Chapter 1 – name
Chapter 16 – Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence
Multiple Choice
01. What would be a normal body weight after 1 year for a healthy infant with a birthweight of 8 lbs?
a. 12 lbs
b. 16 lbs
c. 24 lbs
d. 35 lbs
02. What is the approximate energy requirement of infants, in kcalories per kilogram body weight?
a. 25
b. 35
c. 75
d. 100
03. All of the following are features of nutrition and metabolism in infancy except
a. the infant’s brain uses about 60% of the daily energy intake.
b. the fat in breast milk provides most of the energy to support rapid growth.
c. the infant’s brain is larger relative to the size of the body and therefore uses more energy.
d. the protein content in breast milk can be high enough to occasionally induce protein overload.
04. Infants showing symptoms of acidosis, dehydration, diarrhea, elevated blood ammonia and urea, and fever may be reacting to the nutritional problem of
a. protein overload.
b. milk protein intolerance.
c. carbohydrate intolerance.
d. insufficient protein and energy.
05. Which of the following is a feature of energy metabolism in infancy?
a. Infants fed fat-free milk are at risk for protein overload
b. Most of the energy in breast milk is derived from lactose
c. The brain of an infant uses less glucose than that of an adult
d. Infants require about 25% more energy than adults when expressed per kg body weight
06. The recommended amounts of vitamins and minerals for infants are based on the
a. average amounts present in body tissues of thriving infants.
b. adult RDA scaled down to infants on a per kg body weight basis.
c. older child’s RDA scaled down to the infant on a per kg body weight basis.
d. average amounts ingested by thriving infants breastfed by well-nourished mothers.
07. When expressed per kilogram body weight, the nutrient needs of infants are markedly higher than those of adults for all of the following nutrients except
a. iron.
b. iodine.
c. vitamin C.
d. vitamin D.
08. Which of the following is a feature of water in infancy?
a. Breastfed infants in hot, dry climates need supplemental water
b. Bottle-fed infants in hot, dry climates need supplemental water
c. Much of the infant’s body water content is located extracellularly
d. Conditions such as diarrhea and vomiting may be successfully treated with lower doses of adult medications
09. All of the following are characteristics of breastfeeding frequency and duration except
a. an early sign of hunger is increased alertness, whereas a late sign is crying.
b. during the first few weeks of life, the infant will demand 8-12 feedings per day.
c. the infant obtains almost one-half the milk during the first 2-3 minutes of sucking.
d. more infrequent and short-duration feedings are preferable to stimulate lactation and breast-filling.
10. All of the following are features of breast milk composition except
a. there is no casein in breast milk, unlike in cow’s milk.
b. the carbohydrate is lactose, which enhances calcium absorption.
c. the concentration of protein is slightly higher than for cow’s milk.
d. the proportion of energy contributed by fat is much higher than that recommended for adults.
11. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the Canadian Pediatric Society, breastfeeding of full-term infants is
a. optional.
b. mildly recommended.
c. moderately recommended.
d. strongly recommended.
12. What is the chief reason that breast-fed infants usually need to eat more frequently than formula-fed infants?
a. Breast milk contains less fat
b. Breast milk is digested faster
c. Breast milk is less nutrient dense
d. The amount of milk consumed per feeding is lower in breast-fed infants
13. For optimal breast-feeding benefits, it is recommended that the infant be encouraged to suckle on each breast for about
a. 1-2 minutes.
b. 5 minutes.
c. 10-15 minutes.
d. 30 minutes.
14. What is the chief protein in human breast milk?
a. Casein
b. Lactose
c. Albumin
d. Alpha-lactalbumin
15. Which of the following is a feature of infant development and nutrition?
a. It is generally easier to overfeed a breast-fed infant than a formula-fed infant
b. Breast-fed infants are at high risk of iron deficiency for the first 6 months of life
c. For optimal development, infants should be transitioned to formula after one year of breast-feeding
d. Breast-fed infants generally score higher on tests of mental development than do formula-fed infants
16. Which of the following is a finding of the importance of fatty acid intake for preterm infants fed formulas?
a. Formulas enriched with oleic acid led to reduced atherogenic plaque by age five compared with standard formulas
b. Formulas enriched with omega-3 fatty acids led to increased brain cell number compared with standard formulas
c. Formulas enriched with docosahexaenoic acid and arachidonic acid resulted in improved visual acuity compared with standard formulas
d. Formulas enriched with equal amounts of omega-3, omega-6, and omega-9 fatty acids led to lower prevalence of obesity after two years compared with standard formulas
17. Breast milk as the sole source of nutrition, up to the first 6 months in healthy infants, is satisfactory for all nutrients except
a. sodium.
b. vitamin D.
c. iron and folate.
d. zinc and vitamin A.
18. Nutrient characteristics of human breast milk include all of the following except
a. the sodium content is low.
b. the zinc is highly bioavailable.
c. the iron is highly bioavailable.
d. the vitamin D content meets optimal growth requirements.
19. Which of the following vitamin-mineral supplements need not be prescribed for an infant breastfed beyond 6 months of age?
a. Iron
b. Fluoride
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
20. What is colostrum?
a. A clot in the bloodstream
b. A major protein in breast milk
c. A hormone that promotes milk production
d. A milk-like substance secreted right after delivery
21. Which of the following is an advantage of breastfeeding compared with formula feeding?
a. There is no limit to the supply
b. It provides immunological protection
c. The mother can be sure the baby is getting enough milk
d. It is the only way to develop a true loving relationship with the baby
22. Compared with cow’s milk, breast milk contains
a. less protein and calcium.
b. less lactose and vitamin C.
c. more fat and less carbohydrate.
d. more energy and less vitamin E.
23. Which of the following sources of nutrition for infants is least likely to become contaminated with microorganisms?
a. Soy formula
b. Breast milk
c. Iron-fortified formula
d. Liquid concentrate formula
24. Which of the following is associated with bifidus factors?
a. Increased iron absorption
b. Increased bacterial growth
c. Decreased allergy protection
d. Decreased hormone production
25. What factor in breast milk binds iron and prevents it from supporting the growth of the infant’s intestinal bacteria?
a. Colostrum
b. Lactoferrin
c. Hemoferritin
d. Bifidus factor
26. What is lactadherin?
a. An iron-binding protein in breast milk
b. A vitamin D-binding protein in breast milk
c. A breast milk protein that inactivates a GI virus that causes diarrhea
d. A protein supplement to infant formulas that simulates the digestibility properties of alpha-lactalbumin
27. You are presenting a talk on the benefits of breastfeeding to a group of new mothers with a Peace Corps group in Zimbabwe. There have been numerous cases of infant diarrhea within this population over the past several years. Why is breastfeeding especially important under these circumstances?
a. The emotional bonding enhances the overall health of the infant
b. The lactoferrin protein present in breast milk stimulates T-cell immunity
c. The lactadherin protein present in breast milk attacks diarrhea-causing viruses
d. Breast milk as a source of nutrition limits the feeding of other foods which may be contaminated
28. To gradually replace breast milk with infant formula or other foods appropriate to an infant’s diet is to
a. feed.
b. wean.
c. nurse.
d. breastfeed.
29. All of the following are features of breast milk banks except
a. the milk is pasteurized.
b. the milk consists of a pool from several lactating mothers.
c. the source of the breast milk is donations from lactating mothers.
d. they accept milk from mothers who smoke cigarettes but not marijuana.
30. Which of the following describes the results of studies on weight gain of people who were either breastfed or formula fed?
a. Adolescents who were mostly breastfed for the first 6 months of life were less overweight than those fed formula
b. Adults 21-25 years of age who had been formula fed showed similar BMIs to those who had been breastfed for at least 6 months
c. The body weight of mothers who breastfed was not a factor in their child’s body weight, whereas the body weight of mothers who bottle-fed was strongly related
d. The benefits of breast feeding on body weight of infants are observed only for the first 3 months of feeding, whereas the changes in body weight of infants who are formula-fed is linear for the first year
31. Which of the following formulas is available for infants with lactose intolerance?
a. Egg
b. Soy
c. Barley
d. Powdered cow’s milk
32. Which of the following is a feature of infant soy formulas?
a. They are used in about 1% of the infant population
b. They contain cornstarch and sucrose rather than lactose
c. They are identical to milk-based formulas except for the protein source
d. They are not acceptable to vegan families because the formulas contain omega-3 fatty acids from fish
33. Features of infant formulas include all of the following except
a. they contain antibodies.
b. they breed bacteria in bottles left at room temperature.
c. they typically contain over twice the amount of iron compared with breast milk.
d. they contain fat and carbohydrate at concentrations resembling those in breast milk.
34. What type of formula is available for infants with milk allergy?
a. Egg
b. Soy
c. Meat
d. Peanut
35. Which of the following is a common source of lead poisoning in infants?
a. Maternal passage of lead to fetus
b. Baby bottles made from lead crystal
c. Contaminated water used to make infant formula
d. Preparation of infant formula in galvanized containers
36. What is the most realistic advice for reducing lead exposure from the tap water used to prepare infant formula?
a. Because the lead in hot water pipes settles out overnight, draw the water from this source first
b. Whenever possible, boil the water to vaporize the lead and thus decrease the amount remaining in the water
c. Because the first water drawn from the tap each day is highest in lead, let the water run a few minutes before using it
d. To inhibit lead absorption, add a small amount of citrus juice to the water to provide citric acid to complex with the lead
37. Goat’s milk is inappropriate for infants due to its low content of
a. iron.
b. folate.
c. protein.
d. calcium.
38. An infant diagnosed with “goat’s milk anemia” is most likely deficient in
a. iron.
b. folate.
c. vitamin B6.
d. vitamin B12.
39. Which of the following defines nursing bottle tooth decay?
a. Caries development resulting from frequent use of non-sterile bottles and nipples
b. Bacterial attack of teeth due to severe tooth misalignment from sucking on oversized bottle nipples
c. Marked tooth decay of an infant due to prolonged exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle
d. Tooth decay resulting from constant exposure to food due to inability of the infant to swallow normally
40. What term defines the condition of infant tooth deterioration resulting from chronic exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle?
a. Juice bottle erosion
b. Suckling enamelosis
c. Formula-induced gingivitis
d. Nursing bottle tooth decay
41. During the first year of life, cow’s milk is considered an inappropriate food due to all of the following except
a. it is too low in iron.
b. it is too low in sodium.
c. it is too high in protein.
d. it is too low in vitamin C.
42. Which of the following should not be used to feed an infant?
a. Whole milk
b. Ready-to-feed formula
c. Liquid concentrate formula appropriately diluted
d. Powdered formula or evaporated milk formula appropriately reconstituted
43. Approximately what percentage of infants are born prematurely?
a. 4
b. 12
c. 20
d. 33
44. Which of the following feeding practices is recommended for preterm infants?
a. They should be fed exclusively on breast milk
b. They should be fed on breast milk enriched in a 1 to 1 ratio with cow’s milk
c. They should be fed preterm breast milk, occasionally fortified with specific nutrients
d. They should be fed only on special formulas because the nutrient content of breast milk is too low
45. Low-fat or nonfat milk should not be given routinely to a child until after the age of
a. two weeks.
b. three months.
c. two years.
d. six years.
46. What is beikost?
a. An oral rehydration solution
b. A term that describes a type of malnutrition in infants
c. A term that describes any nonmilk food offered to an infant
d. A fermented milk product used as a substitute for breast milk
47. Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants?
a. Two weeks
b. Two months
c. Five months
d. One year
48. At what age does the normal infant first develop the ability to swallow solid food?
a. 3-5 weeks
b. 26-32 weeks
c. 4-6 months
d. 9-12 months
49. Why should new foods be introduced to an infant one at a time?
a. It prevents overfeeding
b. Any allergic reactions can be detected
c. Immunological protection hasn’t been developed
d. The swallowing reflex is not under voluntary control
50. What should be the first cereal introduced to the infant?
a. Oat
b. Corn
c. Rice
d. Wheat
51. Roberta’s first child is now 8 months old. Roberta has been breastfeeding and would like to begin to introduce solids foods. She read somewhere to introduce one food at a time to the infant. Which of the following would be the best choice for the first food to introduce to the baby?
a. Oats
b. Rice
c. Wheat
d. Barley
52. Which of the following nutrients need to be supplied first by solid foods in a baby’s diet?
a. Vitamin C and iron
b. Vitamin A and zinc
c. Vitamin B12 and fluoride
d. Vitamin E and magnesium
53. Infants should not be given canned vegetables due to excessive amounts of
a. tin.
b. fiber.
c. sodium.
d. botulinum spores.
54. Infants fed honey or corn syrup are at increased risk for
a. obesity.
b. botulism.
c. osteopenia.
d. type 1 diabetes.
55. Of the following cereals, which is most likely to result in an allergic reaction upon first feeding?
a. Oat
b. Rice
c. Corn
d. Wheat
56. What is the principal reason that information about fat on food labels of infant foods is intentionally omitted?
a. To prevent parents from restricting their infants’ fat intake
b. Infants have a rapid growth rate and will adjust their overall food intake to meet their needs
c. By law, the fat content is uniformly set at 30% of total energy for all infant foods and therefore is not required to be listed
d. By law, the fat content must have equivalent amounts of saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fats to provide between 30 and 35% of total energy
57. All of the following are characteristics of vegetarian diets and infancy except
a. infants weaned to vegan diets show significant slowing of growth.
b. the risk for inadequate intakes of vitamins B12 and D are significant.
c. rice milk may substitute for other beverages from the age of 12 months and on.
d. infants and children in vegetarian families should be given iron-fortified foods well into the second year.
58. Which of the following is the primary factor in the development of milk anemia?
a. Impaired absorption of iron
b. Excessive intake of cow’s milk
c. Low iron content of breast milk
d. Insufficient intake of whole cow’s milk
59. A child who drinks a lot of milk at the expense of other foods is at high risk of showing signs of
a. anemia.
b. rickets.
c. hyperkeratosis.
d. ariboflavinosis.
60. The consumption of milk by children should not exceed 4 cups per day in order to lower the risk for
a. solute overload.
b. iron deficiency.
c. vitamin A toxicity.
d. vitamin D toxicity.
61. Young children who drink more than 2 to 3½ cups of milk a day are most likely at increased risk for deficiency of
a. iron.
b. folate.
c. vitamin A.
d. vitamin C.
62. What should be the parent’s response when a one-year-old child wants to clumsily spoon-feed himself?
a. Punish the child
b. Let the child eat with his fingers instead
c. Let the child try to feed himself so that he will learn
d. Gently take the spoon back and feed the child with it
63. Which of the following is associated with energy metabolism of the preschool child?
a. Food intake is remarkably similar from meal to meal
b. Overweight individuals have appetites similar to normal weight individuals
c. Energy needs per kg body weight increase from 1 year of age to 5 years of age
d. A 1-year-old who needs 800 kcal/day would require only about 1600 kcal at 6 years of age
64. Approximately how many kcal per day does an average 6 year old need to obtain?
a. 500
b. 800
c. 1600
d. 2400
65. How much more total energy does a normal-weight 10 year old need vs. a 1 year old?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 150%
d. 200%
66. A reasonable daily fiber intake for a 5 year old would be
a. 2 g.
b. 5 g.
c. 25 g.
d. 45 g.
67. What is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency among U.S. and Canadian children?
a. iron
b. protein
c. calcium
d. vitamin C
68. Which of the following is a characteristic of fat in the diet of children?
a. The recommended daily fat intake up to age 12 is age plus 20 g
b. There is an RDA for total fat for children beginning at 3 years of age
c. Low-fat diets usually provide sufficient amounts of the micronutrients
d. Fat intakes below 30% of total energy do not impair growth provided that total energy intake is adequate
69. Which of the following is a characteristic of meal planning for children?
a. The most popular fruit eaten by children aged 15-18 months is the apple
b. Children 1½ years of age consume more French fries than any other vegetable
c. The MyPyramid for children is designed for 1- to 5-year-olds and is suitable for assisting in meal planning
d. Approximately 75% of children are able to meet their nutrient needs according to their MyPyramid plan
70. Which of the following is a characteristic of hunger and behavior in children?
a. Children who fail to eat breakfast typically become hyperactive after eating lunch
b. The nutrient deficit arising from skipping a breakfast is usually made up over the following 2 days
c. Children who eat nutritious breakfasts are absent from school less often than their friends who do not
d. Although breakfast-skippers show reduced attention spans, their scores on intelligence tests remain unaffected
71. Which of the following is the most likely reason that teachers promote the consumption of midmorning snacks for children?
a. It provides an opportunity to learn about nutrition
b. It meets federally mandated school nutrition guidelines
c. It provides carbohydrate for maintenance of blood glucose and brain function
d. It helps decrease the symptoms of attention-deficit-hyperactivity disorder in 5% of school-age children
72. Which of the following is characteristic of children who regularly eat breakfast or skip breakfast?
a. Breakfast-skippers actually show lower scores on IQ tests than those who eat breakfast
b. Attention spans are similar but a significant number of breakfast-skippers show hyperglycemia
c. Breakfast-skippers initially show decreased mental performance but with time they adapt and show almost identical achievements
d. Breakfast-skippers who change to eating breakfast show a temporary improvement in mental concentration but also a moderate degree of hypoglycemia
73. Jenny is a 13-year-old Hare Krishna who follows a vegan diet due to religious beliefs. She has not been performing as well as her non-vegetarian study friend on math tests and has been very upset about it. The teacher reports to Jenny’s mom that she does not appear focused during lessons and can’t seem to concentrate on her school work. Which of the following may provide a likely explanation?
a. The diet doesn’t provide enough energy for her to stay alert
b. The diet provides insufficient bioavailable iron and she many be anemic
c. The diet contains insufficient calcium and protein, which impairs intellectual performance
d. The high fiber content of a vegan diet that promotes stool formation increases the urge to evacuate, which interferes with her ability to concentrate
74. All of the following are features of iron nutrition in children except
a. anemia makes children more disruptive.
b. general symptoms of iron deficiency are similar to those of mild lead toxicity.
c. the brain appears to be less sensitive to iron deficiency than the rest of the body.
d. children who had iron-deficiency anemia as infants do not show normal school performance even after iron status improved.
75. Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency in children?
a. It affects brain function before anemia sets in
b. It rarely develops in those with high intakes of milk
c. It is the primary factor in tension-fatigue syndrome
d. Mild deficiency enhances mental performance by lowering physical activity level thereby leading to increased attention span
76. Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition and behavior in children?
a. Iron-deficient children respond better to liquid preparations of Fe+3 than to tablets of Fe+2
b. Children who had iron-deficiency anemia as infants perform poorly even after iron status improves
c. Iron supplements can reverse the symptoms and restore normal behavior in children suffering from mild lead toxicity.
d. The child’s brain is not as responsive to iron as is the adult brain, which accounts for the more severe effects of deprivation
77. All of the following are characteristics of hyperactivity in children except
a. treatment with medications is used in many cases.
b. excessive amounts of sugar may cause or aggravate hyperactivity.
c. hyperactivity affects around 5-10% of young school-aged children.
d. the attention span is reduced considerably and sleep patterns are adversely affected.
78. What is the prevalence of hyperactivity in children?
a. 5-10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25-35%
79. All of the following are characteristics of hyperactivity in children except
a. it impairs learning ability.
b. it occurs in approximately 5-10% of young, school-age individuals.
c. it is managed, in part, by prescribing stimulant drugs when necessary.
d. in many cases, it responds favorably to dietary manipulations such as limiting sugar intake.
80. All of the following are common signs of mild lead toxicity except
a. diarrhea.
b. lethargy.
c. dermatitis.
d. irritability.
81. Which of the following is a characteristic of lead exposure and health?
a. Absorption of lead is higher on an empty stomach
b. Lead toxicity is most prevalent in children around the time of puberty
c. Lead-induced anemia is similar to the anemia of vitamin B12 deficiency
d. The symptoms of lead toxicity can be reversed by adding iron to the diet
82. What is the term given to the child who is hyperactive with severe and impulsive behavior?
a. Food hypersensitivity
b. Fetal alcohol syndrome
c. Caffeine hypersensitivity
d. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
83. A child who develops antibodies to a certain food is said to have a
a. food allergy.
b. food intolerance.
c. specific inducible episode.
d. transient immune suppression.
84. An adverse reaction to food that does not signal the body to form antibodies is termed a
a. food allergy.
b. food intolerance.
c. mild food challenge.
d. transient food episode.
85. Which of the following is a characteristic of a food allergy?
a. It always elicits symptoms in the person
b. It always involves the production of antibodies
c. It always shows up immediately after exposure to the allergic food
d. It is elicited from very small, simple molecules as well as large, complex molecules
86. You have just started work as a summer camp counselor and completed a training session for all the new employees on safety. Counselors were instructed to prohibit campers from eating peanut butter and jelly sandwiches anywhere other than the cafeteria. You believe that the most likely explanation for this rule is to
a. prevent food poisoning.
b. help keep the facilities clean.
c. minimize jelly exposure for campers with jelly allergies.
d. minimize peanut exposure for campers with peanut allergies.
87. Which of the following foods are most often the cause of allergies?
a. Eggs, peanuts, and milk
b. Bananas, juice, and cola
c. Apples, noodles, and rice
d. Pears, oatmeal, and chocolate
88. What food is responsible for the most life-threatening allergic reactions in people?
a. Eggs
b. Peanuts
c. Shellfish
d. Cow’s milk
89. A life-threatening whole-body allergic reaction is known as
a. anaphylactic shock.
b. hyperhistamine response.
c. hyporespiratory syndrome.
d. wheezing food intolerance.
90. A child known to be allergic to peanuts who begins to show signs such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the tongue, and severe abdominal discomfort is most likely in immediate need of a life-saving injection of
a. cortisone.
b. serotonin.
c. epinephrine.
d. acetylcholine.
91. All of the following are features of food allergies except
a. they can be diagnosed only by testing for antibodies.
b. allergic reactions to food may appear immediately or 24 hours later.
c. the presence of antibodies always coincides with physical symptoms.
d. once a food allergy is diagnosed, it is imperative that the offending food be totally eliminated.
92. People who show adverse reactions to foods such as increased pulse rate, nausea, and hives, but do not show antibodies to the offending foods, are displaying
a. food intolerances.
b. delayed allergies.
c. subtherapeutic allergies.
d. undiagnosed food toxicities.
93. A child with a true allergy to milk is actually allergic to the milk’s
a. casein.
b. lactose.
c. medium-chain fats.
d. bovine growth hormone.
94. If a child is allergic to soy, which of the following should be avoided?
a. Milk
b. Diglycerides
c. Peanut butter
d. Textured vegetable protein
95. Approximately what percentage of U.S. children between 2 and 19 years of age are overweight?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 11
d. 17
96. Which of the following is a characteristic of obesity in childhood?
a. The typical obese child does not learn food behaviors from his family
b. A nonobese child of nonobese parents has a less than 10% chance of becoming obese in adulthood
c. An obese adolescent with one obese parent has virtually a 100% chance of becoming obese in adulthood
d. The typical obese child today has approximately the same energy intake as did children 30 years ago
97. What population group consumes the most soft drinks each day at school?
a. Teenage boys
b. Teenage girls
c. Pre-teen boys
d. Pre-teen girls
98. The typical can of soft drink contains the equivalent of how many teaspoons of sugar?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 7
d. 10
99. Five cans of soft drinks provide approximately how many kcalories?
a. 25
b. 125
c. 415
d. 750
100. To help improve a child’s BMI, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends limiting television and video time to how many hours per day?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
101. All of the following describe influences of television and video gaming on nutrition except
a. children who have a television in their bedrooms are more likely to be overweight than those who do not.
b. the viewing of television and playing of video games requires the expenditure of no more energy than basal metabolism.
c. children who watch television for 4 or more hours per day are least likely to eat fruits and vegetables and most likely to be obese.
d. children are exposed to thousands of TV commercials each year but their requests for advertised foods are rarely heeded by their parents.
102. All of the following are typical growth characteristics of overweight children except
a. they begin puberty earlier.
b. they can achieve a normal appearance after losing excess fat.
c. they develop greater bone and muscle mass in response to carrying the extra weight.
d. they grow taller than their normal-weight peers at first, but then stop growing at a shorter height.
103. Which of the following two conditions are associated with television’s influence?
a. Obesity and high blood lipids
b. Anorexia and nutrient deficiencies
c. Drug abuse and teenage pregnancy
d. Hyperactivity and lower body weight
104. What is the most likely explanation for the increased prevalence of obesity in children over the past 30 years?
a. They eat more snacks
b. They sleep more hours
c. They consume more sugar
d. They are less active physically
105. What is the leading cause of high blood pressure in children?
a. Obesity
b. High sodium intake
c. Insufficient calcium intake
d. Insufficient potassium intake
106. Which of the following is a feature of nutrition and behavior in children?
a. Hyperactivity responds favorably to a low-sugar diet
b. The adverse effects from caffeine first appear only after drinking 6 cans of cola in one day
c. Television commercials featuring snack foods have been found to affect children’s food preferences
d. Because most children are sensitive to the stimulating effects of caffeine, they are able to control their intake of cola beverages
107. Mike is a 10-year-old inactive child who weighs 150 pounds. He has come to your practice with his parents for help on losing weight. What advice should be given to the parents?
a. Reduce his energy intake by 50 kcalories per day
b. Reduce his energy intake by 100 kcalories per day
c. Encourage a weight loss goal of 5 lbs per month
d. Maintain weight and do not encourage weight loss during growth and development
108. Why is it recommended that overweight children not follow a low-kcalorie diet?
a. It can lead to a lowering of self-esteem
b. Children’s school performance can deteriorate
c. Most children are unable to learn new food habits
d. Diet restriction can interfere with growth and development
109. To lower the risk of obesity in children, which of the following practices should parents institute for their children?
a. Serve them smaller portions
b. Serve them 3 meals a day without dessert
c. Teach them to take appropriate food portions
d. Serve them more beverages and less solid food
110. Which of the following is an effective strategy for dealing with obesity in a child?
a. Encourage the individual to eat quickly and then leave the table
b. Teach the individual to take small portions first and then second helpings only if still hungry
c. Institute new eating habits such as teaching the individual to clean the food plate
d. Take control and strongly encourage the individual to lose weight by limiting food intake and regular vigorous exercise
111. Even in preschoolers whose habits are being established, existing dietary attitudes are relatively resistant to change. How should wise parents react?
a. Be patient and persistent
b. Impose their own eating habits on the children
c. Wait until the children start school to initiate changes
d. Exert continuous pressure to initiate good food habits
112. Which of the following steps should be undertaken by the parent or guardian to ensure that young people eat well?
a. Control the availability of food
b. Control the consumption of food
c. Prohibit eating except at mealtime
d. Provide an emotional climate that discourages snacking
113. Which of the following practices is not among the recommendations to help children develop an interest in vegetables?
a. Serve vegetables warm, not hot
b. Serve vegetables separately on the plate
c. Serve vegetables undercooked and crunchy
d. Serve vegetables with the promise that after they are eaten, dessert will follow
114. Who is best able to manage the growth and weight gain of overweight children?
a. School nurse
b. Parents/caregivers
c. Health-care professional
d. School physical education instructor
115. All of the following are food preferences in children except
a. hot foods are preferred to warm ones.
b. smooth foods are preferred to lumpy ones.
c. raw vegetables are preferred to cooked ones.
d. green and yellow vegetables are often rejected.
116. All of the following are features of snacking in children except
a. snacking should never be permitted.
b. sweet snacks are preferred to bland ones.
c. snacks should be as nutritious as regular meal foods.
d. children select healthier snacks when their parents are watching.
117. Which of the following is not among the recommended methods for introducing new foods to children?
a. Offer foods one at a time
b. Offer foods in small amounts
c. Create a pleasant eating atmosphere
d. Present new foods at the end of the meal
118. If a child is reluctant to try a new food, it is best to
a. send the child to his/her room.
b. withhold dessert until all food on the plate is eaten.
c. quietly remove it and present it again at another time.
d. encourage other family members to coax the child to eat it.
119. When children are allowed to eat freely from a variety of foods, they usually select foods that are high in
a. iron.
b. fiber.
c. sugar.
d. protein.
120. The single most effective way to teach nutrition to children is by
a. example.
b. punishment.
c. singling out only hazardous nutrition practices for attention.
d. explaining the importance of eating new foods as a prerequisite for dessert.
121. What minimum fraction of the RDA for key nutrients for children 10-12 years of age should be provided by public school lunches?
a. 1/8
b. 1/4
c. 1/3
d. 1/2
122. Which of the following is a feature of public school food programs?
a. They must follow the Dietary Guidelines for Americans
b. They allow for low-fat menus while still meeting the needs for iron
c. They ensure a lunch period long enough to consume the entire meal
d. They are overwhelmingly preferred over the foods obtained by students through on-site vending machines and snack bars
123. All of the following are influences that undermine healthful food intake and food selection at schools except
a. reducing the prices of nutritious foods does not promote their purchase by students.
b. students may bring unhealthful lunches to school rather than consume the school lunch.
c. short lunch periods and long waiting lines prevent some students from eating lunch.
d. consumption of pizza and soft drinks sold at schools resulted in lower calcium and vitamin A intakes and higher energy intakes than consumption of school lunches.
124. The adolescent growth spurt
a. affects the brain primarily.
b. decreases total nutrient needs.
c. affects every organ except the brain.
d. begins and ends earlier in girls than in boys.
125. What is the approximate time period of the adolescent growth spurt?
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2½ years
d. 6 years
126. Which of the following is a characteristic of the adolescent period?
a. Obesity occurs more often in African-American females
b. Appetite for red meat increases in females to meet iron needs
c. More nutrient-dense foods are needed by males because of their faster development
d. The risk for calcium insufficiency is greatest in males due to their high intake of soft drinks
127. All of the following are features of the iron RDA for adolescents except
a. the RDA for 13-year-old males and females is about the same.
b. the RDA increases during the growth spurt for both males and females.
c. iron intakes often do not meet increasing needs for growth for males and females.
d. the frequency of iron deficiency is similar among males and females of the same age.
128. A local high school has just added milk to the vending machines. Parents were very supportive of this change; however, not all the students believe this is useful. You have a few minutes to speak to the student body, and your talk should
a. emphasize that the milk will be priced lower than the other beverages.
b. mention that the other beverages like soda have CO2, which increases the risk for heartburn.
c. point out that milk is a good source of calcium, which is required for teens during peak bone growth.
d. explain how milk contains important nutrients that lower the risk for anemia, especially in teenage girls.
129. What is menarche?
a. A female’s time of first menstruation
b. The adolescent growth spurt in males
c. The adolescent growth spurt in females
d. A borderline anemia state in adolescents
130. Adolescent women may fail to reach peak bone mass for all of the following reasons except
a. their intakes of milk decline during their growth spurts.
b. lactose intolerance begins to intensify during the teenage years.
c. the requirements for calcium are relatively high during this life stage.
d. low physical activity provides little stimulus for enhancing bone mass and calcium retention.
131. All of the following are characteristics of adolescents’ food intakes except
a. the consumption of milk and fruit juices occurs primarily at breakfast.
b. eating dinner more often with families reduces the likelihood of smoking, drinking, and drug use.
c. eating with families results in higher intake of fruits and calcium-dense foods than eating few family meals.
d. eating breakfast results in higher overall daily intakes of protein and fat but unchanged intakes of iron and zinc compared with breakfast skippers.
132. Which of the following is a feature of beverage intake in adolescents?
a. Juice intake is spread throughout the day
b. Milk intake occurs primarily between meals
c. Males are more likely to drink less milk than are females
d. Four standard colas a day provides enough caffeine to alter behavior
133. Approximately how much caffeine is delivered by a typical cola beverage?
a. 5-20 mg
b. 30-55 mg
c. 75 mg
d. 150 mg
134. What is considered to be the minimum pharmacologically active dose of caffeine?
a. 5 mg
b. 100 mg
c. 200 mg
d. 500 mg
135. Approximately what fraction of an average teenager’s daily energy intake is derived from snacks?
a. 1/4
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 2/3
136. About how many meals each week are eaten outside the home by adolescents?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 12
d. 15
137. Approximately what percentage of high school seniors admit having used marijuana at least once?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 50
138. Which of the following is a characteristic of marijuana use?
a. Appetite for sweet foods is increased
b. Regular use leads to excessive weight gain
c. Smoking it dulls the sense of taste and smell
d. The active ingredient is cleared from the body within 24 hours
139. Which of the following is a characteristic of use of the drug ecstasy?
a. Its primary action is on the liver
b. It leads to low body temperature
c. Using it regularly leads to weight loss
d. Its potency is increased when taken with caffeinated beverages
140. Associations between cigarette smoking and nutrition include all of the following except
a. smokers have blunted hunger sensations.
b. smokers have higher intakes of carotene-rich foods.
c. smokers have lower body weights than nonsmokers.
d. smokers degrade vitamin C faster than nonsmokers.
141. A cigarette smoker who is planning to quit should expect a weight gain in the first year of about
a. 2 lbs.
b. 5 lbs.
c. 10 lbs.
d. 18 lbs.
142. Which of the following is a characteristic of tobacco use and adolescents?
a. Smoking cigarettes increases the feeling of hunger
b. Smokers require more vitamin C to maintain body stores
c. Tobacco users in this population group are advised to take supplements of beta-carotene
d. The risk of mouth cancer is slightly lower for users of smokeless tobacco compared with smokers
143. All of the following are characteristics in the development of atherosclerosis except
a. fatty streaks may begin to form within the first 10 years of life.
b. once plaque is formed, it can be contained but cannot regress.
c. it is possible for people to age with little arterial plaque formation.
d. heart disease rates due to atherosclerosis rise most dramatically at around age 45 in males and 55 in females.
144. The association of cholesterol to the health of children is described by all of the following except
a. cholesterol intake should be limited beginning at 2 years of age.
b. blood cholesterol levels in children are good predictors of their adult levels.
c. there appears to be only a very weak correlation between obesity in children and their blood cholesterol levels.
d. serum cholesterol is higher in children viewing television for 2 hours per day compared with more active individuals.
145. All of the following are associations between physical activity in children and body weight or blood lipids except
a. physically active children tend to grow into physically active adults, and vice versa.
b. physically active children weigh less and also smoke less than their less active peers.
c. physically active children show a healthier blood lipid profile than their less active peers.
d. physically active children respond differently than do physically active adults towards changes in blood lipids.
146. All of the following are characteristics of blood cholesterol in children except
a. acceptable total cholesterol levels are up to 240 mg/d.
b. cholesterol levels at birth are similar in all populations.
c. childhood obesity and high cholesterol levels show a strong association.
d. children with high cholesterol levels usually have parents with high cholesterol levels.
Matching
01. Expected weight, in pounds, of an infant with a birthweight of seven pounds at one year
02. Typical daily energy need, in kcalories per kg body weight, of an infant
03. Essential fatty acid in breast milk
04. Chief protein in human breast milk
05. Chief protein in cow’s milk
06. Nutrient that is low in human milk but adequate in infant formulas
07. Pre-milk substance from the breast, containing antibodies
08. Substance in breast milk that promotes growth of beneficial bacteria in the intestines
09. Substance in breast milk that deprives intestinal bacteria of iron
10. Process whereby breast milk is gradually replaced by formula or semi-solid foods
11. A breast milk protein that fights virus-induced diarrhea
12. Low content of this nutrient makes goat’s milk inappropriate for infants
13. Deficiency of this nutrient in children shows symptoms similar to mild lead toxicity
14. Another term for supplemental or weaning foods
15. Possible source of infant botulism
16. Approximate percentage of young children diagnosed with food allergies
17. Substance given to prevent anaphylactic shock in people with food allergies
18. Percent chance of becoming an obese adult for an obese teen with one obese parent
19. Period in life when an individual becomes physically capable of reproduction
20. Percentage of teenagers who report trying marijuana
A. 6
B. 21
C. 50
D. 80
E. 100
F. Iron
G. Casein
H. Folate
I. Honey
J. Beikost
K. Puberty
L. Linoleic
M. Weaning
N. Vitamin D
O. Colostrum
P. Lactoferrin
Q. Lactadherin
R. Epinephrine
S. Bifidus factors
T. Alpha-lactalbumin
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