Anatomy and Physiology



A&P II 2015 Exam 2B Name __________________________________________Figure 20-1 The HeartUse Figure 20-1 to answer the following questions:1) Identify the structure labeled "19." A) tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum 2) Identify the structure(s) labeled "8." A) moderator band B) pectinate muscles C) papillary muscles D) trabeculae carneae E) chordae tendineae 3) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) cusp of tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum 4) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit? A) 5 B) 10 C) 16 D) 13 E) both 5 and 16 5) Identify the structure labeled "21." A) bicuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) ligamentum arteriosum E) tricuspid valve 6) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing. A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) P-R interval E) R-T interval 7) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked, A) the ventricles will beat faster. B) the ventricles will beat more slowly. C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged. D) cardiac output will increase. E) the atria will contract more forcefully. 8) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal fromA) the SA node.B) depolarization of the AV node.C) depolarization of the atria.D) repolarization of the atria.E) depolarization of the ventricles.9) Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the A) P wave. B) T wave. C) S wave. D) QRS complex. E) PR complex. 10) Pacemaker cells in the SA nodeA) have a well-defined resting potential.B) can spontaneously depolarize.C) also contract with the rest of the cells in the heart wall.D) are special neurons that convey signals from the brain to the heart.E) All of the answers are correct. 11) The first heart sound ("lubb") is associated withA) atrial systole.B) closing of the atrioventricular valves.C) opening of the atrioventricular valves.D) closing of the semilunar valves.E) opening of the semilunar valves.12) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is theA) atrial systole.B) early diastolic filling phase.C) late diastolic filling phase.D) systolic ejection phase.E) dicrotic phase.13) A heart murmur might be caused byA) aortic valve insufficiency.B) mitral valve insufficiency.C) pulmonic valve insufficiency.D) swirling of blood in the ventricle.E) All of the answers are correct.Figure 20-2 Cardiac CycleUse Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions:14) What occurs at the area labeled "D" on the graph? A) AV valve opens. B) Semilunar valve opens. C) Diastolic filling begins.D) AV valve opens and filling of ventricles begins. E) Ventricle contracts. 15) What volume is labeled "G" on the graph? A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) end-systolic volume D) end-diastolic volume E) ejection fraction 16) What occurs at "A" on the graph? A) Semilunar valve opens. B) Semilunar valve closes. C) AV valve opens. D) AV valve closes. E) end systolic volume 17) What volume is labeled "E" on the graph? A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) end-diastolic volume D) end-systolic volume E) total cardiac volume 18) What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph? A) peak systolic pressure B) isovolumetric systole C) isovolumetric contraction D) ventricular refilling E) increased heart rate 19) What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph? A) Ventricular ejection occurs. B) AV valve closes. C) Semilunar valve opens. D) Semilunar valve closes. E) AV valve opens.20) The heart is innervated by ________ nerves. A) parasympathetic B) sympathetic C) both parasympathetic and sympathetic D) neither parasympathetic nor sympatheticE) somatomotor 21) Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except A) decreasing ejection fraction.B) decreasing end systolic volume.C) increasing stroke volume.D) increasing ejection fraction.E) increasing heart rate.22) Lymphocytes provide an adaptive or specific defense known as the A) phagocytic response. B) adaptive defense. C) immune response. D) lymphocytic response. E) inflammation of tissues. 23) The lymphatic system does all of the following except A) helps maintain normal blood volume. B) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes. C) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid. D) transports lipids from the digestive tract. E) fights infection. 24) Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following except that they A) have no basement membrane. B) have only a tunica interna. C) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles. D) are smaller in diameter. E) are frequently irregular in shape. 25) Leslie has a severe sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that A) the focus of the infection is the lymph nodes.B) lymph is not flowing consistently through these lymph nodes.C) the lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes. D) the lymph nodes are actively producing phagocytes. E) the lymph nodes have increased their secretion of thymosin. 26) Fever is the maintenance of body temperature greater than A) 40.6°C (105°F). B) 37.2°C (99°F). C) 37°C (98.6°F). D) 38.9 °C (102°F). E) 37.5°C (99.5°F). 27) The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to A) the cell wall of bacteria. B) the plasma membrane of bacteria. C) an antibody attached to an antigen. D) a cell surface antigen. E) a plasma protein. 28) The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells. A) NK B) plasma C) B D) helper T E) suppressor T 29) Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity. A) naturally acquired active B) natural passive C) passively acquired D) automatically acquired E) innate 30) Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of the following chemical weapons?A) secrete strong acidB) secrete organic solvent C) secrete free radicalsD) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosisE) secrete mutant proteins that get incorporated into the target's DNA31) Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity. A) active B) natural passive C) passive D) auto E) innate 32) Immunity that results from antibodies that pass through the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity. A) actively acquired B) naturally acquired passive C) passively acquired D) automatically acquired E) innate 33) Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include A) sebaceous glands. B) mucus. C) epithelia. D) epidermal layers. E) All of the answers are correct. 34) The body's innate defenses include all of the following except A) the skin. B) complement. C) interferon. D) inflammation. E) antibodies. 35) Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes?A) adhere to collagen beneath endotheliumB) helper cells are one typeC) develop into plasma cellsD) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxideE) often elevated in allergic individuals36) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes?A) adhere to collagen beneath endotheliumB) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) produce antibodies in response to antigensD) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxideE) often elevated in allergic individuals37) The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are A) neutrophils. B) basophils. C) lymphocytes. D) monocytes. E) leukocytes. 38) ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes 39) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. 40) The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in theA) spleen. B) kidneys. C) lymph nodes. D) red bone marrow. E) thymus. 41) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed ElementsUse Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions:42) Identify the cell labeled "5." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte 43) Identify the cell labeled "6." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte 44) Identify the cell labeled "4." A) neutrophil B) lymphocyte C) platelet D) basophil E) monocyte 45) Identify the cell labeled "3." A) eosinophil B) lymphocyte C) erythrocyte D) basophil E) monocyte46) Identify the cell labeled "2." A) lymphocyte B) eosinophil C) basophil D) neutrophil E) monocyte 47) Which of the following descriptions matches the term near the left fifth intercostal space?A) pericardial cavityB) visceral pericardiumC) apex of heartD) aortaE) right atrium48) The interventricular sulci and coronary sulcusA) contain fat. B) contain arteries. C) contain veins. D) are grooves on the surface of the heart.E) All of the answers are correct.49) Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the A) aortic valve. B) pulmonary valve. C) mitral valve. D) tricuspid valve. E) bicuspid valve. 50) Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is not one of them?A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size. B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus. C) Cardiac muscle cells branch. D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs. E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules. 51) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. 52) The earlike extension of the atrium is the A) ventricle. B) coronary sinus. C) coronary sulcus. D) auricle. E) atricle. 53) When the left ventricle contracts, the distance from the apex to the base A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. 54) As blood leaves the right ventricle, it passes through the ________ and then into the pulmonary trunk.A) pulmonary veins B) conus arteriosus C) aorta D) inferior vena cava E) superior vena cava 55) When the semilunar valves close, the AV valves then A) close. B) open. C) make the third heart sound. D) contract. E) prolapse. 56) The connective tissue fibers of the myocardium A) add strength and prevent overexpansion of the heart. B) help distribute the forces of contraction. C) provide elasticity to help return the heart to its normal size. D) provide physical support for cardiac muscle. E) All of the answers are correct. 57) The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium. A) semicaval B) semilunar C) bicuspid D) tricuspid E) pulmonic 58) Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics except A) has a thicker wall. B) is round in cross section. C) pumps a greater volume. D) works harder. E) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts. 59) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver. 60) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries. A) pulmonary B) coronary C) circumflex D) carotid E) subclavian Xtra Credit (1 point each)1) The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day. A) 8,000 B) 15,000 C) 20,000 D) 50,000 E) 100,000 2) In order to perform a coronary artery bypass graft, a cardiac surgeon mustA) open the pericardial sac.B) open the myocardium to see the AV valves. C) visualize the pulmonary valve. D) visualize the carotid arteries. E) All of the answers are correct. 3) A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin. 4) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes. 5) Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells? A) basophils and eosinophils B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes C) lymphocytes and monocytes D) platelets E) lymphocytes ................
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