1 - Indiana State University
1 The internal environment to tissue cells in a human body is ____.
A. the cytoplasm C. interstitial fluid surrounding the cells
B. abdominal and thoracic cavities
2 How much blood does an average-size man have?
A. 1-2 liter C. 5-6 liter
B. 3-4 liter D. 7-8 liter
3 Blood has all of the following functions except
A. nutrient transport. D. hormone production.
B. heat distribution. E. pH buffering
C. clotting.
4 The blood has all of the following properties except _____.
A. pH 7.35-7.45 C. 38 (C
B. B. 280-295 mOsm D. less viscose than water
5 What percent of total blood can a healthy adult donate each time without adverse effects?
A. 10% D. 40%
B. 20% E. 50%
C. 30%
6 The formed elements of the blood include all of the followings except ____.
A. plasma proteins C. neutrophils
B. erythrocytes D. platelets
7 What percent of the blood is plasma?
A. ~10% D. ~70%
B. ~30% E. ~90%
C. ~50%
8 After birth, the blood cells are generated primarily in
A. the yolk sac. D. red bone marrow
B. the spleen. E. the heart
C. the liver
9 Which of the following cell type is the most abundant among all blood cells ?
A. neutrophils D. eosinophils
B. erythrocytes E. basophils
C. lymphocytes
10 The erythrocytes contain ____.
A. nuclei B. hemoglobins C. mitochondria
11 Oxygen binds to ___.
A. alpha globin B. beta globin C. heme groups
12 Each hemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of ___ oxygen molecules.
A. one B. two C. three D. four
13 Which molecules can compete with oxygen for the same binding site in hemoglobin and cause severe problems?
A. carbon dioxide B. carbon monoxide C. nitrogen D. hydrogen
14 Red and white blood cells derived from ___ type of stem cells.
A. the same B. different
15 Which hormone stimulates red blood cell production?
A. angiotensin C. erythropoietin
B. aldosterone D. prolactin
16 Erythropoiesis is stimulated when blood ____ content is low.
A. glucose B. pressure C. NaCl D. oxygen
17 The ____ is especially involved in breaking up old erythrocytes and disposing of the cellular remains.
A. spleen D. heart
B. bone marrow E. kidney
C. lung
18 White blood cells serve to
A. transport carbon dioxide. D. transport nutrients.
B. initiate blood clotting. E. defend the body against pathogens.
C. regulate erythropoiesis.
19 The most abundant leukocytes in normal circulating blood are
A. eosinophils. D. monocytes.
B. basophils. E. platelets.
C. neutrophils.
20 ABO blood type is determined by specific glycoproteins (agglutinogens) which are located on ___.
A. cytoplasm of erythrocytes D. plasma membrane of leukocytes
B. plasma membrane of erythrocytes E. membrane of platelets
C. cytoplasm of leukocytes
21 Type AB blood contains ___.
A. A agglutinogens plus B agglutinins
B. both A and B agglutinogens plus both A and B agglutinins
C. A agglutinogens
D. O agglutinogens plus A and B agglutinins
E. B agglutinogens and A agglutinins
22 What happens when a type AB blood is transfused into the blood stream of a type B person?
A. agglutination of the donor’s erythrocytes
B. agglutination of the recipient’s erythrocytes
C. aggregation of the donor’s erythrocytes with the recipient’s erythrocytes
D. aggregation of the donor’s leukocytes with the recipient’s leukocytes
E. agglutination of the donor’s leukocytes
23 Transfusion with wrong blood can cause death due to ___.
A. the loss of leukocytes C. bleeding
B. blockage of blood vessels by erythrocyte aggregates
24 Which Rh-positive new-born baby does not suffer from hemolytic disease if the mother is Rh-negative?
A. the first child B. the second child C. the third child
25 The normal white blood cell count (WBC) is ____.
A. 1,000-4,000/(l B. 4,000-11,000/(l C. 11,000-100,000/(l
26 The primary function of leukocytes is to ____.
A. transport oxygen B. stop bleeding C. phagocytize pathogens
27 Which of the following is not involved in hemostatsis (stoppage of bleeding) ?
A. platelet plug formation D. constriction of the blood vessel
B. agglutination E. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin polymers
C. clot formation
28 Blood clot is not formed in unbroken blood vessels due to two of the following factors.
1) fast blood flow 2) smooth inner surface of blood vessels 3) high leukocyte count 4) high platelet count 5) high erythrocyte count
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 2 and 5 D. 3 and 4 E. 1 and 5
29 Platelets have all of the following properties except that ____.
A. platelets are fragments of megakaryocytes.
B. platelets aggregate at broken blood vessels
C. platelets help repair broken blood vessels.
D. platelets kill bacteria.
E. platelets facilitate coagulation
30 Select the right sequence of phases in a cardiac cycle
A. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation---atrial contraction---ventricular filling---isovolumetric ventricular contraction---ventricular ejection
B. atrial contraction---ventricular filling---isovolumetric ventricular contraction---ventricular ejection---isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
C. ventricular filling---atrial contraction---isovolumetric ventricular contraction---ventricular ejection---isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
D. ventricular filling---atrial contraction---isovolumetric ventricular relaxation---ventricular ejection---isovolumetric ventricular contraction
E. atrial contraction---ventricular filling---isovolumetric ventricular relaxation---ventricular ejection---isovolumetric ventricular contraction
31 Point out the correct sequence of blood flow
A. vena cava ( right atrium ( right ventricle ( pulmonary artery ( pulmonary veins ( left atrium ( left ventricle ( aorta
B. left ventricle ( left atrium ( aorta ( vena cava ( right atrium (right ventricle ( pulmonary artery ( pulmonary veins
C. left ventricle ( right ventricle ( aorta ( vena cava ( right atrium ( pulmonary artery ( pulmonary veins ( left atrium
D. left ventricle ( pulmonary artery ( right ventricle ( aorta ( vena cava ( right atrium ( pulmonary veins ( left atrium
32 Where are natural pacemaker cells are located?
A. AV node B. SA node C. ventricles D. His bundle
33 What structure allows action potentials to be conducted from one myocyte to another?
A. Mitochondria C. sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. pores in intercalated discs D. thick filaments
34 Where is the conduction velocity the slowest?
A. atria C. Purkinje fibers
B. ventricles D. AV node
35 How many times is ventricular contraction triggered by one electrical impulse generated in SA node normally?
A. once C. three times
B. twice D. many times
36 Excitation is defined as ____.
A. the generation of action potentials C. contraction
B. the shorting of muscle fibers
37 Migration of leukocytes following trail of inflammatory molecules is called ___.
A. margination C. chemotaxis
B. diapedesis D. phagocytosis
38 Engulfing pathogens into leukocytes is called ____.
A. margination C. chemotaxis
B. diapedisis D. phagocytosis
39 Electric impulses are conducted to ventricular muscles normally via ____.
A. regular cardiac muscle cells C. Purkinje fibers
B. blood D. A, B, and C
40 Which of the following condition causes a decrease in the pumping efficiency of the heart?
A. sequential contraction of atria and ventricles
B. slow conduction of electric impulses in the ventricles
C. slow conduction of electric impulses in AV node
D. simultaneous contraction of ventricular muscles
41 The amount of blood (ml) ejected by one ventricle within one minute is defined as ___.
A. stroke volume D. cardiac output
B. preload E. afterload
C. ejection fraction
42 ECG is ___.
A. the recording of action potentials generated by a single myocyte
B. applied to the detection of cardiac ischemia
C. applied to the measurement of arterial blood pressure
43 QRS complex corresponds to ___.
A. depolarization of atria C. repolarization of ventricles
B. depolarization of ventricles D. depolarization of AV node
44 ECG can be used to reveal all of the following except ___.
A. arrhythmias C. ventricular hypertrophy
B. ischemia D. heart murmurs
45 Which of the following statement about the first heart sound is false?
A. The first heart sound occurs at the opening of semilunar valves
B. The vibration of AV valves contributes to the first heart sound.
C. The first heart sound is generated when the blood bounced back from the AV
valves.
D. The vibration of ventricular walls makes the first heart sound louder.
E. The first heart sound is longer than the second heart sound.
46 Preload on left ventricular muscles is determined by ____.
A. end diastolic volume of left ventricle D. aortic arterial pressure
B. end systolic volume of left ventricle E. stroke volume
C. pulmonary arterial pressure
47 Afterload on left ventricular muscles is determined by ___.
A. end diastolic volume of left ventricle D. aortic arterial pressure
B. end systolic volume of left ventricle E. stroke volume
C. pulmonary arterial pressure
48 Given that end diastolic volume, end systolic volume, and heart rate are 160 ml, 80 ml, and 80 beats/minute, respectively, cardiac output should be ____.
A. 80 ml B. 160 ml C. 240 ml D. 640 ml E. 6,400 ml
49 Contractility is _____.
A. the intrinsic strength of cardiac muscles
B. dependent on preload
C. dependent on afterload
50 Can an increase in heart rate result in a greater cardiac output?
A. Yes, it always can.
B. No, it cannot.
C. Yes or no, it depends on the level from which heart rate increases.
51 Sympathetic nervous system regulates ____.
A. both heart rate and contractility C. contractility only
B. Heart rate only D. neither heart rate nor contractility
52 The baroreceptors mediate ___ when blood pressure drops suddenly.
A. an increase in heart rate
B. a decrease in cardiac contractility
C. a decrease in conductivity of AV node
53 Proprioceptors are involved in regulating cardiac functions mainly ____.
A. at resting state B. during heavy physical activities C. during hemorrhage
54 Chronotropic effects refer to those causing a change in ___.
A. heart rate B. contractility C. conductivity
55 Starling-Frank mechanism refers to ___.
A. ( ventricular filling ( ( stroke volume
B. ( ventricular filling ( ( stroke volume
C. ( ventricular filling ( ( stroke volume
D. ( afterload ( ( stroke volume
KEY 241 Exam 1 Spring 2004
1C 2C 3D 4D 5A 6A 7C 8D 9B 10B
11C 12D 13B 14A 15C 16D 17A 18E 19C 20B
21C 22A 23B 24A 25B 26C 27B 28A 29D 30C
31A 32B 33B 34D 35A 36A 37C 38D 39C 40B
41D 42B 43B 44D 45A 46A 47D 48E 49A 50C
51A 52A 53B 54A 55A
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