Bronx High School of Science
AP US GOV FINAL REVIEW SHEET for Next Wednesday, 6/10/15
You will have 45 of the following 160 Multiple Choice, followed by an essay on the topics given at the end of this review sheet
1. The Supreme Court established the incorporation doctrine when the Court
A. interpreted the 14th Amendment as extending most of the requirements of the Bill of Rights to the states as well as the federal government
B. interpreted the 9th Amendment as requiring national health and worker-safety standards to protect the individual’s implied right of personal safety
C. stripped the armed forces of their discretionary powers regarding military service for gay men, lesbians, and married people
D. strengthened local police forces by granting them the power to investigate and prosecute federal offenses
E. granted the federal government the power to declare acts of Congress unconstitutional
2. The doctrine of original intent holds that
A. Supreme Court justices must emphasize independent and original thinking in considering constitutional matters
B. the meaning of the Constitution depends on the intention of the framers
C. cases selected for review by the Supreme Court must address an original and new concern not previously addressed by the Court
D. Supreme Court justices should avoid bias by documenting their original impressions of a case
E. the Supreme Court should review all treaties that alter previously established foreign policy
3. The concept of “critical elections” is most closely associated with
A. the electoral college process
B. elections during wartime
C. the nomination process
D. economic recession
E. party realignment
4. The most important source of the Supreme Court’s caseload is
A. its original jurisdiction
B. its appellate jurisdiction
C. instruction from the solicitor general
D. the special master’s certification of cases for review
E. Congress’s certification of cases for review
5. Which of the following did the most to expand civil rights in the 1950’s?
A. State legislative decisions desegregating public accommodations
B. State court decisions outlawing poll taxes
C. The passage of voting-rights legislation by Congress
D. Executive orders mandating affirmative action
E. The Supreme Court decision declaring state-mandated school segregation to be unconstitutional
6. Which of the following is true about the right of free speech, as currently interpreted by the Supreme Court?
A. It protects the right to express opinions even without the use of actual words
B. It protects the use of language deemed obscene by the courts
C. It allows citizens to disobey laws that they believe to be unjust
D. It is protected from infringement by the federal government but not from infringement by state governments
E. It cannot be limited in any manner
7. Supreme Court justices were given tenure (appointed for life) subject to good behavior by the framers of the Constitution in order to ensure that
(A) justices remain free from political pressures
(B) justices remain accountable to the public
(C) justices are encouraged to make politically popular decisions
(D) cooperation between the judicial and legislative branches is assured
(E) Presidents are encouraged to seek younger nominees for the Supreme Court
8. John Locke based his philosophy on which of the following principles of human nature?
(A) the desire for order
(B) the capacity to be rational
(C) the tendency to be submissive
(D) the inability to appreciate true freedom
(E) the tendency to be violent
(Questions 9 and 10 are based on the following quote)
“But when a long train of abuses and usurpations, pursuing invariably the same object, evinces a design to reduce them under absolute despotism, it is their right, it is their duty, to throw off such a government….”
9. The quote was written by
(A) Thomas Jefferson
(B) George Washington
(C) King George III
(D) Benjamin Franklin
(E) Martin Luther King Jr.
10. The quote most accurately reflects which principle of government?
(A) the self interest of humans
(B) federalism
(C) the social contract
(D) separation of powers
(E) states’ rights
11. All of the following were characteristics of the American government under the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT:
(A) The central government consisted of a Congress in which each state was represented equally
(B) Executive and judicial branches were created
(C) The central government could not regulate commerce between states
(D) The central government could not levy taxes
12. All of the following are basic principles underlying the Constitution EXCEPT:
(A) Federalism
(B) Separation of powers
(C) Checks and balances
(D) Popular Sovereignty
(E) Confederalism
13. Which of the following most accurately describes the legislature created by the Great Compromise (Connecticut Compromise)?
(A) a unicameral legislature selected by an electoral college
(B) a unicameral legislature selected by the state legislatures
(C) a bicameral legislature, with the lower house selected by the upper house
(D) an upper house appointed by the state legislatures and a lower house selected by popular vote
(E) a bicameral legislature, with both houses selected by popular vote
14. The importance of Shay’s Rebellion to the development of the United States Constitution was that it
(A) revealed the necessity of both adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution and creating a new system of checks and balances
(B) demonstrated the intensity of anti-ratification sentiment within the United States
(C) indicated that a strong, constitutionally designed national government was needed to protect property and maintain order
(D) convinced the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan
(E) reinforced the idea that slavery should be outlawed in the new Constitution
15. In a federal system of government (federalism), political power is primarily
(A) vested in local governments
(B) vested in regional governments
(C) vested in the central government
(D) divided between the central and regional governments
(E) divided between regional governments and local governments
16. Griswold v. Connecticut and Roe v. Wade are similar Supreme Court cases in that both cases are based on
(A) rights of gay men and women
(B) right of privacy
(C) right to an abortion
(D) right to freedom from cruel and unusual punishment
(E) right of women to equal protection before the law
17. The United States Constitution corrected a weakness in the Articles of Confederation by
(A) providing for the abolition (or termination) of slavery
(B) creating a process for territories to become states
(C) granting Congress sole control over interstate and foreign commerce
(D) banning the possession of guns by citizens during peacetime
18. Which action is an example of the unwritten constitution?
(A) formation of the first cabinet by President George Washington
(B) admission of Vermont and Kentucky as states
(C) enforcement of newly approved Congressional laws by President Obama
(D) declaration of war by Congress in 1812
19. The term “cooperative federalism” refers to a situation in which
(A) the federal government completely dominates state and local governments
(B) states are forbidden any activity that has not been specifically approved by the Supreme Court
(C) the federal judiciary uses its power of judicial review to ensure congressional dominance over state legislatures
(D) state, municipal, and local income taxes are pooled by special agreement and redistributed in accordance with individual need
(E) federal, state, and local governments work together to complete a project, with the federal government providing much of the project funding
20. The procedure for formally amending the United States Constitution best illustrates which of the following?
(A) The dominance of national government over the state governments
(B) The dominance of the state governments over the national government
(C) The Founding Fathers’ desire to facilitate rapid constitutional revisions
(D) The Supreme Court’s power to review constitutional amendments
(E) The federal structure of the United States government
21. The tenth amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to
(A) prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government
(B) reserve powers to the states
(C) restrict the application of judicial review
(D) allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protests
(E) limit the use of the legislative veto
22. Which of the following is true about the right of free speech, as currently interpreted by the Supreme Court?
(A) It protects the right to express opinions even without the actual use of words
(B) It protects the use of language deemed obscene by the courts
(C) It allows citizens to disobey laws that they believe to be unjust
(D) It is protected from infringement by the federal government but not from infringement by state governments
(E) It cannot be limited in any manner.
23. “The Congress shall have power…. to make all laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into execution the foregoing powers, and all other powers vested by this Constitution in the government of the United States, or in any department or officer thereof.”
The practical effect of the clause quoted above has been to
(A) make the legislature the most powerful branch of the national government
(B) allow the national government to extend its powers beyond those enumerated (listed) in the Constitution
(C) allow state governments to nullify (cancel) federal laws within their borders
(D) give the President uncontested powers in the area of foreign policy
(E) ensure that any powers not delegated by the Constitution to the United States government are reserved to the states and the people
24. Which of the following statements best describes how the United States citizens regard the rights of free speech and assembly?
(A) A majority agrees in principle with these rights, but in practice many people are often intolerant of views they do not support
(B) A majority actively supports these rights without any reservations
(C) A majority opposes these rights in principle
(D) The average citizen is more supportive of these rights than are members of the elite
(E) Conservatives have traditionally been more supportive of these rights than liberals
25. In contrast to revenue sharing, categorical grants-in-aid provide state and local governments with
(A) substantial discretion in deciding how to use the grants to solve their problems
(B) aid that reflects tax base and population
(C) the power to impose regressive taxes
(D) funds sufficient to support a high level of local service
(E) funds to administer programs clearly specified by the federal government
26. In Marbury v. Madison, the U.S. Supreme Court affirmed
(A) its right to determine the constitutionality of state court decisions
(B) its right to determine the constitutionality of state laws
(C) its right to determine the constitutionality of congressional enactments
(D) the sanctity of property rights against harassment by unfriendly state legislatures
(E) the broad scope of the federal government’s commerce power
27. Which action can be taken by the United States Supreme Court to illustrate the concept that the Constitution is “the supreme law of the land?”
(A) hiring new federal judges
(B) voting articles of impeachment
(C) declaring a state law unconstitutional
(D) rejecting a presidential nomination to the cabinet
28. Considering all elections at all levels of government, which of the following best describes electoral behavior in the U.S.?
(A) Primary elections tend to elicit a higher voter turnout than do general elections
(B) The majority of the electorate does not vote in most elections
(C) Voter turnout plays an insignificant role in election outcomes
(D) Adult citizens under the age of 30 tend to have the highest rate of voter turnout
(E) Voters with strong party identification vote less regularly than do independents
29. Which of the following best describes the organization of the two major political parties in the United States?
(A) Parties have no organization except at the national level
(B) Parties are centrally organized to provide a smooth transition from one national campaign to the next
(C) Parties are organized much like a large corporation, in that decisions flow from national to state and local levels
(D) Local and state parties virtually have no power in the party system
(E) Separate and largely independent party organizations exist at national, state, and local levels
(Un-numbered!) Which of the following best explains why delegates to both the Republican and Democratic Conventions in 1996 were much more likely to have college and postgraduate degrees than was the rest of the voting population?
(A) College education increases the likelihood of holding liberal political positions
(B) College education increases the likelihood of holding conservative political positions
(C) Political activism increases with education levels
(D) Education allows people to have more time to attend conventions
(E) Some states required delegates to hold college degrees
30. Which of the following is generally true of gerrymandering of congressional districts?
(A) It results in more Democrat being elected to the House
(B) It results in more Republicans being elected to the House
(C) It guarantees that all minority parties will be equally represented
(D) It creates districts that favor one political party
(E) It violates the principle of one-person, one-vote
31. Which of the following took place after presidential candidates Truman in 1948, Nixon in 1968, and Clinton in 1992 won only pluralities of the popular vote?
(A) The election was formally decided by the House of Representatives
(B) The election was formally decided by the Senate
(C) The winning candidate took office after receiving less than 50% of the popular votes cast
(D) The electoral college votes cast by independents were critical in determining the winner
(E) The results of the popular vote necessitated a runoff
32.. Of the following, the most important role in the political socialization of children is played by
(A) their peer groups
(B) their places of worship
(C) the family
(D) the media
(E) the school
33.. An election involving more than two candidates in which the person who receives the most votes is the winner is called
(A) a majority election
(B) a proportional election
(C) a plurality election
(D) a simple election
(E) an indirect election
34. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about political parties in the United States?
(A) Parties increasingly identify themselves with coherent ideologies to attract large blocs of voters
(B) The percentage of voters identifying themselves as either Democrats or Republicans has been declining since the 1970’s
(C) National party organizations are generally the strongest party organizations
(D) It is increasingly difficult for third parties to gain more than two percent of the popular vote
(E) Most candidates prefer to run as independents than as Democrats or Republicans
35. Which of the following is the most important influence on the choice made by voters in presidential elections?
(A) Partisan identification
(B) Party platform adopted at the national convention
(C) Vice-presidential running mate
(D) Endorsement by political incumbents
(E) Appeal of the candidates’ spouses
36. The advantages of incumbency in congressional elections include which of the following?
I. Incumbents receive more campaign contributions than do challengers
II. Incumbents are able to provide important services to individual voters
III. The government provides campaign funds for incumbents
IV. The President usually endorses incumbents for reelection
V. Most American voters believe Congress does a good job
(A) I and II only
(B) III and IV only
(C) I, IV, and V only
(D) II, III and V only
(E) III, IV, and V only
37. Political socialization is the process by which
(A) the use of private property is regulated by the government
(B) governments communicate with each other
(C) public attitudes toward government are measured and reported
(D) political values are passed to the next generation
(E) children are trained for successful occupations
38. In the 1992 election, the membership of Congress was altered significantly by an increase in the number of
(A) conservative Democrats
(B) liberal Republicans
(C) third-party representatives
(D) political independents
(E) minorities and women
39. The most common form of political activity undertaken by United States citizens is
(A) lobbying to influence decisions by public officials
(B) campaigning for candidates for office
(C) contributing money to a political party
(D) voting in local elections
(E) voting in presidential elections
40. Of the following, which group voted most heavily Democratic in presidential elections between 1964 and 1992?
(A) Mexican Americans
(B) Chinese Americans
(C) Jewish Americans
(D) Black Americans
(E) Roman Catholic Americans
41. The use of direct primaries instead of the convention system in selecting presidential candidates results in which of the following?
I. A weakening of party control over nominations
II. A reduction in the costs of election campaigns
III. An increase in the number of people involved in the choice of candidates
IV. An increase in voter turnout in midterm elections
(A) I and III only
(B) II and IV only
(C) III and IV only
(D) I, II, and III only
(E) I, II, III and IV
42. Which of the following is a correct statement about political action committees (PAC’s)?
(A) The number of PAC’s has remained stable over the past decade
(B) Most PAC money is distributed to challengers to unseat hostile incumbents
(C) The amount of money that PAC’s can contribute directly to an individual candidate is limited by law
(D) PAC’s are illegal in most states
(E) PAC’s rarely attempt to influence legislation through lobbying activities
43. Lobbyists try to influence legislators mainly through
(A) “wining and dining” legislators
(B) orchestrating petition drives and letter-writing campaigns
(C) placing persuasive advertisements in the media
(D) threatening to help the legislator’s opponent in the next election
(E) providing legislators with information on technical issues
44. Which of the following is a provision of federal election laws?
(A) A small fee must be paid by persons voting in federal elections
(B) On-site registration to vote must be permitted on the day of any federal election.
(C) Electoral districts must be apportioned to equalize the numbers of Democratic and Republican voters wherever a historic imbalance exists.
(D) Citizens must be automatically registered to vote on their eighteenth birthday
(E) In areas with significant populations of linguistic minorities, voting materials must be made available in the preferred languages of the population
45.. Of the following, the most important role in the political socialization of children is played by
(A) their peer groups
(B) their places of worship
(C) the family
(D) the media
(E) the school
46. Political action committees (PAC’s) representing which of the following groups have increased in number most substantially since the mid-1970’s?
(A) Labor
(B) Business
(C) Health-care professionals
(D) Veterans’ groups
(E) Civil rights advocates
47. A primary election in which voters are required to identify a party preference before the election and are not allowed to split their ticket is called
(A) an open primary
(B) a blanket primary
(C) a closed primary
(D) a runoff primary
(E) a presidential preference primary
48. When selecting a vice-presidential candidate, a presidential nominee is usually concerned primarily with choosing a running mate who
(A) has significant personal wealth
(B) adds balance and appeal to the national ticket
(C) comes from the same ideological wing of the party as the President
(D) can serve as the most important domestic policy adviser to the President
(E) can effectively preside over the Senate
49. Registered voters directly elect which of the following?
I. The President and Vice President
II. Supreme Court justices
III. Members of the Senate
IV. Members of the House of Representatives
(A) I only
(B) IV only
(C) I and II only
(D) III and IV only
(E) II, III and IV only
50. The role of a conference committee in Congress is to
(A) hold hearings on proposed legislation
(B) oversee the actions of the executive branch of the government
(C) decide which bills should be considered by the full Senate
(D) conduct hearings that make information available to the public
(E) reconcile differences in bills passed by the House and Senate
51. The committee system is more important in the House than in the Senate because
(A) the seniority system plays no role in the House and therefore committees must play a larger role
(B) the Constitution mandates the type of committee structure in the House
(C) committee members are appointed by the President
(D) the House is so large that more work can be accomplished in committees than on the floor
(E) the majority party in the House prefers to give priority to the work of the committees
52. Congressional standing committees are best described as
(A) specially appointed investigative bodies
(B) joint committees of the two houses of Congress
(C) committees created for each session
(D) permanent subject-matter committees
(E) advisory staff agencies
53. Which of the following statements about Congress is true?
(A) Members of Congress only occasionally are interested in and pay attention to constituents
(B) The legislative process is frequently lengthy, decentralized, and characterized by compromise and bargaining
(C) Lobbyists and political action committees (PAC’s) usually successfully induce most members of Congress to trade their votes for campaign contributions
(D) The growth in size of Congress as an organization is the principal cause of growth in the federal budget deficit
(E) Debate in both houses is structured by elaborate rules enacted by leaders of the majority party
54. In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court established which of the following principles?
(A) States cannot interfere with or tax the legitimate activities of the federal government
(B) The judicial branch cannot intervene in political disputes between the President and Congress
(C) The federal Bill of Rights places no limitations on the states
(D) The federal government has the power to regulate commerce
(E) It is within the judiciary’s authority to interpret the constitution
55. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about political parties in the U.S.?
(A) Parties increasingly identify themselves with coherent ideologies to attract large blocs of voters
(B) The percentage of voters identifying themselves as either Democrats or Republicans has been declining since the 1970’s
(C) National party organizations are generally the strongest party organizations
(D) It is increasingly difficult for third parties to gain more than 2 percent of the popular vote
(E) Most candidates prefer to run as independents rather than as Democrats or Republicans
56. The larges amount of political coverage in newspapers during presidential campaigns is devoted to
(A) day-to-day campaign activities
(B) the platforms of the major parties
(C) candidates’ policy stands on domestic issues
(D) candidates’ stands on foreign policy issues
(E) candidates’ experience and qualifications
57. In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court established which of the following principles?
(A) States cannot interfere with or tax the legitimate activities of the federal government
(B) The judicial branch cannot intervene in political disputes between the President and Congress
(C) The federal Bill of Rights places no limitations on the states
(D) The federal government has the power to regulate commerce
(E) It is within the judiciary’s authority to interpret the constitution
58. The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those powers
(A) not specifically granted to the national government or denied to the states
(B) implied in the 5th amendment
(C) listed specifically in the 10th amendment
(D) exercised by both national and state governments
(E) granted to states as part of the implied power doctrine
59. The establishment clause in the First Amendment does which of the following?
(A) Guarantees freedom of speech to all citizens
(B) Prevents prior restraint of the press
(C) Prohibits the setting up of a state church
(D) Defines the concept of dual citizenship
(E) Allows citizens to enter freely into contracts with other citizens
60. The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those powers
(A) not specifically granted to the national government or denied to the states
(B) implied in the Fifth Amendment
(C) listed specifically in the Tenth Amendment
(D) exercised by both national and state governments
(E) granted to states as part of the implied powers doctrine
61. Diversity of public policy throughout the United States is primarily a consequence of
(A) federalism
(B) separation of powers
(C) innovation within bureaucratic agencies
(D) decentralization in the Senate
(E) lack of party discipline in the House
62. The boundaries of United States congressional districts are usually determined by
(A) the Federal Election Commission (FEC)
(B) the state legislatures
(C) the House Rules Committee
(D) a conference committee of the House and Senate
(E) the director of the United States Census Bureau
63. Which of the following generalizations about group voting tendencies is true?
(A) Jewish voters tend to vote Republican
(B) Protestant voters tend to be more liberal than Roman Catholics on economic issues
(C) More women than men identify themselves as Republican
(D) Rural voters are more likely to support Democratic candidates than are urban voters
(E) African American Democrats tend to support the more liberal candidates within their party
64. In a federal system of government, political power is primarily
(A) vested in local governments
(B) vested in regional governments
(C) vested in the central government
(D) divided between the central and regional governments
(E) divided between regional governments and local governments
65. The importance of Shay’s Rebellion to the development of the United States Constitution was that it
(A) revealed the necessity of both adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution and creating a new system of checks and balances
(B) demonstrated the intensity of antiratification sentiment within the thirteen states
(C) indicated that a strong, constitutionally designed national government was needed to protect property and maintain order
(D) convinced the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan
(E) reinforced the idea that slavery should be outlawed in the new Constitution
66. Which of the following is true about the right of free speech, as currently interpreted by the Supreme Court?
(A) It protects the right to express opinions even without the use of actual words
(B) It protects the use of language deemed obscene by the courts
(C) It allows citizens to disobey laws that they believe to be unjust
(D) It is protected from infringement by the federal government but not from infringement by state governments
(E) It cannot be limited in any manner
67. Supreme Court justices were given tenure subject to good behavior by the framers of the Constitution in order to ensure that
(A) justices are free from direct political pressures
(B) justices remain accountable to the public
(C) justices are encouraged to make politically popular decisions
(D) cooperation between the judicial and legislative branches is assured
(E) Presidents are encouraged to seek younger nominees for the Supreme Court
68. Registered voters directly elect which of the following
I. The President and the Vice President
II. Supreme Court justices
III. Members of the Senate
IV. Members of the House
(A) I only
(B) IV only
(C) I and II only
(D) III and IV only
(E) II, III and IV only
69. Which of the following is an example of checks and balances, as established by the Constitution?
(A) A requirement that states lower their legal drinking age to eighteen as a condition of receiving funds through federal highway grant programs
(B) Media criticism of public officials during an election campaign period
(C) The Supreme Court’s ability to overturn a lower court decision
(D) The requirement that presidential appointments to the Supreme Court be approved by the Senate
(E) The election of the President by electoral college rather than direct election
70. Which of the following is NOT a core value of United States political culture?
(A) Legal equality
(B) Political equality
(C) Economic equality
(D) Freedom of religion
(E) Freedom of Speech
71. Which of the following was the most important effect of replacing the Articles of Confederation with the Constitution of 1787?
(A) the protection of free speech
(B) the guarantee of states’ rights
(C) the establishment of a direct democracy
(D) the creation of a strong national government
(E) the establishment of judicial review
72. An electoral system based on single-member districts is usually characterized by
(A) strong, centralized political parties and a weak executive
(B) higher rates of voter turnout than are common in other systems
(C) legislative representation of each party in proportion to the number of votes it receives
(D) domination of the legislature by two political parties
(E) ideological rather than mass-based parties
73. States and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from
(A) categorical grants
(B) matching grants
(C) block grants
(D) project grants
(E) grants-in-aid
74. The “wall of separation” doctrine refers to the
(A) division between levels of government
(B) unique powers possessed by each branch of government
(C) division of church and state
(D) barrier between legislative chambers
(E) differentiation of municipal powers from county powers
75. Which of the following is one of the central concerns of the First Amendment?
(A) The supremacy of the national over the state governments
(B) The right of citizens to bear arms
(C) The division of power among the three branches of government
(D) The right of citizens to petition government for a redress of grievances
(E) The protection of the rights of those accused of committing a crime
76. Which of the following is generally true of the gerrymandering of congressional districts?
(A) It results in more Democrats being elected to the House
(B) It results in more Republicans being elected to the House
(C) It guarantees that all minority parties will be equally represented
(D) It creates districts that favor one political party over another
(E) It violates the principle of one-person, one-vote
77. The procedure for formally amending the United States Constitution best illustrates which of the following?
(A) The dominance of national government over state governments
(B) The dominance of state governments over national governments
(C) The Founding Fathers’ desire to facilitate rapid constitutional revisions
(D) The Supreme Court’s power to review constitutional amendments
(E) The federal structure of the United States government
78. Of the following, which has been used most to expand the power of the national government?
(A) The commerce clause of the Constitution
(B) The First Amendment
(C) The Second Amendment
(D) The Tenth Amendment
(E) The habeas corpus (right to a trial) clause in the Constitution
79. The tenth amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to
(A) prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government
(B) reserve powers to the states
(C) restrict the application of judicial review
(D) allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest
(E) limit the use of the legislative veto
80. An important change in political culture since 1950 is that United States citizens have become
(A) more likely to believe that their actions can influence government policy
(B) more trusting of nongovernmental institutions and leaders
(C) less trusting of governmental institutions and leaders
(D) less supportive of school integration
(E) less likely to think of themselves as ideologically moderate
81. As originally ratified, the United States Constitution included provisions designed to
(A) limit the importation of foreign manufactured goods
(B) increase the economic importance of the agrarian sector relative to that of the manufacturing sector
(C) increase the economic powers of the central government
(D) expand the states’ powers to regulate their own commerce with foreign countries
(E) guarantee the states a greater role in economic policy-making
82. Compared to voters in a general election, voters in presidential primary elections are
(A) less likely to be members of political parties
(B) less likely to be well educated
(C) likely to be a larger percentage of the voting-age population
(D) more likely to be members of ethnic or racial minority groups
(E) more likely to be affluent
83. An interest group would likely have the greatest influence on policy matters involving
(A) narrow issues, only a few interest groups, and technical information
(B) broad, highly visible national issues
(C) broad foreign policy issues
(D) major constitutional questions about civil rights and liberties
(E) areas in which members of Congress have considerable expertise and commitment
84. The primary reason for the current existence of only two major political parties in the United States is that
(A) the Constitution puts severe restrictions on other parties
(B) third parties are usually far to the right or left, and Americans are moderates
(C) a winner-take-all electoral system makes it difficult for new parties to emerge and survive
(D) voters naturally think of themselves as either liberals or conservatives
(E) presidential electors can vote for only two candidates
85. Which of the following is true about divided party control of the presidency and Congress?
(A) It is a natural occurrence due to the constitutional system of checks and balances
(B) It rarely occurs in United States election, because of straight-ticket voting
(C) It promotes quick action by the President and Congress on such issues as the federal budget
(D) It reflects a frequent election pattern over the past three decades
(E) It results from the reapportionment of House seats after the decennial census
86. The legislative process at the national level reflects the intent of the framers of the Constitution to create a legislature that would
(A) be less powerful than the executive
(B) be cautious and deliberate
(C) involve as many citizens as possible
(D) ensure that all groups are equally represented
(E) allow majorities virtually unlimited control over policy
87. Which of the following statements best describes how United States citizens regard the rights of speech and assembly?
(A) A majority agrees in principle with these rights, but in practice many people are often intolerant of view they do not support
(B) A majority actively supports these rights without any reservations
(C) A majority opposes these rights in principle
(D) The average citizen is more supportive of these rights than members of the elite
(E) Conservatives have traditionally been more supportive of these rights than liberals
88. The framers of the Constitution all believed that one of the primary functions of government is
(A) educating citizens
(B) protecting individual property rights
(C) protecting new immigrants from persecution
(D) expanding the borders of the nation
(E) ensuring that anyone accused of a crime has the right to legal representation
89. In The Federalist papers, James Madison expressed the view that political factions
(A) should be nurtured by a free nation
(B) should play a minor role in any free nation
(C) are undesirable but inevitable in a free nation
(D) are central to the creation of a free nation
(E) are necessary to control the masses in a free nation
90. The most common criterion that people use when voting for a presidential candidate is the candidate’s
(A) views on specific issues
(B) party identification
(C) ideological position
(D) personal appearance
(E) fiscal policy
91. Which of the following committees of the House of Representatives sets the conditions for debate and amendment of most legislation?
(A) Ways and Means
(B) Appropriations
(C) Judiciary
(D) Rules
(E) Government Operations
92. Which of the following is NOT a presidential role authorized by the Constitution? (HINT: Remember that the framers of the Constitution were against factions)
(A) To be commander in chief of the armed forces
(B) To lead the political party of the President
(C) To negotiate treaties with foreign nations
(D) To be chief executive
(E) To present the state of the Union address
93. A major difference between the House of Representatives and the Senate is that
(Hint: which is more informal, the House or the Senate?)
(A) filibusters are possible only in the House
(B) revenue bills must originate in the Senate
(C) judicial nominations originate in a House committee
(D) each state has equal representation in the House but not in the Senate
(E) there is unlimited debate in the Senate but not in the House
94. Which of the following statements about rules of procedure in the House and Senate is correct?
(A) Debate by a determined minority in either chamber cannot be halted
(B) The rules in each chamber are determined by the majority whip
(C) The rules are specified in Article I of the Constitution
(D) The rules can be changed by the President during a national emergency
(E) The House operates more by formal rules, while the Senate operates more on informal understandings
95. Which of the following procedures results in the removal of the President from office?
(A) The House and Senate vote for impeachment, and the Supreme Court reaches a guilty verdict
(B) The House votes for impeachment, and the Senate conducts a trial and reaches a guilty verdict
(C) The House and Senate both vote for a bill of impeachment
(D) The House votes for a bill of impeachment
(E) A criminal court finds the President guilty of “high crimes and misdemeanors”
96. The congressional power that has been contested most frequently in the federal courts is the power to (Hint: which of the powers below is most often used to expand government?)
(A) establish post offices
(B) coin money
(C) levy taxes
(D) regulate commerce with foreign nations
(E) regulate interstate commerce
97. An electoral system based on single-member districts is usually characterized by
(A) strong, centralized political parties and a weak executive
(B) higher rates of voter turnout than are common in other systems
(C) legislative representation of each party in proportion to the number of votes it receives
(D) domination of the legislature by two political parties
(E) ideological rather than mass-based parties
98. A “cloture motion” passed in the Senate does which of the following?
(A) Returns a bill to a committee
(B) Cuts off debate on a bill
(C) Criticizes a senator guilty of improprieties
(D) Removes a President who has been impeached by the House
(E) Brings a bill directly to vote without formal committee approval
99. The practical effect of the “necessary and proper clause”/ elastic clause has been to
(A) make the legislature the most powerful branch of the national government
(B) allow the national government to extend its powers beyond those enumerated in the Constitution
(C) allow state governments to nullify federal laws within their borders
(D) give the President uncontested powers in the area of foreign policy
(E) ensure that any powers not delegated by the Constitution to the United States government are reserved to the states and the people
100. The legislative process at the national level reflects the intent of the framers of the Constitution to create a legislature that would be
(A) less powerful than the executive
(B) cautious and deliberate
(C) involve as many citizens as possible
(D) ensure that all groups be equally represented
(E) allow majorities virtually unlimited control over policy
101. The congressional system of standing committees is significant because it
(A) fosters the development of expertise by members
(B) helps Congress reduce staff costs
(C) insulates decision-making from the influence of special interests
(D) weakens Congress in its dealings with the President
(E) prevents Congress from effectively processing its large legislative workload
102. Elections for the House of Representatives provide
(A) approximately equal representation for every voter
(B) an equal chance of getting elected for both incumbents and challengers
(C) a system in which only those candidates who receive a majority of the votes cast win on the first ballot
(D) proportional representation based on the percentage of votes cast for each party
(E) proportional representation of racial and ethnic minorities
103. A committee chair in the House of Representatives is always
(A) the member with the longest service on the committee
(B) the member with the longest services in the House
(C) a representative of the Speaker
(D) a member of the majority party in the chamber
(E) a trusted ally of the President
104. A President attempting to influence Congress to pass a legislative program might employ all of the following strategies EXCEPT
(A) using the media to draw attention to the legislative program
(B) assigning legislative liaisons in the Executive Office of the President to lobby legislators
(C) denying campaign reelection funds to legislators who oppose the President’s policy stand
(D) exploiting a partisan majority for the President’s party in both the House and Senate
(E) reminding legislators of high popularity rating for the President in public opinion polls
105. Presidents have had the most success in changing the direction of decisions of the federal judiciary by
(A) threatening to ask Congress to impeach specific judges
(B) using the media to build consensus for the President’s position
(C) requesting that Congress reduce the term of office that judges may serve
(D) using the appointment process to select judges with judicial philosophies similar to those of the President
(E) pressuring Congress to pass the appropriate legislation to override judicial opinions
106. Which of the following is a significant trend in the presidential nominating process over the past 3 decades?
(A) Replacement of national party conventions by national primaries for each party
(B) Increasing importance of presidential primaries rather than state conventions
(C) A sharply declining role for political action committees (PAC’s)
(D) Decreasing cost of campaigns
(E) Increasing control by political party leader over outcomes
107. All of the following powers are granted to the President by the Constitution EXCEPT
(A) commissioning officers in the armed forces
(B) addressing the Congress on the state of the union
(C) receiving ambassadors
(D) granting pardons for federal offenses
(E) forming new cabinet-level departments
108. In which of the following scenarios would a presidential veto most likely be upheld?
(A) The President has the support of the Supreme Court
(B) The President is in a second term, removed from partisan politics
(C) The proposed legislation enjoys widespread bipartisan support
(D) The proposed legislation was originally adopted by a large majority in both houses of Congress
(E) Two-thirds of the representatives and senators are members of the same party as the President
109. Which of the following is a result of the electoral college system?
(A) The winner of the presidency often lacks a majority of the popular vote
(B) Candidates focus on one-party states in which they can win most of the electoral votes
(C) The House of Representatives frequently chooses the President from the top three candidates
(D) Candidates focus on the states with the largest populations
(E) Campaign spending increases because candidates emphasize television advertising
110. In recent presidential administrations, the principal staff for the President has been made up of members of the
(A) White House Office (which is the E.O.P.)
(B) cabinet
(C) Congress
(D) national committee of the President’s party
(E) civil service
111. Which of the following is NOT a presidential role authorized by the Constitution?
(A) To be commander in chief of the armed forces
(B) To lead the political party of the President
(C) To negotiate treaties with foreign nations
(D) To be chief executive
(E) To present the state of the Union address
112. The President can do which of the following without seeking the consent of either the House or the Senate?
(A) Ratify a treaty
(B) Appoint ambassadors
(C) Appoint district court judges
(D) Deploy troops
(E) Declare war
113. Which of the following is true about the line-item veto?
(A) It is specifically granted to the President by the Constitution
(B) It is used by many state governors
(C) It is basically the same as a pocket veto
(D) Its use was upheld by the Supreme Court
(E) It would, if instituted, strengthen the power of congressional leaders
114. A nonlitigant group or individual that wants to attempt to influence the court in a particular case can file
A. an amicus curiae brief
B.. a writ of error Coram Nobis
C. a habeas corpus petition
D. a writ of certiorari
E. a writ of mandamus
115. Which of the following best defines civil liberties?
A. The freedom to refuse to obey laws an individual considers to be immoral violations of civil rights
B. Provisions in the Bill of Rights that provide guarantees against arbitrary interference by government
C. Precedents pertaining to criminal procedure that are set by the Supreme Court that are upheld by lower courts
D. Those features of the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution that pertain to the actions of individuals and groups
E. Laws passed by Congress to define the powers and privileges of individuals
116. The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002 (McCain-Feingold) did which of the following?
A. It created interest groups known as 527’s
B. It made it illegal for unions to donate to presidential campaigns
C. It banned soft money donations to national parties
D. It banned candidates from running negative advertisements
E. It banned third parties from federal funding
117. The original reason for adding bills of rights to early state constitutions was to
(A) prohibit state governments from depriving individuals of certain basic rights
(B) deprive the national government of any regulation of natural rights
(C) ensure the supremacy of the legislature over the executive in state governments
(D) provide an example for the eventual Bill of Rights added to the Constitution in 1791
118. Among the weaknesses of government under the Articles of Confederation was
(A) the prevention against states rights
(B) the failure to establish a peace treaty at the conclusion of the American Revolution
(C) the complete abandonment of the principle of federalism
(D) the lack of strength to deal with popular uprisings
119. Which of the following best describes the “United States” under the Articles of Confederation?
(A) a confederation of colonies existing within an empire
(B) one nation, consisting of thirteen subordinate components
(C) free and independent states loosely held together by a Confederation Congress
(D) sovereign states with no cohesive element whatsoever
120. The Declaration of Independence
(A) contained a list of grievances against Parliament
(B) was written by Jefferson and adopted in its 1st draft
(C) contained Jefferson’s objection to slavery
(D) directed the grievances of the colonists against George III
Base your answers to questions 121 and 122 on the following excerpt from the Declaration of Independence and your knowledge of social studies:
“We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their creator with certain unalienable rights, that among these are life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness. That, to secure these rights, governments are instituted among men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed.”
121. According to the Declaration of independence, governments receive their authority and power from
(A) military strength
(B) G-d
(C) the people
(D) the nation-state
122. The ideas expressed in the preceding excerpt from the Declaration if Independence are mostly about which two concepts?
(A) tyrrany and rule of law
(B) constitutional government and divine right theory
(C) equality of all races and toleration for diversity
(D) popular sovereignty and natural rights
123. The U.S. Supreme Court has used which of the following to incorporate the Bill of Rights into state law?
A. The necessary and proper clause
B. The Fourteenth Amendment
C. The Judiciary Act of 1789
D. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
E. The Voting Rights Act of 1965
124. Which of the following did the Supreme Court establish in Marbury v. Madison?
A. The Supreme Court can declare federal legislation invalid if the legislation violates the Constitution
B. Each state has the right to set up and run its own court system
C. All the powers that are not explicitly given by the Constitution to Congress belong to the states
D. Any president who commits treason, bribery, or other high crimes and misdemeanors can be impeached
E. The Constitution can only be amended by a two-thirds vote of the members of the House of Representatives
125. The process known as front-loading refers to
A. presidential candidates raising funds far in advance of the first presidential primary
B. a presidential candidate seeking endorsements before officially declaring candidacy
C. the tendency of states to choose an early date on the primary calendar
D. political action committees (PAC’s) contributing money to candidates at least one year before the first presidential primary or caucus
E. the winner-take-all principle of the electoral college
126. Fiscal policies refer to the government’s power to
A. regulate specific industries
B. tax and spend
C. reapportion congressional seats
D. control the supply of money
E. enforce treaties
127. Jim Crow laws, still in place in the early 1960’s in the South, were outlawed by the
A. incorporation of the Bill of Rights
B. 1963 march on Washington
C. passage of the 1964 Civil Rights Act
D. Supreme Court decision in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka
E. Supreme Court decision in Dred Scott v. Sandford
128. In Gideon v. Wainwright, the United States Supreme Court ruled that the
A. Bible could be distributed at public schools under the free exercise clause of the First Amendment
B. exclusionary rule prevented the introduction of evidence seized in violation of the Fourth Amendment from being introduced in court
C. eminent domain clause of the 5th Amendment prevents government from taking religious property for public purposes
D. Sixth Amendment right-to-counsel provision applies to those accused of major crimes under state laws
E. Eighth Amendment cruel-and-unusual punishment provision cannot be applied in a discriminatory manner
129. The three points of an iron triangle include
A. an independent agency, a state, and Congress
B. an administrative agency, an interest group, and a congressional committee
C. a cabinet department, an interest group, and the House majority leader
D. a regulatory commission, a corporation, and the White House Office
E. the Executive Office of the President, an interest group, and a Senate committee
130. According to the clear and present danger test, speech may be restricted
A. when it incites violent action
B. when it lacks a political purpose
C. whenever the United States is at war
D. if it is deemed offensive to religious organizations
E. if the writer or speaker is not a citizen of the United States
131. To enforce the 14th Amendment more clearly, Congress passed
A. Brown v. Board of Education
B. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. Social Security Act
D. War Powers Resolution
E. Plessy v. Ferguson
132. Which of the following statements best describes how U.S. citizens regard the rights of free speech and assembly?
A. A majority agrees in principle with these rights, but in practice many people are often intolerant of views they do not support
B. A majority actively supports these rights without any reservations
C. A majority opposes these rights in principle
D. The average citizen is more supportive of these rights than are members of the elite
E. Conservatives have traditionally been more supportive of these rights than have liberals
133. In the U.S., most criminal cases end in
A. a plea bargain negotiated by the defense and prosecution
B. an appeal to the U.S. Court of Appeals
C. an appeal to a state court of appeals
D. a trial by judge
E. a trial by jury
134. The Freedom of Information Act was designed primarily to give
A. Congress access to information from citizens
B. police access to information from criminal suspects
C. the courts access to information from reporters
D. citizens access to information from the executive branch
E. Congress access to information from the executive branch
135. Which of the following is empowered to create new federal courts and specify the number of judges who will sit on them?
A. The Supreme Court
B. Congress
C. The President
D. The Department of Justice
E. The attorney general
136. Which of the following was an argument used by the Supreme Court in upholding federal statutes outlawing segregation in public accommodations?
A. Such segregation affected interstate commerce, and Congress therefore had the authority to outlaw it
B. Such segregation was wrong in principle, and Congress had moral authority to outlaw it even though the statutes lacked a strict constitutional basis
C. Such segregation violated the 10th Amendment’s reservation of power to state governments, and Congress therefore had the authority to outlaw it
D. Such segregation violated the 1st Amendment’s protection of the right to free assembly, and Congress therefore had the authority to outlaw it
E. Since such segregation affected citizens of different states, it fell under the original jurisdiction of the federal courts and could therefore be outlawed by Congress
137. The Supreme Court’s decision about abortion in Rowe v. Wade was based on
A. the right to privacy implied in the Bill of Rights
B. guarantees of freedom of religion contained in the 1st Amendment
C. the due process clause in the 5th Amendment
D. the equal protection clause of the 14 Amendment
E. a federal statute legalizing abortion
138. When a lower court decision is appealed to the Supreme Court, which of the following is most likely to occur?
A. The Supreme Court will reconsider the case, and overturn the lower court decision
B. The Supreme Court will reprimand the lower court judge for improperly deciding the case
C. The plaintiffs or defendants will file motions for a change of venue
D. The case will be retried at the lower court level
E. The Supreme Court will not hear the appeal
139. The terms “fiscal federalism” and “cooperative federalism” refer to situations in which
A. the federal government completely dominates state and local governments
B. states are forbidden any activity that has not been specifically approved by the Supreme Court
C. the federal judiciary uses its power of judicial review to ensure congressional dominance over state legislatures
D. state, municipal, and local income taxes are pooled by special agreement and redistributed in accordance with individual need
E. federal, state and local governments work together to complete a project, with the federal government providing much of the project funding
140. Which of the following is one of the central concerns of the 1st Amendment?
A. The supremacy of the national over the state governments
B. The right of citizens to bear arms
C. The division of powers among the three branches of government
D. The right of citizens to petition the government for redress of grievances
E. The protection of the rights of those accused of committing a crime
141. In Miranda v. Arizona, the U.S. Supreme Court declared that
A. illegal aliens have the same right to an education as U.S. citizens
B. evidence seized during an illegal search cannot be used in court
C. affirmative action programs cannot employ numerical quotas
D. police must inform criminal suspects of their constitutional rights before questioning suspects after arrest
E. the death penalty is constitutional so long as juries are supplied with sentencing guidelines
142. The term “horse race journalism” refers to the tendency of the media to
A. cover Congress by focusing on committee chairs rather than on the work of the committees
B. cover campaigns by emphasizing the relative standings of the candidates in the polls rather than the issues they discuss
C. cover politics by concentrating on scandal and corruption rather than on instances of integrity and honorable action
D. compete for access to sources rather than to cooperate in gathering news
E. compete to be first with major breaking stories rather than trying to present full, accurate accounts of such stories
143. The largest portion of government spending in the federal budget is designated for which of the following?
A. Interest on the national debt
B. Entitlement social programs spending
C. Defense spending
D. Environmental programs
E. Salaries of federal bureaucrats
144. Which of the following statements accurately describes the selection of the caseload for the U.S. Supreme Court?
A. The U.S. Constitution spells out all of the categories of cases that the Supreme Court must hear
B. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the authority to select the cases that the Court will hear
C. The Solicitor General in the Department of Justice determines the Supreme Court’s caseload
D. The Supreme Court is free to choose the cases it hears with only a few limitations
E. The Attorney General screens cases for consideration by the Court
32. Critical elections in the U.S. typically have occurred
A. as a result of temporary shift in the popular coalition supporting one or both parties
B. whenever a third party has secured more than fifteen percent of the presidential vote
C. each time a Republican has been elected President
D. when voter turnout has declined significantly from the previous election
E. when groups of voters have changed their traditional patterns of party loyalties
145. The establishment clause in the First Amendment does which of the following?
A. Guarantees freedom of speech to all citizens
B. Prevents prior restraint of the press
C. Prohibits the setting up of a state church
D. Defines the concept of dual citizenship
E. Allows citizens to enter freely into contracts with other citizens
146. The largest amount of political coverage in newspapers during presidential campaigns is devoted to
A. day-to-day campaign activities and poll reports
B. the platforms of the major parties
C. candidates’ policy stands on domestic issues
D. candidates’ stands on foreign policy issues
E. candidates experience and qualifications
147. The primary function of political action committees (PAC’s) is to
(A) serve as fund-raising organizations for challengers
(B) provide members of Congress with unbiased information regarding proposed legislation
(C) consult with the President regarding domestic policy
(D) encourage broader participation in politics among the electorate
(E) raise campaign funds to support favored candidates
148. A corporate lobbyist would be LEAST likely to have an informal discussion about a pending policy matter with which of the following?
(A) A member of the House in whose district the corporation has a plant
(B) A member of the White House staff concerned about the issue
(C) A member of the staff of the Senate committee handling a matter of concern to the corporation
(D) A federal judge in whose court a case important to the corporation is being heard
(E) A journalist for a major newspaper concerned about the issue
149. Interest groups and political parties both promote United States democracy by
(A) expressing detailed, ideologically distinct programs
(B) centralizing public authority
(C) linking citizens to the political process
(D) increasing domination of the political process by elites
(E) lobbying members of Congress
9. Which of the following statements about Congress is true?
(A) Members of Congress only occasionally are interested in and pay attention to their constituents
(B) The legislative process is frequently lengthy, decentralized, and characterized by compromise and bargaining
(C) Lobbyists and political action committees (PAC’s) successfully induce most members of Congress to trade their votes for campaign contributions
(D) The growth in the size of Congress as an organization is the principal cause of growth in the federal budget deficit.
(E) Debate in both houses is structured by elaborate rules enacted by leaders of the majority party.
150. A state has 11 electoral votes. In a presidential election, the Democratic candidate receives 48 percent of that state’s popular vote, the Republican candidate receives 40 percent of the vote, and an independent candidate receives 12 percent of the vote.
If the state is similar to most other states, how will the electoral votes most likely be allocated?
(A) The Democratic candidate will receive 5 electoral votes, the Republican will receive 4, and the independent will receive 2.
(B) The Democratic candidate will receive 6 electoral votes and the Republican will receive 5.
(C) The Democratic candidate will receive all 11 electoral votes
(D) The votes will not be allocated until there has been a runoff election between the Democratic and Republican candidates.
(E) The House of Representatives will determine the allocation of the electoral votes
151. The establishment clause in the First Amendment does which of the following?
(A) Guarantees freedom of speech to all citizens
(B) Prevents prior restraint of the press
(C) Prohibits the setting up of a state church
(D) Defines the concept of dual citizenship
(E) Allows citizens to enter freely into contracts with other citizens
152. Griswold v. Connecticut and Roe v. Wade are similar Supreme Court cases in that both cases are based on the
(A) rights of gay men and lesbian women
(B) right of privacy
(C) right to an abortion
(D) right to freedom from cruel and unusual punishment
(E) right of women to equal protection before the law
153. An election involving more than two candidates in which the person who receives the most votes is the winner is called
(A) a majority election
(B) a proportional election
(C) a plurality election
(D) a simple election
(E) an indirect election
154. Which of the following is articulated in the War Powers Resolution?
(A) The President may declare war
(B) The President must finance any war efforts from a special contingency fund
(C) The President must bring troops home from hostilities within 60 to 90 days unless Congress extends the time
(D) The President may not nationalize state militias without congressional consent
(E) The President may not send troops into hostilities without a declaration of war from Congress or a resolution from the United Nations
155. All of the following have contributed to an increase in presidential power in the post-1945 era EXCEPT
(A) tensions between the U.S. and the Soviet Union during the Cold War
(B) an increase in public expectations for services from the federal government
(C) economic and domestic problems such as inflation, unemployment, and civil rights issues
(D) increasing U.S. involvement in international affairs
(E) legislation granting the President the power to impound (to seize) funds appropriated (given) to Congress
156. The request of recent Presidents for the line-item veto is a challenge to which of the following principles?
(A) Separation of powers
(B) Senatorial courtesy
(C) Eminent domain
(D) Executive privilege
(E) Congressional oversight
157. Cabinet members often do not have a dominant influence on presidential decision-making because
(A) cabinet members generally maintain close independent ties to Congress
(B) cabinet members generally view their position only as a stepping-stone to further their own political ambitions
(C) cabinet members are not permitted to disagree publicly with the President
(D) presidential goals often conflict with the institutional goals of individual cabinet-level agencies
(E) only half of all cabinet members can be members of the President’s party
158.. Which of the following is one of the central concerns of the First Amendment?
(A) The supremacy of the national over the state governments
(B) The right of citizens to bear arms
(C) The division of powers among three branches of government
(D) The right of citizens to petition the government for redress of grievances
(E) The protection of the rights of those accused of committing a crime
159. The “wall of separation” doctrine refers to the
(A) division between levels of government
(B) unique powers possessed by each branch of government
(C) division of church and state
(D) barrier between legislative chambers
(E) differentiation of municipal powers from county powers
160. States and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from
(A) categorical grants
(B) matching grants
(C) block grants
(D) project grants
(E) grants-in-aid
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