114. O Level Production Division



114. ORGANIZATIONAL LEVEL (O-LEVEL) PRODUCTION DIVISIONS FUNDAMENTALS

References:

[a] NAVAIR 01-1A-24, US Navy Aviation Vibration Analysis Manual

[b] OPNAVINST 4790.2H, Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), Vol. I

[c] OPNAVINST 4790.2H, Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), Vol. V

[d] NAVAIR 01-1A-509, Aircraft Weapons Systems Cleaning and Corrosion Control

[e] CMS-1, Communications Security Material System Manual

[f] Local Directives and Standard Operating Procedures

[g] COMNAVAIRPACINST 3500.85B, Conventional Weapons Technical Proficiency

Inspection (CWTPI) Guide

[h] OPNAVINST 8000.16A, Naval Ordnance Maintenance Management Program

(NOMMP), Vol. 2

[i] OPNAVINST 8000.16A, Naval Ordnance Maintenance Management Program

(NOMMP), Vol. 3

[j] OPNAVINST 5102.1C, Mishap Investigation and Reporting

[k] NAVAIR 00-80T-113, Aircraft Signals NATOPS Manual

[l] NAVAIR 01-1A-35, Aircraft Fuel Cells and Tanks

[m] OPNAVINST 8020.14, Department of the Navy Explosives Safety Policy

.1 Discuss the purpose of the Vibration Analysis Program. [ref. a]

* Definition from 4790.

* Vibration Analysis Program

a. Vibration analysis provides the capability to detect faults and degradation in aircraft, dynamic components, and engines by the analysis of their vibration characteristics. The objectives are to reduce vibration related material failures, reduce crew fatigue, and improve safety, reliability, and readiness.

b. The provisions of this process apply to all aircraft that require vibration analysis. Applicable aircraft MRCs and MIMs contain requirements and procedures for troubleshooting, performing vibration analysis, documenting and reporting the results, training, and record keeping requirements.

* Reference from A1-H60CA-VIB-000

1. NAVAL AVIATION VIBRATION ANALYSIS PROGRAM.

a. The Naval Aviation Vibration Analysis Program was officially established by the Naval Air Systems Command in December of 1981. The goals of this program are to use vibration analysis as a means to:

(1) Avoid catastrophic failures thereby increasing aircraft availability, reducing aircraft repair cost and improving aviation safety.

(2) Provide insight and assistance in troubleshooting vibration discrepancies thereby reducing maintenance man-hours, removal of serviceable components and help determine the cause of chronic failures.

(3) Ultimately plan repairs/component replacement thereby improving repair quality, reducing operating expenses and allowing timely ordering of replacement parts.

(4) Prevent unnecessary periodic disassembly for inspection.

b. Keys to a successful program are:

(1) proper documentation and individual aircraft files,

(2) knowledge of the aircraft,

(3) good vibration limits,

(4) adequate instrumentation, and

(5) properly trained/qualified personnel. Each of these will be individually covered in the following paragraphs.

(1) MMHISST recommends that fleet operators of Navy H-60 aircraft maintain historical vibration data at their own discretion for the purposes of tracking changes in the performance of individual aircraft and components. This historical data should be maintained only to the extent that it aids in maintenance troubleshooting. There is no requirement to forward data to MMHISST as sufficient data has been obtained for the H-60 vibration database.

(2) This program assumes that troubleshooters utilizing this program are well trained in traditional troubleshooting methods and procedures for the type of H-60 aircraft they are working on. The vibration analysis program is an aid to this troubleshooting. However, there may be times when assistance is required. You are encouraged to contact the MMHISST with any problems you might have.

(3) For the MMHISST to set valid limits, good vibration data must be obtained. The quality of the incoming data determines the quality and accuracy of the vibration limits. The incoming data must be marked properly as to the station location and flight profile. The Vibration Analysis Test Set (VATS) makes this easy as each data set is marked by the software. The limits in each individual aircraft test are based on statistics and experience with the H-60 aircraft. Limits are defined according to frequency. When vibration levels are above the non-operational limit, maintenance troubleshooting in accordance with the appropriate section of this manual shall be performed prior to next flight.

(4) A successful program is characterized by people properly trained and given a chance to develop analysis expertise. Training in vibration analysis is currently the responsibility of the Naval Air Technical Data and Engineering Service Command (NATEC).

.2 Discuss the purpose and requirements for taxi/turn-up qualification.

[ref. b, ch. 10]

* Taxi/Turn-up/Auxiliary Power Unit Licensing Program

a. Taxi Licensing. COs may issue Taxi/ Turn-up/ APU License (OPNAV 4790/162) to senior enlisted personnel under the following conditions:

(1) Fixed Wing. The nominee has undergone a comprehensive training program using the applicable NATOPS manual and has satisfactorily completed a written and operational test developed by the unit NATOPS Officer and administered by a unit pilot NATOPS instructor.

(2) Helicopter. Only individuals authorized to fly helicopters shall be permitted to taxi.

WARNING: AIRCRAFT SHALL BE PROPERLY SECURED PRIOR TO ANY MAINTENANCE TURNS PER T/M/S MIM/NATOPS. HELICOPTER ROTORS MUST NOT BE ENGAGED DURING ENGINE TURNS.

b. Turn-up (low/full power turn-up) Authorization. COs may issue engine/APU turn-up authorization or either function to enlisted personnel. The CO may not delegate the authority to sign Taxi/ Turn-up/ APU authorizations. Upon recommendation of the unit MO, the nominee will undergo a comprehensive training program. The nominee must be qualified per the applicable NATOPS manual and satisfactorily complete a written and operational examination developed by the unit's NATOPS officer and administered by a unit pilot NATOPS instructor or qualified FCF pilot. QARs may administer written examinations. For activities that have flight engineers/crew chiefs, the unit's flight engineer/crew chief NATOPS evaluator/instructor, under the direction of the NATOPS officer, may administer a written and operational examination. NATOPS qualified flight engineers/crew chiefs must satisfactorily complete the written and operational examination to be considered qualified to turn-up aircraft.

c. As a minimum, annual re-qualification is required to maintain authorization for taxi licensing and engine/APU low/full power turn-up authorization.

.3 Discuss the following Egress/Explosive System Checkout Program elements: [ref. c, ch. 16; ref. m]

a. Program manager

* The Program Manager shall:

(1) Recommend qualified AME/PR or MOS 628X/6048 personnel for designation as egress/explosive system checkout instructors for each specific T/M/S.

NOTE: Marine Corps aviation units with attack helicopters are authorized to use qualified PR/MOS 6048 personnel to give egress/explosive system checkouts on attack helicopters only.

(2) Be knowledgeable of applicable T/M/S MIMs/MRCs and this instruction.

(3) Ensure egress/explosive system training and checkout for all maintenance personnel upon reporting aboard and every 6 months thereafter prior to the last day of the requalification month. Any personnel removed from aircraft maintenance responsibilities for 90 days or longer will receive an egress/explosive system checkout before performing any aircraft maintenance

(4) Maintain a MO approved comprehensive guide/check sheet for use during egress/explosive system training and checkout

(5) Maintain a program file to include:

(a) Applicable POCs.

(b) A master copy of the guide/check sheet used for training and checkout.

(c) Program related correspondence and messages.

(d) Applicable references or cross reference locator sheets.

(6) Ensure only qualified, certified AME/PR or MOS 628X/6048 personnel administer egress/explosive system checkouts.

(7) Monitor completion of egress/explosive system checkouts and inform work center supervisors if any personnel are overdue.

(8) Use CSEC information and reports (provided by the Program Monitor) to aid in identifying specific areas of concern and to determine what steps are required for program/process improvement

(9) Submit a list of all personnel due requalification during the next month to the MMCO for publication in the MMP.

b. Training/qualification requirements

(1) Ensure Egress/Explosive System Checkout Program indoctrination and follow-on training is provided to personnel. Training shall include personnel responsibilities and shall be documented on the NAMP Indoctrination Training sheet and the individual's qualification/certification record.

(2) Ensure all work center personnel receive an egress/explosive system safety checkout by a designated AME/PR or MOS 628X/6048 prior to being assigned to work on/around aircraft.

c. Documentation required

(1) Ensure all checkouts are documented on the Egress/Explosive System Checkout Certification and maintained in the individual’s qualification/ certification record.

.4 Discuss the purpose and requirements for the ALSS Program. [ref. b, ch. 16]

* The maintenance of ALSS is an integral part of maintaining aircraft. It is essential that the procedures and the assigned responsibilities for these systems be clearly understood and complied with to ensure maximum safety/survivability as well as aircraft readiness is achieved. ALSS is defined as those items of equipment and clothing needed to allow aircrew members and aircraft passengers to:

(1) Function within all parameters of the flight environment.

(2) Safely egress from disabled aircraft and descend/ascend to the surface.

(3) Survive on land or water and interface with rescue forces.

* ALSS include such items as escape systems, environmental systems, fire extinguishing systems, aircrew clothing, survival kits, personnel parachutes and the associated hardware, life rafts and life preservers, anti-exposure suits, survival radios and other emergency signaling equipment, flight helmets, oxygen equipment, anti-G suits and associated hardware, and other miscellaneous survival and life support items.

* Inspection Requirements

(1) Acceptance/post depot inspections are performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft or aircrew personnel mounted equipment, from any source, including return of an aircraft from off-site depot facility. It includes an inventory of all equipment listed in the AIR, verification of CADs and PADs, and a configuration verification. For acceptance inspection purposes, verification of CADs, PADs, and configuration is accomplished by visual external inspection and record examination only. Disassembly beyond the daily inspection requirements of applicable PMS publications is not required. Activities may elect to increase the depth of inspection if equipment condition, visual external inspection, or record examination indicates such action is warranted. On acceptance of an aircraft, load the SEATS/ICAPS module data disk received with the aircraft logbook. SEATS/ICAPS data shall be updated in CM.

(2) Transfer/pre-depot inspections are performed at the time a reporting custodian transfers an aircraft or aircrew personnel mounted equipment, including delivery to an off-site facility. It includes an inventory of all equipment listed in the AIR, verification of CADs and PADs, and a configuration verification. For transfer inspection purposes, verification of CADs, PADs, and configuration is accomplished by visual external inspection and record examination only. Disassembly beyond the daily inspection requirements of applicable PMS publications is not required. Verify flight hours are correct on the Monthly Flight Summary (OPNAV 4790/21A) or CM ALS Flight Summary by checking the Period and Since New blocks. In addition, verify operating hours on the Equipment Operating Record (OPNAV 4790/31A) or CM ALS Equipment Operating Record by checking the ACCUM block. Activities may elect to increase the depth of inspection if equipment condition, visual external inspection, or record examination indicates such action is warranted. On transfer of an aircraft, download the SEATS/ICAPS module data on a disk and transfer with the aircraft logbook. SEATS/ICAPS data shall be updated in CM.

(3) Inspections will be conducted as specified by the applicable technical manuals.

114.5 Discuss the personnel (source ratings) make up of the Emergency Reclamation Team. [ref. d]

The ERT is responsible for reclaiming and preventing further damage to aircraft and their components in the event an aircraft experiences any of the following:

a. Salt water immersion.

b. Exposure to fire extinguishing agents.

c. Aircraft accident or situation as directed by competent authority.

The Corrosion Control Officer has the responsibility to organize and supervise an emergency reclamation team. The size and composition of the team depends on the urgency of the situation and/or workload. If required, additional squadron personnel shall be selected and placed under the direction of the Corrosion Prevention and Control Program Manager. The team will consist of all corrosion control work center personnel and the Corrosion Control Petty Officer from the following work centers: AF, PP, AT, AE, AME, PR, AO and PH. The use of an AZ may be required to issue job control numbers and manage paperwork. An AK may also be required to ensure proper packaging, identification and ordering of affected parts. The AZ and AK, although team members, do not require formal NAMTRADET Corrosion schooling. Emergency Reclamation Team Training in the squadron is sufficient for their responsibilities.

Team Responsibilities:

1) Team Leader. Will organize and coordinate the ERT effort and will be responsible for the security of all classified components.

2) Team Supervisor. Advise team members on the method of cleaning and preservation to be applied to each recovered item by referring to references (a) through (c).

3) Ordnance. De-arm and download all ordnance.

4) AME. Ensure that canopies and ejection seats are made safe. This will include removal of explosive and actuating devices associated with the escape system

* AM / Corrosion control

* EMERGENCY RECLAMATION TEAM.

NOTE: In cases involving aircraft accidents, permission must be obtained from senior member of the accident investigation board prior to start of emergency procedures.

1. GOAL OF EMERGENCY RECLAMATION TEAM: The primary goal of the emergency reclamation team is to accomplish the necessary salvage operations after an aircraft accident. This includes the associated corrosion control efforts.

2. EMERGENCY RECLAMATION TEAM ORGANIZATION: Each reporting custodian shall designate a Corrosion Control Officer, whose duties include organizing and supervising the emergency reclamation team. Maintenance control will direct the team to accomplish salvage operations or corrosion control action. The size and composition of the team depends on the urgency of the situation and/or workload. Additional personnel, if required, will be selected and placed under the direction of the Corrosion Control Officer. In case of fire damage, the Materials Engineering Division of the cognizant activity must be contacted. This group will determine the effects of heat or excessive salt water contamination prior to continued use/repair of affected parts.

.6 Discuss the security/accountability procedures for COMSEC equipment. [ref. e]

* General. COMSEC material consists of aids and hardware that secure telecommunications or ensure the authenticity of such communications. COMSEC material includes, but is not limited to, COMSEC key, items that embody or describe COMSEC logic, and other items that perform COMSEC functions. COMSEC material can be divided into three categories:

A. Keying Material – A type of COMSEC aid that supplies either encoding means for manual and auto manual cryptosystems or key for machine cryptosystems. Keying material may or may not be marked or designated “CRYPTO.” Keying material includes paper (which may be extractable or non-extractable), electronic (e.g. LMD/KP produced key, keying material on magnetic media), and other non-paper items.

1. Paper Keying Material includes keylists, keytapes, codes, authenticators (includes Identify Friend or Foe (IFF)), one-time tapes, and one-time pads. The majority of keying material bears the following type of short titles:

Keylists (AKAK/USKAK)

KeyTapes (ATAT/USKAT)

Codes (AKAC/USKAC)

Authenticators (AKAA/USKAA)

One-time Pads (AKAP/USKAP)

2. Extractable keying material is designed to permit the extraction and removal of individual segments of key for hourly, daily, weekly, etc., use

3. Electronic keying material includes electronically generated key, either produced by a LMD/KP or other key generating device, magnetic media (e.g., floppy disk, magnetic tape), and key loaded onto a fill device (KSD 64).

4. Non-paper keying material includes keying plugs, keyed microcircuits, and keying material in solid state form such as programmable read-only memories (PROMs), read-only memories (ROMs), metallic oxide semi-conductor (MOS) chips, and micro-miniature tamper protection systems (micro-TPS).

* COMSEC Equipment – Equipment designed to provide security to telecommunications by converting information to a form unintelligible to an unauthorized interceptor and subsequently reconverting such information to its original form for authorized recipients, as well as equipment designed specifically to aid in, or as an essential element of the conversion process.

* COMSEC-Related Information – Includes policy procedural, and general doctrinal publications (e.g., CMS 21A, CMS 5A), equipment maintenance manuals (e.g., KAM-410_ and operating instructions (e.g., KAO-207), call signs, frequency systems, and miscellaneous material not listed above (e.g., CMSR, NAG 16, DCMS-generated SF 153).

* Safeguard General. Each person involved in the use of COMSEC material is personally responsible for:

a. Safeguarding and properly using the material they use or for which they are responsible.

b. Promptly reporting to proper authorities any occurrence, circumstance, or act which could jeopardize the security of COMSEC material.

* Security Clearance and Access Requirements. The handling of COMSEC material requires both a security clearance (unless it involves UNCLASS COMSEC material) and a need-to-know. An explanation of these terms follows:

* COMSEC Material Classification. The classification of COMSEC material is indicated by the standard classification markings: Top Secret (TS), Secret (S), Confidential (C), or Unclassified (U). The security classification assigned to COMSEC material determines the storage and access requirements.

1. Accountability Legend (AL) Codes. Accountability Legend (AL) codes determine how COMSEC material is accounted for within the CMCS. Five AL codes are used to identify the minimum accounting controls required for COMSEC material.

2. CRYPTO Marking. The marking or designator identifying COMSEC material which is used to secure or authenticate telecommunications carrying classified or sensitive U.S. government or U.S. government-derived information. The marking "CRYPTO" is not a security classification.

3. Controlled Cryptographic Item (CCI). A secure telecommunications or information handling equipment, or associated cryptographic component, that is unclassified but governed by a special set of control requirements.

4. Status of COMSEC Material.

a. The usability of COMSEC material is determined by its status (i.e., ROB, Effective or Superseded). Status of COMSEC material is assigned at the direction of the controlling authority or originator of the material.

b. The status for equipment and non-keying material items is changed infrequently as they are used for extended periods of time. This material is in effect until it is replaced or superseded.

c. The status of COMSEC keying material is promulgated repeatedly as its life span can vary from hours to an indefinite period of time. Most keying material is superseded on a regular or routine basis due to operational use. COMSEC keying material will, at all times, be in one of three status conditions:

.7 Discuss the concepts, composition of, and training for the Ordnance Load Team. [refs. f, m]

* Background: Improper processing, handling, loading, or testing of explosive devices has caused mishaps which resulted in injury, loss of life, damage to property, or reduced operational effectiveness of both fleet and shore activities. Personnel error has been the major source of mishaps with explosive devices. Analysis of mishaps clearly caused by personnel error, indicates that the following reasons are most commonly encountered:

a. Lack of effective use of available training or lack of knowledge on the part of individuals and teams who handle explosive devices.

b. Lack of necessary and effective leadership and supervision by supervisory personnel directly responsible for operations involving explosive devices, both ashore and afloat.

c. High tempo operations, during which maintenance of explosives safety tends to be degraded as a result of fatigue short cuts, or complacency stemming from rapid, repeated, and ofter monotonous tasks.

d. Loss of continuity caused by the discharge, transfer, promotion, or retirement of experienced personnel

e. During certain evolutions, the temporary assignment of personnel to perform ordnance related tasks for which they are no specifically qualified.

f. Failure to follow, or maintain current, standard operating procedures that have been estabilished for specific processes or evolutions involving explosives or explosive devices.

* Definition.

a. Qualification: A documented list of requirements an individual must satisfy prior to being certified. (i.e., testing, formal classes, lincenses, documented OJT training and experience, demonstrated task proficiency, physical, etc)

b. Certification: A formal documented declaration that an individual, by virtue of management review, has met all of the qualification requirements established to perform a task.

Certification level Qualification Standard

Team member(TM) Basic: personnel are aware of basic safety precautions relative to the work task and explosive devices concerned, have received formal and /or OJT training, and have been recommended by their immediate supervisor.

Perform only under direct supervision of a Team leader

Individual (I) Same as BASIC for TM above

Has sufficient knowledge and has demonstrated the proficiency to be entrusted with perform9ing the work task alone in safe and reliable operations.

Capable of interpreting the requirements of applicable checklists and assembly / operating manuals.

Team LeaderI(TL) Same as BASIC for TM and I above

Has suffiecient knowledge and has demonstrated the proficiency to be entrusted with performing the work task alone and to direct the performance of others in safe and reliable operations.

Capable of interpreting the requirements of applicable checklists and assembly / operating manuals.

Quality Assurance(QA) Same as I/TL above.

Has detailed knowledge of applicable inspection criteria for the explosive device / system

Is able to determine a) whether an explosive device /system is functioning properly while it is being used, and b) that the necessary assembly or installation procedures have been complied with, per applicable directives

Instructor(IN) Same as I/TL above

Has developed the necessary skills to instruct others and is providing formal training using an approved course of instruction.

Safety Observer(SO) Same as I/TL above

Must have sufficient knowledge of safety procedures and functioning of safety devices to determine subsequent reaction if procedures or safety devices are not properly used.

.8 Discuss the purpose of and general procedures for a CWTPI. [refs. f, g]

* Purpose : To establish procedures for administering the Conventional Weapons Technical Proficiency Inspection. Provide guidance for Carrier based air wing squadrons and shore based squadrons of the commander Naval Air Force, US pacific Fleet.

* Guidance

COMNAVAIRPAC squadrons having conventional weapons capability are directed to maintain a high state of readiness to conduct conventional weapons armament systems checks, handling, loading, and delivery. Squadron conventional weapons capability will be demonstrated periodically in a CWTPI, utilizing selected weapons and fuzes listed in the appropriate loading manuals, checklists and tactical manuals.

a. Type wing commanders shall maintain a CWTPI program for squadrons within their jurisdiction. Utilization of readiness squadron and weapons school personnel to assist in the conduct of the inspection is authorized and encouraged. The type wing commander chief inspector shall be either the wings weapons officer or the respective weapons school CO / OINC.

b. The cognizant type wing commanders will forward a CWTPI schedule for information to COMNAVAIRPAC on a quarterly basis. Scheduled CWTPI inspection intervals for all deploying squadrons will be once per interdeployment training cycle. All other squadrons will be 24 months. The following CWTPI schedule plan shall be administered

1. Conus based Carrier air wing squadrons will complete a CWTPI prior to COMPTUEX phase. Waivers will not be entertained

2. VAQ expeditionary squadrons will complete a CWTPI every 24 months

3. HSL detachments will complete a CWTPI 45 to 90 days prior to deployment

4. Fleet replacement squadron (including the FRS weapons detachments) and shore based squadron a CWTPI will be administered every 24 months

5. All squadron who are assigned a new weapons system capability will have specific training administered by the type wing with completion letter forwarded to the squadron, CVW weapons officer and type commander for this new capability prior to deployment.

c. All assigned personnel whose duties involve weapons, ammunitions, and other explosive devices must have a thorough knowledge and capability for checking armament systems, handling, loading, fuzing and arming weapons. Since squadron personnel are tasked to reliably and safely employ various items of ordnance, it is required that they demonstrate their proficiency in configuration handling/ loading of all weapons currently listed in the tactical manual for the type aircraft assigned. All unit personnel that are ordnance qualified/ certified will be subject to demonstrating their knowledge and capability during a CWTPI at the discretion of the chief inspector.

d. Maximum benefit will be gained from the CWTPI if it is used as a tool to identify ineffective areas in squadron ordnance operations. Simulations, therefore, must be held to a minimum. Aircraft provided by the squadron for CWTPI purposes shall have all ups sytems ready for application of power It is desired that squadrons be tasked to configure weapons with various fuzing options, so that proficiency may be determined.

e. The emphasis of the CWTPI will be on safety reliability, proper handling and loading procedures. While timeliness is a factor in determining readiness. It will not be graded during this inspection but, may be commented on in the inspection report. Use of conventional weapons checklists will be required.

The squadron commanding officer may request an examination of the effectiveness of the commands qualification / certification program and comments included in the administrative portion of the CWTPI.

.9 Discuss the procedures and responsibilities of the AAE Program. [ref. h, ch. 7]

1. Aircraft Armament Equipment Categories.

There are two categories of aircraft armament equipment. They are:

a. Aircraft Inventory Material. Aircraft inventory items are simi-permanently attached to an aircraft and are transferred with the aircraft from one aircraft-controlling custodian to the next. Examples of aircraft inventory material include bomb racks, guided missile launchers, and pylons and fairings, the removal of which could affect the structural or aerodynamic integrity of the aircraft. The items are generally referred to as parent racks and pylons.

b. Mission-Oriented Material. Mission-oriented material includes those aircraft armament equipment items and the accessory suspension equipment which are assigned to and maintained by intermediate level maintenance activities. Mission-oriented material is maintained by intermediate level maintenance activities to satisfy the specific organizational mission requirements. Upon completion of the mission, mission-oriented material is returned to the intermediate level maintenance activity who performs any necessary maintenance actions or reconfiguration to satisfy the next mission requirement. During periods of extended operations material may remain in custody of organizational levels until an inspection is due or the item fails to function properly. Mission-oriented material is generally issued to organizational level users with store or stores attached (preloaded).

* Major aircraft armament equipment items are following:

1. Aircraft Bomb Racks

1. MERs and TERs: MERs (A/A37B-6E) and TERs (A/A37B-5E) are accessory suspension aircraft armament equipment which attach to a parent rack.

2. Aero 7A and Aero 7B Bomb Ejector Racks: Is a parent ejector rack which employs two sets of suspension hooks, one pair for 14-inch and one pair for 30-inch suspension stores.

3. MK8 Bomb Shackle: Is a parent rack used to carry and release weapons and stores.

4. BRU-11/B,BRU-11A/B Bomb Ejector Rack: Are parent racks and include an in-flight operable bomb rack lock mechanism.

5. BRU-14/A Bomb Rack: Is a parent rack which provides for suspension and release of stores weighing up to 2,000 pounds.

6. BRU-15/A Bomb Rack: Is a modification of the BRU-14/A bomb rack.

7. BRU-20/A, -21/A, -22/A and -23/A Bomb Ejector Racks: Are utilized on the UH-1Naircraft since the incorporation of the A/A49E-11 Defensive Armament System (DAS).

8. BRU-32 Series Bomb Ejector Rack: Is a parent rack which provides for the carriage of single stores, BRU-33A/A bomb ejector racks, and missile launchers.

9. BRU-33A/A Bomb Ejector Rack (VER/CVER): Is an accessory rack which attaches to the parent BRU-32/A bomb ejector rack and is used to carry two stores weighing up to 1,000 pounds each.

10. BRU-36A/A Bomb Ejector Rack: Is a parent rackwhich provides for the carriage of single stores, ITERs, or rack-suspended missile launchers using 14-inch suspension hooks.

11. BRU-12/A Bomb Rack: Is a parent rack which may be mounted in the bomb bay of all models of the P-3 aircraft.

12. Talley Rack: Is a parent rack attached to the outboard stations of the AH-1W aircraft, they provide for the attachment and carriage of TOW missile launchers and external weapons and stores with 14-inch suspension.

2. Guided Missile Launchers: provide for the carriage and release of guided missiles from an aircraft. They provide the mechanical and electrical interface between the aircraft and the air launched missile.

1. LAU-7 Guided Missile Launcher: Provides a complete launching system for the SIDEWINDER and SIDEARM missiles.

2. LAU-92 Guided Missile Launcher: Carries and launches AIM-7 SPARROW missiles from the F-14 aircraft.

3. LAU-93 Guided Missile Launcher: Is used for carriage and ejection launch of the PHOENIX missile from the F-14A/B aircraft.

4. LAU-132 Guided Missile Launcher Is similar in appearance and operation to the LAU-93 launcher.

5. LAU-115 Series Guided Missile Launcher: Is a rail launcher designed for carriage and launch of AIM-7 missiles from F/A-18 aircraft.

6. LAU-116/A, LAU-116A/A, and LAU-116B/A Guided Missile Launchers: Provides for the carriage and launch of theAIM-7 series SPARROW missile from the F/A-18A aircraft.

7. LAU-117/A(V)2/A Guided Missile Launcher: Is designed to carry and launch the AGM-65 MAVERICK missile.

8. LAU-118(V)1/A Guided Missile Launcher: Provides the mechanical and electrical interface between the aircraft and the AGM-88B/CHARM missiles.

9. LAU-127 Series: Is a rail launcher designed for carriage and launch of AIM-120 or AIM-9 missiles from F/A-18C/D aircraft

10. M272/M299 Guided Missile Launcher: Provide carriage and launch of the HELLFIRE missile.

11. TOW Missile Launcher: Is used on the AH-1 series aircraft to carry and launch the TOW missile.

2. Intermediate Level Maintenance Responsibilities.

IMAs perform higher level maintenance actions on aircraft armament equipment in support of the organizational level. Intermediate level maintenance for aircraft armament equipment includes those inspection, repair, and technical directive incorporation functions which are beyond the organizational level’s capability but which do not necessitate depot level support. All maintenance actions are to be performed in accordance with the applicable authorized Naval Air Systems Command Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIM) shown in volume II, section 7, figure 7-1-3, and NAVAIR 01-1A-75 (Airborne Weapons and Associated Equipment, Consumable Material Applications and Hazardous Material Authorized Use List)(NOTAL). Aircraft armament equipment inducted into an IMA must be inspected immediately to ensure that all cartridges and nitrogen receivers have been removed and that the aircraft armament equipment is completely safe. The receiving IMA must also ensure that scheduled removal component cards or equipment history record cards received with the aircraft armament equipment are current and accurate

3. Assignment of Depot Level Responsibilities. Depot maintenance activities perform higher level maintenance actions on aircraft armament equipment in support of the intermediate level and organizational level. Depot level maintenance for aircraft armament equipment includes all those inspection, repair, and technical directive incorporation functions which are beyond the capability of intermediate level maintenance. Depot level maintenance personnel perform rework and renovation actions on aircraft armament equipment items to allow the items to complete or extend their service life. The activities assigned to perform depot level maintenance on aircraft armament equipment are listed in volume II, section 7, figures 7-4-1 and 7-4-2.

4. Responsibilities Of:

a. NAVSURFWARCEN Crane, IN stores War Reserve AAE, and certain AAE having Foreign Military applications. Reporting requirements for this material is separately governed.

b. Type Commanders will collect, consolidate and submit quarterly AAE Inventory Reports to COMNAVAIRSYSCOM, PMA-201. Reports will be transmitted by Naval Message, due 15 October, 15 January, 15 April, and 15 July.

c. NAVAIR PMA-201/AIR 3.1.1K will consolidate the Tycom reports and utilize the worldwide inventory data as the basis for preparing the AAE Asset Status Matrix. The matrix will project the current inventory 10 years into the future. The projected inventory will be weighed against then year aircraft populations to identify out year shortages or excesses. The most current model detail of the Aircraft Program Data File is the sole source document to be used for planning out year Program Active Aircraft Inventories. Data contained in the U.S. Navy Aircraft Budget Exhibit A-II will be used to determine numbers of aircraft in roles other than tactical, training or research and development for which certain AAE may be required. The Asset Status Matrix will be produced at least annually, or more often should circumstances warrant, and distributed to concerned officials.

d. When the AAE Asset Status Matrix identifies an out-year shortage, PMA-201 will advise the cognizant type aircraft Program Manager of the impending shortfall, in order for a timely procurement decision to be made.

e. When the AAE Asset Status Matrix identifies GFE material in excess to operational requirements, as may occur when an aircraft model is being phased out of service, PMA-201will advise production aircraft Program Managers that the excess may be made available in lieu of new procurement.

5. AAE Inventory Reporting Requirements: An AAE Inventory Reporting System has been in effect within the Aviation Ordnance community for 30 plus years. Type commander reports form the basis for projecting readiness posture, justifying new procurements, monitoring technical directive incorporation status, change kit procurement quantities and numerous other details requiring specific inventory data.

6. Format. The following pages list item numbers for each uniquely part numbered item of AAE. The listing contains only those items for which CNO/NAVAIR requires inventory data. Certain Non-4Z COG items such as F/A-18 Pylons and F-14 Weapon Rails are included, as these directly affect readiness. Reporting TYCOM’s may require additional item reporting from subordinate units and may add line items for their individual feeder reports as required. Report cutoff date is the last day of each calendar quarter and due at NAVAIR fifteen days later. Reports will be in column format, A thru E as follows:

a. A-Line Item Number

b. B-Total quantity of installed and uninstalled items, all condition codes.

c. C-Total quantity in Condition Code (A).

d. D-Total quantity of combat, non-combat losses.

e. E-Notes. Use numerics and amplify column B gains over the reporting period, and column D losses such as transfers to other custodians, BCMs, combat loss, etc.

.10 Discuss the management aspects of the ready service locker. [ref. f]

Lockers are often provided for stowage of special types of ammunition and ammunition components such as detonators, pyrotechnics, and chemicals. Ready service locker (RSL), a locker normally located on the weather deck for stowage of emergency issue ammunition items, to provide stowage for items returned unexpended from aircraft flights, or to stow items requiring emergency jettisoning.

Ready-Service Magazine - A magazine located in the magazine area (or near the weapon or area to be served aboard ship) and used for the temporary storage of restricted amounts of ammunition for emergency use; or in an operating line for limited amounts of explosives or components used in the production of ammunition.

Note:

a) Designated smoking areas are forbidden within 10 feet of launchers, magazine areas, handling and loading areas or ready-service lockers.

b) Magazine accesses and ready-service lockers shall be fitted with high

security locking devices in accordance with OPNAVINST 5530.13 (series).

c) Each authorized ammunition stowage space must be identified with an external label plate designating the compartment number and type of stowage.

* Generally used to store small quantities of belted or boxed small arms ammunition, certain pyrotechnics, and similar material that present fire, but no blast, hazard. Ready service lockers may be located in hangers or arming areas provided that construction and location are approved by NOSSA or NOSSA LANTDIV/PACDIV ESSO and are compatible with the regulations of the commands concerned. Approval of proposed locations generally is granted on the basis of operational necessity.

.11 Define and discuss the following armament reports:

a. NCEA [ref. i, ch. 2]: Non-Combat Expenditure Allocation (NCEA).

* Naval Ammunition Logistics Center (NAVAMMOLOGCEN) develops a proposed NCEA based on an assessment of the TTCOR, the NNOR, past expenditures, current inventory posture, projected deliveries, maintain requirements and acquisition/program managers inputs. The proposed allocations are submitted to CNO (N7) resource sponsors for concurrence/revision.

a. NAVAMMOLOGCEN consolidates and distributes the proposed NCEA to major claimants for review prior to the annual NCEA conference. The NCEA conference is the forum for major claimants and CNO (N7) resource sponsors to have the opportunity to discuss current issues, concerns and readiness impacts of the proposed allocations. Revisions to the proposed allocations can only be authorized by the CNO (N7) resource sponsors.

b. The annual NCEA forum results in finalization of the next year initial allocations which NAVAMMOLOGCEN forwards, with the promulgation letter, to the NCEA policy sponsor CNO (N411) for approval.

c. Major claimants are notified by NAVAMMOLOGCEN when the approved NCEA has been loaded into Conventional Ammunition Integrated Management System(CAIMS) for their subsequent sub-allocations by Naval message. The NCEA is effective 1 October annually.

b. NCER [ref. i, ch. 2] Non-Combat Expenditure Requirements (NCER)

* General: Non-Combat expenditure is the term for all expenditures of ordnance other than for use in combat operations. Testing, Training and Current Operational Requirements (TTCOR) serves as the baseline for the development of NCEA. NCEA supports the follows:

a. Training/Exercises afloat and ashore to maintain a proficiency level of readiness for combat.

b. Test expenditures including Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E) for out of production ordnance items, ordnance evaluation and structural firings.

c. Current Operational Requirements (COR) is defined as the quantity of munitions encompassing peacetime operational requirements and supports the following:

(1) Natural Disasters.

(2) Riot Control.

(3) Saluting Rounds.

(4) Explosive Ordnance Disposal.

(5) Operations Other than War.

(6) Competitive Marksmanship Training and Competitions.

(7) Force Protection and Physical Security.

(8) Requirements for small scale contingencies are not to be COR.

* Projection Source: Generally, requirements for a and b are predictable and can be projected for the upcoming fiscal year and 9 out years. For the other expenditures, prior year actual expenditure data should be analyzed to provide the basis for projecting out year requirements.

* TTCOR Major Claimants: Activity requirements are submitted via the chain of command by 1 October. Those requirements are consolidated by major claimants for submission to the CNO(due on 1 January annually

for the upcoming fiscal year and 2 out years). The major claimants are listed in the current NAVSUP P-724 (NOTAL), Appendix A along with their authorized sub-claimants.

c ATR [ref. i, ch. 6]: Ammunition Transaction Report (ATR)s are submitted by naval message on an “as-occurring” basis within 24 hours of a reportable transaction by activities afloat and ashore (and commercial contractors when required), that are not on the TIR system. Under ATR reporting, the day’s transactions and the opening and closing balances are reported by DoDIC/ NALC for each active item. ATR reports are designed to categorize, among other things, end-use expenditures and allow for explanatory remarks.

* Reportable Actions. ATR are used to report ammunition supply transactions by Naval activities and commercial ordnance and handling activities that do not have a Transaction Item Reporting (TIR) capability. ATR is a method of reporting transactions involving Naval conventional ordnance. ATRs are transmitted via formatted message for all transaction types, used variable length transaction lines.

a. All Navy-owned material assigned a DoDIC/ NALC is reported by the ATR activities. An initial report is compiled to establish balances, subsequent reports are compiled to submit receipts, issues, expenditures, inventory adjustments and maintenance transactions.

b. Negative reports and asset status summary cards are not required for ATRs, since a running summary is maintained by NAVAMMOLOGCEN based on the initial activity report, containing the following:

(1) DoDIC/NALC of each item in stock.

(2) On hand last report.

(3) Quantity on board total.

(4) Quantity serviceable.

(5) Quantity unserviceable.

c. ATR Numbering: The initial ATR report is assigned “serial one.” Individual transactions are numbered serially from the initial report (e.g., serial one, serial two, ... serial thirty-nine ... etc.). The serial numbers are used by NAVAMMOLOGCEN to compare and adjust the CAIMS inventory balances recorded for the activity and to detect missing reports. ATRs are submitted by message.

d. AAE [ref. i, ch. 7]: Aircraft Armament Equipment includes all equipment that is designed to suspend, release, and launch ordnance from an aircraft. The maintenance, including calibration, inventory control, and reporting, of armament equipment is an integral part of the task of maintaining ordnance systems.

e. CODR [ref. j, ch. 5]: The Conventional Ordnance Deficiency Report

(CODR). A CODR is initiated upon detection of a malfunction, observed defect, induced defect, or improper storage involving conventional ordnance, explosives, ammunition, explosive systems, or devices, including weapon systems components that come in direct contact with the ordnance (e.g. ammunition, explosives, missiles) and armament/ handling/ support equipment used to fire, handle, load, deliver, store or transport ordnance.

* Conventional Ordnance Deficiency Reports (CODR) are submitted using the Deficiency Reporting Web (DRWEB) site and is required for all aviation, surface, shore and submarine activities per reference 3g and as defined in Glossary G-1 “Conventional Ordnance Deficiency Report.

f. EMR [ref. j, ch. 5]: Explosive Mishap Report (EMR) is initiated as a result of an accident or incident involving conventional ordnance, ammunition, explosives, explosive systems and devices resulting in an unintentional detonation, firing, deflagration, burning, launching of ordnance material (including all ordnance impacting off range), leaking or spilled propellant fuels and oxidizers (less OTTO fuel II), or chemical agent release. Even if an ordnance system works as designed, and human error contributed to an incident or accident, accident, the event shall also be reported as an Explosives Mishap.

.12 Discuss the following Plane Captain Qualification Program elements for your squadron: [ref. c, ch. 15; ref. f]

a. Program manager shall:

(1) Be knowledgeable of NAVAIR 00-80T-113, NAVAIR 00-80T-105, NAVAIR 00-80T-106, NWP-03-04.1, MIMs/MRCs (as appropriate), and this instruction.

(2) Conduct a formal training program as delineated by the training syllabus.

(3) Assign a highly experienced designated plane captain to each plane captain trainee. The designated plane captain shall serve as an instructor for the trainee, ensuring the trainee receives close supervision while performing assigned tasks. During the training cycle, trainees shall not be given full or final responsibility for inspection of the aircraft. This responsibility rests with the designated plane captain.

(4) Initiate the Plane Captain Designation (OPNAV 4790/158) and request a Plane Captain Selection and Examining Board once the trainee has completed all training requirements, passed the written and practical examinations, and is deemed fully prepared and capable of assuming the responsibilities of a plane captain. Designation forms shall be completed when the individual is qualified. Documentation of the designation shall be entered on page 4 of the individual’s Service Record (Section III of the US Marine Corps Enlisted Aviation Maintenance Personnel Training and Qualification Jacket). For each qualification, OPNAV 4790/158 shall be filed in the individual’s qualification/certification record. Personnel currently qualified in the same T/M/S aircraft from a previous command shall, as a minimum, demonstrate proficiency by practical examination and successfully complete a Plane Captain Selection Board prior to designation by the new command.

(5) Ensure designated plane captains assigned away from plane captain duties over 90 days receive refresher training (Figure 15-3) and are interviewed by the Program Manager prior to assuming plane captain duties.

(6) Ensure an adequate number of personnel are assigned under instruction to compensate for plane captain attrition. The total number of plane captain trainees shall be as determined by the MO.

(7) Maintain a program file to include:

(a) Applicable POCs.

(b) Program related correspondence and message traffic.

(c) Applicable references or cross reference locator sheets.

(d) A copy of Letter of Delegation of Authority from the CO (if applicable) to sign Plane Captain Designations and recertifications.

(8) Use CSEC information and reports (provided by the program monitor) to aid in identifying specific areas of concern and to determine what steps are required for program/process improvements.

(9) Ensure the MMP lists all currently designated plane captains.

b. Training requirements

* Complete all plane captain training syllabus requirements, successfully pass the Plane Captain Selection and Examining Board, and be designated in writing on the Plane Captain Designation (OPNAV 4790/158)

* Administer the written and practical application examinations for plane captain designations and recertifications (any QAR from the activity can administer the written portion of the examination). All plane captain trainees must obtain a minimum score of 90% on the plane captain examination

c. Designation/refresher procedures

* Initiate the Plane Captain Designation (OPNAV 4790/158) (Figure 15-2) and request a Plane Captain Selection and Examining Board once the trainee has completed all training requirements, passed the written and practical examinations, and is deemed fully prepared and capable of assuming the responsibilities of a plane captain.

* The designation of plane captains in no way nullifies the requirement for designating aircrewmen under current NATOPs instructions. In commands where flight engineers or crew chiefs perform the functions of a plane captain, completion of the training curriculum and the designation as a flight engineer or crew chief by the qualify the aircrewman for plane captain duties. In such cases, the flight engineer or the crew chief training syllabus must include all plane captain qualifications/requirements. Flight engineers and crew chiefs, qualified as plane captains per this paragraph, are not required to take a separate plane captain examination or appear before the Plane Captain Selection Board. In those commands where the flight engineer or crew chief training syllabus does not include plane captain qualification requirements personnel shall qualify as plane captains.

* Personnel currently qualified in the same T/M/S aircraft from a previous command shall, as a minimum, demonstrate proficiency by practical examination and successfully complete a Plane Captain Selection Board prior to designation by the new command.

d. Documentation

* All letters of designation, qualification, certification, course completion, medical certification, and completed maintenance related PQS shall be filed in the individual's qualification/ certification record

* Documentation of the designation shall be entered on page 4 of the individual’s Service Record (Section III of the US Marine Corps Enlisted Aviation Maintenance Personnel Training and Qualification Jacket). For each qualification, OPNAV 4790/158 shall be filed in the individual’s qualification/certification record.

f. Suspend or revoke designation

* Suspend or revoke designations of plane captains who display a disregard for safety or established aircraft maintenance/handling procedures. Designations shall only be reinstated after the individual has demonstrated the ability to properly perform the duties of a plane captain, completed plane captain refresher training syllabus, and appeared before the Plane Captain Selection and Examining Board.

.13 Identify the work centers that have troubleshooters and discuss their responsibilities. [ref. b, ch. 16; ref. f]

* Troubleshooters shall correct those discrepancies discovered during a launch or immediately preceding a launch that can be corrected quickly.

(1) Troubleshooters are responsible for providing a rapid means of troubleshooting and repairing discrepancies which occur or are discovered on the flight line. They act as technical advisors to plane captains to ensure timely completion of turnaround and daily inspections and to determine the extent and depth of flight line discrepancies.

(2) Troubleshooters must be knowledgeable in flight line operations, flight line safety, and the applicable aircraft systems.

.14 Recognize and describe the following visual hand signals to call the appropriate troubleshooter: [ref. k, ch. 1]

a. Engines

b. Electrical

c. Hydraulics

d. Oxygen

[pic]

.15 Discuss special requirements for external fuel tank storage.

[ref. f; ref. l, ch. 2]

* General safety issue?

* SYSTEM DESCRIPTION. The external fuel system consists of one, two or three external tanks mounted on the inboard wing pylons and/or centerline pylon. Each tank is attached by two suspension lugs and a jettison pivot and can be jettisoned selectively or all at once.

* Each tank provides storage for 2140 or 2240 pounds of fuel and contains components which will operate without electrical power for fuel transfer, refueling, pre-check and pressurization.

* Fuel and air probes in each external tank provide interface with the pylons for refuel, transfer and pressurization. Each tank is electrically connected to the pylon to provide fuel quantity gaging, to stop refuel/transfer and for electrical pre-check.

* Elliptical Aircraft Fuel Tank FPU-6/A. The elliptical external fuel tank is aluminum with fluid tight welded seams covered with a survivable shell. The tank has a capacity of 315 gallons (2140 pounds) and contains valves for controlling refuel, transfer and pressurization. When refueling, each tank can be manually or electrically pre-checked. Transfer and refueling can also be stopped electrically. The electrically operated valves are interfaced so that they are installed as an assembly.

* Cylindrical Aircraft Fuel Tank FPU-8/A. The cylindrical external tank is aluminum with fluid tight welded seams covered with a survivable shell. The tank has a capacity of 330 gallons (2240 pounds) and contains valves for controlling refuel, transfer and pressurization of the tank. When refueling, each tank can be manually or electrically pre-checked. Transfer and refueling can also be stopped electrically.

* Pressure operated valves control air pressure for tank transfer and prevent damage caused by over pressurization. The tank contains a fuel quantity transmitter for reporting fuel quantities to the fuel quantity gaging system.

* Tank electrical components are separately spliced in the drywell area and can be replaced individually. A fuel filler cap provides a method for alternate refueling.

.16 Discuss the following concerning aircraft painting:

a. Restrictions [ref. d, ch. 7]: COSMETIC PAINTING. Repainting solely for the sake of cosmetic appearance shall be avoided. Since common paint materials may take as many as seven days to completely cure, a faded or stained but well-bonded paint finish is more durable than a fresh touch-up treatment. Refinishing shall be performed only when existing paint finishes have deteriorated or have been damaged, or when removal of the existing paint system is necessary for corrosion corrective actions.

* SAFETY: Paint materials, including primers and solvents, are toxic and flammable. It is essential to properly store, handle, and apply these materials to prevent fires and to minimize exposure to solvent vapors and paint overspray mist. All personnel involved with paint operations shall read, understand, and follow OPNAVINST 5100.23 and A1-NAOSH-SAF-000/ P-5100-1. Consult the local Occupational Safety and Health Office or Industrial Hygiene Activity for these references and appropriate safety precautions pertinent to specific sites. Consult applicable material safety data sheets (MSDSs) supplied by the manufacturer for information on specific material hazards. Additional safety information may be obtained from the Hazardous Material Users Guide (HMUG) and DOD 6050.5-LR.

b. Training requirements for painters [ref. c, ch. 14; ref. d, ch. 1]

* Individuals shall complete the Aircraft Paint Touch Up and Markings course (Course N-701-0014) or Aircraft Paint/Finish course (Course C-600-3182) prior to painting aircraft/SE. This qualification is valid for an unlimited period.

NOTE: Activities may use qualified NATEC personnel to instruct the Aircraft Corrosion Control course (Course N-701-0013) and the Aircraft Paint Touch Up and Markings course (Course N-701- 0014).

For Your Information!

2. VIBRATION TERMINOLOGY.

a. In order to have a complete understanding of the vibration tasks to be performed, several terms and concepts must be mastered. This section will attempt to give the reader a working knowledge of these terms and concepts.

(1) What is vibration? Vibration can be defined as a pulsating motion of a machine part from its original place of rest. This definition can be represented by the formula:

VIBRATION AMPLITUDE RESPONSE = DYNAMIC FORCE / DYNAMIC RESISTANCE

(2) Most vibrations are sinusoidal or nearly so. A sinusoid is a waveform that smoothly oscillates between a positive and negative value. Three qualities are required to describe a sinusoidal vibration like this: frequency, amplitude, and phase.

(a) Frequency is the number of complete cycles in a given amount of time. It is expressed in cycles per minute (cpm or rpm) or cycles per second (cps or Hertz, Hz). Amplitude is the size or magnitude of the maximum displacement, velocity or acceleration. These quantities will be described in more detail in later paragraphs. Phase is a measure of lag time from when the force is maximum to when the response is maximum. Phase is usually measured as a fraction of a circle in degrees (0 to 360) or hours on a clock (1 o’clock to 12 o’clock).

(3) Displacement (usually measured in mil’s, thousandths of an inch peak to peak) is a measure of how much physical movement the transducer sees. The imbalance force produces a vibration whose displacement has approximately the same waveform as the force.

(4) Velocity (usually measured in inches per second, IPS, 0 to peak) is the time rate of change of displacement or how fast the transducer is moving. A simple way to understand velocity is to think of your car. If you travel 10 miles (displacement) in one hour, then you must drive at a velocity of ten miles per hour. Velocity in vibration is the same thing. It’s how many inches the transducer will move in one second. Notice that the maximum velocity is reached when the displacement is zero and the maximum displacement occurs when the velocity is zero. Because of this velocity and displacement are said to be 90 degrees out of phase with each other.

(5) Acceleration (usually measured in g’s RMS) is the time rate of change of velocity. Notice that the acceleration waveform is 90 degrees out of phase with velocity and 180 degrees out of phase with displacement.

(6) Since acceleration, velocity, and displacement are interrelated it is easy to convert from one to the other. The following equations can be used to make these conversions should the need arise.

DISPLACEMENT (MIL’S PEAK TO PEAK) = 19098 x (IPS) / (RPM)

g’s = 0.00027 x (IPS) x (RPM)

(7) Measuring in displacement greatly emphasizes all low frequency energy and shows almost no high frequency energy where displacements are very small. Acceleration on the other hand emphasizes high frequency energy while reducing low frequency energy. Velocity gives fairly equal weight to both high and low frequencies. The fact that velocity is a good measure of damage, almost independent of rotational speed, makes it a good parameter for general monitoring work. The U.S. Navy has currently elected to use only velocity (IPS) as a measurement for vibration analysis.

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