Chapter 1 – name
Chapter 7 – Metabolism: Transformations and Interactions
Multiple Choice
Questions for Section 7.0 Introduction
01. Which of the following describes the sum of all chemical reactions that go on in living cells?
a. Digestion
b. Metabolism
c. Absorption
d. Catabolism
02. In photosynthesis, the plant uses energy from the sun, plus water and carbon dioxide, to synthesize
a. carbohydrates only.
b. fats and carbohydrates only.
c. protein and carbohydrates only.
d. fats, proteins, and carbohydrates.
Questions for Section 7.1 Chemical Reactions in the Body
03. A typical cell contains “powerhouses,” which is another name for the
a. DNA.
b. ribosomes.
c. mitochondria.
d. electron transport chains.
04. A feature of catabolic reactions is that they
a. involve release of energy.
b. occur only in mitochondria.
c. involve consumption of energy.
d. occur only during loss of body weight.
05. What term is specific to reactions in which simple compounds are combined into more complex molecules?
a. Anabolic
b. Catabolic
c. Ergogenic
d. Gluconeogenic
06. The site of lipid synthesis in the cell is the
a. nucleus.
b. Golgi bodies.
c. mitochondria.
d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
07. Which of the following reactions is an example of an anabolic reaction?
a. Pyruvate synthesis from glucose
b. Acetyl CoA synthesis from cholesterol
c. Carbon dioxide synthesis from citric acid
d. Cholesterol synthesis from acetyl CoA molecules
08. The formation of glycogen by the liver cell is an example of
a. oxidation.
b. glycolysis.
c. anabolism.
d. catabolism.
09. Which of the following is an example of a catabolic reaction?
a. Glucose formation from glycerol
b. Urea formation from an amino acid
c. Albumin formation from amino acids
d. Palmitic acid formation from acetate
10. All of the following are among the functions of the liver except
a. synthesis of urea.
b. synthesis of glycogen.
c. production of red blood cells.
d. conversion of fructose to glucose.
11. What is the approximate percent efficiency of conversion of food energy to ATP energy in the body?
a. 20
b. 50
c. 80
d. 99
12. In the adult body, food energy not stored as fat or glycogen is lost as
a. heat.
b. photons.
c. carbon dioxide.
d. electromagnetic radiation.
13. Which of the following defines a coenzyme?
a. A unit consisting of an enzyme bound to reactants plus ATP
b. An organic molecule required for the functioning of an enzyme
c. The small, active part of an enzyme that binds to the organic reactants
d. An inactive enzyme that becomes functional upon contact with specific cofactors
14. The hydrolysis of ATP that often occurs simultaneously with the synthesis of many compounds is an example of
a. coupled reactions.
b. tandem cleavages.
c. metabolic couplings.
d. high energy processes.
15. Which of the following metabolic reactions occurs when a cell uses energy?
a. ATP gains a phosphate group and becomes ADP
b. ADP gains a phosphate group and becomes ATP
c. ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP
d. ADP releases a phosphate group and becomes ATP
16. What is the major energy carrier molecule in most cells?
a. ATP
b. Glucose
c. Pyruvate
d. A kcalorie
Questions for Section 7.2 Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
17. The basic units derived from food include all of the following except
a. glycerol.
b. starches.
c. fatty acids.
d. amino acids.
18. Approximately what percentage of the body’s energy expenditure is furnished by amino acids?
a. 1 to 5
b. 10 to 15
c. 25 to 35
d. 50 to 65
19. Which of the following can not be formed from acetyl CoA molecules?
a. Glucose
b. Cholesterol
c. Stearic acid
d. Carbon dioxide
20. Which of the following can not be formed from pyruvate in human beings?
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Lactic acid
d. Linoleic acid
21. Glycolysis is the conversion of
a. glycogen to fat.
b. glycogen to protein.
c. glucose to pyruvate.
d. glucose to glycogen.
22. The series of reactions involving the conversion of glucose to pyruvate is known as
a. pyrolysis.
b. glycolysis.
c. beta-oxidation.
d. coupled reaction.
23. Which of the following is not an aspect of glycolysis?
a. It is irreversible
b. It generates ATP
c. It occurs in the absence of oxygen
d. It generates two molecules of pyruvate for each molecule of glucose
24. Which of the following outlines the overall sequence of events in the complete oxidation of glucose?
a. Cori cycle, TCA cycle, glycolysis
b. Glycolysis, TCA cycle, electron transport chain
c. Electron transport chain, TCA cycle, Cori cycle
d. TCA cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis
25. Which of the following is a feature of aerobic metabolism?
a. Little or no oxygen is consumed
b. Lactic acid is a major byproduct
c. Energy is produced more slowly than in anaerobic metabolism
d. Pyruvate is converted to glucose by reverse glycolysis to yield a net of 2 ATPs
26. An aerobic reaction is one that requires
a. alcohol.
b. oxygen.
c. nitrogen.
d. ammonia.
27. Your roommate Demetrius is participating in a weightlifting course and complains of a burning pain during workouts. You explain to Demetrius that the rapid breakdown of glucose in his muscles produces large amounts of pyruvate, which leads to a fall in pH within the muscle and that the muscle responds by converting excess pyruvate to
a. lactate.
b. glycerol.
c. acetyl CoA.
d. amino acids.
28. The Cori cycle involves the interconversion of
a. lactate and glucose.
b. glucose and amino acids.
c. pyruvate and citric acids.
d. fatty acids and acetyl CoA.
29. When a person is performing intense physical exercise and begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, the response of the muscles is to synthesize more
a. lactate.
b. glucose.
c. citric acid.
d. fatty acids.
30. Which of the following is not a possible fate of metabolized glucose?
a. Urea
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Amino acids
d. Muscle glycogen
31. Which of the following nutrients can be made from compounds composed of 2-carbon skeletons?
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Glycogen
d. Fatty acids
32. Which of the following is a possible fate of acetyl CoA?
a. Degradation to urea
b. Synthesis to glycerol
c. Synthesis to fatty acids
d. Degradation to ammonia
33. What is the first product of fatty acid catabolism?
a. Glycerol
b. Pyruvate
c. Acetyl CoA
d. Triglycerides
34. Fatty acid oxidation results in the direct production of
a. ketones.
b. fructose.
c. pyruvate.
d. acetyl CoA.
35. Production of excessive amounts of acetyl CoA molecules leads to the synthesis of
a. fatty acids only.
b. fatty acids and glucose only.
c. fatty acids and fructose only.
d. fatty acids, glucose, and amino acids.
36. In a triglyceride that contains 54 carbon atoms, how many can become part of glucose?
a. 3
b. 9
c. 54
d. 108
37. Which of the following compounds cannot be formed from fatty acids?
a. Ketones
b. Glucose
c. Acetyl CoA
d. Carbon dioxide
38. Approximately what percentage of the weight of triglycerides cannot be converted to glucose?
a. 70
b. 80
c. 90
d. 95
39. What percentage (by weight) of a triglyceride molecule can be converted to glucose?
a. 0
b. 5
c. 50
d. 100
40. How many acetyl CoA molecules may be obtained from oxidation of an 18-carbon fatty acid?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 18
41. Which of the following dietary components cannot be used to synthesize and store glycogen?
a. Lactose
b. Animal fats
c. Wheat starch
d. Plant protein
42. Which of the following cannot be used to make body proteins?
a. Glucose
b. Glycerol
c. Fatty acids
d. Amino acids
43. An immediate consequence of a cellular deficiency of oxaloacetate is a slowing of
a. glycolysis.
b. the TCA cycle.
c. lactate synthesis.
d. ketone formation.
44. All of the following may serve as precursors for oxaloacetate synthesis except
a. fat.
b. starch.
c. glucose.
d. protein.
45. What is the immediate fate of excess dietary protein in the body?
a. Stored
b. Reduced
c. Oxidized
d. Deaminated
46. After digestion and absorption, an amino acid not used to build protein will first be subjected to
a. removal of its amino group.
b. removal of its carboxyl group.
c. hydrolysis of its peptide bond.
d. condensation of its peptide bond.
47. Which of the following leads to the production of urea?
a. Oxidation of glucose
b. Oxidation of amino acids
c. Incomplete oxidation of fatty acids
d. Synthesis of protein from amino acids
48. When energy-yielding nutrients are consumed in excess, which one(s) can lead to storage of fat?
a. Fat only
b. Carbohydrate only
c. Fat and carbohydrate only
d. Fat, carbohydrate, and protein
49. If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body’s needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?
a. Fatty acids
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Amino acids
d. Carbon dioxide
50. When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and the energy in the molecules is
a. stored as fat only.
b. excreted in the feces.
c. stored as amino acids only.
d. stored as glycogen and fat.
51. What are the products from the complete oxidation of fatty acids?
a. Urea and acetone
b. Fatty acids and glycerol
c. Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
d. Water, carbon dioxide, and energy
52. In addition to energy, what are the principal end products of cellular oxidation of carbohydrates?
a. Water and carbon dioxide
b. Carbon, hydrogen, and urea
c. Indigestible fiber and nitrogen
d. Monosaccharides and amino acids
53. Which of the following products is not generated via the TCA cycle or electron transport chain?
a. Water
b. Energy
c. Ammonia
d. Carbon dioxide
54. At what point is oxygen used in the electron transport chain?
a. At the end
b. At every step
c. At the beginning
d. When ATP is synthesized
55. Products from the electron transport chain pathway include all of the following except
a. CO2.
b. urea.
c. water.
d. energy.
56. Which of the following accounts for the higher energy density of a fatty acid compared with the other energy-yielding nutrients?
a. Fatty acids have a lower percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
b. Fatty acids have a greater percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
c. Other energy-yielding nutrients have a lower percentage of oxygen-carbon bonds
d. Other energy-yielding nutrients undergo fewer metabolic reactions, thereby lowering the energy yield
57. The number of ATP molecules that can be produced from a molecule of protein, fat, or carbohydrate is generally related to the number of atoms of
a. carbon.
b. oxygen.
c. nitrogen.
d. hydrogen.
58. Approximately how many molecules of ATP are generated from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose?
a. 4
b. 9
c. 32
d. 130
59. Approximately how many ATP molecules are synthesized from the complete oxidation of a molecule of palmitic acid?
a. 9
b. 27
c. 98
d. 129
Section 7.3 Energy Balance
60. Which of the following can be synthesized from all three energy-yielding nutrients?
a. Lactate
b. Glycogen
c. Acetyl CoA
d. Oxaloacetate
61. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the body’s higher metabolic efficiency of converting a molecule of corn oil into stored fat compared with a molecule of sucrose?
a. The enzymes specific for metabolizing absorbed fat have been found to have higher activities than those metabolizing sucrose
b. The absorbed corn oil is transported to fat cells at a faster rate than the absorbed sucrose, thereby favoring the uptake of corn oil fat
c. There are fewer metabolic reactions for disassembling the corn oil and re-assembling the parts into a triglyceride for uptake by the fat cells
d. Because the energy content of corn oil is higher than sucrose, conversion of these nutrients into stored fat requires a smaller percentage of the energy from the corn oil
62. If a person consumes 100 kcalories in excess of energy needs from table sugar, approximately how many of the kcalories are stored in the body?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
63. If a person consumes 100 kcalories in excess of energy needs from olive oil, approximately what percentage of the kcalories are stored in the body?
a. 25
b. 45
c. 65
d. 95
64. Jake is getting ready for spring training and is sitting down to a dinner of half a chicken, a rib-eye steak, black beans, and 5 slices of bacon. He has been eating typical dinners like this for about a month and has since gained 7 pounds, while exercising only briefly. When Jake asks why he doesn’t see an increase in his biceps or abs, the proper response should be
a. dietary protein alone does not contribute to muscle accretion.
b. it takes at least 6 months to document changes in muscle accretion.
c. the weight he has gained can be attributed to a substantial increase in his protein stores.
d. because muscle accretion only responds to very lean meat choices, he should eliminate the fatty bacon and steak from his diet to promote muscle gain.
65. Which of the following is a characteristic of the metabolism of specific macronutrients?
a. The rate of fat oxidation does not change when fat is eaten in excess
b. The rate of protein oxidation does not change when protein is eaten in excess
c. The rate of glucose oxidation does not change when carbohydrate is eaten in excess
d. The conversion of dietary glucose to fat represents the major pathway of carbohydrate utilization
66. How does excess carbohydrate intake contribute to obesity?
a. It is efficiently converted to storage fat
b. It spares oxidation of body fat and dietary fat
c. It stimulates glucagon release resulting in inhibition of fatty acid oxidation
d. It stimulates pancreatic lipase secretion, which results in higher dietary fat absorption
67. Which of the following is the body’s first response to the absorption of abundant amounts of carbohydrate?
a. Catabolism of body fat
b. Catabolism of glycogen
c. Synthesis and storage of glycogen
d. Synthesis and storage of triglycerides
68. All of the following are features of the metabolism of surplus dietary carbohydrate in human beings except
a. excess glucose suppresses fat oxidation.
b. excess glucose is oxidized only very slowly.
c. excess glucose is first used to fill glycogen reserves.
d. conversion of excess glucose to fat occurs only to a very limited extent.
69. Which of the following is a feature of the metabolism of surplus dietary fat?
a. Excess fat is almost all stored
b. Excess fat promotes increased fat oxidation
c. Excess fat spares breakdown of body proteins
d. Conversion of excess fat to storage fat is inefficient
70. After the first day or so of fasting, which of the following is most depleted in the body?
a. Glycogen
b. Fatty acids
c. Amino acids
d. Triglycerides
71. Of the total amount of carbohydrate energy consumed by the body, approximately what percentage is used by the brain and nerve cells?
a. 10
b. 30
c. 50
d. 90
72. If a normal person expends 1200 kcalories while at rest, approximately how many are used by the brain?
a. 40
b. 100
c. 200
d. 300
73. During the first few days of a fast, what energy source provides about 90% of the glucose needed to fuel the body?
a. Protein
b. Ketones
c. Glycogen
d. Triglycerides
74. Which of the following dietary nutrients would most rapidly reverse a state of ketosis in a starving person?
a. Fat
b. Protein
c. Amino acids
d. Carbohydrate
75. How soon would death occur from starvation if the body was unable to shift to a state of ketosis?
a. Within 3 weeks
b. Less than 2 weeks
c. Between 5 and 6 weeks
d. Between 2 and 3 months
76. A feature of ketosis is that it
a. occurs from lack of protein in the diet.
b. occurs when fats are partially oxidized.
c. results from excess acetoacetate in the diet.
d. results from excess carbohydrate in the diet.
77. The effects on metabolism from starvation are similar to those from
a. fasting.
b. feasting.
c. lipogenesis.
d. Cori cycling.
78. A person said to have acetone breath most likely has the condition known as
a. ketonemia.
b. feasting syndrome.
c. acetyl CoA toxicity.
d. carbohydrate overload.
79. Which of the following is used to supply some of the fuel needed by the brain only after the body has been fasting for a while?
a. Ketones
b. Glycerol
c. Fatty acids
d. Amino acids
80. Elizabeth has been fasting for 4 days in observance of her religious beliefs. You note that her breath smells “fruity.” This is most likely due to
a. her intake of religious wafers.
b. her intake of dilute fruit juices.
c. her body’s shift to a state of ketosis.
d. her body’s switch to a lipogenic state.
81. Ketonemia is defined as an elevation of
a. ketones in the blood.
b. ketones in the urine.
c. alpha-ketoglutarate in the blood.
d. alpha-ketoglutarate in the urine.
82. How are ketones formed?
a. Condensation of lactic acid molecules
b. Condensation of acetyl CoA molecules
c. Hydrolysis of excess glycerol fragments
d. Hydrolysis of excess pyruvate fragments
83. All of the following are general features of starvation in people except
a. a decrease in metabolic rate.
b. a decrease in mental alertness.
c. a decrease in immune function.
d. a decrease in body temperature.
84. Which of the following is a characteristic of ketosis?
a. It may lead to a lowering of blood pH
b. It leads to increased appetite in most individuals
c. It may be alleviated quickly by ingestion of some dietary fat
d. It is a necessary physiological adjustment for maximum weight loss
85. Which of the following is classified as a ketone body?
a. Sorbitol
b. Pyruvate
c. Acetyl CoA
d. Acetoacetate
86. Adverse side effects of typical low-carbohydrate diets include all of the following except
a. fatigue.
b. nausea.
c. constipation.
d. high blood pressure.
87. Lillie has been losing weight by following a very-low-carbohydrate diet for 2 months. Her primary care physician just diagnosed ketosis through a urine sample. Which of the following symptoms would be another way the physician might have suspected ketosis in Lillie?
a. Thinning hair
b. Irritable temper
c. Fishy body odor
d. Fruity odor on breath
88. A person with fruity odor on the breath demonstrates evidence of metabolic
a. ketosis.
b. alkalosis.
c. transamination.
d. anaerobic breakdown.
89. What type of diet is associated with the development of ketosis?
a. Low fat
b. Low protein
c. Low carbohydrate
d. High carbohydrate
Questions for Section 7.4 Alcohol and Nutrition
90. The health benefits of moderate alcohol intake occur in people with a starting age (years) of
a. 21.
b. 35.
c. 55.
d. 65.
91. Binge drinking is defined as the successive consumption of
a. 1-2 drinks.
b. 4-5 drinks.
c. 6-9 drinks.
d. more than 10 drinks.
92. Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized woman?
a. Up to 1 drink
b. Up to 2 drinks
c. Up to 3 drinks
d. Up to 5 drinks
93. Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized man?
a. Up to 1 drink
b. Up to 2 drinks
c. Up to 3 drinks
d. Up to 5 drinks
94. The chemical structure of ethanol consists of
a. 4 carbons and 1 keto acid.
b. 6 carbons and 2 double bonds.
c. 2 carbons and 1 hydroxyl group.
d. 3 carbons and 2 carbonyl groups.
95. With alcohol beverages, the ratio of proof to alcohol percentage is
a. 1:1.
b. 2:1.
c. 4:1.
d. 8:1.
96. The amount of ethanol in a typical “drink” is
a. 0.5 ounce.
b. 1 ounce.
c. 1.5 ounces.
d. 2 ounces.
97. Approximately how many kcal are contained in 3 ounces of 80-proof rum?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
98. One average-sized can of beer contains about the same amount of alcohol as
a. ½ ounce of rum.
b. ½ quart of wine.
c. 1½ ounces of vodka.
d. 1 quart of wine cooler.
99. What is the percentage of ethanol in 120-proof scotch whiskey?
a. 5
b. 30
c. 60
d. 95
100. Which of the following is one explanation for the generally lower tolerance for alcohol in women in comparison to men?
a. Women fast more often
b. Women do not eat as much food with the alcohol
c. Women consume more of their alcohol in sweetened drinks
d. Women have lower amounts of stomach alcohol dehydrogenase
101. What organ is first to absorb alcohol after a person takes a drink?
a. Colon
b. Stomach
c. Jejunum
d. Duodenum
102. What is the primary organ that oxidizes alcohol?
a. Brain
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Digestive tract
103. Which of the following is(are) best suited for slowing alcohol absorption?
a. Not eating
b. Protein snacks
c. Caffeine drinks
d. Carbohydrate snacks
104. The metabolism of alcohol begins in the
a. liver.
b. brain.
c. stomach.
d. intestines.
105. Which of the following is characteristic of alcohol absorption?
a. It is slowed when the stomach is full of food
b. It is increased when high-fat snacks are eaten
c. It is increased when carbohydrate snacks are eaten
d. It is lower in women than in men of the same body weight
106. Which of the following plays a major role in regulating the elimination of alcohol from the body?
a. Lung respiratory rate
b. Kidney antidiuretic hormone
c. Liver alcohol dehydrogenase
d. Brain acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
107. What is acetaldehyde?
a. An intermediate in fatty acid synthesis
b. An intermediate in alcohol metabolism
c. The first product of fatty acid catabolism
d. The TCA compound that combines with acetyl CoA
108. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of alcohol metabolism?
a. There are gender differences in the rate of breakdown
b. The average person needs about two hours to metabolize two drinks
c. Alcohol is metabolized by muscle and brain cells as well as by the liver
d. The amount of alcohol in the breath is proportional to the amount in the blood
109. Your middle-aged aunt says that she always feels more “tipsy” than her same-size husband, even though their alcohol intake is the same. You respond by saying to your aunt:
a. “Men have greater amounts of liver acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and so can oxidize the alcohol at a faster rate.”
b. “Women have less stomach alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme and consequently absorb more of the alcohol into the bloodstream.”
c. “Men have greater amounts of alcohol dehydrogenase in the brain, resulting in reduced exposure of brain neurons to alcohol.”
d. “Women have less liver alcohol dehydrogenase and acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and so more alcohol is released into the systemic circulation.”
110. In the average healthy person, about how much time is required by the liver to process the alcohol in a typical drink?
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 2 hours
111. Excess alcohol intake leads to a reduction in the synthesis rate of
a. liver fat.
b. liver glucose.
c. ketone bodies.
d. acetyl CoA molecules.
112. What is the sequence of stages that brings about advanced liver disease caused by chronic alcohol toxicity?
a. Fibrosis, gout, cirrhosis
b. Fibrosis, cirrhosis, fat depletion
c. Cirrhosis, fat accumulation, fibrosis
d. Fat accumulation, fibrosis, cirrhosis
113. What is MEOS?
a. An advanced liver disorder
b. A drug that inhibits alcohol absorption
c. A waste product of alcohol metabolism
d. A system of enzymes that oxidizes alcohol and drugs
114. Approximately what percentage of alcohol in the body is eliminated via the urine and breath?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 10
d. 25
115. Which of the following functions is(are) first to be affected when a person begins to drink alcohol?
a. Speech and vision
b. Judgment and reasoning
c. Voluntary muscle control
d. Respiration and heart function
116. What is the minimum blood alcohol percentage that defines legal drunkenness in most states?
a. 0.10
b. 0.20
c. 0.30
d. 0.40
117. What minimum concentration of blood alcohol leads to impaired judgment and increased heart rate?
a. 0.01
b. 0.05
c. 0.10
d. 0.35
118. What minimum concentration of alcohol in the blood is usually fatal?
a. 0.5%
b. 1%
c. 5%
d. 50%
119. Which of the following is a consequence of alcohol intake?
a. The MEOS is suppressed
b. Homocysteine production is reduced
c. Water content of the blood in increased
d. Antidiuretic hormone production is suppressed
120. The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in people with chronic alcohol abuse stems primarily from a deficiency of
a. folate.
b. thiamin.
c. antidiuretic hormone.
d. alcohol dehydrogenase.
121. Which of the following is a feature of ethanol metabolism?
a. It increases gastric acid output
b. It decreases activity of the MEOS
c. It decreases secretion of gastric histamine
d. It increases secretion of antidiuretic hormone
122. Chronic excess alcohol intake leads to all of the following effects on folate except
a. the small intestine recycles more folate.
b. the liver releases more folate into the blood.
c. the kidneys excrete more folate via the urine.
d. the small intestine absorbs less folate from the diet.
123. Approximately how many kcalories from ethanol are contained in one standard drink of vodka or rum?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 200
124. Approximately what percentage of all traffic fatalities involves alcohol?
a. 5
b. 25
c. 40
d. 75
125. What is the median weekly number of alcoholic drinks consumed by college students?
a. 1½
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
126. What fraction of all domestic violence incidents involve alcohol use?
a. 1/10
b. 1/5
c. 1/3
d. 2/3
127. Which of the following is a characteristic of alcohol use?
a. Ingestion of alcohol cools the body
b. Alcohol stimulates the appetite for most people
c. Since alcohol is legal, it is not classified as a drug
d. Intake of alcohol along with raw seafood reduces the chances of contracting hepatitis
Matching
01. Example of an anabolic reaction
02. Example of a catabolic reaction
03. A protein that accelerates a chemical reaction
04. A small non-protein organic substance that promotes optimal activity of an enzyme
05. A product of glycolysis
06. A product of pyruvate metabolism when oxygen is limited
07. The oxidation product of pyruvate
08. A recycling process of converting lactate to glucose
09. An irreversible reaction
10. The part of a triglyceride that is convertible to glucose
11. A product of deamination
12. Amino acids that are convertible to glucose
13. The principal nitrogen-containing waste product
14. Waste product of the electron transport chain
15. A storage form of carbohydrate
16. The major energy fuel for the central nervous system
17. A ketone
18. An enzyme with activity levels related to a person’s sex
19. A coenzyme required for metabolism of alcohol
20. A system for metabolizing drugs and alcohol
A. NAD
B. Urea
C. MEOS
D. Water
E. Glucose
F. Enzyme
G. Glycogen
H. Glycerol
I. Ammonia
J. Coenzyme
K. Cori cycle
L. Lactate
M. Acetoacetate
N. Acetyl CoA
O. Pyruvate
P. Glucogenic
Q. Gastric alcohol dehydrogenase
R. Synthesis of pyruvate from glycogen
S. Synthesis of cholesterol from acetate
T. Synthesis of acetyl CoA from glucose
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