A: E.
Team develops strategies, documents strategies, and implements and evaluates the effectiveness of the strategies. The job of the team is not done with the completion of the PRE. Completion of the PRE is just the first step in identifying and assessing risks. The outcome is the development of strategies to minimize or eliminate risks. Strategies must be implemented and then evaluated for effectiveness. Resources: Periodic Risk Evaluation Manual Version 2 and VTT: Risk Management Basics Training
SYSTEMATIC SKILL BUILDING (SSB) QUESTIONS
Q: How long should it take a Skill Building Specialist to assess and develop a Skill Building Plan for a participant?
A: Sixty Days
Like the Behavioral Specialist Service, a Skill Building Specialist should assess strengths and needs that would inform a skill building plan. The Skill Building Specialist has a total of sixty days to accomplish this.
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Resources: SSB Training Modules Q: Who primarily implements the Skill Building Plan and collects data?
A: If Community Support is on the plan, then the CS staff is the primary person who implements the SBPs. Beyond CS, any provider who directly supports the participant (e.g. res hab or family living staff, family member...) may also implement the plans as developed by the SBS. Resources: SSB Training Modules Q: Name at least two "Instructional Strategy" components of a SBP? A: Possible answers: Setting, Baseline, Natural Cues, Environment/Material Arrangement, Prompts, Data Collection Method, Reinforcement, Error Correction, Generalization/Maintenance For every setting where the goal/objective will be implemented, all of these components should be completed within the SBP. Resources: SBP Guidance
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