HAAP Final Exam
HAAP Final Exam
1. What are the reasons for using an otoblock when taking an ear impression?
a. To ensure that impression material does not encroach on the eardrum
b. It can be used to help remove material if the impression should break
c. It assures a complete canal cross section
d. All of the above
2. Why do we use vents, in addition to providing pressure relief?
a. To enhance natural low frequencies
b. For high frequency reduction
c. For low frequency reduction
d. To allow the middle ear to breathe
3. Which would be most appropriate for a patient/client with a profound hearing loss?
a. BTEs, acrylic earmolds with short canal and #16 tubing
b. BTEs, soft earmolds, #13 thick wall tubing
c. Bilateral full shell ITEs
d. RICs with vented acrylic earmolds
4. A 54-year-old male patient/client with normal hearing through 1KHz followed by a precipitous drop in thresholds would do best with
a. Non-occluding earmolds
b. Skeleton earmolds with Select-A-Vent
c. ITC instruments
d. A compression circuit
5. Which venting configuration is preferred because it does not affect high frequencies?
a. Diagonal
b. External
c. Parallel
d. Through the cavity
6. High frequencies can be enhanced by
a. A horn bore
b. A belled canal
c. Larger I.D. tubing
d. All of the above
7. Which is NOT a required step in taking an ear impression?
a. Inspect ear with otolight
b. Lubricate the otoblock
c. Brace the patient/client’s head to prevent movement
d. Keep the tip in the material until impression is complete
8. The otoblock must be
a. Placed at the first bend of the canal
b. The same diameter as the aperture
c. Square in the canal; not skewed
d. Placed using the otoscope
9. Why must impression material be mixed until it is a consistent color?
a. So it can cure properly
b. So it looks good
c. So it will flow through the syringe easily
d. So the lab can use it more easily
10. Limiting the output of a hearing aid becomes necessary when
a. The low frequencies are not well understood
b. The frequency range becomes wider
c. Harmonic distortion increases
d. The patient/client’s tolerance decreases
11. A T-coil in a hearing aid allows the patient/client to hear
a. Over the telephone along with room conversation
b. Over the telephone but excluding room conversation
c. Better in noisy listening environments
d. Over the telephone on all telephones
12. When selecting a hearing aid, the most important electroacoustic characteristic is the
a. Output sound pressure level
b. Average gain
c. Frequency response
d. Battery life
13. When fitting binaural instruments, you can generally expect to need about _______ less gain than if you were fitting a monaural instrument.
a. 0 dB
b. 3-5 dB
c. 8-10 dB
d. 11-13 dB
14. The output sound pressure level should
a. Often be between 120 and 130 dB
b. For tolerance problems, be less than 120 dB
c. Never exceed the patient/client’s UCL
d. All of the above
15. Fitting formulas
a. Provide exact fitting information
b. Are complicated in most instances
c. Provide a good starting point for the fitting
d. Are relatively recent in origin
16. A stroke victim is most likely to be able to handle which of these hearing aid styles?
a. RIC
b. BTE
c. ITE
d. CIC
17. Style selection should ideally be decided by
a. The fitter, the patient/client and the family
b. The fitter alone
c. The patient/client alone
d. The audiogram alone
18. You are fitting a new BTE. The instrument and shell mold have been properly inserted and the volume is adjusted to a comfortable listening level. The patient/client complains that her own voice has an echo, but says that yours is OK. What is the first adjustment you would try?
a. Add a filter to the coupler
b. Reduce the low-frequency response
c. Reduce the gain
d. Shorten the canal on the earmold
19. A hearing aid can be likened to a portable
a. Citizen’s Band unit
b. Public address system
c. Radio
d. Telephone pick-up
20. Harmonic distortion is a result of __________________ the hearing aid amplifier.
a. Undershooting
b. Breaking
c. Modifying
d. Overloading
21. The amplifier
a. Provides gain
b. Provides a platform on which the rest of the instrument sits
c. Converts acoustic energy into electrical energy
d. Converts electrical energy into acoustic energy
22. The receiver is
a. A transistor
b. A link to the microphone
c. An output transducer
d. Always very powerful
23. Amplifiers
a. Amplify into infinity
b. Never have resistors and transistors together
c. Are primarily Class C
d. Consist of capacitors, resistors and transistors
24. Linear amplification refers to
a. The electrical signal going straight into the ear
b. A 1:1 ratio between the amplifier and the receiver
c. A 1:1 ratio between input and output
d. A compression circuit
25. Compression circuits in hearing aids are used to control
a. Low frequencies
b. Maximum OSPL
c. Usable frequency range
d. Acoustic feedback
26. Today’s hearing instruments contain largely ____________ amplifiers
a. Digital
b. Analog
c. Class A
d. Phase shifting
27. Which of the following is a transducer?
a. Volume control
b. Capacitor
c. Microphone
d. Integrated circuit
28. The three major elements in the use of electricity are
a. Current, voltage, resistance
b. Current, sound pressure, resistance
c. Current, power, resistance
d. Power, voltage, battery drain
29. The function of a microphone is to
a. Amplify the acoustic signal
b. Pick up electro-magnetic signals
c. Convert electrical energy into acoustic energy
d. Convert acoustic energy into electrical energy
30. Acoustic gain is measured in
a. Dynes/cm2
b. Hertz
c. Decibels SPL
d. Decibels HL
31. The integrated circuit was first introduced in hearing aids about
a. 1962
b. 1964
c. 1968
d. 1970
32. Transistors were first used in hearing aids in
a. 1945
b. 1952
c. 1957
d. 1963
33. What are the three main parts of a hearing aid?
a. Microphone, battery, ear hook
b. Volume control, amplifier, battery
c. Microphone, amplifier, receiver
d. Receiver, earmold, T-coil
34. The maximum output of a hearing aid is called the
a. Maximum gain
b. Frequency response
c. Saturation hearing level
d. None of the above
35. What frequencies are used to calculate HF-Average Full-On Gain?
a. 500, 1500, 2000 Hz
b. 500, 100, 2000 Hz
c. 1000, 1600, 2500 Hz
d. 1000, 2000, 5000 Hz
36. The best tool to determine threshold levels is
a. the tympanogram
1 the audiogram
b. tuning forks
c. the acoustic reflex
37. In exploring for puretone thresholds use
a. the descending method
b. the ascending method
2 the modified ascending-descending method
c. a continuous tone
38. Bone conduction does not
a. bypass the external ear
b. bypass the middle ear
3 bypass the inner ear
c. both B and C
39. The vertical axis of an audiogram represents
a. the frequency of the test tone in dB HL
b. the frequency of the test tone in Hz
c. the level of the test tone is Hz
4 the level of the test tone in dB HL
40. Generally bone conduction oscillators do not produce more than
a. 40 dB HL
b. 50 dB HL
5 70 dB HL
c. 90 dB HL
41. SL means
a. sound level
b. speech level
6 sensation level
c. sound pressure level
42. The decrease in energy of sound intensity as it travels from one ear to the other is called
a. binaural fusion
b. the occlusion effect
7 interaural attenuation
c. tone decay
43. An audiometer is an electronic instrument that generates tones of different
a. Hz and dB SPL
8 frequency and intensity
b. phase and duration
c. Timbre and intensity
44. The ____________________ on an audiometer is used to present tones in either continuous or pulsed bursts.
a. monitor
9 interrupter button/switch
b. attenuator dial
c. output button/switch
45. Bracketing refers to
10 descending in 10 dB steps, and ascending to 5 dB steps
11 descending in 15 dB steps, and ascending to 10 dB steps
12 descending in 5 dB steps, and ascending to 10 dB steps
13 descending in 5 dB steps, and ascending in 5 dB steps
46. When giving instructions during testing, it is important to
14 make sure the client can understand the test instructions
15 provide test stimulus examples, if needed
16 keep from rushing the client
17 all of the above
47. If an air conducted signal is presented through earphones at a loud enough level
18 it may be entirely reflected as thermal energy
19 it may produce a false positive response
20 it may change to a bone conducted signal transmitting through the mastoid process
21 it may block high frequency transmission
48. 750 Hz and 1500 Hz should be tested when there is
22 a 15 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves
23 a 20 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves
24 a 40 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves
25 none of the above
49. Good test conditions include
26 a quiet environment
27 thorough client instructions
28 a properly calibrated audiometer
29 all of the above
50. The difference between an equal loudness contour graph and an audiogram is that
30 one uses Hertz, while the other uses decibels
31 one is referenced to Hertz, while the other is referenced to sones
32 one is referenced to absolute sound pressure levels, while the other is referenced to normal hearing levels
33 all of the above
51. If there is a difference of 15 to 20 dB HL or more between 500 Hz and 1000 Hz or between 1000 Hz and 2000 Hz, the PTA is computed by
34 selecting the 2 frequencies that show that the most loss, adding these thresholds and dividing by 2
35 selecting the 2 frequencies that show the least loss, adding these thresholds and dividing by 2
36 selecting the mid octaves of 750 Hz and 1500 Hz, adding these thresholds and dividing by 2
37 selecting either adjoining octaves 500 Hz and 1000 Hz or 1000 Hz and 2000 Hz, adding these thresholds with the mid octave of either 750 Hz or 1500 Hz, and dividing by 3
52. The horizontal axis of an audiogram represents the
38 frequency of the test tone in dB HL
39 frequency of the test tone in Hz
40 loudness level of the test tone in HL
41 loudness level of the test tone in dB HL
53. The purpose of turning the subject before testing is
42 to avoid getting confused about which ear is which
43 to keep the subject from seeing how inept you are
44 to surprise the subject into telling the truth during the test
45 to keep the subject from seeing the results of the test and thereby influencing test responses
54. The interaural attenuation value used at all frequencies for bone conduction puretone testing is
46 0 dB HL
47 20 dB HL
48 40 dB HL
49 60 dB HL
55. In bone conduction testing, ambient room noise will cause
50 high frequency thresholds to appear poorer
51 mid frequency thresholds to appear poorer
52 low frequency thresholds to appear poorer
53 all frequency thresholds to appear poorer
56. The proper way to place earphones on a client is
54 blue earphone on right ear, red earphone on left ear
55 red earphone on right ear, blue earphone on left ear
56 either color can go on either ear
57 dependent upon the calibration method used
57. A case history is taken prior to testing in order to
58 establish confidence
59 determine medical referrals
60 determine which tests are necessary
61 all of the above
58. 1000 Hz is tested twice because
62 To establish test/retest reliability
63 it is the most important speech frequency
64 it is the hardest tone to hear
65 both A and B
The internal adjustment of the audiometer to ANSI standards is called
67 attenuation
68 a biological check
69 calibration
70 loudness balance
59. The vertical axis of an audiogram represents
a. the frequency of the test tone in dB HL
b. the frequency of the test tone in Hz
c. the level of the test tone is Hz
71 the level of the test tone in dB HL
60. When masking the left ear in air conduction, the symbol used for threshold notation is
a. triangle
b. left bracket
c. right bracket
d. square
61. Effective masking indicates that the noise level of the masking sound had been adjusted to just barely mask a pure tone if the two signals were presented in
a. the same ear
b. the opposite ears
c. a sound field
d. a free field
62. The symbol for a masked air conduction threshold on the right ear is a
a. square
b. triangle
c. bracket
d. arrowhead
63. Masking is used to
a. prevent cross hearing
b. eliminate small air/bone gaps
c. verify thresholds when large differences exist between ears
d. all of the above
64. Undermasking occurs most often in
a. air conduction testing
b. bone conduction testing
c. speech audiometry
d. sound field testing
65. Overmasking occurs most often in
a. air conduction
b. bone conduction testing
c. speech audiometry
d. sound field testing
66. The most effective masking for speech testing is
a. narrowband noise
b. noise shaped to resemble speech
c. a competing multitalker speech signal
d. white noise
67. Effective masking is reached by
a. plateau and bracketing
b. bracketing, threshold and plateau
c. threshold and bracketing
d. none of the above
68. The ear receiving the test stimuli during any masking procedure is referred to as the
a. test ear
b. non-test ear
c. non-competing ear
d. better ear
69. Narrowband noise is
a. actually a variation of white noise
b. produced by selective narrowband electronic active filtering
c. considered more effective for pure tone masking
d. all of the above
70. If the Weber test lateralizes to the left ear, and is identified as the lesser sensorineural loss, then
a. the left ear should be masked first
b. the right ear should be masked first
c. both ears should be masked, in either order
d. masking is not required in either ear
71. The level that effective masking begins is
a. 20 dB HL
b. 30 dB HL
c. 40 dB HL
d. 50 dB HL
72. The branch of physics dealing with sound is
a. Audiology
b. Otology
c. Acoustics
d. Optometry
73. What is required for sound?
a. Sound source
b. Force
c. Medium
d. Hearing mechanism
e. All of the above
74. Sound travels in
a. Transverse waves
b. Vacuums
c. Air only
d. Longitudinal waves
75. A cycle is made up of
a. One compression
b. One rarefaction
c. A and B
d. None of the above
76. A sine wave is
a. A mathematical computation
b. A graph of one compression and one rarefaction
c. A graph showing distortion in the signal
d. A signal that only a hearing aid can receive
77. The sound created by simple alterations of compression and rarefaction is called a
a. Difference tone
b. Aperiodic
c. Periodic
d. Pure tone
78. The frequency where a sound source vibrates easiest is
a. Resonance
b. Reflection
c. Reverberation
d. Absorption
79. Sound travels faster
a. At lower temperatures
b. At higher temperatures
c. Through vacuums
d. None of the above
80. What type of surfaces reflects more sound?
a. Flat and hard surfaces
b. Uneven or porous surfaces
c. Carpets, upholstery and draperies
d. Water or steel
81. A reflected sound which leaves a persistence of sound after the original sound stops is
a. A reverberation
b. An echo
c. Absorption
d. Resonance
82. Amplitude is
a. Measured in decibels
b. Psychologically perceived as loudness
c. Represented on the vertical axis of a sine wave
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
83. What does 0 dB SPL equal?
a. .0002 dynes/cm2
b. 10-16 watts/cm2
c. Audiometric zero
d. Patient’s threshold
e. All of the above
84. If two 30 dB SPL tones are presented at the same time, then how loud is the resulting sound?
a. 60 dB SPL
b. 36 dB SPL
c. 33 dB SPL
d. 0 dB because they cancel each other out
85. Loudness is measured in
a. Phons
b. Sones
c. Mels
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
86. A range of mels are?
a. phons
b. sones
c. critical bands
d. loudness
87. In impaired ears, widened critical bands reduce _____________
a. sounds
b. loudness
c. frequency resolution
d. reduced sound pressure
88. Widened critical bands make it hard to hear ________________
a. dynes
b. speech
c. noise
d. none of these
89. The lowest frequency component of speech is
a. Fundamental frequency
b. Harmonic
c. 120-250 Hz for men and 210-325 Hz for women
d. A and C
e. B and C
90. 21.What is the third harmonic if the fundamental frequency is 150 Hz?
a. 600 Hz
b. 450 Hz
c. 300 Hz
d. 153 Hz
91. Which sounds give clarity to speech?
a. Phonemes
b. Consonants
c. Vowels
d. All of the above
92. The _______________ is not a part of the external ear.
a. crus
b. helix
c. umbo
d. sebaceous gland
93. The narrowest point of the ear canal is the
a. promontory
b. second bend
c. annulus
d. isthmus
94. The tympanic membrane is approximately __________ times larger than the oval window.
a. 3
b. 10
c. 17
d. 20
95. The superior quadrant of the tympanic membrane refers to the ___________ portion.
a. bottom
b. front
c. top
d. rear
96. The structure that separates the scala tympani from the scala media is called
a. the basilar membrane
b. the spiral lamina
c. Reissner’s membrane
d. The epitympanic cavity
97. The anterior quadrant of the tympanic membrane refers to the ___________ portion.
a. bottom
b. front
c. top
d. rear
98. Electrical impulses that travel from the cochlea to the brain are called
a. afferent fibers
b. efferent fibers
c. cilia
d. synaptic junctions
99. The external auditory meatus
a. is 2ccs in volume
b. descends into the skull approximately 3 inches
c. enhances sound naturally between 3 KHz to 6 KHz
d. curves slightly upward, then slightly forward and downward
100. The semicircular canals are individually called
a. the ampullae, saccule and utricle
b. the superior, posterior and lateral
c. the superior, inferior and posterior
d. the anterior, inferior and posterior
101. The end of the malleus forms the innermost tip of the cone of the eardrum called the
a. incudo-stapedial joint
b. incus
c. umbo
d. annular ring
102. The average length of the external auditory meatus ranges from
a. ½ inch to 1 inch
b. 1 inch to 1 3/8 inches
c. 1 ½ inches to 2 3/5 inches
d. 2 inches to 2 ½ inches
103. The middle ear functions as a transducer of
a. acoustic energy to mechanical energy
b. mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
c. hydraulic energy to electrochemical energy
d. both A and B
104. The basilar membrane is __________ and __________ at the oval window.
a. broad/compliant
b. narrow/stiff
c. unattached/disarticulated
d. fixed/vascularized
105. The promontory is located
a. behind the pinna
b. in the epitympanic cavity
c. between the oval window and round window
d. above the pars flaccida
106. Reissner’s membrane separates the
a. scala media from the scala tympani
b. scala vestibule from the scala tympani
c. scala vestibule from the scala media
d. saccule from the utricle
107. The middle ear contains the
a. tectorial membrane
b. sebaceous glands
c. tensor tympani
d. scaphoid fossa
108. The semicircular canals contain
a. cortilymph
b. endolymph
c. perilymph
d. both B and C
109. The annular ring is part of the
a. tympanic membrane
b. cochlea
c. ossicular chain
d. Eustachian tube
110. The external auditory meatus is not
a. primarily cartilaginous
b. 2.3 cm to 2.9 cm in length
c. Free of sebaceous glands
d. S-shaped
111. A part of the middle ear includes the
a. epitympanic cavity
b. intertragal notch
c. scaphoid fossa
d. aperture
112. The afferent fibers
a. travel from the cochlea to the brain
b. travel from the brain to the cochlea
c. travel from the base to the apex of the cochlea
d. travel from the apex to the base of the cochlea
113. Low frequencies are perceived at the _______________ of the cochlea.
a. base
b. attic
c. apex
d. cupola
114. When sound strikes the tympanic membrane the frequency of the sound is
a. doubled
b. halved
c. increased by one and one-half times
d. approximately the same
115. A part of the helix is
a. the crus
b. the scala vestibule
c. the lobule
d. both A and C
116. Endolymph is
a. the fluid inside the cochlea that carries the vibrations of sound through the inner ear
b. protection to the membranous labyrinth from the bony labyrinth
c. secreted down from the ventricles of the brain
d. a fluid that generates ear wax in the auditory canal
117. Standards for the measurement of hearing aid characteristics are published by what organization?
a. Veterans Administration
b. American Audiometric Society
c. American National Standards Institute
d. United Organization of Standards
118. The maximum gain of a hearing aid is determined with the volume control set to
a. Full on
b. Reference test gain
c. Half on
d. Minimum
119. Reference test gain is determined by adjusting the gain control so that the average of the 1000, 1600 and 2500 Hz gain values are equal to the HF average OSPL90 minus ___ dB.
a. 20
b. 17
c. 10
d. 45
120. Attack and release times relate to
a. The test box signal
b. Distortion
c. Compression amplifiers
d. On-off switch characteristics
121. Which is not a coupler used in the test box?
a. HA-1
b. HA-2
c. CIC
d. HA-5
122. The hearing aid test box
a. Allows a comparison of an instrument’s performance with its specification
b. Is used directly to make adjustments on hearing aid circuits
c. Is difficult to use
d. Provides unrepeatable data
123. An air-bone gap signifies that the
a. Air conduction thresholds are worse than bone conduction thresholds
b. Air conduction thresholds are better than bone conduction thresholds
c. Loss is purely conductive
d. Loss is purely mixed
124. A pure conductive loss will show
a. All bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
b. All air conduction thresholds are better than bone conduction thresholds
c. Some bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
d. Both a and b
125. An audiogram with less loss at the high and low frequencies than in the middle frequency region is classified as a
a. Flat curve
b. Rising curve
c. Reverse curve
d. Cookie bite
126. PTA will describe which of the following audiogram classification fairly accurately?
a. Fragmentary
b. Flat loss
c. Sudden drop
d. Marked falling
127. Slope of loss can determine a successful fitting. A most favorable slope is
a. Flat, gradually falling or rising
b. Deep saucer shape
c. Sharp drop at a lower frequency
d. Irregular dips and peaks
128. Recruitment is most common in
a. conductive losses
b. central auditory processing disorders
c. cochlear losses
d. mixed losses
129. Ototoxic medications cause
a. damage to the spiral ganglia
b. Eustachian tube dysfunction
c. damage to the outer hair cells
d. damage to the stria vascularis
130. Early otosclerosis can be confused with a _____________ hearing loss.
a. conductive
b. sensorineural
c. mixed
d. central
131. A myringotomy is
a. an incision in the tympanic membrane
b. replacement of an ossicle
c. implantation of a cochlear implant
d. repair of a perforated tympanic membrane
132. The name of the surgical procedure, done in the past, which bypasses the oval window is called a
a. stapedectomy
b. tympanoplasty
c. myringotomy
d. radical mastoidectomy
133. Complete removal of the tympanic membrane and ossicular chain would result in
a. the oval window acting as a sonic mirror
b. diffraction preventing sound from traveling to the oval window
c. the external auditory meatus acting as a Helmholtz resonator
d. the sound pressure itself not being great enough to move the cochlear fluids
134. A person with a moderate sensorineural hearing loss will speak
a. In a normal voice
b. In a soft voice
c. In a louder voice
d. In a normal voice only in quiet environments
135. Impacted cerumen
a. Will not interfere with impression taking
b. Should be surgically removed
c. Will have little effect on audiometric tests
d. Is none of the above
136. Congenital hearing losses can be caused by
a. medications used by the mother
b. illness during pregnancy
c. inherited conditions
d. all of the above
137. Sensorineural hearing loss could be caused by
a. traumatic damage to the cochlea due to head injury
b. exposure of loud sounds
c. ototoxic medications
d. all of the above
138. A characteristic which is not part of a sensorineural hearing loss is
a. recruitment
b. tinnitus
c. otitis media
d. vertigo
139. Reduced discrimination ability in the absence of significant threshold loss, accompanying aging is called
a. Meniere’s syndrome
b. presbycusis
c. phonemic regression
d. diplacusis
140. Otosclerosis is
a. a bone disease
b. more common in women than in men
c. familial
d. all of the above
141. Presbycusis is
a. Psychogenic deafness
b. An abnormally shaped ear canal
c. Hearing loss due to age and loss of nerve capacity
d. Both A & C
142. Noises in the head such as roaring, hissing, buzzing or ringing is called
a. recruitment
b. trauma
c. tinnitus
d. fatigue
143. Loudness recruitment may be caused by
a. damage to the outer hair cells
b. loud noise exposure
c. ototoxic medications
d. all of the above
144. The type of hearing loss which results in a person speaking in a softer than normal voice is called
a. conductive
b. sensorineural
c. mixed
d. central
145. Changes in the spiral ganglia and hair cells are quite marked in
a. conductive losses
b. psychogenic losses
c. sensorineural losses
d. functional losses
146. An infection of the middle ear is called
a. eczema
b. otosclerosis
c. serous otitis media
d. suppurative otitis media
147. The cause for suppurative otitis media could be
a. a blocked Eustachian tube
b. glue ear
c. otosclerosis
d. otitis media
148. A small hole in the tympanic membrane can cause a loss of
a. 0 dB HL
b. 10 – 15 dB HL
c. 20 – 25 dB HL
d. 30 – 35 dB HL
149. While speech discrimination in conductive hearing loss is generally excellent, discrimination in sensorineural loss can best be described as
a. excellent
b. good
c. fair to good
d. poor
150. Hearing loss from noise exposure is usually due to
a. obstruction of the external canal
b. cochlear hair cell damage
c. overproduction of endolymph
d. labyrinthitis
151. A person with a mild hearing impairment
a. may have difficulty hearing faint and/or distant speech
b. would understand conversational speech only if it were loud
c. may show articulation problems in their speech
d. do not rely on hearing as their primary avenue of communication
152. Subjective tinnitus
a. is an acoustic sensation for which there is no external source
b. is always described as ringing
c. can be heard softly from outside the person’s ear
d. is most often treated by medication
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