ANTI-INFECTIVE AGENTS



ANTI-INFECTIVE AGENTS

1- Cephalosporin mechanism of action may include:

a) Inhibit protein synthesis

b) Inhibit cell wall synthesis

c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

e) Inhibit translation of genetic information

2- The bacteriostatic effect of sulfametoxazole may be increased by:

a) Penicillin

b) Sulbactam

c) Clavulanic acid

d) Tarzobactam

e) Trimetroprim

3-Correct statements regarding Penicillin V may include which of the following?

I-ß-lactamase sensitive antibiotic – acid stable

II- Has a short half-life because is rapidly excreted by glomerular filtration

III- Probenecid increase penicillin’s activity

a) I only

B) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

4- The only antibiotic available as chew able tablet includes:

a) Penicillin

b) Amoxicillin

c) Ampicillin

d) Erythromycin

e) Clarithromycin

5- Correct statements regarding Erythromycin ESTOLATE may include:

I- Primarily effective against gram-positive bacteria and also have activity against some Gram-negative bacteria

II- It is a macro lid antibiotic very useful as alternative to penicillin for those that have Allergy to penicillin antibiotics

III- Regular erythromycin is better absorbed from GIT that erythromycin estolate

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

6- Penicillin should be administrated 1 hour before meals or 2 to 3 hours after meals in order to:

I- Improve the bioavailability

II- Maximize the dissolution rate

III- Avoid interaction with calcium ions

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

7-Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) Penicillins

b) Cephalosporins

c) Gentamycin

d) Streptomycin

e) Sulfonamides

8- Examples of antibiotic that is an acid stable penicillinase resistant include:

a) Amoxicillin

b) Oxacillin

c) Ampicillin

D) Carbenicillin

e) Penicillin V

9- All of the following penicillins are acid label penicillins, EXCEPT:

a) Penicillin V

b) Penicillin G

c) Methicillin

d) Nafcillin

e) Carbenicillin

10-Which of the following are/is correct regarding Tetracycline?

I- Inhibit protein synthesis

II- May be used in dental works

III- Cannot be taken for infants less than 8 years old

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

11- Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of sulfametoxazole?

a) Inhibit protein synthesis

b) Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism with folic acid synthesis

c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

e) Inhibit translation of genetic information

12- Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic of all the following antibiotics, EXCEPT:

a) Aminoglycosides

b) Tetracycline

c) Cephalexin

d) Chloramphenicol

e) Clindamycin

13- Which of the following agents may interfere with the regular effect of penicillins?

a) Antacids

b) Food

c) Probenecid

d) Aminoglycosides

e) All of the above

14- Which of the following drugs cannot be taken orally?

a) INH

b) PASA

c) ASA

d) Streptomycin

e) Oxacillin

15- Example of drug used in prophylaxis of malaria includes:

a) Cloroquine

b) Quinine

c) Primaquin

d) Quinine

e) Quinidine

16- Which of the following is NOT an anti-fungal drug?

a) Amphotericin B

b) Metronidazole

c) Griseofulvin

d) Nystatin

e) Clotrimazole

17- Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include:

a) Gentamycin

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Norfloxacin

d) Erythromycin

e) Penicillin

18- Which of the following agents may best treat Meningococcal encephalitis?

a) Sulfametoxazole

b) Erythromycin

c) Cephalexin

d) Tetracycline

e) Penicillin

19- Correct statements regarding aminoglycosides may include:

I- Has a half-life of 12hours

II- The effect continue remain after all drug is eliminated

III- The relation plasma concentration and half-life is not clear

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

20- Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Gray Babies syndrome?

I- Occurs in premature and new born infants when choramphenicol is administrated during the first few days of life

II- Due to inability of the infant to metabolize the drug because of glucoronyl transferase deficiency

III- Glucoronyl transferase is required to detoxify cloramphenicol

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

21- Correct statements regarding Pellagra include:

I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin

II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin

III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

22- Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease may be treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cefixime

II- Ceftriaxone

III- Ciprofloxacin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

23- Nosocomial infections may be best treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cephalosporin 3rd generation

II- Macrolides antibiotics

III- Penicillins

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

24- Viral encephalitis, a CNS infection, may be best be treated by which of the following agents?

a) Benzyl penicillin

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Acyclovir

d) Streptomycin

e) Vancomycin

25- Example of drug(s) used to treat pneumonia includes:

I- Ampicillin combined with aminoglycosides

II-Clarithromycin

III- Levofloxacin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

26- Otitis extern, an ear infection may be best is best treated by:

a) Ciprofloxacin eardrop

b) Gentamicin eardrop

c) Prednisone eardrop

d) Levobunolol eardrop

e) Saline solution

27- Otitis media is an ear infection normally caused by S. pneumoniae and may be best treated by:

a) Amoxicillin

b) Penicillin V

c) Ampicillin

d) Amoxicillin clavulanate

e) Oxacillin

28- First line treatment for UTI-Urinary Tract Infection may include:

a) Sulfametoxazole + Trimetoprim

b) Amoxicillin clavulanate

c) Penicillin procaine

d) Erythromycin

e) All are very effective in treating UTI

29- Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy?

a) Penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin and metronidazole

b) Clarithromycin, amoxicillin, omeprazole and metronidazole

c) Clarithromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole

d) Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only

e) Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.

30- Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include:

I- Lots of fluids

II- Ciprofloxacin

III- Metronidazole

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

31- Colitis associated with antibiotic use can best be treated by:

a) Cephalosporins

b) Macrolides

c) Aminoglycosides

d) Vancomycin

e) Penicillin

32- Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include:

I- Broad-spectrum penicillins

II- Cephalosporins

III- Clindamycin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

33- Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax is:

a) Quinine

b) Pyrimethamine

c) Sulfadoxine

d) Primaquine

e) Quinidine

34- Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria. Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient?

a) Atovaquone only

b) Chloroquine and primaquine

c) Quinine and doxacycline

d) Mefloquine

e) C and D are correct

35- Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include:

a) Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit bacterial growth

b) Drugs derivated from natural source that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth

c) Drug with ability only to kill bacteria

d) Drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth

e) All are wrong regarding antibiotics

36- Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill bacteria is normally called:

a) Bacteriostatic antibiotic

b) Bactericidal antibiotic

c) Bactericidal antimicrobial

d) Bacteriostatic antimicrobial

e) Bacteriostatic bactericidal antimicrobial

37- Antiviral drugs act in many different ways, they can be classified in:

a) RNA inhibitors only

b) DNA inhibitors only

c) RNA and DNA inhibitors

d) Protease inhibitors

e) All are correct

38- Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) Amoxicillin

b) Nafcillin

c) Methicillin

d) Oxacillin

e) All are very narrow spectrum penicillins

39- Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may include:

a) Amoxicillin

b) Ampicillin

c) Cloxacillin

d) Carbenicillin

e) Dicloxacillin

40- Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with ß-lactamase inhibitors.

Examples of ß-lactamase inhibitors is/are:

I- Clavulanic acid

II- Sulbactam

III- Tazobactam

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

41- Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include:

I- Bactericidal antimicrobial

II- Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium

III- Broad-spectrum agent

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

42- Example of fourth generation cephalosporin includes:

a) Ceftriaxone

b) Cefipime

c) Cefixime

d) Cefotaxime

e) Cefoxitin

43- Correct statement regarding the mechanism of action of Vancomycin may include:

a) Inhibit release of tRNA bound to peptyl site after peptide bond formation

b) Inhibit peptide bound formation between acylaminoacids bound to the peptyl and acceptor site

c) Inhibit stage II of cell wall synthesis preventing polymerization of the linear peptideoglycan

d) Inhibit DNA gyrase in the bacteria

e) Bind to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular contents

44- Which of the following is one of the most common side effects of vancomycin?

a) Ototoxicity

b) Disulfiram like side effect

c) Diarrhea

d) Weight gain

e) Hallucinations

45- All of the following are narrow spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors, EXCEPT:

a) Erythromycin

b) Azithromycin

c) Clarithromycin

d) Tetracycline

e) Clindamycin

46- Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline?

a) Alteration in gut flora

b) Disulfiram like reactions

c) Teeth permanent discoloration

d) Fanconi like syndrome

e) Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

47- Which of the following agents can be classified as macrolide antibiotics?

I- Azithromycin

II- Clarithromycin

III- Erythromycin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

48- Wrong statement regarding MACROLIDES ANTIBIOTICS include:

a) Used in both gram-positive and gram-negative infections

b) Used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has allergy to penicillins

c) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms

d) Increase gastric motility causing cramps and diarrhea as major side effect

e) Very safe for children

49- All of the following are examples of aminoglycosides drugs, EXCEPT:

a) Nystatin

b) Gentamicin

c) Amikacin

d) Streptomycin

e) Garamycin

50- Which of the following is an anti-infective agent with lowest therapeutic index?

a) Macrolide

b) Cephalosporins

c) Cloramphenicol

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Antifungal agents

51- Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of:

a) PABA

b) Folic acid

c) Vitamin K

d) Cyanide

e) Nalidixic acid

52- Which of the following best classify metronidazole?

a) Antiprotozoa

b) Antibiotic

c) Antifungal

d) Antiviral

e) Antimicrobial

53- Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include:

I- Isoniazid

II- Rifampin

III- Ethambutol

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

54- Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include:

a) Niclosamide

b) Prazinquatel

c) Mebendazole

d) Dapsone

e) Thiabendazole

55- All are examples of antihelmintic drugs, EXCEPT:

a) Niclosamide

b) Prazinquatel

c) Mebendazole

d) Dapsone

e) Thiabendazole

56- Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent?

a) Miconazole

b) Clotrimazole

c) Amphotericin

d) Itraconazole

e) Ketoconazole

57- Wrong statement regarding antifungal agents includes which of the following?

a) Polyene antifungal act binding to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular contents

b) Azoles antifungal act blocking the synthesis of ergosterol.

c) Polyene antifungal has the widest spectrum compared to any other agent

d) Side effects of antifungals include fever, chills, anorexia, headaches and muscle pain

e) Side effects of antifungals cannot be treat for Tylenol due to high drug interaction.

58- Which of the following statement is RIGHT regarding influenza treatment?

I- Type A influenza is best treated by amantadine and rimantadine

II- Type B influenza is best treated by oseltamivir and zenamivir

III- Influenza should not be treated with antiviral agents

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

59- All of the following are examples of quinolone antimicrobial agents, EXCEPT

a) Cephalexin

b) Ofloxacin

c) Norfloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) Levofloxacin

60- Which of the following conditions are quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used?

a) Respiratory tract infections

b) Urinary tract infections

c) Gastrointestinal tract infections

d) Endocarditis

e) Cerebral infections

61- Which of the following statements best describes the action of the antitubercular agent ISONIAZID?

a) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium

b) Inhibit the DNA duplication of mycobacterium

c) Inhibit arachydonic acids that feed mycobacterium

d) Inhibit mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium

e) Inhibit protein synthesis of mycobacterium

62- Which of the following complications is considered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment?

a) Cardiac dysfunction

b) Mental dysfunction

c) Hepatitis

d) Renal complications

e) Discoloration of skin

63- The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin?

a) Thiamine

b) Pyridoxine

c) Folic acid

d) Niacin

e) Cyanocobalamin

64- All of the following are examples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT:

a) Ampicillin

b) Cloxacillin

c) Amoxicillin

d) Bicampicilin

e) All are correct

65- Which of the following is an antiviral drug used in the treatment of AIDS-HIV?

I- Acyclovir

II- Zidovudine

III- Stavudine

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

66- Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to:

I- Mutation

II- Adaptation

III- Gene transfer

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

67- The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:

a) Virus

b) Gram-negative bacterias

c) Gram-positive bacterias

d) Both gram-positive and negative bacterias

e) Plasmodium

68- Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to:

a) 30s ribosomal subunit only

b) 50s ribosomal subunit only

c) 70s ribosomal subunit only

d) 30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits

e) 30s and 70s ribosomal subunits

69- Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow include which of the following agents?

a) Tetracycline

b) Aminoglycosides

c) Vancomycin

d) Cloramphenicol

e) Clindamycin

70- Which of the following agent is classified as lincosamide antibiotic?

a) Tetracycline

b) Aminoglycosides

c) Vancomycin

d) Cloramphenicol

e) Clindamycin

CORRECT ANSWERS

|1- B |18- E |35- B |52- A |69- D |

|2- E |19- D |36- C |53- E |70- E |

|3- E |20- E |37- E |54- B | |

|4- B |21- E |38- A |55- D | |

|5- C |22- E |39- D |56- C | |

|6- A |23- A |40- E |57- E | |

|7- D |24- C |41- D |58- C | |

|8- B |25- E |42- B |59- C | |

|9- B |26- B |43- C |60- B | |

|10- E |27- D |44- A |61- D | |

|11- B |28- A |45- D |62- C | |

|12- C |29- B |46- B |63- B | |

|13- E |30- E |47- E |64- B | |

|14- D |31- D |48- C |65- D | |

|15- A |32- E |49- A |66- E | |

|16- B |33- D |50- D |67- C | |

|17- C |34- E. |51- E |68- D | |

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