Revision for Class I X SA Ii– Mathematics & Science



CBSE PATTERN SPECIALIST SINCE 2002 SUMMATIVE ASESSMENT- II CLASS IX 123356789101112131415161718?Mole Concept?The word mole was introduced by Wilhelm Ostwald. In?Latin, mole means heap or collection or pile.- ?A mole is defined as the amount of a substance that contains as many particles (atoms, molecules or ions) of the substance as there are atoms in exactly 12 g of carbon-12.- ?The number of particles present in a mole of any substance is fixed, with a value of?6.022 x 10^23. This number is called?Avogadro number?or?Avogadro constant, named in honour of the Italian scientist?Amedeo Avogadro. It is represented by N0.?- In other words, a mole of a substance is that amount of the substance that contains 6.022 x 1023particles of the substance.?-Mole is the SI unit of amount of substance.-The atomic mass of an element expressed in grams is called?gram atomic mass?of the element.?- The molecular mass of a substance expressed in grams is called?gram molecular mass?of the substance.- Gram atomic mass or gram molecular mass also represents molar mass of the substance.- The mass of 1 mole of a substance is called?molar mass?of the substance.1 mole = 6.022 x 1023?particles = Gram atomic mass (or gram molecular mass)?Class 9 CBSE TEST PAPER Structure of Atom1 marks questions1. Define cathode rays.2. What determines the chemical nature of an element?3. Write the electronic configuration of chlorine.4. What do you mean by atomic number of an element?5. What do you understand by isobars?2 marks questions1. How the mass number of an element is defined2. What is the mass and charge of an electron?3. What are isotopes? Give examples4. Helium atom has a mass number of 4 and 2 protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons does it have?5. What is the general name of the elements having 2 or 8 electrons in the valence shell of their atoms?3 marks questions1. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with four shells.2. Name the radio isotopes used to–(a) determine the activity of thyroid gland. (b) detect blood cells.3. What weight in grams is represented by(a) 2 moles of CO2(b) 5 moles of NH34. Give a brief account of the observations made by Rutherford in his alpha particle scattering experiment5. Define Relative Molecular MassQ.1: Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons. Q.2: What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom? Q.3: What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of atom? Q.4: Describe Bohr’s model of atom. Q.5: Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in this chapter.Q.6: Summarize the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first eighteen elements. Q.7: Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen. Q.8: Explain with examples (i) Atomic number, (ii) Mass number, (iii) Isotopes and (iv) Isobars. Give any two uses of isotopes. Q.9: Na + has completely filled K and L shells. Explain. Q.10: If bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes 79 35Br (49.7%) and 81 35Br (50.3%), calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom. Q.11: The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of isotopes 168X and 188X in the sample?Q.12: If Z=3, what would be the valency of the element? Also name the element.Q.13: Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under X YProtons = 6 6Neutrons = 6 8Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?Q.14: For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.(a) JJ Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral. (c) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of proton. (d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine. Put tick (√) against correct choice and cross (X) against wrong choice in the following questions: Q.15: Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of (a) Atomic Nucleus (b) Electron (c) Proton (d) Neutron. Q.16: Isotopes of an element have(a) the same physical properties(b) different chemical properties(c) different number of neutrons(d) different atomic numbers.Q.17: Number of valence electrons in Cl – ion is:(a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 17 (d) 18 Q.18: Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?(a) 2,8 (b) 8,2,1 (c) 2,1,8 (d) 2,8,11 mark Questions1. Plum pudding Model of atom was discovered by _______________2. Combining capacity of an atom is called _______________3. Alpha - particle scattering experiment of Rutherford led to discovery of _________4. Number of neutrons in 8135Br is _____________5. __________ are atoms having the same mass number but different atomic number.6. The charge on the electron is found to be ________ coulombs.7. What do you understand by valency of an element? What is valency of boron?8. State the valencies of the following elements(a) Magnesium(b) Phosphorous(c) Argon(d) Flurine9. Draw the atomic diagram of calcium.10.Calculate the mass of an electron.11.Name two applications of radioisotopes.12.What is mean by valency of an atom?13.What is octel rule?14.Define radioactivity2 marks Questions1. List the features of Rutherford's nuclear model of atom.2. What are the postulates of Bohr Model of an atom?3. Define Valency. What is the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?4. What are isotopes? Give any 3 applications of it.5. Cl - has completely filled K&L shells. Explain.6. Na + is possible but Cl + is not possible. What is the reason?7. What are isotones? Give two examples8. An isotope of atomic mass 25 had 13 neutrons in its nucleus. What is its atomic number, name and chemical symbol?9. Readons the following with relevant examples(a) The first letter of an element could not be used as a symbol for all elements.10.Define the term Isotopes and Isobars and give examples for each.11.Describe Thomson's model of an atom with the help of a diagram.12.State the atomic number for each of the following:(a) Helium (p=2, n=2)(b) Calcium (p=20, n=20)(c) Potassium (p=19, n=20)13.Define isotopes with proper examples.14.Justify the stability of Li.15.How can one conclude that electrons are fundamental particles?16.Define valency by taking examples of Flurine and Sulphur17.The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of mass number 208 in 86. What will be the number of neutrons in the isotope of mass number 206?18.How are electrons distributed in different orbits?19.Describe Bohr's model of an atom.20.Write any two applications of isotopes.21.What are cathode rays? Give four characteristics of cathode rays.22.Summarize the rules for writing distribution of electrons in various shells.pare the properties of electrons, neutrons and protons.3 marks Questions.1. What were the observations of Rutherford's Alpha particles scattering experiment?2. What are the drawbacks of Rutherford's model of atom?3. Define the terms with examples.(i) Atomic number(ii) Mass number(iii) Isotopes(iv) Isobars.4. Make a comparison of the properties of electrons, protons & neutrons.5. Briefly describe Bohr's model of the atom. What are its limitations?6. From what observations do you derive the following inferences?(i) The most of the space inside the atom is empty.(ii) The volume of the nucleus is very small.(iii) Anode rays consist of positively charged particles.7. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson's model of the atom?8. Draw a neat labelled atomic structure of (i) Lithium (ii) Oxygen.9. What are the salient feautres of Bohr's Atomic Model? How is it advantageous over Rutherford's Nuclear Model?10.Draw the atomic structure(a) Carbon (b) Chlorine and write its electronic configuration.11.Give the main postulates of Bohr's model of an atom.12.Explain with examples atomic number, mass number, isotopes and isobars. Give any two uses of isotopes.13.Define the following:(a) Atomic size(b) Ionization energy(c) Electron affinity5 marks Questions1. What are the different models of atom? Explain each model briefly.2. Given below is the composition of the nuclei of different atomic species. No. of protons No. of neutrons.A 20 20B 18 22C 17 18D 17 20(i) What is the relation between A & B? What are they known as?(ii) Is there any relation between C & D ? What are they known as?(iii) A & D have same number of neutrons. Such species are known by a name, which is called _________(iv) Draw the sketch of C, using Bohr's Model of atom.(v) B has K, L, M shells completely filled. Elements with its shells completely filled are very stable. What are they known as?3. Why was Thomson's model of atom discarded and replaced by Rutherford's model? Why is Rutherford's model also called the nuclear model of atom?4. Describe briefly the Rutherford's alpha scattering experiment. Write the important conclusions made from this experiment.Fluid:?Fluid is a substance that flows.? For example, liquids and gases. They take the shape of container in which they are stored.The study?of fluids at rest is known as hydrostatic or fluid static’s.???The study?of fluids in motion is termed as hydrodynamics.THRUST:? The normal force acting on a unit surface area of the fluid is called thrustDensity:?The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density.D = mass /volume????Mass of substance = d x v ------------------------ (i)?SI unit is ?kg/m3The density of water (1 g cm?3)PRESSURE IN A FLUIDThe pressure (P) is defined at the magnitude of the normal force acting on a unit surface area of the fluid.P = F/A .?Hence pressure is in directly proportional to Area of contact.For example a nail or a knife have pointed and sharp edge to reduce area of contact?to apply?large pressure.In C.G.S. system, unit of pressure is?dyne/cm2. S.I. unit of pressure is Nm-2 or Pascal (PA). The unit of pressure, Pascal (Pa) has been named in the honour of great French scientist and philosopher Blasie Pascal.Another unit of pressure is atmosphere (atm).???1 atm = 1.013 × 105?Nm-2 (or Pa)1 atm. or one atmosphere is the pressure exerted by our atmosphere on earth surface due to the weight of atmosphere.The pressure is a scalar quantity . This is because pressure is transmitted equally in all directions when force is applied, which shows that a definite direction is not associated with pressure.Pressure Exerted by a Liquid Column?Weight of liquid inside the vessel = volume × density of liquid × acceleration due to gravityThrust of liquid = weight of liquid = mass x gravitational acceleration= d x v x g????? from (i)Buoyant force = Weight of fluid displaced = VρgWhere V = volume of fluid displaced [m3] ρ = density of fluid [kg m-3] g = gravitational acceleration [m s-2]Remember:(i)????The liquid at rest exerts equal pressure in all direction s at a point inside the liquid.(ii)???Total pressure at a depth h below the liquid surface = P + hrg? where P = atmospheric pressure.(iii)??Liquid pressure is independent of shape of the liquid surface, but depends upon the height of liquid column.BUOYANCY?AND FORCE OF?BUOYANCYWhen a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it displaced the fluid whose volume is equal to the volume of the body immersed in the fluid. This displaced fluid exerts an upward force on the body called the force of?buoyancy.This tendency of the displaced fluid to exert an upward force) is called?buoyancy.???? OR,The tendency of an object to float in a liquid or the power of liquid to make an object float is calledbuoyancyUp thrust or buoyant force depends on:(i) The size or volume of the body immersed in a liquid.(ii) The density of the liquid in which the body is immersed.Quest Time? (Answer these questions)Q. What are the factors the buoyant force depends on?Answer: 1. Volume of the object immersed in the liquid. 2. Density of the liquid.Q. Name the factors the buoyant force does not depend on?Ans: ?Buoyant force does not change with depth.Q .In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immersed in a liquid act?Ans: in the upward directionQ.?Why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of water?Ans: It is because? the upward buoyant force acting on plastic block? is greater than the downward gravitational forceQ.?The volume of 50 g of a substance is 20 cm3. If the density of water is 1 g cm?3, will the substance float or sink?Ans: Density of substance: masss/volume = 50g/20cm3= 2.5g/cm3The density of the substance is more than the density of water (1 g cm?3). Hence, the substance will sink in water.Q. The volume of a 500 g sealed packet is 350 cm3. Will the packet float or sink in water if the density of water is 1 g cm?3? What will be the mass of the water displaced by this packet?Ans: Density of substance: masss/volume =500/350 =1.428The density of the substance is more than the density of water (1 g/cm3). Hence, it will sink in water.The volume of water displaced by the packet =? the volume of the packet= 350 cm3The mass of water displaced by the packet? = dxv = 1 g/cm3?x 350 cm3??=350gFloating and Sinking:?if density of object is more than the density of liquid object float unless sinkThrust and Pressure, Archimedes’ Principle, Relative Density key pointThe total force acting perpendicular on a given surface is called thrust.?Thrust acting upon a unit area is called pressure.Its S.I. unit is Pascal denoted by ‘P’?Thus, pressure =Thrust/Area of contactArchimedes’ principle states that when a body is immersed partially or fully in a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it.Archimedes' Principle is used in designing ships and submarines. The lactometers and?hydrometers?used for measuring the purity of a sample of milk and for determining the density of the liquids are based on this principle.Buoyancy?can be defined as the tendency of the fluit to exert an upward force on an object, which is wholly or partially immersed in a fluid.The S.I. unit of buoyant force is Newton.This upward force that acts on an object when immersed in a fluid is called buoyant force.Two main factors on which the buoyant force depends are: ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?(i) Density of the fluid. (ii) Value of acceleration due to gravity at that place.when an iron nail is placed on the surface of water it sinks whereas ship made up of iron floats. This is because size or volume of the ship is more.?if the density of the liquid is more than the density of the material of the body then the body floats due to the buoyant force exerted by it and vice-versa.Density of a substance is the mass of the substance contained in a unit volume of that substance.Density of an object is given as Mass/Volume?Buoyant force experienced by a body when submerged in a liquid depends on the volume of the body and the density of the liquid.The density of a substance is one of its characteristic properties and used to determine the purity of any substance.Floating and Sinking depends on?density?of?water?and?the density of an objectIf the density of an object is less than the?density of water?it floats. This means that the up thrust of water on an object is greater than the weight of the object.?If the density of an object is more than the?density of water?it sinks. This means that the up thrust of water on an object is less than the weight of the object.?Therefore objects of density less than that of a liquid?float on?the liquid. The objects of density greater than that of a liquid sink in the liquid.Two forces act on an object immersed in water. One is the gravitational force, which pulls the object downwards, and the other is the buoyant force, which pushes the object upwards.If the upward buoyant force is greater than the downward gravitational force, then the object comes up to the surface of the water?The density of the substance is more than the?density of water?( 1 g/ cm3) than it will?sink in water.?Relative density of a substance is the ratio of density of substance to the?density of water. It is also called specific gravity.Relative density = Density of substance/density of waterRelative density of a substance help us determine the purity of a substance by measuring its relative density ??Examples: ?We use lactometer to differentiate between pure and impure(measure the impurity) milk. We can measure the impurity of water using?hydrometer.What is meant by the statement relative density of gold is 19.3??It means that gold is 19.3 times denser than an equal volume of water. Those objects whose relative density is less than one will float in water and those greater than one will sink.5 kg of cotton occupies more space than 5 kg of iron. The particles of iron are closely packed while that of cotton are loosely packed. The amount of iron packed in a unit volume is more. This explains as to why iron is heavier than the same volume of cotton.In Physics,?word density help us to?describe the lightness or heaviness of different substances?1. Ans: Look at the activities listed below. Reason out whether or not work is done in the light of your understanding of the term ‘work’.Work is said to be done if (a) A force acts on the body. (b)The body displaced by the application of force in or opposite to the direction of force.(a) While swimming, Suma applies a force to push the water backwards. Therefore, Suma swims in the forward direction caused by the forward reaction of water. Here, the force causes a displacement. Hence, work is done by Seema while swimming.(b) While carrying a load, the donkey has to apply a force in the upward direction. But, displacement of the load is in the forward direction. Since, displacement is perpendicular to force, the work done is zero.(c) A wind mill works against the gravitational force to lift water. Hence, work is done by the wind mill in lifting water from the well.(d) In this case, there is no displacement of the leaves of the plant. Therefore, the work done is zero.(e) An engine applies force to pull the train. This allows the train to move in the direction of force. Therefore, there is a displacement in the train in the same direction. Hence, work is done by the engine on the train.(f) Food grains do not move in the presence of solar energy. Hence, the work done is zero during the process of food grains getting dried in the Sun.(g)Wind energy applies a force on the sailboat to push it in the forward direction. Therefore, there is a displacement in the boat in the direction of force. Hence, work is done by wind on the boat.2. Work done by the force of gravity on an object depends only on vertical displacement. Vertical displacement is given by the difference in the initial and final positions/heights of the object, which is zero.Work done by gravity is given by the expression,W = mgh=mgx0 = 0 j3. When a bulb is connected to a battery, then the chemical energy of the battery is transferred into electrical energy. When the bulb receives this electrical energy, then it converts it into light and heat energy. Hence, the transformation of energy in the given situation can be shown as:Chemical energy------> electrical energy-------> Light energy----> Heat energy4. Work done by force is equal to the change in kinetic energy = 1/2m(v2-u2)= ? x 20 (22-52)=-210jThe negative sign indicates that the force is acting in the direction opposite to the motion of the object.5. Work done by gravity depends only on the vertical displacement of the body. It does not depend upon the path of the body. Therefore, work done by gravity is given by the expression, W = mgh Where, Vertical displacement, h = 0∴W = mg × 0 = 0 Hence, the work done by gravity on the body is zero.6. No. The process does not violate the law of conservation of energy. This is because when the body falls from a height, then its potential energy changes into kinetic energy progressively. A decrease in the potential energy is equal to an increase in the kinetic energy of the body. During the process, total mechanical energy of the body remains conserved. Therefore, the law of conservation of energy is not violated.7. While riding a bicycle, the muscular energy of the rider gets transferred into heat energy and kinetic energy of the bicycle. Heat energy heats the rider’s body. Kinetic energy provides a velocity to the bicycle. The transformation can be shown as:Muscular energy->Kinetic energy ---->Heat energyDuring the transformation, the total energy remains conserved.jsuniltutorial. Page 28. When we push a huge rock, there is no transfer of muscular energy to the stationary rock. The Muscular energy we spend is going to heat our body.9. 1 unit = 1 kWh ; 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106JTherefore, 250 units of energy = 250 × 3.6 × 106= 9 × 108J10. Gravitational potential energy is given by the expression,W = mgh= 40 × 5 × 10 = 2000j J.At half-way down, the potential energy of the object will be=2000j/2=1000 J.At this point, the object has an equal amount of potential and kinetic energy. This is due to the law of conservation of energy. Hence, half-way down, the kinetic energy of the object will be 1000 J.11. When a satellite moves around the Earth, then the direction of force of gravity on the satellite is perpendicular to its displacement. Hence, the work done on the satellite by the Earth is zero.12. Yes. For a uniformly moving objectSuppose an object is moving with constant velocity. The net force acting on it is zero. But, there is a displacement along the motion of the object. Hence, there can be a displacement without a force.Extra score QuestionsQ. Can any object have mechanical energy even if its momentum is zero? Explain.Ans: Yes, mechanical energy comprises of both potential energy and kinetic energy. Zero momentum means that velocity is zero. Hence, there it no kinetic energy but the object may possess potential energy.Q. Can kinetic energy of a body be negative?Ans: No, It is because mass and velocity cannot ne negativeQ. A freely falling object eventually stops on reaching the ground. What happens to its kinetic energy?Ans: A freely falling object just before hitting the ground has maximum kinetic energy. After falling, it rolls on the rough ground and finally comes to rest. The kinetic energy of the object is used up in doing work against friction; which finally appears as heat energy.Q. A light and a heavy object have the same momentum find out the ratio of their kinetic energies.Which one has a larger kinetic energy?Linear momentum of 1st object = p1=m1v1Linear momentum of 2 ndobject = p2=m2v2Given, p1 > p2 ---------------------------------(i)? m1v1 > m2v2But, m1<m2 (A light and a heavy object) ? v1 > v2 ------------(ii)Ke = ? mv 2 = ? m vx v =1/2 pvFrom (i)and (ii) p1v1 > p2v2 = ? p1v1 > ? p2v2 = KE1> KE2Q. A rocket is moving up with a velocity v. If the velocity of this rocket is suddenly tripled, what will be the ratio of two kinetic energies?Ans: Initial KE/Final KE = ( ? mu2) /( ? mv2) = ( ? mu2) /{ ? m(3v2)} =1:9Q. Give one example each of potential energy (I) due to position (ii) due to shape.Ans: (i) Potential energy due to position: Water stored in dam has potential energy.(ii) Potential energy due to shape: In a toy car, the wound spring possesses potential energy, and as the spring is released, its potential energy changes into kinetic energy due to which the car moves.Q. What kind of energy transformation takes place when a body is dropped from a certain height?Ans: When a body falls, its potential energy gradually gets converted into kinetic energy. On reaching the ground, the whole of the potential energy of the body gets converted into kinetic energy.Q. A man drops a stone of 200g from a height of 5m. What is its kinetic energy when it reaches the ground? What is its speed before it hits the ground?Ans: Using the equation of motion,u =0m/s ; v = ? s = 5m V2=u2 + 2as v2= o + 2 x 9.8 x5 =9.9m/sThis is the speed with which body hits the ground.Kinetic energy of the body before hitting the ground is,m = 200g = 0.2kg KE = ? mv2= ? x 0.2 x9.9x9.9 =9.8jQ. Two bodies have same momentum. Which will have greater kinetic energy- heavier body or lighter body?Let mass of light body be 'm1 ' & heavy body be 'm2 ' Given that m1V1=m2v2But, KE=p2/2mSince as p is constant K E is inversely proportional to the mass of the objectHence light body has greater kinetic energyQ. An electric bulb of 60w is used for 6h per day .Calculate the units of energy consumed in one day by the bulb.p =w/t or, p =E/tE = wt = 60w x 6h = 60w x 6 x 3600 sec = 1.3 x 106JQ. A boy of mass 50kg runs up to a stair case of 45 steps in 9s. If the height of a step is 15cm, find his power. (g= 10m/s2)Ans: h will be the net height attained by him once he puts all the steps i.e. (45 x 0.15) = 6.75 /mPower = w/t =PE/t = mgh/t = = (50x10x6.75)/9 = 375 J/sQ. Two particles of masses 1g and 2g have equal momentum. Find the ratio between their kinetic energies?Momentum of first body, p1 = m1v1Momentum of second body, p2 = m2v2As given: m1/m2 = ? and p1 = p2v1/v2 = m2/m1 = 2Now kinetic energy, k = 1/2mv2Ratio of kinetic energy, k1/k2 = m1v12/m2v2 2 = 2/1Q. If the K.E. of a object increased by 300% ,Find the % increased in momentum of the body .Ans: E = ? mv2= p2/2m√2mE=pNew E’ = E + 300%of E = 4ENew, p’ = √2m4E =2 √2mEPercentage increase in the momentum =(p’ - p )/p x 100% = (2 √2mE - √2mE)/ √2mE x 100% =100%Q. A 400gm bag is lifted from ground and kept on the table at a height of 2m . The time taken to do so is 4s. (Assume g=10m/s)Ans: As we know that work dome against the gravitational force = mgh 400/1000gm x 10 x 2 = 8J Now, Power =w/t = 8/4= 2 J/secQ. Two bodies I and II have the same kinetic energy. Their velocities v1/ v2 are in the ratio of 1:2.Since Two bodies I and II have the same kinetic energy: comparing the KE of both the bodiesK1 = K2m1v12 = m2v22As given, v1/v2 = 1/2 ? v2/v1 = 2/1 ∴ m1/m2 = (v2/v1)2= 4/1 or 4:11. A force of 10N causes a displacement or 2m in a body in its own direction. Calculate the work done by force. 20j)2. How much force is applied on the body when 150joule of work is done in displacing the body through a distance of 10m in the direction of force?(15 N)3. A body of 5kg raised to 2m find the work done(98j)4. A work of 4900j is done on road of mass 50 kg to lift it to a certain height. Calculate the height through which the load is lifted. (10m)5. An engine work 54,000J work by exerting a force of 6000N on it. What is the displacement of the force . (10m)6. A force of 10N acting on a body at an angle of 600 with the horizontal direction displaces the body through a distance of 2m along the surface of a floor. Calculate the work done. Now let the force or pulling act on the body makes an angle of 300 with the horizontal. What is the valueof the force to displace the body through 2m along the surface of the floor?(Cos60 0 =1/2.Cos 30 0=√3/2 ans. 10 J, 5.78 N)7. A force of 5N acting on body at angle of 300 with the horizontal direction displace it horizontally through of distance of 6 m .Calculate the work done. (15√3 J)8. A body of mass 2kg is moving with a speed of 20ms-1 Find the kinetic energy. (400J)9. A moving body of 30kg has 60 J of KE. Calculate the speed.10. A hammer of mass 1kg falls freely from a height of 2 m .Calculate (I) The velocity and (II) The ke. Of the hammer just before it touches the ground. Does the velocity of hammer depend on the mass of hammer? (6.26m -2 , 19.6 J )11. Calculate the energy posses by a stone of mass 10kg kept at a height of 5m If 196x102 J of energy were used to raise a 40kg boy above the ground, how high would he be raised? (50m)12. Calculate the change that should be affected in the velocity of a body to maintain the same KE , if mass of the body is increased to 4 times (half the original velocity)13. A machine does 192 J of work in 240Sec. What is the power of the machine? (8w)14. A weighting 50kg runs up a hill rising himself vertically 10m in 20Sec. Calculate power. given g=9.8m-1(245w) 15. A 1000w oven is used everyday for 90 min. Calculate the unit of electrical energy oven consume in 30days.(45 unit.)1. If the force applied on the body distances the body in the opposite direction of force applied then work done is (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Data incomplete2. If the force is applied at an angle θ then work done is (a) W = FS Cos θ (b) W = FS θ (c) W = FS Sin θ (d) none3. What is the work done in lifting a body of mass 5Kg vertically through 9m?(a) 450J (b) -450J (c) 45J (d) 540J4. How are Joule (J) and ergs (erg) related?(a) 1J = 107erg (b) 1erg = 107 J (c) 1J = 10-7erg (d) None5. State the difference between Power and energy?6. Write the expression for a) the potential energy of the body b) the kinetic energy of the body [2]7. If a 100J of work was done, when a force of 12.5N acts, what was the distance moved by the force? [2]8. A 1800 Kg car is moving at 30m/s. when brakes are applied. If the average force exerted by the brakes is 6000N, find the distance travelled by the car before it comes to rest? [2]9. Derive an expression for the potential energy of the body. Calculate P.E of body of mass 10Kg at a height of 10m. [3]10. Show that total energy is conserved if the ball of mass ‘m’ is the thrown downwards from a height ‘h ’[3]11. What is Power? Show that power = Force × velocity? Calculate power of a body of Mass 10Kg accelerating with 10m/s2 acquires a velocity of 5m/s? [3]12. What do you understand by the units of electrical energy? How many joules of energy is consumed if the electrical meter shows 400 units of energy? [3]13. Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of the body? Calculate the kinetic energy for a body of mass 5 Kg moving a velocity 2.5m/s 2 [3]14. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 40m/s.a) At what height will its kinetic energy and potential energy be equal?b) Calculate the P. E. of the body if it’s mass = 10Kg [3]15. A body of mass 5Kg is lifted vertically at a constant velocity of 12m. Calculatea) The force applied b) work done in lifting the body c) what happens to the work performed? [3]Diversity in Living Organisms1. There are more than a million kinds of living things exhibiting an infinite variety in form, structure and living places. 2. Classification puts things in order.3. The use of important distinguishing features forms the basis of classification.4. The process of grouping similar things into groups and categories on the basis of similarities and dissimilarities is called classification.5. The system of classification was devised by Carolus Linnaeus.6. The naming of organisms is called nomenclature.7. The science of classification is called taxonomy.8. Carolus Linnaeus is called the father oftaxonomy. 9. Species is a group of organisms capable of interbreeding to produce fertile offspring. 10. Genus is a group of similar and closely related species. 11. Binomial name has two parts — genus and species.12. The names given to living organisms following the binomial system are called scientific names.13. The genus name begins with a capital letter, the species name begins with a small letter. 14. R.H. Whittaker was the first one to propose a five-kingdom classification in 1969. 15. Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia are included in five–kingdom classification.16. Kingdom Plantae is divided into two subkingdoms — C r y p t o g am a e and Phanerogamae.17. The simplest plants belong to the division Thallophyta. 18. Lichen is a symbiotic association of algae and fungi.19. Plants belonging to bryophyta are called amphibians of the plant kingdom.20. Bacteria are often called “fission plants” as they multiply by binary fission.21. Biologists have identified, named, classified and described more than a million types of animals inhabiting the earth.22. Animals differ in their structure ranging from single celled to multicellular animal.23. All animals are eukaryotic organisms.24. Most animals have a high level of tissue differentiation.25. Animal nutrition is heterotrophic.26. Animal cells lack cell wall.27. Animals possess the power of locomotion.28. Two main criteria, used to classify animals are :(i) presence or absence of vertebral column.(ii) cellular organisation.29. The first group of animals is invertebrates —animals without backbone.30. The second group of animals is vertebrates— animals having backbone or vertebral column.31. Based on the cellular organisation, animals can be divided into — protozoa and metazoa.32. Protozoa represent the one-celled animals/ unicellular animals, e.g., Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena, Trypanosoma.33. Metazoa represents the many-celled animals/multicellular animals, e.g., Hydra, earthworm, corals, flatworms, insects, frogs, etc.34. The phyla, in order of their increasing complexity beginning from the simple singlecelled form to complex form are like these — protozoa, porifera, cnidaria, platyhelminthes, nematoda, annelida, arthropoda, mollusca, echinodermata, hemichordata and chordata. 35. Symmetrical body shape means the parts of an animal body are arranged in such a way that it can be cut into two similar halves by one or more planes. 36. Germ layers are the primary layers of cells which ifferentiate in the animal embryo.37. Phylum protozoa includes minute, microscopic, eukaryotic organisms, e.g., Amoeba, Euglena, Trypanosoma.38. Phylum porifera includes mostly sessile or stationary sea animals, having porous body e.g. Sycon, Leucosolenia, etc.39. Phylum coelenterata includes radially symmetri- cal, multicellular, aquatic animals, e.g., Hydra, Obelia, etc.40. Phylum platyhelminthes includes bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, mostly parasitic animals. e.g., liver fluke, blood fluke, tapeworm.41. Phylum nematoda includes mostly parasitic animals having narrow, elongated, cylindrical unsegmented body. e.g. roundworm, pinworm, filarial worm, etc.42. Phylum annelida includes free living coelomic animals having metameric segmentation, e.g., earthworm, sea-mouse, etc43. Phylum arthropoda are the largest group of animals and its main feature is jointed legs and body is divided into three regions— head, thorax and abdomen. e.g., prawn, crab, housefly, mosquito, etc.44. Phylum mollusca includes mainly aquatic animals having soft, unsegmented body. e.g., snail, mussel, cuttlefish.45. Phylum echinodermata includes star-shaped, spherical or elongated exclusively marine animals, e.g., starfish, brittle star, sea cucumber, etc.46. Phylum hemichordata possess characters of both vertebrates and invertebrates, e.g., tongue worm, Rhabdopleura47. Phylum chordata – the animals with vertebral column like horse, man etcWhy Do We Fall Ill?1. A disease is the malfunctioning of body organs due to one reason or the other.2. The term disease literally means “without ease” (uneasiness).3. Diseases are broadly grouped into two types— communicable or infectious diseases and noncommunicable or non-infectious diseases.4. Communicable diseases are passed on from one person to another through air, water, food, physical contact and insects.5. Communicable diseases are caused by microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, etc.).6. Examples of communicable diseases are tuberculosis, typhoid, jaundice, malaria, amoebiasis, etc.7. Non-communicable diseases are those which cannot spread from person to person, i.e., these diseases remain confined to the diseased person.8. These diseases are not due to any external infection.9. Examples of non-communicable diseases are diabetes, arthritis, cancer, marasmus, haemophilia, etc.10. Diseases caused by viruses are mumps, AIDS, influenza, measles, chicken pox, rabies, etc.11. Diseases caused by bacteria are cholera, leprosy, tetanus, tuberculosis, syphilis, etc.12. Diseases caused by fungal infection are ringworm, athlete’s foot.13. Malaria and amoebiasis are protozoan diseases.14. Biological agents causing diseases are called pathogens.15. The study of the causes of diseases is called etiology.16. Diseases can be transmitted to the healthy person in two ways – direct transmission and indirect transmission.17. Direct transmission occurs through contact with infected person, droplet infection, contact with soil, animal bites and through placenta.18. Indirect transmission occurs through intermediate agents like carriers or vectors, through agents like ice, water, air, through uncleaned hands and fingers.19. Carriers are organisms which harbour diseasecausing germs without showing any signs of the disease themselves, but have the ability to infect other individuals.20. Carriers of specific germs are called vectors, such as Anopheles is the vector of malarial germ Plasmodium.21. Cholera is an acute infectious disease of gastrointestinal tract caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.22. Typhoid is an acute and most common communicable disease in India caused by a bacterium Salmonella typhi.23. Tuberculosis, commonly called TB is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.24. BCG (Bacillus Calmette Guerin) vaccine is made from a weakened tuberculosis bacillus bacterium.25. AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) is a fatal disease in which body’s immune system breaks down.26. Hepatitis is also a serious communicable disease having types A, B, C, D, E and G.27. Deficiency diseases are of three types – Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM), mineral deficiency diseases and vitamin deficiency diseases.28. Two common forms of PEM are Kwashiorkorand Marasmus.29. Mineral deficiency diseases are anaemia (iron deficiency), goitre (iodine deficiency), etc.30. Vitamin deficiency diseases are xerophthalmia, rickets, beri-beri, pellagra, scurvy, etc1. Why do we classify organisms??Ans. By classification of organisms we keep them in different class, order,?family and genus on the basis of their characters. Thus we can easily study?them and also it helps in classifying new found organisms.2. Give three examples of the range of variations that you see in life forms around?you.?Ans. We can see the following variations in the life forms around us.1. Size: Organisms vary greatly in size-from microscopic bacteria to elephants,whales and large trees.2. Colour: The colour of various animals is quite different. Some worms are even?colourless or transparent.?Various types of pigments are found in plants.3. Life span: Life span of different organisms also varies greatly. E.g. a mosquito?lives only for a few days while a turtle can live for around 200 years. Some pine?trees live for thousands of years.Page No.82Q1. What do you think is a more basic characteristic for classifying organisms?(a) The place where they live. ?(b) The kind of cells they are made of. Why??Ans. ?The more basic characteristic for classifying organisms is the kind of cells they?are made of. It is because different organisms may share same habitat but may have?entirely different form and structure.?The kind of cells they possess will tell various things about them?whether they are eukaryotes or prokaryotes, whether they have the ability in making?a multicellular organism, etc.?Q2. What is the primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is?made? (1 mark)Ans. The primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made is?the nature of the cell – prokaryotic or eukaryotic cell.Q3. On what basis are plants and animals put into different categories?Ans. Plants and animals are put into different categories on the following basis:?? Mode of Nutrition: ?? Plants are autotrophs i.e. they are able to make their own food.? Animals are hetrotrophs i.e. they cannot make their own food. They?depend on plants directly or indirectly for their food.?Page No. 83Q1. Which organisms are called primitive and how are they different from the socalled?advanced organisms??Ans. Primitive organisms are those which have ancient body designs and have not?changed much. They have simpler body design and are also called lower organisms.On the other land, the organisms that have acquired more complex structure and?body design relatively recently are called advanced organisms. They have complex?body design and are called higher organisms.?Q2. Will advanced organisms be the same as complex organisms? Why?Ans. Yes. (1 mark)It is because the 'advanced' organisms also were like the primitive ones once. They?have acquired their complexity relatively recently.There is a possibility these advanced or 'younger' organisms acquire more complex?structures during evolutionary time to compete and survive in the changing?environment.?Example: Many advanced organisms are multicellular and have attained division of?labour.Q1. What is the criterion for classification of organisms as belonging to kingdom?monera or protista??Ans. Kingdom Monera Organisms are unicellular and prokaryotic. ?Kingdom Protista Organisms are unicellular and eukaryotic.Q2. In which kingdom will you place an organism which is single celled, eukaryotic?and photosynthetic? (1 mark)Ans. Kingdom Protista?Q3. In the hierarchy of classification, which grouping will have the smallest number?of organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common and which will have the?largest number of organisms??Ans. Species will have smallest number of organisms with a maximum of?characteristics in common and Kingdom will have largest number of organisms.Q1. Which division among plants has simplest organisms??Ans. Division Thallophyta (1 mark)Q2. How are Pteridophytes different from Phanerogams??Pteridophytes?? They have naked embryos.??Reproductive organs are hidden orinconspicuous.? Pteridophytes have special tissue?for conduction of water but it is not?much developed.Phanerogams? Embryo is present in seed. Seed?also contains stored food.? Reproductive organs are well?developed (in gymnosperms?cone and in angiosperms flower?bear male and female organs).? Phanerogams have well?developed vascular tissueQ13. How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from each other?Ans. Differences between gymnosperms and angiospermsGymnosperms?1. The plants bear naked seeds.2. They produce cones formed ofsporophytes. The sporophytescarry the male and female sexorgans.3. Ovules are not enclosed in ovary.4. Plants of this group are usuallyevergreen, perennial and woody.Angiosperms1. Seeds are enclosed in fruits.2. Reproductive organs are flowers.3. Ovules are enclosed in ovary.4. Plants of this group may be annual,biennial or perennial. They may be woodyor non-woody.Q1. How do poriferan animals differ from coelenterate animals?Poriferan Animals1. These organisms have minute porescalled ostia all over the body and a largeopening called osculum at the top for theexit of water.2. Body is made up of a single layer of cells.3. Canal system for circulating waterthrough the body present.4. External skeleton present. The bodydesign involves very little differentiationand division into tissues5. These are non-motile animals and areattached to some solid support.6. Tentacles are absent.Coelenterate Animals1. These organisms have a single pore.2. Body is made of two layers of cells,one making the outer lining and theother the inner lining of the body.3. No water canal system present in the body.4. Skeleton absent. More body designdifferentiation is shown by these animals5. They are motile animals. Some speciesof this group live in colonies while othershave a solitary life-span.6. Tentacles are presentQ2. How do annelids animals differ from arthropods??Ans. Annelids?1. They have true body cavity called'coelom'.2. Body bears lateral appendages forlocomotion in the form of setae and Parapodia.3. Organ differentiation occurs in asegmental fashion, with the segments linedup one after the other from head to tail.4. They breathe through body surface.5. They do not possess chitinous exoskeleton.6.They have closed type of circulatorys ystemArthropods1. The body cavity is blood filled andcalled "haemocoel".2. Jointed legs are there forlocomotion.3. These animals are also segmentedbut lack complete metamaricsegmentation.4. They posses different organs forbreathing, like gills, tracheabooklungs, etc5. Chitinous exoskeleton present6. Open type of circulatory system present.Q3. What are the differences between amphibians and reptiles??Ans. ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? Amphibians?1. They can live both on land and in water.2. They breathe either through gills or lungs.2.Body is not covered with scales3. Their eggs don't have any tough and hardcovering around them.4.They lay eggs in water?5. fertilization takesplace in waterReptiles1. They live either in land or water.2. They breathe through lungs only.3. They have scales on their body.4. The eggs have a hard covering5. Water is not necessary for fertilizationQ4. What are the differences between animals belonging to the aves group and thosein the mammalian group??Ans. ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?Aves?1. The body is covered with feathers.2. Forelimbs are modified into wings.3. They lay eggs. ?4. No mammary glands to feed their? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?Mammalia1. The body is covered with hair.2. They don’t have wings.3. Most of them give birth to young ones.4. They have mammary glands foryoung ones.5. Bones have air cavities.the production of milk for thenourishment of the young ones.5. Bones are solid, hard and filledwith bone marrow.EXERCISE Q1. What are the advantages of classifying organisms??Ans. Following advantages of classifying organisms are:1. It makes us aware of and gives us information regarding the diversity of plantsand animals.2. It makes the study of different kinds of organisms much easier.3. It tells us about the inter-relationship among the various organisms.4. It helps us understanding the evolution of organisms.5. It helps in the development of other life sciences easy.6. It helps environmentalists to develop new methods of conservation of plants and animalsQ2. How would you choose between two characteristics to be used for developing ahierarchy in classification?Ans. ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ??Steps:1. The characteristic which is more basic should be considered first.?2. choose those characteristics which are dependent on the previous one and would decide the variety in the next level for developing a hierarchy in classification3. In case of classification of animals, the characteristics used to classify in a hierarchyare:a) Prokaryotic or eukaryotic cellb) Unicellular or multicellular cell typec) Autotrophic or hetero trophicQ3. Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms.Ans. The basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms is:1. Nature of the cells, i.e. either prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells.2. Number of cells, i.e. unicellular (a cell living singly) or multicellular (complexorganisms).3. Presence or absence of cell wall.4. Mode of nutrition, i.e. whether they prepare their own food or get their foodfrom outside.Q4. What are the major divisions in the Plantae? What is the basis for these divisions?Ans. The major divisions in kingdom plantae are:1. Thallophyta 2. Bryophyta 3. Pteridophyta ?4. Gymnosperms?5. AngiospermsThe following points constitute the basis of these divisions:1. Whether the plant body has well differentiated, distinct components.2. whether the differentiated plant body has special tissues for the transport of waterand other substances.3. The ability to bear seeds.4. Whether the seeds are enclosed within fruits.Q5. How are the criteria for deciding divisions in??plants different from the criteria for deciding the sub-groups among the animals?Ans. The characteristics used to classify plants is different from animals because thebasic design are different, based on the need to make their own food (plants) oracquire food (animals).?The criteria for dividing the plants include:1. Differentiation of the plant body.2. Distinct vascular (conduction) tissues.3. Seed producing ability.4. Are the seeds enclosed within fruits??But the animals can't be divided into groups on these criteria.?It is because the basicdesigns of animals are very different from plants. They are divided on the basis oftheir body structure.Source: topper learning?Q1. What does the word health mean?Ans: For our grandmothers, being able to go out to the market or to visit neighbours is .being well., and not being able to do such things is .poor health.. Being interested in following the teaching in the classroom so that we can understand the world is called a healthy attitude. While not being interested is called the opposite. .Health? is therefore a state of being? well enough to function well physically, mentally and socially.Q2. How does the health of an organism depend upon the surroundings?Ans: Human beings live in societies. Our social environment, therefore, is an important factor in our individual health.? We live in villages, towns or cities. In such places, even our physical environment is decided by our social environment. Consider what would happen if no agency is ensuring that garbage is collected and disposed. What would? happen if no one takes responsibility for clearing the drains and ensuring that water does not collect in the streets or open? spaces? So, if there is a great deal of garbage thrown in our streets, or if there is open drain water lying stagnant around? where we live, the possibility of poor health increases. Therefore , public cleanliness is important for individual health.Q3. What do we mean by “disease”?Ans: Disease (disturbed ease) in other words, literally means being uncomfortable. However, the word is used in a more limited meaning. We talk of disease when we can find a specific and particular cause for discomfort. This does not mean that we have to know the absolute final cause; we can say that someone is suffering from diarrhoea without knowing exactly what has caused the loose motion When there is a disease, either the functioning or the appearance of one or more systems of the body will change for the worse. These changes give rise to symptoms and signs of disease.?Q4. What are symptoms?Ans: Symptoms of disease are the things we feel as being .wrong.. So we have a headache, we have cough, we have loose motions, we have a wound with pus; these? are all symptoms. These indicate that there may be a disease.Q5. How do you distinguish between acute and chronic diseases?Ans: Some diseases last for only very short periods of time, and these are called acute diseases. We all know from experience? that the common cold lasts only a few days. Other ailments can last for a long time, even as much as a lifetime, and are called chronic diseases. An example is the infection causing elephantiasis. Acute and chronic diseases have different effects on our health. Any disease that causes poor functioning of some part of the body will affect our general health as well. This is because all functions of the body are necessary for general health. But an acute disease, which is over very soon, will not have time to cause major effects on general health, while a chronic disease will do so. As an example, think about a cough and cold, which all of us have from time to time. Most of us get better and become well within a week or so. And there are no bad effects.Q6. What are the various causes of diseases?Ans: It is useful to think of the immediate causes of disease as belonging to two distinct types. One group of causes is the infectious agents, mostly microbes or micro-organisms. Diseases where microbes are the immediate causes are called infectious diseases. This is because the microbes can spread in the community, and the diseases they cause will spread with them. On the other hand, there are also diseases that are not caused by infectious agents. Their causes vary, but they are not external? causes? like microbes that can spread in the community. Instead, these are mostly internal, non infectious causes.Q7. Name some common infectious diseasesAns: Common examples of diseases caused by viruses are the common cold, influenza, dengue fever and AIDS. Diseases like typhoid fever, cholera, tuberculosis and anthrax are caused by bacteria. Many common skin infections are caused by different kinds of fungi. Protozoan microbes cause many familiar diseases, such as malaria and kalaazar. All of us have also come across intestinal worm infections, as well as diseases like elephantiasis caused by different species of worms.Q8. Explain the effect of antibiotic penicillin on bacterial cells.Ans: Taxonomically, all bacteria are closely related to each other than to viruses and vice versa. This means that many important life processes are similar in the bacteria group but are not shared with the virus group.? As a result, drugs that block one of these life processes in one member of the group is likely to be effective against many? other members of the group. But the same drug will not work against a microbe belonging to a different group. As an example, let us take antibiotics. They commonly block biochemical pathways important for bacteria. Many bacteria, for example, make a cell-wall to protect them. The antibiotic penicillin blocks the bacterial processes that build the? cell wall. As a result, the growing bacteria become unable to make cell-walls, and die easily.Q9. Why are human cells not affected by penicillin?Ans: Human cells don’t make a cell-wall anyway, so penicillin cannot have such an effect on us. Penicillin will have this effect? on any bacteria that use such processes for making cell-walls.?Q10.. Why are antibiotics ineffective against viruses?Ans: Viruses have very few biochemical pathways of their own, and that is the reason why antibiotics do not work against viral infections. If we have a common cold, taking antibiotics does not reduce the severity or the duration of the disease. However, if we also get a bacterial infection along with the viral cold, taking antibiotics will help. Even then, the antibiotic?will work only against the bacterial part of the infection, not the viral infection.Q 11. How do communicable or infectious diseases spread?Ans: Many microbial agents can commonly move from an affected person to someone else in a variety of ways. In other words, they can be communicated, and so are also called communicable diseases. Such disease-causing microbes can spread through the air. This occurs through the little droplets thrown out by an infected person who sneezes or coughs. ?Someone standing close by can breathe in these Diseases can also be spread through water. This occurs if the excreta from someone suffering from an infectious gut disease, such as cholera, get mixed with the drinking water used by people living nearby. The cholera causing microbes will enter new ?hosts through the water they drink and cause disease in them. Such diseases are much more likely to spread in the ?absence of safe supplies of drinking water. The sexual act is one of the closest physical contact two? people can have with each other. Not surprisingly, there are microbial diseases such as syphilis or AIDS that are transmitted by sexual contact ?from one partner to the other. However, such sexually transmitted diseases are not spread by casual physical contact. ?Casual physical contacts include handshakes or hugs .sports, like wrestling, or by any of the other ways in which we ?touch each other socially.Q 12.How does AIDS spread?An: Other than the sexual contact, the AIDS virus can also spread through blood-to-blood contact with infected people or from an infected mother to her baby, by sharing of same syringe and having unprotected sex.Q13. What are vectors? Name some vector transmitted diseases.Ans:? Many diseases will be transmitted by other animals. These animals carry the infecting agents from a sick person to another potential host. These animals are thus the intermediaries and are called vectors. The commonest vectors we all know are mosquitoes. In many species of mosquitoes, the females need highly nutritious food in the form of blood in order to be able to lay mature eggs. Mosquitoes feed on many warm-blooded animals, including us. In this way, they can transfer diseases from person to person. Eg. Malaria, rabies.?Q14. The disease-causing microbes enter the body through different means. Where do they go then?. Do all microbes go ?to the same tissue or organ, or do they go to different ones?Ans: Different species of microbes seem to have evolved to home in on different parts of the body. In part, this selection is connected to their point of entry. If they enter from the air via the nose, they are likely to go to the lungs. This is seen in the bacteria causing tuberculosis. If they enter through the mouth, they can stay in the gut lining like typhoid causing bacteria Or they can go to the liver,like the viruses that cause jaundice. But this needn.t always be the case. An infection like HIV, ?that comes into the body thru the sexual organs, will spread to lymph nodes all over the body. Malaria-causing microbes, entering through a mosquito bite, will go to the liver, and then to the red blood cells. The virus causing Japanese encephalitis, or brain fever, will similarly enter through a mosquito bite. But it goes on to infect the brain.?Q15. The signs and symptoms of a disease depend upon the tissue or organ targeted.? Explain.Ans: The signs and symptoms of a disease will thus depend on the tissue or organ which the microbe targets. If the lungs are the targets, then symptoms will be cough and breathlessness. If the liver is targeted, there will be jaundice. If the brain is the target, we will observe headaches, vomiting, fits or unconsciousness.Q16.How does HIV damage our body?Ans: In HIV infection, the virus goes to the immune system and damages its function. Thus, many of the effects of HIV-AIDS are because the body can no longer fight off the many minor infections that we face everyday. Instead, every small cold can become pneumonia.?Q17.How do we kill microbes??Ans: One way is to use medicines that kill microbes.Microbes can be classified into different categories. They are viruses, bacteria, fungi or protozoa. Each of these groups of organisms will have some essential biochemical life process which is ?peculiar to that group and not shared with the other groups. We can use a drug, that blocks the bacterial synthesis ?pathway without affecting our own.Q18. What feature of our body protects us from catching infectious diseases?Ans: The immune system of our body is normally fighting off microbes. We have cells that specialise in killing infecting microbes. These cells go into action each time infecting microbes enter the body. If they are successful, we do not ?actually come down with any disease. The immune cells manage to kill off the infection long before it assumes major ?proportions.?Q19. Describe the principle behind vaccination.?Ans: By providing vaccination, we can .fool? the immune system into developing a memory for a particular infection by putting something, that mimics the microbe we want to vaccinate against, into the body. This does not actually cause the disease but this would prevent any subsequent exposure to the infecting microbe from turning into actual disease.Q20Name some diseases for which vaccines are available.Ans: Many such vaccines are now available for preventing a whole range of infectious diseases, and provide a disease-specific means of prevention. There are vaccines against tetanus, diphtheria, whooping cough, measles, polio and many others.Q21. Who were awarded nobel prize for discovery of treatment of peptic ulcer?Ans: Robin Warren and Barry Marshall discovered for the first time, that the area of peptic ulcer contained many small curved Bacteria named Helicobacter pyroli . They also found that amoxicillin an antibiotic effective in killing the bacteria, could ?also cure the peptic ulcers.Q22. List some general principles of prevention.?Ans:?1. prevention of overcrowding ?? ? ? ??2. sanitation ? ? ? ? ??3. safe drinking water ?4. taking good nutrition ? ? ? ? ?5. proper habits ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?6. freedom from addictions ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ??7. exercise ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ??8. relaxation23. State any two conditions essential for good health.???Ans. Two conditions that are essential for good health are:??? 1. Person should be physically fit and fine.?? 2. He should have good social and economic conditions.? 3. Clean environment.?????24. State any two conditions essential for being free of disease.??Ans. Two conditions essential for being disease-free are:??? 1. Person should take balance diet.?? 2. Personal and community hygiene.????????? ???25. Are the answers to the above questions necessarily the same or different? Why???Ans. To some extent they are the same, because if the conditions that are essential for good health are maintained, then automatically the chances of getting a disease ?will be minimized. But at the same time, we can say that they are different because ?being health or good health means physical, mental and social well-being while being ?disease-free means not suffering from a particular disease(s).?26 . List any three reasons why you would think that you are sick and ought to see a doctor. If only one of these symptoms were present, would you still go to the doctor? Why or why not????????Ans. Common symptoms which indicate sickness are:??? (i) Headache? ????(ii) Cough and? ???(iii) Dysentery????????If I see any one of the above symptoms, I’ll immediately go the doctor. It is because any of these symptoms can be the sign of sickness or disease. Ignoring it may lead to increase in the disease. The doctor will make his diagnosis ?and if need be, he’ll get some tests done and then start medication, if need arises.???27. In which of the following case do you think the long-term effects on your health are likely to be most unpleasant?? a) if you get jaundice,??????? b) if you get lice,???? c) if you get acne. Why????????????Ans. a) In case of jaundice as liver does not functions properly so it will have drastic long term effect on the body.?????????? b) In case of lice it can remain for long time but will not have an adverse ?effect on the body.??????????????c) Acne can remain for a long time but will not affect the body adversely.?28. Why we are normally advised to take bland and nourishing food when we are sick????????????Ans. When we are sick the normal body functions get disturbed.? In such situation food that is easily digestible and contains adequate nutrients are required for the speedy recovery. Thus bland and nourishing food is given during ?sickness?29. How are acute diseases different from chronic diseases??Ans: Acute disease – Diseases which last for short periods of time and are severe are called acute diseases.Chronic disease – Diseases which are long lasting are called chronic diseases.30. What is the full form of AIDS? Name the causal organism.?Ans: AIDS – Acquired Immuno deficiency syndrome It is caused by HIV – Human Immuno deficiency virus.31. ?State two conditions essential for keeping good health.?Ans: Conditions for keeping good health are(a) Public and personal hygiene????? (b) Regular exercise, sleep and relaxation.(c) Proper habits.?????????????????????????????? (d) Nutrition32. ?Define (a) health (b) disease.?Ans? Health – It is defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.?Disease – A disease in the malfunctioning of body organs due to one reason or the other.34. Why are antibiotics not effective for viral disease?Ans: ?Antibiotics block the bacterial pathways without affecting the pathways of humans. In the case of viruses, they have very few biochemical pathways of their own. They use the metabolic machinery of host and grow and reproduce.35. Explain giving reasons –(a) Balanced diet is necessary for maintaining health body. (b) Health of an organism depends upon the surrounding environmental conditions.Ans: a) Balanced diet contain all the nutrient required for maintaining proper health as well as needed for growth and repair. Lack of single nutrient causes deficiency diseases.b) surrounding environmental conditions plays an important role in the maintenance of health.?For ex we feel depressed if –(i) surrounding are dirty or polluted?(ii) garbage is not collected or disposed off?(iii) drains are not cleaned and water collects in the streets or open spaces.?Unclean surrounding causes the entry of germs via air, water, food or vectors and makes the person unhealthyNatural Resources1. The gifts of nature like air, water, soil, minerals, coal, petroleum, animals and plants are called natural resources.2. Natural resources are broadly classified into inexhaustible natural resources and exhaustible natural resources.3. Ever-increasing population along with industrialisation and consequent urbanisation have compelled human beings to over-exploit these natural resources.4. The natural resources which are present in the nature in unlimited quantity and which normally cannot be exhausted by human activities are called inexhaustible natural resources, e.g. air, water, solar energy, etc.5. The natural resources which can degrade in quantity and quality due to human activities are called exhaustible natural resources. e.g. soil, forest, minerals, coal, etc.6. Air is a mixture of nitrogen (78%), oxygen (21%), carbon dioxide, ammonia, ozone, noble gases and moisture.7. The envelope of air that surrounds the earth is called atmosphere.8. Water is the prime natural resource, basic human need and precious national asset.9. The ground water and surface water available to us come from the rainfall and snow which is a continuous process through hydrological cycle.10. Depending on the annual rainfall, India has been divided into four regions — wet zone, intermediate zone, semi-arid zone and arid zone.11. Soil is the upper crust of earth.12. The six major soil types found in India are (i) alluvial soil, (ii) black soil, (iii) red soil, (iv) mountain soil, (v) desert soil and (vi) laterite soil.13. Coal, petroleum, iron, aluminium, copper, silver and gold are among the important natural resources.14. Chief sources of energy are coal, petroleum, natural gas, hydel power, solar, wind and nuclear power.15. Energy resources can be classified into two main categories — non renewable/conventional resources of energy and renewable/nonconventional resources of energy.16. The pollution-free sources of energy like solar radiation, wind power, biomass and nuclear power are renewable energy resources.17. Hydel power is the next biggest source of energy after thermal power.18. Researchers are being involved to develop new non-conventional energy sources/devices.19. The term flora is used for plants and fauna for animal species — it includes all types of plants and animals living in a natural habitat.20. Our forest cover is estimated to be 63.591 million hectare sq. km that comes to be approximately 1/5th of the total geographical area of the country.21. The movement of air from one region to another region causes winds.22. The circulation of water in the form of water vapour, clouds, rain and snow forms the water cycle.23. Major sources of air pollution are burning of fossil fuels (coal and petroleum products), automobiles, thermal power plants and industries.24. Burning of fossil fuels like coal and petroleum releases oxides of nitrogen and sulphur which are responsible for acid rain.25. Air containing suspended particles of unburnt carbon and other particles released by the burning of fossil fuels is called smog.26. Lichens are known as indicator of pollution because they are sensitive to the level of sulphur dioxide in air.27. The level below the soil surface where the rocks are saturated with water is known as the zone of saturation and the upper level of the zone of saturation is called water table.28. The increase in concentration of harmful, non biodegradable chemical substances in the body of living organisms throughout the trophic levels of a food chain is called biological magnification.29. The excessive growth of phytoplankton in water bodies because of discharge of sewage and detergents in it brings about a reduction in dissolved oxygen which affects other aquatic organisms. This is called eutrophication.30. Conversion of rocks into soil by physical or biological means is called weathering.31. A fertile soil which contains a mixture of all the different sized particles is called loam or loamy soil.32. Strip-cropping means planting of crops in rows or strips to check flow of water and soilpollution.33. A cyclic flow of nutrients between non-living environment and living organisms is called biogeochemical cycle.34. Rise in the Earth’s temperature because of increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is known as green house effect.35. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates with the help of a few symbiotic bacteria which live in the root nodules of leguminous plants and nitrites is called nitrogen fixation.36. Ammonification is conversion of complex organic compounds like proteins into ammonia (NH3).37. Nitrification is conversion of ammonia into nitrites and nitrates.38. Denitrification is conversion of nitrate salts present in the soil and water to free nitrogen gas.39. Ozone layer surrounds the earth, at height of 25-30 km from the earth’s surface. It protects Earth from ultraviolet light.40. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer. Nitrogen monoxide (NO) and some other gases also deplete the ozone layer. PSA - CLASS - IX – FORMATQUANTITATIVEStand Alone MCQ1. What is the value of :(i) 2 (ii) 9 (iii) 9/2 (iv) 2/92. What are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 – 16?(i) (4, –4) (ii) (–4, –4) (iii) (4, 4) (iv) None of these3. What is the remainder when polynomial x3 – ax2 + 6x – a is divided by (x – a)?(i) a (ii) 3a (iii) a/5 (iv) 5a4. Which one is correct order of Cartesian plane for the points (4, –4), (–3, 2), (–5, – 7) and (6, 3)?(i) I, II, III, IV(ii) IV, II, III, I(iii) III, II, I, IV(iv) II, III, IV, I5. In the given figure if ??BAC = 72o and AB = AC, ?ACD = ?(i) 54o (ii) 126o (iii)136o (iv) 108o6. Sum of exterior angles of a triangle is :(i) 270o (ii) 306o (iii)630o (iv) 360o7. If DC II AB, the values of ‘x’ and ‘y’ are :(i) (45o, 25o)(ii) (25o, 65o)(iii) (30o, 45o)(iv) (45o, 30o)8. Which type of quadrilateral ABCD is, if ?AOB = 90o?(i) Rectangle (ii) Parallelogram (iii) Rhombus (iv) All of them9. In circle (O, r) AB is the chord and ?ACB = 76o, find ?ADB.(i) 67o (ii) 78o (iii) 87o (iv) 76o10 In circle (O, r), OP ??QR and QR = 14 cm, the value of PQ is :(i) 6 cm (ii) 6.7 cm (iii) 7 cm (iv) 7.6 cm11. Find the area of equilateral triangle of side 4 cm(i) 4?3 cm (ii) 4?3 cm2 (iii)3?4 cm2 (iv) 6cm212. A bag contains 7 red balls, 6 green balls, 4 black balls. A ball is drawn randomly from this bag. What is the probability of the drawn ball is to be white ball?(i) 7/17 (ii) 6/17 (iii) 4/17 (iv) 013. Radius of the base of a cylinder and sphere are equal, the volume of both areequal, the height of cylinder is:(i) 4/3 ??r (ii) ? ??r (iii) 9/16 ??r (iv) 4/3r14. ? : True Solution : : Starch Solution : Salt Solution(i) Homogenous solution(ii) Suspension(iii) Colloidal solution(iv) Aqueous solution15. Filtration : Fractional distillation : : ? : ?(i) Solid – liquid : miscible liquid(ii) Sublimation : Separating funnel(iii) Solid – solid : liquid – liquid(iv) Gas – gas : solid – gas16. Oxygen : 16 : : carbon : ?(i) 27(ii) 35.5(iii) 14(iv) 1217. Robert Hooks : Robert Brown : : Cells : ?(i) Cytoplasm(ii) Mitochondria(iii) Nucleus(iv) Lysosomes18. Suicidal bag : power house : : ? : Mitochondria(i) Plastids(ii) Golgi apparatus(iii) Ribosome(iv) Lysosomes19. Leucoplasts : Chromoplasts : : Colourless : ?(i) Coloured(ii) Green(iii) White(iv) Black20. Amoeba : ? : : Unicellular : Multi-cellular(i) Earthworm(ii) Euglena(iii) Paramecium(iv) Bacteria21. Apical Meristem : Lateral Meristem : : Tips of stem : ?(i) Sides of stem or roots(ii) Base of leaves(iii) Internodes on twinges(iv) Outer covering of epidermis22. Xylem : ? : : transport of water : transport of food(i) Parenchyma(ii) Phloem(iii) Collenchymas(iv) Sclerenchyma23. Stomata : ? : : Exchanging of gas : opening & closing of stomata(i) Protective tissue(ii) Guard cell(iii) Thick walls of cells(iv) Epidermis cell24. Force : Newton : : Energy : ?(i) Kilogram(ii) meter/second(iii) Joules(iv) Meter/second225. F1 force is required to accelerate 2 kg mass at 5 ms–2 and F2 force isrequired to accelerate 4 kg mass at 2 metres/sec2(i) F1 = F2(ii) F1> F2(iii) F1 < F2(iv) None of thes26. Momentum of a moving body is given by :(i) m ??v(ii) m ??a(iii) m ??g(iv) All of above27. Weight of a boy on earth is 72 N, what will be his weight on moon?(i) 9 N(ii) 18 N(iii) 8 N(iv) 12 N28. Which side of box will exert more pressure on table top?(i) A(ii) B(iii) Both exert same pressure (iv) None of these29. Weight of an object at polar and at equator(i) Increasing from pole to equator (ii) Remain same (iii) Decreasing from pole to equator (iv) All of them30. An object will float on fluid only if its density is :(i) Less than fluid (ii) More than fluid (iii) Same as fluid (iv) None of these31. Expression for kinetic energy and potential energy of a body is given by :(i) ? mv2, ma(ii) mgh, ? mv2(iii) ma, mgh(iv) ? mv2, mgh32. The energy used in industry is expressed in Kilowatt hour (KWh) which is equal to :(i) 3.6 ? 10 6J(ii) 3.06 ? 10 6J(iii) 306 ? 10 6J(iv) 30.6 ? 10 6J33. To hear an echo the minimum distance between the obstacle and the source of sound should be :(i) 10.4 m(ii) 15.2 m(iii) 20.6 m(iv) 17.2 m34. An adult human ear can hear sound in a frequency range of :(i) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz(ii) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz(iii) 20 Hz to 200 Hz(iv) 20 Hz to 200000 Hz35. Ultra sound range of frequencies associated with :(i) Less than 20000 Hz(ii) Greater than 20000 Hz(iii) None of these(iv) Equal to 20000 Hz36. Malaria is caused by parasite :(i) Salmonella Typhi(ii) Vibro Cholerae(iii) Plasmodium(iv) Bacteria37. The national average consumption quantity of PDS is 1 kg. It is 300 gm in Orissa. Findout how much is the quantity of average consumption less than the national averageconsumption quantity in Orissa?(i) 299 gm(ii) 301 gm(iii) 700 gm(iv) 400 gm38. Production of grains in India :Year 1960-61 1970-71 1980-81 1990-91Year (quantity crores ton) 8 10 15 18In between which decade the production of grains has increased the most?(i) 1960-61(ii) 1970-71(iii) 1980-81(iv) 1990-9139. The percentage of poverty in Bihar is 42 and the percentage of poverty in West Bengal is 20. Find its ratio.(i) 6 : 5(ii) 21 : 10(iii) 5 : 6(iv) 20 : 2140. Year Rural Poverty (%) Urban Poverty (%)1973-74 26.1 6.01993-94 24.4 7.61999-00 19.3 6.7Find the total percentage of poverty in the year 1999-00. (i) 32.1(ii) 26.0(iii) 32.0(iv) 2041. Details of Health Centres being opened by the Government under National HealthPolicy :Year 1951 1981 2001No. of Health Centres 925 59363 163181How many new Health Centres have been opened after 1981? (i) 5718(ii) 56438(iii) 58288(iv) 10381842.How much percentage has increased in the male literacy rate? (i) 47(ii) 42(iii) 70(iv) 8543. Govind, a farmer of village Palampur, holds a land of 3.25 hectares. He gave his three sons a piece of land of 0.75 hectares to each. the remaining land he keeps by himself. How many hectares of land is left with Govind now?(i) 1.5 hectares(ii) 1 hectare(iii) 0.5 hectare(iv) 0.75 hectares44. Calculate the temperature range from the given table :Month Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov DecTem o C 14.4 16.4 23.3 30 33.3 33.3 36 29 28.9 25.6 19.4 15.9(i) 21.6(ii) 18(iii) 66.6(iv) 2545.Find the percentage of children from the above pie-chart. (i) 70(ii) 51.2(iii) 65.6(iv) 34.446. A country must have 33% of forests. In India, the percentage of forests is 20.55%. Howmuch percentage of forests is lacking for an ideal state? (i) 55.5(ii) 10(iii) 12.45(iv) 1547. Following is the annual average rainfall in four mega cities :Megacity Mumbai Kolkata Chennai ThiruvanantpuramRainfall (in cm) 183.4 162.5 128.6 181.2Determine the difference between the maximum average rainfall and the minimumaverage rainfall : (i) 50.6(ii) 56.8(iii) 52.6(iv) 54.848.How much percentage of agricultural land do the rich farmers have? (i) 36(ii) 64(iii) 20(iv) 8049.Census Year Sex Ratio per 10001951 9461961 9411971 9301981 9341991 939In which census year did the sex ratio remain minimum? (i) 1951(ii) 1961(iii) 1971(iv) 198150. Find the next digit in the following series ?1, 5, 14, 30, 55, ?(i) 91(ii) 36(iii) 95(iv) 101Answer Key Quantitative Stand Alone MCQ1. (iv)2. (i)3. (iv)4. (ii)5. (ii)6. (iv)7. (ii)8. (iii)9. (iv)10. (iii)11. (ii)12. (iv)13. (i)14. (iii)15. (i)16. (iv)17. (iii)18. (iv)19. (i)20. (i)21. (i)22. (ii)23. (ii)24. (iii)25. (ii)26. (i)27. (iv)28. (i)29. (i)30. (i)31. (iv)32. (i)33. (iv)34. (ii)35. (i)36. (iii)37. (iii)38. (iii)39. (ii)40. (ii)41. (iv)42. (i)43. (ii)44. (i)45. (iv)46. (iii)47. (iv)48. (ii)49. (iii)50. (i Test Booklet Code Problem Solving Assessment No. : 9999999 Sample Question Paper Class-IX Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 90 This Test Booklet contains 21 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Important Instructions: 01. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 02. The Test Booklet Code for this Test Booklet is A1. The Candidate should check carefully that the Test Booklet Code printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 03. The Test Booklet contains 60 questions divided into three sections A, B and C. A candidate is required to attempt all the three sections. There are 24 questions in section A, 18 Questions in section B and 18 questions in section C. Section A : Language Conventions ( Question Nos 1 to 24) To be attempted either from English Language or from Hindi Language Section B : Qualitative Reasoning ( Questions 25 to 42) Section C : Quantitative Reasoning ( Questions 43 to 60) 04. All the three sections contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Some of these questions are passage based MCQs whereas others are stand alone MCQs. Each of these questions has four options out of which only ONE option is correct. A candidate has to select the correct option and fill the corresponding number in the Answer Sheet against the question. 05. Each Question carries 1 ? marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 1 ? marks. There is no negative marking for any of the questions and unattempted question earns no mark. 06. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet or the Answer Sheet not handed over to the Invigilator shall be dealt as an Unfair means case. 07. On completion of the test, the candidates MUST HAND OVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THE INVIGILATOR in the room/hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 08. Use blue/ black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page and writing or marking responses on Answer Sheet. 09. The candidates should ensure that the answer sheet is not folded or damaged. Do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet. 10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board Registration No : --------------------------------- Candidate’s Name : ---------------------------------- Candidate’s Signature : ---------------------------------- Invigilator’s Signature :------------------Section –A ( Language Conventions) Note: This section of the question paper contains 24 questions each in English Language and Hindi Language . A candidate is required to attempt all the 24 questions in one language only (Either is English Language or in Hindi Language). English Language Questions 1 to 24 (Questions 1 to 8) Read the following passage carefully and select the most suitable option from each list according to the corresponding number in the passage. 1 Q 1. Which of the following could replace ‘alternatively’ as used in the passage above? 1) and 2) also 3) then 4) never Q 2. Which of the following is the correct spelling of ‘peecok’? 1) peacok 2) peacock 3) peecock 4) peakock Q 3. Which of the following could replace ‘a range of’ as used in the passage above? 1) pretty 2) unusual 3) a group of 4) a selection of Q 4. Which of the following is the opposite in meaning to ‘majority’ as used in the passage above? 1) lots 2) several 3) nearly all 4) not many Q 5. Which of the following could replace ‘plain’ as used in the passage above? 1) pale 2) dark 3) simple 4) gentle Q6. Which of the following could replace ‘sparsely’ as used in the passage above? 1) lightly 2) heavily 3) densely 4) narrowly Q 7. Which of the following could replace ‘populated’ as used in the passage above? 1) popular 2) settled 3) liveable 4) uninhabited Q8. Which of the following could replace ‘They’ as used in the passage above? 1) People 2) Hunters 3) Animals 4) Peafowl (Questions 9 to 12)This passage contains errors and an omission. Choose the correct option from the lists below to correct these errors and complete the passage. The commonwealth Games were held in India in 2010. (9) It was very successful and the attendances were high. 10) A village was built for the athletes besides the stadium. (11) During an interview, the TV commentator said,_________________________________________(12) Q9 1) Comma required after ‘Games’. 2) ‘Games’ should not begin with a capital. 3) Capital letter required for ‘commonwealth’ 4) Apostrophe required after ‘commonwealth’ Q10 1) They are 2) They was 3) They were 4) They been Q11 1) near 2) close 3) inside 4) toward Q12 1) These were the best games ever. 2) “These were the best games ever!” 3) “These were the best games ever”! 4) “that these were the best games ever.” (Questions 13 to 16) In this passage, errors or parts of a sentence which have been left out, have been underlined. To correct these errors and correctly complete the passage, choose the correct option from the lists below. Bina the zookeeper woke early although she wanted to see the tiger (13) give birth. The zoo vet were hoping that the event would be (14) successful and had stayed with the tiger overnight. When he arrived (15) at work, the excitement was already beginning to build __________________________________ . (16) Q13. 1) because 2) however 3) therefore 4) as a result of Q14. 1) will hope 2) is hoping 3) had hoped 4) was hoping Q15. 1) she 2) they 3) the vet 4) the man Q16. 1) because there was a new cage for the tiger. 2) as it seemed that the cub’s arrival was close. 3) when the tiger cub went to the pond to have a drink of water. 4) since the sun was shining and it was a joyful day for everyone. ( Questions 17 to 20) Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable option from the list for the corresponding gap. Dieticians claim that to maintain a healthy body, we __(17)__ to stay away from high calorie foods. But selecting low calorie nutritious foods __(18)__ quite a daunting task. Selecting food, studying nutrition facts on food labels and preparing meals all seem to add to the feeling that healthy eating is __(19)__. Another barrier to healthy eating is the marketing of cheap, pre-packaged foods that has made it so much easier to reach out for a __(20)__ snack. Q17. 1) may try 2) should try 3) might have tried 4) would have tried Q18. 1) can be 2) should be 3) may have been 4) would have been Q19. 1) a simple effort. 2) easily achievable. 3) urgently required. 4) a demanding task. Q20. 1) cheap low calorie 2) simple and natural 3) tempting unhealthy 4) pre-packaged healthy ( Questions 21 to 24) Complete this passage by selecting the correct option from the list for the corresponding gap. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee was one of the greatest novelists and poets of India. He is __(21)__ for being the author of Vande Mataram, the National Song of India. Chatterjee began his __(22)__ career as a writer of verse, but __(23)___ turned to writing fiction. Bankim Chatterjee was a superb story-teller and he enjoyed universal popularity. His novels have been __(24)__ into almost all of the major languages of India. Q21. 1) blessed 2) splendid 3) infamous 4) acclaimed Q 22. 1) prior 2) literary 3) life long 4) song writing Q 23. 1) later 2) prior 3) firstly 4) meanwhile Q 24. 1) reworded 2) translated 3) explained 4) paraphrased Section- B (Qualitative Reasoning) Questions 25 to 42 (Questions 25-30) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: The cleaner’s name During their last year at school, a teacher gave his students a questionnaire about Life Skills. One conscientious student had breezed through the questions until he read the last one: "What is the first name of the woman who cleans at your floor in the school?" Surely this was some kind of joke. He had seen the cleaner several times. She was tall, dark-haired and in her 50s, but how would he know her name? He handed in his paper, leaving the last question blank. Just before class ended, the student asked if the last question was important. “Absolutely", said the teacher. "In your career, you will meet many people. All are significant. They deserve your attention and care, even if all you do is learn their name, smile and say "hello." That afternoon, the student found the cleaner. “I wanted to thank you for the work you do,” he said. “May I ask your name?” …………………………………………………………………… Q.25 The teacher gave the students this questionnaire “during their last year at school” because it tests skills that 1) will be learned after school ends. 2) were taught in the final school year. 3) are learned throughout all schooling. 4) universities and colleges will require. Q.26 The student in the story was surprised by the last question because he assumed that 1) learning is only academic. 2) the woman was not a cleaner 3) there would be multiple choices. 4) he would know the cleaner’s name. Q.27 The final paragraph of the story shows that the student 1) put the theory into practice. 2) had difficulty finding the cleaner. 3) misunderstood the teacher’s point. 4) wants to complete the questionnaire. Q.28 The student in the story learned the importance of 1) tactics. 2) humility. 3) politeness. 4) lateral thinking. Q.29 The teacher put the question about the cleaner on the questionnaire for the benefit of 1) the cleaner. 2) the whole class. 3) this particular student. 4) the teacher him/herself. Q.30 The text is best described as a 1) moral tale. 2) urban legend. 3) children’s story. 4) humorous anecdote. (Questions 31-36) Read the following two scenarios and answer the questions that follow: Scenario 1 Sheena lives with her extended family. She aspires to be a doctor. She likes to devote more and more time to her studies but when she returns home from school her grandmother wants her to get involved in household chores. Whenever she sits down to study she is made to get up on the pretext of one thing or the other. Her parents find themselves helpless as they feel they shouldn't argue with elders. Her grades have started going down. Scenario 2 Yash is fascinated by cars and hopes to be an automobile engineer one day. He wants to opt for science but his businessman father feels that he should opt for commerce and take care of the family hotel and restaurant business when he grows up. He is good at mathematics and science but lacks concentration and likes doing lots of things at the same time. His father feels that he won't be successful in life if he opts for science and is very upset with him. …………………………………………………………………. Q.31 Which of these words best describes the interpersonal relationships described in the first scenario? 1) positive 2) friendly 3) conflicting 4) supportive Q.32 The words ‘shouldn’t argue with elders’ is about which attribute? 1) love 2) trust 3) respect 4) confidence Q. 33 Which of the following strategies could resolve the issues for everyone in both scenarios? 1) being obedient 2) changing aspirations 3) communicating openly 4) devoting more time to study Q.34 The second scenario clearly states that 1) Yash will take over the family business. 2) The father values commerce as a career. 3) Yash will become an automobile engineer. 4) A child must take over the family business. Q. 35 What conclusion can be drawn from both scenarios? 1) There is only one path to a successful life. 2) Students should be able to do what they want. 3) To achieve their goals students need to work harder. 4) Children and their parents may have different points of view. Q. 36 What conclusion can be drawn from scenario 1? 1) Sheena will become a doctor. 2) Sheena’s parents want her to do household chores. 3) The grandmother has too many household chores to do. 4) The grandmother values household chores above study. Q.37 There are two rules for making words from the following grid: 1. Words can only use each letter once. 2. Consecutive letters in a word must border each other, including diagonalsWhich of the following words obeys the rules for making words? 1) green 2) spore 3) rinse 4) tides (Questions 38 and 39) Read the given statements and answer the questions that follow A. Many hands make light work. B. Two heads are better than one. C. Too many cooks spoil the broth. D. A problem shared is a problem halved. Q.38 Which two sayings express opposite sentiments? 1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and C 4) B and D Q.39 Which saying encourages people to look to others for emotional support? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D Q.40 According to Wikipedia, ‘nominative determinism’ is a comparatively recent term for the theory that a person's name can have a significant role in determining key aspects of their job, profession or even character. Which of the following would not be an example of nominative determinism? I.Will Street – wedding photographer 2.Usain Bolt – Olympic track gold medallist 3.Alan Heavens – professor of astrophysics 4.Sarah Blizzard – television weather presenter Q.41 Which of the following statements expresses the ideal relationship between the two categories; ‘politicians’ and ‘people with integrity’? 1) All politicians are people with integrity. 2) All people with integrity are politicians. 3) Some people with integrity are politicians. 4) Some politicians are people with integrity. Q.42 If Ajit decided to lie to his parents about a poor test result, what is most likely to be the immediate effect of his decision? 1) His end of year report reveals the lie. 2) He is worried and doesn’t sleep well. 3) He does not understand the next unit of his studies. 4) His parents learn about the lie when they have an interview with his teacher. Section –C (Quantitative Reasoning) Questions 43 to 60 Q.43 Rajit likes to take a different route to work each day. He always walks alongside some part of the park, and only ever travels South or East. In the diagram below, the lines represent the streets in his area.How many different routes are there by which Rajit can walk from home (H) to work (W)? 1) 3 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8 Q.44 Observe the dimensions of given fish tank carefully: When it is half full, this fish tank contains 12 000 L of water. If 6 000 L of water is added to the tank, how high will the water level rise? 1) 25 cm 2) 50 cm 3) 75 cm 4) 100 cm Q.45 In a market in Delhi, the price of a bag of 8 apples was 180. On the same day in Varanasi, a market was selling 5 apples for 100. A 3 kg bag was priced at 380 in Kolkata that day. In Mumbai, apples were selling for 230 a dozen. The apples each weighed 150 g. Where were the apples the cheapest? 1) Delhi 2) Kolkata 3) Mumbai 4) VaranasiQ.46 Deepa did a Mathematics test with a different design. Each correct answer scored 8 marks, and each incorrect answer reduced the score by 4 marks. The test contained 30 questions, and after completing it Deepa had a score of zero. How many questions did she answer correctly? 1) 8 2) 10 3) 12 4) 15 Q.47 In a test, Abha scored more than Bodhi, and Chatur scored less than Abha. Who had the lowest score? 1) Abha 2) Bodhi 3) Chatur 4) Not enough information provided. Q.48 A florist made as many identical bunches of flowers as she possibly could, using a total of 100 carnations, 150 tulips and 200 lilies. How many flowers did she use in each bunch? 1) 5 2) 9 3) 10 4) 20 Q.49 Vikhil has an appointment near the train station in the city at 10.30 am. To get to the city, Vikhil needs to catch a bus and then a train.The bus leaves from Vikhil’s stop every 10 minutes from 9.00am. The bus trip to the train station takes 25 minutes. From 9.30 am the train leaves for the city every 20 minutes. The train takes 15 minutes to get to the city. If Vikhil wants to arrive as close as possible to the appointment time, what is the latest bus he could catch? 1) 9.10 am 2) 9.20 am 3) 9.30 am 4) 9.40 am Q.50 Hydroponics is used to grow plants in water that contains nutrients. Sourav has a hydroponic vegetable garden with four levels. Onions are growing immediately above tomatoes. Capsicums are immediately below chillies. Potatoes are immediately below tomatoes. Chillies are not on the top level. Only one level has two vegetables growing on it.Which two vegetables are growing on the same level? 1) onions and chillies 2) potatoes and chillies 3) tomatoes and chillies 4) potatoes and capsicums Q.51 For a project in Science, Indira measured the outside temperature at 2pm for six consecutive days. In her table below, the data for Wednesday cannot be seen.When compared with the temperatures for the other five days, the temperature for Wednesday differs by 10C, 50C, 60C, 30C and 60C , but not necessarily in that order. What was the temperature for Wednesday? 1) 130C 2) 180C 3) 200C 4) 250C Q.52 Ajay bought a pack of 10 blank DVDs. He received two discounts. The marked price of all DVDs was discounted by 20%. Then, when he went to pay, 30 - which was equivalent to 5% of the marked price - was also taken off. How much change did Ajay get if he paid with a 500 note? 1) 20 2) 50 3) 120 4) 150 (Questions 53 to 56) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: The Pendulum Swing A child moving backwards and forwards on a swing, the timing mechanism of a Grandfather clock and a weight swung to and fro on the end of a string are all examples of pendulums – devices first studied by the scientist Galileo Galilei in 1581. He noticed that, although all of the lanterns suspended from long chains in a cathedral swung backwards and forwards, they did so at different rates. He started to wonder what had the biggest effect on the period (the time taken for a lantern to make one complete swing forward and backward) – the length of the chain, the mass of the lantern or how far back the lantern was first moved before it started to swing (called its amplitude). As a scientist, he performed hundreds of experiments until he found out that all swinging objects or pendulums followed the same rules: firstly, pendulums that had the same length had the same period regardless of amplitude or the size of the mass at their end and, secondly, that the square of the period in seconds was proportional to the length of the pendulum. Q.53 In Galileo’s experiments to determine how the length of the pendulum affects its period, the independent variable would have been the pendulum’s 1) time. 2) mass. 3) length. 4) amplitude. Q.54 While investigating the effect of a pendulum’s mass on its period, the pendulum string breaks when you are only half way through collecting your 50 pieces of data. Which course of action is the most likely to produce unreliable results? 1) Knotting the string back together and continuing to collect data. 2) Using only the data that you collected before the string broke. 3) Starting the experiment over again with a new pendulum string. 4) Starting the experiment again using the shortened pendulum string. Q.55 Pendulum A swings twice during the time that pendulum B swings once. What is the relationship between their lengths? 1) Pendulum A is twice as long as pendulum B. 2) Pendulum B is twice as long as pendulum A. 3) Pendulum A is four times longer than pendulum B. 4) Pendulum B is four times longer than pendulum A. Q.56 Two pendulums, of different lengths are pulled back and released at the same time. If one has a period of 2 seconds and the other 3 seconds, how many times in a minute will both pendulums be back at their respective release points at the same time? 1) 10 2) 12 3) 15 4) 40 (Questions 57-60) Use the following information and answer the questions that follow: Using levers The lever is a simple machine that allows an effort force to lift a load by means of a fulcrum or turning point. A seesaw in a playground is an example of a lever, with the riders at either end taking turns to be the load or to apply the effort force. If the riders have the similar weights, the seesaw works well. If the difference between the weights of the riders is very large, however, the seesaw can only work properly if the larger person slides closer to the fulcrum. In general, the seesaw functions at its best when the product of the weight and the distance from the fulcrum equals the same value for each rider. This is shown in the diagrams below.This same lever principle also allows us to lift very heavy loads with little effort provided that the lever we use is long enough and the fulcrum is placed close to the load.Q.57 When using a screwdriver to open the lid of a can of paint, a lever action is used.In this situation, the fulcrum of the lever is the 1) lid of the paint can. 2) rim of the paint can. 3) tip of the screwdriver. 4) the handle of the screwdriver. Q.58 A 60 kg woman wants to ride on a playground seesaw with her 20 kg child. Which combination of the positions shown in the table below would provide the most balanced ride?Q.59 A farmer uses a 2 m long lever to lift large rocks from the ground of his field. He places a fulcrum 20 cm from the rock end of the lever and then stands on the other end, levering out the rock. If the farmer weighs 100 kg, what is the heaviest mass of rock that he can lift using this method? 1) 200 kg 2) 900 kg 3) 1800 kg 4) 2000 kg Q.60 Here are two other examples of levers:Which of the following statements is true? 1) Not all levers have a fulcrum. 2) The effort force is usually smaller than the load. 3) The fulcrum must be between the load and the effort force. 4) The effort force and the load need to be the same distance from the fulcrum. QUALITATIVEStand Alone MCQ 1). Manav is facing west. He turns 45° in the anti-clock-wise direction and then 180° in the clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?a) Northb) North-East c) Eastd) South – East2) Pratibha is standing facing west. If she turns left and walks 50 mtr. distance and again she turns left. Which direction is she facing now?a) Northb) Eastc) Southd) West3) Mahima lives in Chennai in a sea-facing house. While going to her friend?s house, she turns to her right. After moving to 70 mtr. in that direction, she again turns to her right. Which direction is she facing now?a) Northb) Westc) East d) South4) Two N.C.C Cadet groups ?A? and ?B? are facing east and west directions respectively. They were given following commands -----left turn, about turn, right turn and left turn. At last, in which directions group ?A? and ?B? are facing now?a) East, Westb) West, Eastc) North, Southd) South, North5) Ram moves 4 metres. in south direction then he moves 3 metres. in east direction. How far is he from the starting point?a) 5 metresb) 1 metrec) 3 metresd) 4 metres6) Anuj and Manuj are facing North and South directions respectively. Both of them move at 180°. In which respective direction they are facing now?a) West, eastb) East , westc) South, northd) North , south7) Find out the missing letter and mark the correct option as answer .Z X U _ L Fa) R3b) Qc) Pd) O8) A C E __ I Ka) Fb) Hc) Jd) G9) Mark the correct option for missing places to complete the series.a_bb_abba_ _ baa_ ba) a a a b bb) a b b a ac) a a b b ad) a a a b a10) Which pair will come next?ZX AC VT EG __?a) IKb) NLc) HId) RP11)Note:- Read the passage and the conclusion carefully and mark the correct option.It has been observed that educated parents expanse / invest more on education of their children because by their experience they know the value or importance of education.Conclusion – I : Illiterate parents do not understand the value or importance of education. Conclusion – II: Educated parents understand the value or importance of education a) Only conclusion I is correct.b) Only conclusion II is correctc) Both conclusion I & II are correctd) Neither conclusion I nor II is correct12) In a certain code language ANT is written as BOU. How will ZEBRA be written in that codelanguage?a) A F C S Bb) B G D T C c) B G T D C d) A F B C S13) Md. Hasan says to his friend with pointing towards Md. Rayyan “His mother and my mother are daughter – mother.” How are Hasan and Md. Rayyan related?a) paternal Uncle – Nephewb) Maternal Uncle – Nephewc) Father – sond) Father-in-law – son-in-law14) Fatima introduces Mr. Zakir to her husband and said that father of his brother is the only son of her grandfather. How is Fatima related to Mr. Zakir?a) Motherb) Auntc) Sisterd) Niece15) Tanzeela is Tazeem?s sister and Mr. Yusuf is father of Tazeem. Shahnawaz is son of Mr. Sabir and Mr. Sabir is brother of Mr. Yusuf. How is Tanzeela related to Shahnawaz?a) Daughterb) Sisterc) Cousind) WifeNote:- In question No. 16 to 17 arrange the following in the increasing order and choose the correct option to match your answer correctly.16)1. Weekly2. Daily3. Monthly4. Fortnightly5. Yearlya) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5b) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5c) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5d) 2, 1, 3, 5, 417)1. Meghalaya 2. Madhya Pradesh3. Goa4. Rajasthana) 3, 1, 2, 4b) 3, 1, 4, 2c) 1, 3, 2, 4d) 1, 2, 3, 418)1. River Godavari 2. River Ganga 3. River Narmada 4. River Tapi a) 2, 3, 4, 1b) 2, 3, 1, 4c) 4, 3, 2, 1d) 4, 3, 1, 219)a) Finance b) Healthc) Miningd) Education20)a) River Beas b) River Sutlej c) River Ravi d) River Kaveri 21)a) Hutb) Flatc) Iglood) Factory22)a) Driverb) Passengerc) Pilotd) Sailor23)a) Libertyb) Equalityc) Fraternityd) Discrimination24)a) Gallonb) Quintalc) Tond) Kilogram25)a) Judgeb) Accusedc) Lawyerd) Citizen26) Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?(I)2727) Choose the appropriate answer30) How many triangle are there in the given figure:-Note:- (Q31-35) Select the related word from the given alternatives:-31) Newton : Force :: __________________ : Work(a) Metre(b) Joule(c) Kilogram(d) Second32) Voter : 18 years :: Lok Sabha Member : ________________.a) 35 yearsb) 18 yearsc) 25 yearsd) 30 year33) Perimeter : Metre :: ________________ : Square metrea) Circumferenceb) Areac) Volumed) Diagonal34) 9: 81 :: 11: ____________.a) 101b) 111c) 121d) 11035) LAMB : BMAL :: GOOD : ___________.a) OGODb) DOOGc) ODOGd) OOGDNote:- Select the correct answers from question no 36 to 40 :36) The term ? Global Warming? meansa) Quick melting of polar ice sheets.b) Depletion of Ozone layer.c) High temperature in Torrid Zone.d) General rise in temperature due to CO237) The Gandhian principles have been enumerated in the:-a) Fundamental Rightsb) Preamble of the Constitutionc) Directive Principlesd) Fundamental Duties38) The ?Microsoft? word is associated with:a) Andrew Groveb) Bill Gatesc) Ted Turnerd) Rupert Murdoch ................
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