Tests from dermatovenerology
1. Skin surface in man 175 cm high and 75 kg heavy is about:
a. 4,0 m2
b. 3,5 m2
c. 2,6 m2
d. 1,7 m2
e. 0,9 m2
2. Developmental transition of cells from the basal layer to the horny layer in normal skin depends on their:
a. proliferation ability
b. differentiation
c. survival
d. none of the options is correct
e. regeneration
3. Desmosomes are:
a. fibres which determine the strength of collagen fibers
b. fibres that make a body of smooth muscle
c. major part of elastic fibres representing their elasticity
d. bordered thickenings of cell membrane, tonofilaments are clamped inside the keratinocytes
e. connections between cells of stratum basale and basement membrane
4. In which part of the skin is produced melanin?
a. in keratinocytes of stratum basale
b. in melanofores of derma
c. in melanocytes
d. in keratinocytes of stratum spinosum
e. in histiocytes
5. Which order does correspond to the actual arrangement of layers in the epidermis?
a. str. basale – str. spinosum – str. lucidum – str. granulosum – str. corneum
b. str. basale – str. spinosum – str. granulosum – str. lucidum – str. corneum
c. str. basale – str. granulosum – str. spinosum – str. lucidum – str. corneum
d. str. basale – str. lucidum – str. granulosum – str. spinosum – str. corneum
e. str. basale – str. lucidum – str. spinosum – str. granulosum – str. corneum
6. How many rows of cells with nuclei are normally in the stratum corneum?
a. 10 – 12
b. 7 – 9
c. 4 – 6
d. 1 – 3
e. 0
7. In which layer of the epidermis are located keratohyalin grains?
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
8. Dermis contains:
a. elastic fibers
b. collagen fibres
c. argyrofill fibres
d. grape-shaped fet cells
e. amorphous ground substance
9. Physiological daily hair growth is approximately:
a. 0,1 mm
b. 0,35 mm
c. 1,0 mm
d. none of the options are correct
e. 0,01 mm
10. What do the terms anagen, telogen and katagen mean?
a. they characterize the position of hair papilla in the epidermis
b. stages of hair cycle
c. they characterize normal, increased and decreased hair density in different seasons
d. types of hair located only in the scalp
e. types of hair located only on the body
11. Choose the correct order of growing stages of the hair:
a. telogen – catagen – anagen
b. anagen – catagen – telogen
c. catagen – telogen – anagen
d. catagen – anagen – telogen
e. anagen – telogen – catagen
12. Anagen stage is:
a. abnormal stage
b. stage, where is majority of hair of the scalp
c. transition stage
d. the shortest of all stages
e. stage, in which hair normally falls
13. Catagen stage is:
a. abnormal stage
b. stage, where is majority of hair of the scalp
c. transition stage
d. the shortest of all stages
e. stage, in which hair normally falls
14. Telogen stage is:
a. abnormal stage
b. stage, where is majority of hair of the scalp
c. transition stage
d. the shortest of all stages
e. stage, in which hair normally falls
15. The normal trichogram ratio of anagen, telogen and catagen hair is:
a. 45 : 1 : 54
b. 14 : 6 : 80
c. 70 : 4 : 26
d. 85 : 1 : 14
e. 18 : 2 : 80
16. How much hairs do fall out daily in the normal hair cycle?
a. 20 – 30
b. 40 – 50
c. 60 – 70
d. 70 – 100
e. more than 150
17. What is lunula?
a. the area less supplied by arteries
b. the area with poorly thickened nail plate
c. the area with thickened nail plate
d. the visible part of the matrix
e. the accumulation of air bubbles between the poorly keratinised cells of the nail plate
18. Sebaceous glands are normally found on:
a. soles
b. backs of the hands
c. face
d. abdomen
e. palms
19. Which areas of the skin are abundantly supplied with sebaceous glands?
a. face
b. palms
c. sternum area
d. hair on the scalp
e. feet
20. Apocrine sweat glands are on:
a. neck
b. armpits
c. forehead
d. palms
e. perigenital area
21. Which of the following statements is correct for eccrine sweat glands?
a. they are spread over the whole body surface
b. they have no role in thermal regulation
c. they can cause acne vulgaris in pathological conditions
d. they are no active during childhood
e. none of the options are correct
22. What does drain into the hair follicle?
a. eccrine sweat gland
b. apocrine sweat gland
c. sebaceous gland
d. lymphatic vessels of the skin
e. none of the statements are correct
23. Sebaceous glands are:
a. in the epidermis
b. in the dermis
c. in the hypodermis
d. in stratum corneum
e. in all layers of the skin
24. What can protect the skin against bacterial infection?
a. secretion of the apocrine glands
b. secretion of the eccrine glands
c. lipids of sebaceous glands
d. separating of the cells in stratum disjunctum
e. increasing of skin melanin
25. Skin color depends on:
a. the skin pigment (melanin)
b. the thickness of epidermis
c. the amount of beta- carotene
d. sweating of the skin
e. vascularisation
26. pH of the healthy skin is:
a. 1,5
b. 3,5
c. 5,5
d. 7,5
e. 9,5
27. What does participate in the thermoregulation?
a. keratinocytes of stratum corneum
b. sweat glands
c. melanocytes
d. sebaceous glands
e. hypodermis
28. Choose important skin functions:
a. thermoregulation
b. mechanical barrier
c. storage of vitamins
d. sensory organ
e. significant depot of water and energy
29. What is hyperkeratosis?
a. thickening of stratum basale
b. overgrowth of cells with keratohyaline grains
c. thickening of stratum corneum
d. thickening of the whole epidermis
e. relative thickening of the epidermis over the thin corium
30. What is parakeratosis?
a. hyperkeratosis with absence of the stratum granulosum
b. abnormal and incomplete keratinisation, corneocytes in cornified layer contain nuclear material, the stratum granulosum is largely absent
c. disorder of keratinisation where coherence of cells of horny layer is disturbed
d. thickening of stratum spinosum
e. none of the statements is correct
31. What is spongiosis?
a. intercellular oedema developing after widening of intercellular spaces in the stratum spinosum
b. overgrowth of inflammatory infiltrate in intercellular spaces in the stratum spinosum
c. thickening of the stratum corneum
d. thickening of the stratum spinosum
e. linear gaps among cells in the stratum spinosum
32. What is acanthosis?
a. the papillary body is elongated and widened
b. thickening of the spinous cell layer of the epidermis
c. widening of the intercellular spaces due to oedema in the stratum spinosum
d. loss of desmosomal contacts in in the stratum spinosum
e. thickening of the whole epidermis
33. What is dyskeratosis?
a. the premature imperfect keratinisation of individual keratinocytes between still nonkeratinized epidermal cell structure
b. linear gaps among cells in the stratum spinosum
c. delayed process of keratinisation in the epidermis
d. uniform thickening of all layers of epidermis
e. none of the statements is correct
34. What is macula?
a. circumscribed oedema in the skin
b. circumscribed elevation of the skin
c. circumscribed alteration in the color of the skin
d. circumscribed overgrowth of the number of hair on the small surface
e. dilatation of the hair follicle
35. Which instrument is used to differ haematoma from erythema in the skin?
a. needle
b. lancet
c. glass spatula
d. wooden spatula
e. nothing mentioned
36. What is purpura?
a. permanently dilated tiny vessels in the skin
b. bleeding into the skin
c. pigmentation on basis of overgrowth of melanin
d. pigmentation from foreign substances
e. circumscribed stenosis of vessels in the skin
37. What is papula?
a. blister
b. depression in the skin
c. circumscribed oedema in the dermis
d. circumscribed palpable elevation of the skin
e. none of statements is correct
38. Papula develops by:
a. tiny bleeding
b. pigment deposition
c. overgrowing or infiltration of cell elements
d. necrosis
e. blood perfusion
39. Mark the correct statements relating to urtica:
a. circumscribed oedema of the dermis
b. flat cellular circumscribed infiltrate
c. skin elevation that develops quickly and lasts for less than 24 hours
d. it develops in any layer of the skin
e. in subcutaneous tisssues angioedema can develop
40. What is vesicle?
a. skin cavity lined with epithelium – endothelium or membraneous lining, containing fluid, pus or keratin
b. circumscribed spreading of the blood vessel
c. circumscribed fluid – filled lesions
d. circumscribed oedema in the dermis
e. spreading of lymphatic vessels
41. What is pustula?
a. cavity in epidermis filled with haemorrhagic fluid
b. vesicle with clear content
c. vesicle with disturbed covering
d. cyst filled with pus
e. blister filled with pus
42. Macula is:
a. circumscribed coloring of various shape and size in the level of the skin
b. circumscribed cellular infiltrate or overgrowth of tissue of the skin up to 1 cm
c. extensive inflammatory infiltrate that afflicts deeper parts of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
d. circumscribed oedema of the dermis
e. blister filled with pus
43. Papula is:
a. circumscribed coloring of various shape and size in the level of the skin
b. circumscribed cellular infiltrate or overgrowth of tissue of the skin up to 1 cm
c. extensive inflammatory infiltrate that afflicts deeper parts of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
d. circumscribed oedema of the dermis
e. blister filled with pus
44. Red macula is:
a. circumscribed overgrowth of melanin in the region of basal cells
b. thickening of the dermis on basis of infiltrate or proliferation of cells, oedema and hyperaemia
c. solid circumscribed elevation conditioned by locally limited oedema. White to pink color of lesion corresponds to filling of capillaries
d. local redness conditioned by limited hyperaemia in pars papillaris and pars reticularis
e. none of mentioned
45. Dermal papula is:
a. circumscribed overgrowth of melanin in the region of basal cells
b. thickening of the dermis on basis of infiltrate or proliferation of cells, oedema and hyperaemia
c. solid circumscribed elevation conditioned by locally limited oedema. White to pink color of lesion corresponds to filling of capillaries
d. local redness conditioned by limited hyperaemia in pars papillaris and pars reticularis
e. none of mentioned
46. Urtica is:
a. circumscribed overgrowth of melanin in the region of basal cells
b. thickening of the dermis on basis of infiltrate or proliferation of cells, oedema and hyperaemia
c. solid circumscribed elevation conditioned by locally limited oedema. White to pink color of lesion corresponds to filling of capillaries
d. local redness conditioned by limited hyperaemia in pars papillaris and pars reticularis
e. none of mentioned
47. Brown macula is:
a. circumscribed overgrowth of melanin in the region of basal cells
b. thickening of the dermis on basis of infiltrate or proliferation of cells, oedema and hyperaemia
c. solid circumscribed elevation conditioned by locally limited oedema. White to pink color of lesion corresponds to filling of capillaries
d. local redness conditioned by limited hyperaemia in pars papillaris and pars reticularis
e. none of mentioned
48. White macula is:
a. thickening of epidermis by acanthosis, spongiosis (= intercellular oedema )
b. focal depigmentation of the skin
c. large nodal tissue leading or embedded into hypodermis caused by inflammation or proliferation
d. circumscribed infiltrate on the borderline of dermis and hypodermis
e. thickening of epidermis and dermis by hypertrophy or hyperplasia of all layers of epidermis, oedema and hyperaemia in the dermis
49. Mixed papula is:
a. thickening of epidermis by acanthosis, spongiosis (= intercellular oedema )
b. focal depigmentation of the skin
c. large nodal tissue leading or embedded into hypodermis caused by inflammation or proliferation
d. circumscribed infiltrate on the borderline of dermis and hypodermis
e. thickening of epidermis and dermis by hypertrophy or hyperplasia of all layers of epidermis, oedema and hyperaemia in the dermis
50. Epidermal papula is:
a. thickening of epidermis by acanthosis, spongiosis (= intercellular oedema )
b. focal depigmentation of the skin
c. large nodal tissue leading or embedded into hypodermis caused by inflammation or proliferation
d. circumscribed infiltrate on the borderline of dermis and hypodermis
e. thickening of epidermis and dermis by hypertrophy or hyperplasia of all layers of epidermis, oedema and hyperaemia in the dermis
51. Tuber is:
a. thickening of epidermis by acanthosis, spongiosis (= intercellular oedema )
b. focal depigmentation of the skin
c. large nodal tissue into hypodermis leading or embedded caused by inflammation or proliferation
d. circumscribed infiltrate on the borderline of dermis and hypodermis
e. thickening of epidermis and dermis by hypertrophy or hyperplasia of all layers of epidermis, oedema and hyperaemia in the dermis
52. Scale develops:
a. as a consequence of tiny bleeding
b. as a consequence of disturbing intercellular bridges in the stratum spinosum
c. as a consequence of disturbing coherence of cells in diseased process
d. as a consequence of pyogenic process in epidermis
e. as a consequence of excessive formation of pigment caused by ultraviolet rays
53. Crust develops:
a. from necrosis
b. from dried epidermis
c. from cellular elements over pathological lesion
d. from dried excretion over some pathological processes
e. from sediments of external origin
54. What is erosion?
a. superficial loss of epidermis
b. loss of epidermis and upper region of papillary part of dermis
c. circumscribed loss of stratum disjunctum
d. saturation of epidermis by blood discharge
e. microfocal bleeding into mucous membranes
55. What is excoriation?
a. circumscribed loss of upper parts of epidermis leading up to stratum spinosum
b. loss of epidermis and upper region of papillary part of dermis
c. circumscribed loss of stratum corneum
d. saturation of epidermis by blood discharge
e. microfocal bleeding into mucous membranes
56. Which lesion does protrude above the skin?
a. papula
b. erosion
c. urtica
d. excoriation
e. macula
57. Which lesion does protrude above the skin?
a. nodule
b. vesicle
c. fissure
d. pustule
e. ulcer
58. Which lesion does belong to secondary lesions?
a. scale
b. erosion
c. scar
d. vesicle
e. ulcer
59. Erosion is:
a. loss of substance of the skin leading up to the dermis
b. loss of substance of the epidermis leading up to the stratum spinosum
c. loss of substance of the epidermis and upper part of the dermis
d. lesion developing after disturbing of the cover of vesicles
e. split without loss of skin substance
60. Fissure is:
a. loss of substance of the skin leading up the dermis
b. loss of substance of the epidermis leading up to the stratum spinosum
c. loss of substance of the epidermis and upper part of the dermis
d. lesion developing after disturbing the cover of vesicles
e. split without loss of skin substance
61. Ulcer is:
a. loss of substance of the skin leading up to the dermis
b. loss of substance of the epidermis leading up to the stratum spinosum
c. loss of substance of the epidermis and upper part of the dermis
d. lesion developing after disturbing the cover of vesicles
e. split without loss of skin substance
62. Scar:
a. does not contain sweat and sebaceous glands
b. the cause is loss of skin tissue extending to dermis
c. skin is flat, smooth and glossy
d. hypertrophic forms can also develop
e. all skin layers are thinner
63. Atrophy:
a. the cause is loss of skin tissue extending to dermis
b. skin is flat, smooth and glossy
c. hypertrophic forms can also develop
d. all skin layers are thinner
e. larger skin vessels can be seen through affected skin
64. Exanthema is:
a. the skin lesion disseminated on the surface of the skin
b. the pathological lesion occurring on mucous membrane
c. the lesion induced by active hyperaemia
d. the basic morphologic unit of pathologic process on the skin
e. the pathological change of nail plates
65. Erythema is:
a. the skin lesion disseminated on the surface of the skin
b. the pathological lesion occurring on mucous membrane
c. the lesion induced by active hyperaemia
d. the basic morphologic unit of pathologic process on skin
e. the pathological change of nail plates
66. Enanthema is:
a. the skin lesion disseminated on the surface of the skin
b. the pathological lesion occurring on mucous membrane
c. the lesion induced by active hyperaemia
d. the basic morphologic unit of pathologic process on the skin
e. the pathological change of nail plates
67. Herpes zoster is characterized by:
a. intraepidermal vesicles
b. scales
c. white macula
d. epidermal papula
e. cyst
68. Psoriasis vulgaris is characterized by:
a. intraepidermal vesicles
b. scales
c. ulcer
d. papula
e. cyst
69. Vitilgo is characterized by:
a. intraepidermal vesicles
b. scales
c. white macula
d. epidermal papula
e. cyst
70. Verrucae plane are characterized by:
a. intraepidermal vesicles
b. scales
c. white macula
d. epidermal papula
e. cyst
71. Which of these diseases is commonly asymmetrically localized?
a. herpes zoster
b. macular and papular exanthema in secondary syphilis
c. dermatitis herpetiformis
d. ulcus durum
e. atopic dermatitis
72. What can be caused by repeated friction or pressure on skin?
a. blisters formation
b. hyperkeratosis
c. hyperpigmentation
d. telangiectasias
e. milia
73. The first-degree burn of skin is manifested by:
a. oedema
b. blister
c. erythema
d. necrosis
e. pain
74. The second-degree burn of skin is manifested by:
a. oedema
b. blister
c. erythema
d. necrosis
e. pain
75. The third-degree burn is manifested by:
a. oedema
b. blister
c. erythema
d. necrosis
e. pain
76. What does remain on the skin after healing of the first-degree burn?
a. it is healed completely
b. temporary hyper- and hypopigmentations
c. atrophic scars
d. hypertrophic scars
e. contractures
77. What does remain on the skin after healing of the second-degree burn?
a. keloid-like scars
b. temporary hyper- and hypopigmentations
c. atrophic scars
d. hypertrophic scars
e. contractures
78. What does remain on the skin after healing of the third-degree burn?
a. keloid-like scars
b. temporary hyper- and hypopigmentations
c. atrophic scars
d. hypertrophic scars
e. contractures
79. Which complications of burns can occured?
a. hypovolemic shock
b. disseminated intravascular coagulation
c. toxic shock syndrome
d. sepsis
e. secondary skin infections
80. Typical for perniones is:
a. they usually develops on basis of functional disorders of peripheral circulation
b. in cold they present blue-red flat inflammatory nodules
c. after the rewarming they are bright red and very painful
d. vesicles and ulcers can form
e. lesions never form ulcers
81. Typical for pernio is:
a. they occur in low temperature over 0ºC
b. they are demarcated flat, inflammatory nodules
c. after the rewarming the pain recedes
d. lesions can form ulcers
e. blisters can form
82. Which part of sun radiation does induce early pigmentation on skin?
a. infrared radiation
b. UV-A-rays (400 nm – 315 nm)
c. UV-B-rays (314 nm – 280 nm)
d. UV-C-rays (below 280 nm)
e. combination of UV-B + UV-C-rays
83. Which part of sun radiation does induce erythema on skin?
a. infrared radiation
b. UV-A-rays (400 nm – 315 nm)
c. UV-B-rays (314 nm – 280 nm)
d. UV-C-rays (below 280 nm)
e. combination of UV-B + UV-C-rays
84. What is the meaning of the term phototoxic dermatitis?
a. reaction of skin when because of sun radiation arise metabolites, that cause abnormal inflammatory reaction
b. reaction of skin after longterm exposition to intense sun radiation
c. reaction of skin caused by direct interaction of radiation and photosensitising substance producing a type of sunburn reaction
d. reaction of skin after too intense exposition to infrared radiation
e. reaction of skin to UV-radiation as a consequence of genetic higher sensibility
85. What is the meaning of the term photoallergic dermatitis ?
a. reaction of skin caused by photoallergens and UVA radiation in sensitised individuals
b. reaction of skin after longterm exposition of skin to intense sun radiation
c. reaction of skin caused by direct interaction of radiation and photosensitising substance producing a type of sunburn reaction
d. reaction of skin after too intense exposition to infrared radiation
e. reaction of skin to UV-radiation as a consequence of genetic higher sensibility
86. Diseases developing by exposure or participation of sun radiation are:
a. acute contact dermatitis
b. dermatitis bullosa striata pratensis (Oppenheim)
c. herpes zoster
d. lichen planus
e. hydroa vacciniforme
87. Dermatitis bullosa striata pratensis (Oppenheim) is a reaction:
a. phototraumatic
b. phototoxic
c. photoallergic
d. none of mentioned
e. phototraumatic and phototoxic
88. Dermatitis solaris is a reaction:
a. phototraumatic
b. phototoxic
c. photoallergic
d. none of mentioned
e. phototraumatic and phototoxic
89. Solar urticaria is a reaction:
a. pototraumatic
b. phototoxic
c. photoallergic
d. none of mentioned
e. phototraumatic and phototoxic
90. Xeroderma pigmentosum is:
a. congenital sensitivity to infrared radiation
b. congenital sensitivity to sun with abnormal metabolism of porfyrins
c. congenital sensitivity to sun and caused by defects of several enzymes
d. disorder of pigmentation connected with inherited skin dystrophy
e. congenital disorder of abnormal metabolism of porfyrins
91. What lesion can develop on the skin of people suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum?
a. hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation
b. dermatitis solaris
c. skin atrophy
d. hypertrophic scars
e. skin tumors
92. What dosage of ionising radiation can induce acute radiodermatitis?
a. 1-2 Gy
b. 3-4 Gy
c. 5-6 Gy
d. 7-8 Gy
e. 9-10 Gy
93. What is characteristic for chronic radiodermatitis?
a. it occurs after latent period of several years
b. it mostly manifests with sclerosis and atrophy in the place of radiation
c. it occurs after latent period of 1-2 months
d. in affected area telangiectases commonly occur
e. after longer persistence in atrophic center an ulcer can develop
94. Which disease is supposed to be of viral aetiology?
a. herpes zoster
b. erythema migrans
c. herpes simplex
d. toxic epidermal necrolysis
e. erythema multiforme
95. Which disease is accompanied by systemic symptoms?
a. erythema annulare centrifugum
b. fixed drug eruption
c. erythema migrans
d. erythema multiforme
e. granuloma annulare
96. Clinical features of erythema annulare centrifugum are:
a. erythema which tends to spread peripherally
b. eruption is asymptomatic
c. lesions of annular shape
d. relapses
e. skin atrophy
97. Clinical features of Lyme borreliosis are:
a. erythema migrans
b. pityriasis rosea
c. lymphadenosis cutis benigna
d. tinea versicolor (pityriasis versicolor)
e. acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans
98. Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans can develop on basis of:
a. fixed drug eruption
b. granuloma annulare
c. erythema annulare centrifugum
d. erythema nodosum
e. erythema migrans
99. Assign the pathomechanisms of allergic drug eruptions:
a. anaphylaxis
b. autoimmune reaction
c. acute toxic reaction
d. Arthus reaction
e. cytotoxic reaction
100. Idiosyncratic reaction is:
a. congenital sensitivity to a drug on non-immunological basis
b. congenital sensitivity to a drug on immunological basis
c. acquired sensitivity to a drug on non-immunological basis
d. acquired sensitivity to a drug on immunological basis
e. overdosage of drugs
101. Lichenoid drug eruption is induced by:
a. sulphonamides
b. broad- spectrum antibiotics
c. preparations of gold
d. beta blockers
e. antipyretics
102. Acne vulgaris can be provoked or exacerbated by these drugs:
a. corticosteroids
b. mercury, bismuth
c. arsenic, gold
d. halogens
e. antimalarials
103. Typical affected areas of erythema multiforme are:
a. pubic region
b. flexor surfaces of limbs
c. skin of the face
d. trunk
e. extensor surfaces of limbs
104. Which of following factors can be present in erythema nodosum?
a. metabolic disorders
b. sarcoidosis
c. necrobiotic changes
d. streptococcal infections
e. infection of Yersinia enterocolica
105. Erythema nodosum is characterised by:
a. location on calves
b. more common in females
c. location on extensor surfaces of shins
d. eruptions all over the body
e. lesions does not ulcerate
106. Löfgren syndrome is combination of:
a. erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy in sarcoidosis
b. erythema nodosum and paresis n. facialis
c. erythema nodosum and uveitis
d. erythema nodosum and ostitis multiplex cystoides
e. erythema nodosum and hepatosplenomegaly
107. Erythema elevatum et diutinum is characterised by:
a. the lesions are generally found on palms
b. the lesions are generally found on dorsa of hands and knees
c. mucous membranes are affected
d. bacterial infections (especially streptococcal) are applied in aetiopatogenesis
e. occurence in children
108. Pityriasis rosea is most commonly localized on:
a. the face and neck
b. the thighs and shins
c. the palms and soles
d. the trunk and proximal part of limbs
e. the distal part of limbs
109. Pityriasis rosea begins with:
a. eruption of multiple lesions
b. intensive itching of affected skin
c. primary solitary lesion of round or oval shape
d. color of the lesion on periphery is light red, in the central part yellowish
e. peripheral part of the lesion is formed by a collarette scales
110. What is pityriasis rosea?
a. a form of seborrhoeic dermatitis
b. a disease from particular allergic reaction of skin
c. a disease induced by bacterial saprophytes of the skin
d. a disease induced by fungal saprophytes of the skin
e. a disease of unknown origin
111. What is characteristic for pityriasis rosea?
a. location on the trunk
b. tiny collarette of scale that typically points to the centre
c. relapses are common
d. the neck and face are usually affected
e. intense itching
112. What is an aetiopathogenetic basis of psoriasis?
a. disorders of immune mechanisms
b. disorders of circulation
c. inheritance
d. parasitic diseases
e. allergy
113. Mark the correct statements about psoriasis:
a. typical are dry and silver-white scales
b. scalp is commonly affected
c. psoriatic lesion weeps
d. nail changes are common
e. favourite affected areas are elbows and knees
114. What is a typical manifestation of psoriasis?
a. infiltrated lesions
b. scales
c. vesicles
d. cysts
e. ulcers
115. Primary skin lesion in psoriasis is:
a. flat papula covered with silvery scales
b. vesicle
c. cyst
d. urtica
e. ulcer
116. What is characteristic for psoriatic scale?
a. silver-white color, dryness
b. removing the scale reveals a candle sign
c. it completely covers the whole lesion
d. removing the scale reveals erosion
e. it occurs also on the lesion of leucoderma psoriaticum
117. Which signs are significant in psoriasis vulgaris?
a. punctuate bleeding
b. Auspitz sign
c. candle sign
d. carpet tack sign
e. sign of the last little piece of skin
118. Auspitz sign occurs in:
a. verrucae plane
b. eczema
c. lichen planus
d. psoriasis vulgaris
e. molluscum contagiosum
119. Which signs are positive in psoriasis vulgaris?
a. Köbner phenomenon
b. Nikolsky I sign
c. Auspitz sign
d. Nikolsky II sign
e. carpet tack sign
120. In which diseases does Köbner phenomenon occur?
a. furunculosis
b. lichen planus
c. verrucae plane
d. neurodermatitis
e. pityriasis rosea
121. What is candle sign?
a. scale on the surface of lesion organized to the shape of a drop from stearin candle
b. matte coloring of psoriatic scales looking like stearin candle
c. spontaneous crumbling of a dry scale resembling scrapings from stearin candle
d. scales fall off in form of tiny flakes that resemble scrapings from a candle using methodical scratching with scalpel
e. punctuate bleeding from enlarged capillaris when the last layer of scale is removed
122. What is Auspitz sign?
a. synonymum for punctuate bleeding
b. area bleeding that occurs after the friction of psoriatic plaques between the fingers
c. scales fall off in form of tiny flakes that resemble scrapings from a candle using methodical scratching with scalpel
d. punctuate bleeding from enlarged capillaries when the last layer of scale is removed by scratching with the scalpel
e. synonym for collarette of scales
123. What is Köbner phenomenon in psoriasis?
a. developing of psoriatic lesions caused by acute febrile infection
b. generalization of psoriasis after local irritation of psoriatic lesions
c. provoking of psoriatic lesions in areas of skin irritation
d. conversion of continuous psoriatic lesion to annular lesion
e. arrangement of psoriatic lesions in wavy lines
124. What are the predilection sites of psoriasis?
a. face
b. large joint flexors
c. sacral area
d. elbows
e. knees
125. When can develop eruption of acute follicular or guttate psoriasis?
a. after wearing of synthetic underwear
b. after consumption of citrus fruits
c. after cold exposure
d. after the previous infectious diseases
e. as a result of impetigo
126. Which forms of psoriais do you know?
a. follicular psoriasis
b. nummular psoriasis
c. geografphic psoriasis
d. vesicular psoriasis
e. psoriasis inversus
127. Which nail changes do occur in psoriasis?
a. onychodystrophy
b. onycholysis
c. onychomadesis
d. bleeding under the nails
e. subungual hyperkeratosis
128. Which of these diseases are in a grup of erythemato – papulo – squamous diseases?
a. urticaria
b. contagious impetigo
c. psoriasis vulgaris
d. pemphigus vulgaris
e. pityriasis rosea
129. Psoriasis is characterized by:
a. psoriasis is not a contagious disease
b. heredity does not affect the incidence of psoriasis
c. well defined erythemato – papulo –squamous flat papula is a primary lesion
d. psoriasis can occur at any age, regardless of gender
e. the diagnosis of psoriasis can be done additionally by occurence of leukoderma
130. Psoriatic arthritis is characterized by:
a. the most common, it is an asymmetric peripheral oligoarthropathy
b. small joints of hands are mainly affected
c. rheumatoid factor is usually positive
d. a significant association with HLA-B27
e. rheumatoid factor is usually negative
131. What is the difference between psoriaic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
a. joints are not usually affected symmetrically
b. distal interphalangeal joints are affected
c. rheumatoid factor is positive
d. rheumatoid factor is negative
e. joints tend to be mostly affected symmetrically
132. What are Munro’s microabscesses?
a. small bacterial abscesses in the epidermis
b. lesions of pustular psoriasis
c. sterile leukocyte infiltration between the layers of parakeratotic lamellae
d. accumulation of leukocytes in the dermis
e. accumulation of eosinophils in the epidermis
133. Which of these histological manifestations does occur in psoriasis?
a. dyskeratosis
b. parakeratosis
c. hyperkeratosis
d. hypergranulosis
e. spongiosis
134. Which of these diseases can be psoriasis-like in some of their stage?
a. pemphigus vulgaris
b. psoriasis-like eczematid
c. secondary syphilis
d. sarcoidosis
e. pityriasis rosea
135. Assign to scalp psoriasis correct statements:
a. hairs usually fall out of pathological area
b. lesions are well defined
c. scales covering lesion form thick deposits
d. symptoms tend to be localized typically at the interface of scalp and non hairy skin
e. auricles may also be affected
136. Assign to seborrhoeic dermatitis correct statements:
a. scales covering lesion are dry, whitish colored
b. eyebrows and nasolabial folds may also be affected
c. scales covering lesion are strongly oily, yellowish brown colored
d. skin under scales is minimally inflamed
e. the lipophilic yeast Malassezia sp. plays an important role in the aetiopathogenesis
137. Which provocation factors can apply in the aetiopathogenesis of psoriasis?
a. sunlight
b. inhaled allergens
c. beta-blockers
d. the occurrence of focal infection
e. alcohol
138. What are the appropriate measures to prevent exacerbation of psoriasis?
a. climatotherapy
b. skin care with soft, non-irritant topical agents
c. prevention of stressful situations
d. wipe the skin after washing with terry towel to improve circulation
e. searching for focal infections and removing them
139. Parapsoriasis en plaques is characterized by:
a. diameter of lesions is less than 5 cm in small patch form
b. polygonal flat papula covered by lacy reticular pattern of criss-crossed whitish lines
c. dark-red oval papula covered by thin micaceous scale, whole scale easily separates
d. papula painful to pressure
e. course has 3 forms
140. Pityriasis lichenoides et varioliformis acuta is:
a. chronic form of parapsoriasis en plaques
b. chronic form of pityriasis lichenoides
c. form of parapsoriasis occuring in atopic patients
d. acute form of parapsoriasis en plaques
e. is disease with favourite affected areas on trunk and flexor surfaces of limbs
141. Clinical features of parapsoriasis en plaques are characterized by:
a. lesions are located on face and shins
b. fine scales occurs on smooth glossy surface of lesions after scratching
c. diameter of lesions is less than 5 cm in small patch form
d. well defined yellow-red lesions as having atrophy appearance
e. lesions resemble fingerprints in small patch form
142. Mark the correct statements about pityriasis rubra pilaris:
a. the cause of the disease is defect in metabolism of vitamin A
b. primary lesion is red tiny macula with central hyperkeratosis
c. the first manifestation is usually the formation of diffuse orange-red pityriasis-like scaled keratotic erythema on the face and scalp
d. palms and soles are never affected
e. mucous membranes are not affected
143. Erythroderma is:
a. inflammation of the skin in skin folds
b. inflammation of the skin affecting at least half of the skin surface
c. disease of soles and palms accompanied by redness and peeling
d. inflammation of the whole skin surface with scaling
e. inflammation of the whole skin surface without scaling
144. Clinical features of erythroderma are characterized by:
a. feeling cold
b. acute erythroderma is usually developing on the base of non inflamed skin
c. transverse ridges are on the nails
d. hair is not altered
e. systemic symptoms are not present
145. Secondary erythroderma can develop from:
a. psoriasis vulgaris
b. eczema
c. lichen planus
d. pityriasis rubra pilaris
e. eczematides
146. Which are the favourite affected areas of lichen planus?
a. extensor surfaces of thighs
b. trunk
c. extensor surfaces of forearms
d. wrists
e. flexor surfaces of forearms
147. What is the initial primary lesion of lichen planus?
a. round convex skin colored papula
b. papula with the central vesicle
c. round flat pink papula
d. polygonal flat violaceous papula
e. hyperkeratotic deposits on tiny macules
148. Wickham striae are typical for:
a. psoriasis vulgaris
b. mucosal manifestations of lichen planus
c. lichen planus on the skin
d. discoid lupus erythematosus
e. parapsoriasis en plaques
149. Which clinical features are characteristic for lichen planus?
a. Köbner phenomenon
b. Auspitz sign
c. Wickham striae
d. carpet tack sign
e. collarette scales
150. Mark the correct statements about lichen planus:
a. it is rare accompanying sign of lichen planus of the skin
b. lacy reticular pattern of criss-crossed whitish lines mainly on buccal mucosa is typical
c. lesions on mucous membranes itch intensively
d. lesions on skin itch intensively
e. glans penis may also be affected
151. Which variant of lichen planus does occur on shins?
a. follicular lichen planus
b. bullous lichen planus
c. annularis lichen planus
d. verrucous lichen planus
e. linear lichen planus
152. Which variant of lichen planus does occur on the male genitals?
a. follicular lichen planus
b. bullous lichen planus
c. annularis lichen planus
d. verrucous lichen planus
e. linear lichen planus
153. The principle of Wickham striae is:
a. linear depigmentation
b. reticular smooth hyperkeratosis
c. thickening of the granular layer
d. thinning of the granular layer
e. dyskeratosis
154. Mark the correct statements about lichen planus:
a. flat papules slightly rough normal skin colored
b. papules are slightly hemispheric, circular shaped
c. Wickham striae are missing
d. skin lesions intensively itch
e. papules are flat polygonal shaped
155. Mark the correct statements about lichen simplex chronicus are:
a. favourite affected areas are neck, distal parts of the limbs or genital area
b. mucous membranes are affected
c. Wickham striae are missing
d. some skin types are more prone to lichenification
e. systemic symptoms are missing
156. Mark true statements about verrucae plane:
a. flat papules with yellowish-brown color
b. papules are hemispheris shape
c. Wickham striae are missing
d. Köbner phenomenon is present
e. papules are purple colored
157. Choose the typical diagnostic findings for psoriasis:
a. infiltration with dry silvery scales
b. lesions are violet colored
c. intensive itching
d. oily yellow scales
e. short duration
158. Choose the typical diagnostic findings for seborrhoic dermatitis:
a. infiltration with dry silvery scales
b. lesions are violet colored
c. intensive itching
d. oily yellow scales
e. short duration
159. Choose the typical diagnostic findings for pityriasis rosea:
a. single primary lesion is of round or oval shape localised on the trunk
b. lesions are violet colored
c. intensive itching
d. silvery scales
e. short duration
160. Choose the typical diagnostic findings for lichen planus:
a. macula covered by dry scales
b. lesions are violet colored
c. intensive itching
d. silvery scales
e. Köbner phenomenon
161. What are differential diagnoses in lichen planus on mucosa?
a. leukoplakia
b. candisosis
c. plaques opalines
d. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
e. herpetic gingivostomatitis
162. Prurigo simplex acuta is disease:
a. of adults
b. with infiltrated papules without exudation
c. characteristic lesion is urtica with exudation
d. with usually altered trunk and limbs
e. with lesions grouped mostly around the waist
163. Prurigo simplex acuta can be related:
a. with internal malignant diseases
b. with insect bite
c. with dusty environment
d. with food allergens
e. with herpes simplex infection
164. Prurigo is defined as:
a. aetiologically unique clinical unit
b. form of skin reaction due to various provocative causes
c. disease, which etiological factors are exclusively external
d. disease, which etiological factors are external and internal
e. as result of delayed type of allergic reaction
165. True statements about prurigo simplex acuta are:
a. wheals with hemorrhagic dot are present
b. wheals with central microscopic vesicles
c. wheals with pustule in the center
d. lesions are located predominantly on the trunk and limbs
e. lesions are located predominantly on the face
166. True statements for scabies are:
a. wheals with hemorrhagic dot are present
b. excoriated papules on the wrists are present
c. typical are wheals with vesicles
d. papules are usually on the penis
e. papules are predominantly on extensor parts of the limbs
167. Pruritus cum materia is characterized by:
a. itching accompanies skin diseases
b. itching accompanies systemic diseases
c. itching accompanies psychiatric diseases
d. atopic dermatitis is a common cause
e. renal insufficiency may be cause
168. For pruritus sine materia is characteristic:
a. itching accompanies skin diseases
b. itching accompanies systemic diseases
c. itching accompanies psychiatric diseases
d. atopic dermatitis is a common cause
e. renal insufficiency may be a cause
169. Urticaria is understood as a disease:
a. definitely of allergic genesis
b. induced mostly by the action of mediators
c. polyaetiological with different pathogenesis
d. characterized by massive infiltration
e. caused by increased vascular permeability
170. Choose the true statements for urticaria:
a. lesions last short time, they are like rash after contact with the nettle
b. wheals are intensely itchy
c. lesions are always excoriated
d. conjunctiva is usually affected
e. lesions never itch
171. Angioedema is:
a. result of an increase neural excitability
b. reaction of deep dermal vascular permeability
c. result of organic damage of blood vessels
d. reaction with similar pathomechanism as urticaria
e. none of the options is correct
172. Histamin, acetylcholin, serotonin are:
a. drugs for allergic reaction
b. without relation to allergy
c. mediators mediating allergic response
d. allergens, against which antibodies arise
e. substances which can be released even without immune mechanisms
173. Chronic urticaria is related to:
a. focal infection
b. physical causes
c. acute infection
d. intestinal parasites
e. additives of food
174. Physical urticaria:
a. occurs during a day
b. occurs only during a night
c. is verifiable by a particular physical test
d. accompanied by white dermographism
e. can be sometimes genetically conditioned
175. Small, whitish wheals on trunk with erythematous area are found in:
a. serum sickness
b. cold urticaria
c. urticaria after physical stimuli
d. cholinergic urticaria
e. pressure urticaria
176. Cold urticaria:
a. is always of non-allergic origin
b. is always of allergic origin
c. can be both of allergic and non-allergic origin
d. can be genetically conditioned
e. is never genetically conditioned
177. Urticaria factitia is reaction:
a. spontaneously occurring on the skin
b. provoked by tangential pressure
c. occurring after provocation on distant places
d. developing only in site of provocation
e. permanent condition that cannot be affected neither spontaneously nor with therapy
178. If an examination reveals that erythematourticarial manifestations occur slowly, they do not change their shape for a long time, relapsing, painful and itchy vesicles develop on them; differential diagnostics of the following must be considered:
a. herpes zoster
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. erythema multiforme
d. fixed drug eruption
e. prurigo
179. If an examination reveals that erythematourticarial manifestations occur suddenly, they are concentric target , some of them with central dusky purpura, mostly on extensors, differential diagnostics of the following must be considered:
a. herpes zoster
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. erythema multiforme
d. fixed drug eruption
e. prurigo
180. Which examination would you recommend in examination of chronic urticaria:
a. searching for focal infection
b. HBsAg
c. examination of parasites in stool
d. examination of basic biochemical parameters
e. routine patch tests
181. What factors do play a role in pathogenesis of eczema?
a. pollutants from outer environment
b. virulence of pathogenic organisms
c. barrier function of the skin
d. genetic predisposition
e. immune condition of the organism
182. Irritant contact dermatitis:
a. develops by acting of irritating substance on the skin
b. occurs only in the site of contact
c. overlaps the site of contact
d. recedes after elimination of irritating substance
e. persists and relapses long time after elimination of irritating substance
183. Cumulative irritant contact dermatitis:
a. occurs by immune mechanism
b. appears as a failure of natural resistance of skin
c. occurs in housewives
d. occurs mostly on hands
e. has often a character of professional dermatitis
184. Choose the aetiological agents if contact eczema is localized on eyelids in women:
a. professional allergens
b. metals (chromium, nickel, cobalt)
c. furs
d. cosmetics
e. plastic materials
185. Choose the aetiological agents if contact eczema is localized on back of hands:
a. professional allergens
b. metals (chromium, nickel, cobalt)
c. furs
d. latex
e. plastic materials
186. Choose the condition when does professional eczema get better?
a. inpatient treatment
b. outpatient treatment without interruption of work
c. outpatient treatment with interruption of work
d. only if a patient change workplace and place of living
e. change of workplace
187. Negative patch tests to a particular test kit of allergens mean that:
a. it is not allergic contact eczema
b. causative allergen is not in the diagnostic test kit
c. testing was affected by current administration of antihistamines
d. it is cumulative chronic dermatitis
e. testing was affected by current administration of analgesics
188. What local changes can be in acute allergic contact dermatitis?
a. erythema
b. papulovesicles
c. crusts
d. oedema
e. erosions with weeping
189. Which changes can be found in subacute an chronic allergic contact dermatitis in local finding?
a. lichenification
b. exfoliation
c. oedema
d. fissures or rhagas
e. hyperkeratosis
190. Sensibility in allergic contact dermatitis can develop:
a. only monovalent
b. only polyvalent
c. monovalent and also polyvalent
d. only to substance of the same chemical structure
e. to substance of the same and similar chemical structure
191. The most effective preventive precaution of recurrent allergic contact dermatitis is:
a. using of protective clothes, gloves
b. using of protective creams
c. elimination of revealed inducing allergen
d. to protect skin from drying
e. using of disinfectant soaps
192. What does play a role in the pathogenesis of nummular dermatitis?
a. sensitisation of organism to allergen of microbial bodies
b. virulence of microbes inducing eczema
c. microbial products
d. lowered humoral immune response against microbes
e. probably cell mediated hypersensitivity of type IV reaction
193. What is considered in aetiology of nummular dermatitis?
a. genetic predisposition
b. hypersensitivity to staphylococcal antigens
c. chronic focal infections
d. sensitisation to allergens of working place
e. viral and fungal infection
194. Nummular dermatitis is usually localized on:
a. face
b. lower limbs
c. upper limbs
d. mucous membranes
e. palms and soles
195. Mark the correct statements about atopic dermatitis:
a. genetic predisposition is applied in aetiopathogenesis
b. immune dysregulation is applied in aetiopathogenesis
c. important role in onset is played by defective epidermal barrier function
d. excessive production of IgG is present
e. the disease is not affected by environmental factors
196. Atopic dermatitis is characterized by this findings:
a. pale and dry skin
b. typical changes of clinical features depending on age
c. hair growing deep on temples and large and typical dense eyebrow
d. it can be connected with allergic rhinitis
e. minimal itching
197. Atopic dermatitis in infantile age is characterized by this findings:
a. onset in first months of life
b. symptoms are considerably itching
c. first symptoms are typically localized on the face
d. basic symptoms are papules and vesicles
e. secondary bacterial infections are not found
198. Seborrhoeic dermatitis in small children is characterized by this symptoms:
a. onset usually in the first months of life
b. onset usually after the first year of life
c. the first symptoms are on the scalp, axilla, diaper area
d. the first symptoms are on the limbs
e. basic symptom is slight erythema with oily scales of yellowish color
199. Choose preventive precautions for atopic dermatitis:
a. dietary precautions with eliminating known allergens
b. use of bedding with feathers
c. using water and vacuum cleaner to keep the house clean
d. isolation of an ill person
e. prevent contact of skin with wool and fur
200. Choose appropriate therapy of atopic dermatitis:
a. antihistamines
b. topical corticosteroids
c. phototherapy
d. retinoids
e. climate treatment
201. Secondary lichenification occurs on basis of:
a. disorganization of vesicles
b. urticaria
c. contact dermatitis
d. atopic dermatitis
e. seborrhoeic dermatitis
202. Lesions of lichen simplex chronicus are usually:
a. in popliteal and cubital fossa
b. on medial surfaces of thighs
c. on a forehead
d. on the neck
e. on palms
203. In therapy of lichen simplex chronicus we use:
a. antibiotics
b. antihistamines
c. vasodilators
d. topical corticosteroids under occlusion
e. retinoids
204. In pathogenesis of seborrhoeic diseases the primary role is played by:
a. lipofilic yeast Malassezia sp.
b. functional disorders of sebaceous glands
c. disorder of secretion of sweat glands
d. hypovitaminosis of vitamin D with hypocalcemia
e. sensibilisation to allergens of external environment
205. Seborrhoeic dermatitis of adults and older children is localized:
a. in nasolabial folds
b. in borderline of hairy part of head and forehead
c. on wrists
d. in presternal area
e. on palms and soles
206. Lesions of seborrhoeic dermatitis:
a. are minimally infiltrated erythemato – squamous lesions covered by oily yellowish scales
b. often show a butterfly shape on nose and cheeks
c. are covered on surface by thick silvery, glossy scales, that are easily removable
d. are slightly itching
e. weeping and crust forming are present only exceptionally
207. Choose appropriate therapy of seborrhoeic dermatitis:
a. substances of sulphur
b. salicylates
c. vitamin D
d. mild topical corticosteroids
e. antifungals
208. Mark the correct statements about the patch testing:
a. it is used to validate allergic contact sensitization
b. it is used to validate an immediate – type allergy to inhalant allergens
c. it is used to validate an immediate – type allergy to food allergens
d. the test substances are applied on the skin surface
e. the test substances are applied into dermis with the injection needle
209. Mark the correct statements about the intracutaneous tests:
a. it is used to validate allergic contact sensitization
b. it is used to validate an immediate – type allergy to inhalant allergens
c. it is used to validate an immediate – type allergy to food allergens
d. the test substances are applied on the skin surface
e. the test substances are applied into dermis with the injection needle
210. Which test is used in the diagnosis of physical urticaria:
a. cold test
b. Coombs test
c. pressure test
d. heat test
e. Trendelenburg test
211. Which skin manifestations are characteristic for pemphigus vulgaris?
a. flaccid blisters on normal skin
b. slight pressure on the roof of intact blister causes its distribution to peripheral
c. blisters never occur on the mouth and vagina mucosa
d. blister roof is relatively thin and ruptures easily
e. small blisters often form on inflamed skin
212. Which histological and morphological manifestation does occur in pemphigus vulgaris?
a. Tzank's cells
b. subepidermal blisters
c. intraepidermal blisters
d. acantholysis
e. Munro's microabscesses
213. Mark the correct statements about pemphigus vulgaris:
a. erosions on the mucous membranes are extremely painful
b. thin blister roof and their dissemination into the periphery leads to extensive erosion
c. blister eruption is revealed in attacks
d. the presence of IgA antibodies against gliadin is demonstrated in the serum of patients
e. pemphigus has the highest lethality in all blistering dermatoses
214. Choose the appropriate treatment of pemphigus vulgaris:
a. sulfonamides
b. corticosteroids
c. antihistamines
d. antimalarials
e. immunosuppressants
215. Favourite affected area of pemphigus vegetans is:
a. palms and soles
b. trunk and waist
c. intertriginous areas
d. face
e. gluteal area
216. Which skin manifestations are characteristic for pemphigus vegetans?
a. on the contact surfaces papillomatous vegetative lesions are often secondarily infected
b. the tiny vesicles are presented on the urticarial and inflammatory lesions
c. vegetation can be very painful and unpleasant smelling
d. they have a strong tendency to transition into erythroderma
e. the warm and humid microenvironment helps to their development
217. Which skin manifestations are characteristic for pemphigus foliaceus?
a. the prognosis is the most serious of all forms of pemphigus
b. the primary lesion is a small flaccid blister with a very thin roof
c. Nikolsky sign I is negative
d. the disease can spread to the whole skin surface and secondary erythroderma creates
e. burning and pain sensation are present
218. Pemphigus foliaceus is characterized by:
a. itching
b. nail loss
c. involvement of mucous membranes
d. the first symptoms are usually occured in seborrheic areas
e. better prognosis than pemfigus vulgaris
219. Mark the correct statements about pemphigoid gestationis (herpes gestationis):
a. it mainly affects elderly individuals
b. it mainly affects women in pregnancy
c. the lesions are extremely pruritic
d. skin lesions are typically periumbilical
e. almost all patients have mucosal lesions
220. What is the usual localization of pemphigoid gestationis (herpes gestationis)?
a. palms
b. a face
c. an abdomen
d. a trunk
e. soles
221. What is favourite affected area of eruptions in dermatitis herpetiformis?
a. a face
b. mucous membranes
c. blade area
d. gluteal and sacral area
e. elbows and knees
222. What are the typical manifestations of dermatitis herpetiformis?
a. burning sensation or severe itching
b. eruption of papules, wheals and tiny vesicles
c. eruption of bullae on the mucous membranes
d. fever
e. the mucous membranes are not affected
223. What are the characteristic symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis?
a. polymorphic cutaneous changes
b. burning and itching sensation
c. frequent presence of lesions on the mucous membranes
d. vesicles tend to herpetiform grouping
e. systemic symptoms are not marked
224. What type of hypersensitivity is manifested in dermatitis herpetiformis?
a. to pollen allergens
b. to dust
c. to gluten
d. to iodine
e. to nickel
225. Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by:
a. negative Nikolsky sign I
b. positive allergy to iodine
c. positive Tzanck smear
d. therapeutic effect of the sulfone
e. itching and burning sensation
226. Choose the appropriate therapy for dermatitis herpetiformis:
a. retinoids
b. diet restriction of purines
c. sulfones
d. corticosteroids
e. gluten-free diet
227. What are the clinical manifestations of bullous pemphigoid?
a. grouped bullous and pustulous lesions on the inflamed base
b. flaccid vesicles and bullae on the normal skin
c. vegetation can create in places of erosions
d. eruption of tense bullae on erythematous base
e. Nikolsky sign I can be positive
228. What are the histological findings in bullous pemphigoid?
a. Tzanck smear is positive
b. bullae are subepidermal
c. inflammatory infiltrate with eosinophils is under the bullae in dermis
d. acantholysis
e. Munro's microabscesses
229. Favourite affected areas of bullous pemphigoid are:
a. mucous membranes
b. lateral parts of the neck
c. armpits
d. flexor surface of forearms and inner thighs
e. face
230. Which age is typical for development of bullous pemphigoid?
a. in neonatal
b. in childhood
c. in adolescence
d. 30-40 year
e. Over 60 years
231. Typical histological findings of pemphigus vulgaris are:
a. intraepidermal blistering
b. subepidermal blistering
c. acantholysis
d. Munro's microabscesses
e. dyskeratosis
232. Typical histological findings of bullous pemphigoid are:
a. intraepidermal blistering
b. subepidermal blistering
c. acantholysis
d. Munro's microabscesses
e. dyskeratosis
233. Typical histological findings of dermatitis herpetiformis are:
a. intraepidermal blistering
b. subepidermal blistering
c. acantholysis
d. acanthosis
e. dyskeratosis
234. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by:
a. favourite affected areas: blade, gluteal and sacral area
b. favourite affected areas: lateral part of the neck, armpits, flexor part of arm, inner thigh
c. flaccid bullae usually on normal skin
d. frequent changes of mucous membranes
e. positive iodine test
235. Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by:
a. favourite affected areas: blade, gluteal and sacral area
b. favourite affected areas: lateral part of the neck, armpits, flexor part of arm, inner thigh
c. flaccid bullae usually on normal skin
d. frequent changes of mucous membranes
e. iodine test is positive
236. Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by:
a. favourite affected areas: blade, gluteal and sacral area
b. favourite affected areas: lateral part of the neck, axillas, flexor part of arm, inner thigh
c. flaccid bullae usually on normal skin
d. frequent changes of mucous membranes
e. iodine test is positive
237. Which disease are characterized by positive Nikolsky sign I?
a. pemphigus vulgaris
b. pemphigus foliaceus
c. psoriasis vulgaris
d. herpes simplex
e. lichen planus
238. The places of the most common manifestations of epidermolysis bullosa simplex are:
a. hands
b. feet
c. trunk
d. mucous membranes
e. nails
239. Causative agent of epidermolysis bullosa simplex is:
a. pressure, friction
b. the effect of cold
c. the effect of heat
d. chemicals
e. gluten
240. Mark the correct statements about epidermolysis bullosa simplex:
a. the most common forms are dominantly inherited
b. the most common forms are recessively inherited
c. eye conjunctiva and oral mucosa are sometimes affected
d. lesions heal without scarring
e. onychodystrophy and nail aplasia is present
241. Mark the correct statements about dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa:
a. mucous membranes are affected in generalized recessive form
b. mucous membranes are affected in localized recessive form
c. blisters are subcorneal located
d. lesions heal without scarring
e. onychodystrophy is present
242. Mark the correct statements about pemphigus vulgaris:
a. Nikolsky sign I is positive
b. blisters filled with haemorrhagic fluid are always present
c. flaccid blisters filled with clear and serous fluid are present
d. eruptions occur in different time intervals
e. also mucous membranes can be affected
243. Systemic corticosteroids as first-line drugs are used in treatment of:
a. erysipelas
b. pemphigus vulgaris
c. erythema migrans
d. dermatitis herpetiformis
e. porphyria cutanea tarda
244. Generalised pustular psoriasis (von Zumbusch type) is characterized by:
a. always occurs on the basis of psoriasis vulgaris
b. formation of sterile pustules
c. pustules may coalesce
d. the most affected sites are extensors and perianal area
e. is the most severe form of pustular psoriasis
245. Palmoplantar pustular psoriasis:
a. is mostly disease of children
b. is mostly disease of adult
c. disability is usually asymmetric
d. the course of disease is chronic
e. it is difficult to treat
246. Impetigo herpetiformis usually begins:
a. in adolescence
b. in middle-aged men
c. at puberty
d. during pregnancy
e. non of these
247. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is characterized by:
a. alopecia
b. frequent vomiting
c. diarrhoea
d. formation of vesicles and bullae
e. bacterial and candida superinfection is common
248. Choose yhe appropriate therapy for acrodermatitis enteropathica:
a. corticosteroids
b. retinoids
c. zinc supplementation
d. sulfones
e. antimalarials
249. Acrodermatitis enteropathica:
a. is disease linked to the sex chromosome X
b. is autosomal recessively inherited
c. is related to abnormal metabolism of iron
d. is caused by Candida
e. is related to abnormal metabolism of zinc
250. The two most frequent causative agents of pyoderma are:
a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Proteus vulgaris
251. Which of following factors support development of pyoderma?
a. poor hygiene
b. using emolients
c. a defective skin barrier function
d. humid climate
e. microtrauma
252. Mark which symptoms are present in staphylococcal scaled skin syndrome:
a. total alteration
b. itching
c. fever
d. large eroded areas
e. disability of mucosal membranes
253. Superficial pustular folliculitis (ostiofolliculitis, impetigo Bockhart):
a. is most commonly caused by streptococci
b. is most commonly caused by staphylococci
c. predisposing factors are humid and warm microclimate
d. infundibulum of hair follicle is affected
e. most often affects palms and soles
254. Mark the correct statements about superficial pustular folliculitis (ostiofolliculitis):
a. it is inflammation of skin sebaceous glands especially their orifices
b. often spreads by shaving
c. maximum infiltration is on dermis and hypodermis interface
d. infundibulum of hair follicle is affected
e. absence of systemic symptoms
255. Mark the correct statements about acne keloidalis nuchae:
a. affects the nape
b. manifestations have character of acne vulgaris
c. maximum inflammatory infiltrate is in the upper part of the hair follicle
d. itching and painfulness are present
e. lesions heal with extensive linear scars
256. Mark the correct statements about furunculosis:
a. is recurring furuncles
b. is agregate of several grouped furuncles
c. immunodeficient patients are predisposed
d. is an infiltrative – suppurative process of sweat glands
e. diabetics are predisposed
257. The most common predisposing factors of furunculosis are:
a. chronic carriage of bacteria in nasopharynx
b. cachectic patients
c. immunodeficient patients
d. diabetes mellitus
e. hyperhidrosis
258. Furuncle is characterized by:
a. acute deep inflammation of the skin around inflamed hair follicle
b. lesions are painful
c. inflammation is accompained by extensive oedema and painfulness
d. acute inflammation, suppuration and necrosis of follicular and perifollicular tissue
e. the most common causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus
259. Furuncles occurring on the central area of face are more dangerous that furuncles occurring in other localizations because of:
a. cosmetic reason
b. painfulness
c. more frequent relapses
d. the possibility of cavernous sinus thrombosis and meningitis
e. the possibility of paresis n. facialis
260. Which of the following laboratory tests should be done in reccurence of furuncles?
a. elecrophoresis of proteins
b. glycemic curve
c. rheumatoid factor
d. ASLO
e. determination antibiotic sensitivity on causative agent
261. Mark the correct statements about carbuncle:
a. is aggregate of several communicated furuncles
b. is superficial infection of hair follicle
c. is accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy, lymphangoitis and fever
d. the most common causative agent is Trichophyton rubrum
e. disintegrating necrosis center of furuncle
262. Choose appropriate therapy for furuncle and carbuncle:
a. antifungal agents
b. antiseptics
c. application of moist heat
d. topical antibiotics
e. systemic antibiotics
263. Which of the following skin appendages are affected in hidradenitis suppurativa?
a. eccrine sweat glands
b. apocrine sweat glands
c. nails
d. sebaceous glands
e. hair follicles
264. Mark the correct statements about hidradenitis suppurativa:
a. affects apocrine sweat glands
b. secondary causative factors are probably gram-negative bacteria
c. affects eccrine sweat glands
d. obesity is a predisposing factor
e. favourite affected area is trunk
265. Which drugs are not used in treatment of pyoderma?
a. antibiotics
b. antimalarials
c. antiseptics
d. antifungal agents
e. retinoids (isotretinoin)
266. Mark the correct statements about nonbullous impetigo:
a. subcorneal vesicles are present
b. eroded lesions dry to form a characteristic honey-colored crusts
c. favourite affected areas are face, area around mouth and nasal entrance
d. painful regional lymphadenopathy may be present
e. systemic symptoms are present
267. Mark the correct statements about nonbullous impetigo:
a. blisters have thicker cover and persist longer
b. vesicles are hemispheric with tense cover
c. blisters have thin cover and rupture easily
d. crusts of yellow-gold color are created on erosions
e. epidemics can be seen in kindergartens or paediatric wards
268. Mark the correct statements about bullous impetigo:
a. blisters are large with several centimeters in diameter
b. lesions usually occur on face
c. contents of vesicles stay clear
d. crusts of yellow-gold color are created on erosions
e. epidemics can be seen in kindergartens or paediatric wards
269. Choose the appropriate treatment for impetigo:
a. topical antibiotics
b. systemic antibiotics
c. antifungal agents
d. topical antiseptics
e. topical therapy with penicilin
270. Mark the correct statements about bulla repens:
a. the most common causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus
b. firm blister is usually localized on the tip of digit
c. is a special form of folliculitis
d. fever is present
e. blister is painful
271. Mark the correct statements about dermatepidermatitis microbica erythematosquamosa:
a. disease most commonly occurs on the shins, especially in people with circulatory disorders
b. is the starting point to form furuncles
c. lesion are often extensive, sharply defined, covered by large thin scales
d. lesions are covered by many pustules
e. scalp and retroauricular area may also be affected
272. Dermatepidermatitis microbica erythematosquamosa is characterized by:
a. trunk is the most commonly affected
b. lesion is covered by thin large scales
c. lesion is covered by thick oily scales
d. circinate lesion has a tendency to central healing
e. skin under the scales is dark-red, shiny and dry
273. Favourite affected area of ecthyma simplex is:
a. on the dorsum of foot
b. on face
c. on shins
d. on hands
e. on scalp
274. Mark the correct statements about ecthyma simplex:
a. site penetration of infection is microtrauma
b. occurs in people with hypertension
c. after penetration infection into the dermis develops deep, sharply cutting ulcer
d. ulcer is healing with scarring
e. systemic symptoms may be significant
275. Causative agent of ecthyma gangraenosum (terebrans) is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Proteus sp.
c. Streptococcus beta-haemolyticus
d. Escherichia coli
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
276. Mark the most common site of erysipelas:
a. hands
b. face
c. shin
d. perigenital area
e. without any favourite affected area
277. Mark typical findings of erysipelas:
a. asymmetrical demarcated erythema and oedema
b. diarrhea
c. swelling of joints
d. shiver
e. fever
278. Mark the correct statements about erysipelas:
a. develops after penetration the group A of beta-haemolytic streptococci into lymph spaces of skin
b. often occurs on the face
c. recurrence is rare
d. sometimes manifested in the bullous form
e. most causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus
279. Which symptom does occur in erysipelas?
a. shiver
b. sharply defined erythema with oedema
c. painfulness to touch
d. pruritus
e. fever
280. Mark the correct statements about erysipelas:
a. disease is highly contagious
b. infection is transmitted from person to person rarely
c. tiny erosions and rhagas are the site penetration of infection
d. after healing remains immunity
e. often recurs in the same place
281. Causative agent of erysipeloid is:
a. Streptococcus erysipelatosus
b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
c. all haemolytic streptococci
d. up to now exactly unidentified virus
e. causative agent is not identified exactly yet
282. Mark the correct statements about erysipeloid:
a. infection may be transmitted from person to person
b. the most causative agents are domestic and wild pig and fish
c. lesion is violet-red and painful
d. the violet-red inflammation spreads peripherally while the skin clears centrally
e. is usually accompanied by fever
283. Erysipeloid and anthrax are:
a. pyoderma
b. zoonosis
c. fungal infection
d. viral cutaneous infection
e. blistering diseases
284. The most common affected areas of erysipeloid are:
a. face
b. trunk
c. hands
d. shins
e. feet
285. Which of these bacterial diseases are the most contagious?
a. bullous impetigo
b. folliculitis
c. furuncle
d. nonbullous impetigo
e. erysipelas
286. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be proved in lesions:
a. only by hyperergic form of cutaneous tuberculosis
b. only by anergic form of cutaneous tuberculosis
c. by normergic and anergic form of cutaneous tuberculosis
d. by hyperergic and normergic form of cutaneous tuberculosis
e. by hyperergic and anergic form of cutaneous tuberculosis
287. Tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae develops:
a. in patients with progressive tuberculosis of internal organs
b. direct contact with causative agent
c. in normergic people
d. in hyperergic people
e. in anergic people
288. The most common sites of tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae are:
a. the site of disintegration of erythema induratum
b. around body orifices
c. the fingers
d. the conjunctiva
e. site of BCG vaccination
289. Tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis is characterized by:
a. begins as papula, later evolves into pustula which does not ulcerate
b. ulcers are numerous shallow with undermined edges
c. ulcers are painful
d. ulcers are solitary deep with flat edges
e. localization of lesions corresponding with affected internal organs
290. Tuberculosis cutis verrucosa develops:
a. by haematogenous dissemination
b. within the lymfatic vessels
c. only in areas previous skin disease
d. in surgical wounds
e. in site penetrations exogenous infection
291. Tuberculosis cutis verrucosa is characterized by:
a. painful infiltrate with smooth surface
b. painless brown-red infiltrate with hyperkeratotic verrucous surface
c. the infiltrate resolves centrally and becomes annular in shape
d. significant systemic symptoms
e. lymph nodes are usually affected
292. Tuberculosis cutis verrucosa is usually localized on:
a. feet
b. trunk
c. gluteal area
d. hands
e. scalp
293. Mark the correct statements about tuberculosis cutis luposa:
a. course is short and heals ad integrum
b. serious complication may be development of squamous cell carcinoma in the scar of lupus vulgaris
c. mycobacteria may arise from healed primary cutaneous tuberculosis where survived and were reactivated
d. the basic morphological finding is pin-head sized nodules of red-brown or apple-jelly color
e. disease may lead to mutilation of nose and ears
294. The most common sites of lupus vulgaris are:
a. acral areas – distal part of extremities
b. above lymph nodes
c. around body orifices
d. nose, cheeks, ears
e. scalp
295. What can occur on the basis of lupus vulgaris?
a. squamous cell carcinoma
b. erysipelas recidivans
c. pyoderma chronicum
d. elephantiasis
e. herpes zoster
296. Diagnostic identification of mycobacteria may be used at:
a. lupus vulgaris
b. tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae
c. scrofuloderma (tuberculosis cutis coliquativa)
d. papulonecrotic tuberculid
e. ertythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis indurativa)
297. Mark the correct statements about scrofuloderma (tuberculosis cutis coliquativa):
a. is hyperergic form of tuberculosis
b. spreads per continuitatem and haematogenous pathway
c. lesion begins as a firm nodule,followed by central liquefaction necrosis and perforation of abscess externaly
d. is characterized by variety regression of signs with formation of new nodules, sinus tracts and ulcers
e. heals ad integrum
298. Which form of cutaneous tuberculosis is associated with positive tuberkulin test?
a. tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae
b. papulonecrotic tuberculid
c. lupus vulgaris
d. erythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis indurativa)
e. tuberculosis cutis verrucosa
299. Favourite affected area of erythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis indurativa) is:
a. extensors of forearms
b. flexors of forearms
c. extensors of lower part of legs
d. flexors of lower part of legs
e. trunk
300. Mark the correct statements about lichen scrofulosus (tuberculosis cutis lichenoides):
a. develops in normergic people
b. the most affected sites are lateral areas of trunk
c. eruption consists of tiny papules with tendency to confluent
d. eruption may disappear spontaneously within a few weeks
e. lesions may disintegrated
301. What are preventive precautions of tuberculosis?
a. isolation of patients
b. BCG vaccination
c. follow up of exposed persons
d. treatment patients with nidrazid
e. treatment patients with griseofulvin
302. Which form of tuberculosis cutis heals ad integrum?
a. none
b. tuberculosis cutis luposa
c. erythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis indurativa)
d. lichen scrofulosus (tuberculosis cutis lichenoides)
e. scrofuloderma (tuberculosis cutis coliquativa)
303. Sarcoidosis is caused by:
a. agents of deep fungal infection
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. viral agents
d. genetic factors
e. cancer
304. What is characteristic for disseminated miliaris sarcoidosis?
a. nodules up to 3 mm in size
b. nodules of size greater than 1 cm
c. favourite affected areas on the face, above extensors of extremities
d. favourite affected areas on the trunk
e. involvement of internal organs is common
305. What is present in large nodular type of cutaneous sarcoidosis?
a. lesions in several cm
b. telangiectases
c. vesicles and pustules
d. ulcers
e. significant systemic symptoms
306. Lupus pernio is a clinical variant of:
a. lupus vulgaris
b. chilblains
c. lupus erythematosus chronicus
d. photodermatosis
e. sarcoidosis
307. Angiolupoid sarcoidosis is characterized by:
a. typical localization on nose
b. solid yellow nodules
c. telangiectases
d. soft reddish-brown nodules
e. typical localization on chin
308. Which localizations are appropriated to do examination of the smear in acute gonorrhoea in fertile women?
a. vulva
b. urethra
c. vagina
d. cervix
e. rectum
309. Gonorrhoea is confirmed by:
a. evidence of causative agent in dark field
b. evidence of diplococci in Gram-stained smear
c. examination of native smear
d. evidence of regional lymph node swelling
e. serological examination
310. Which staining is used for evidence of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
a. Giemsa staining
b. carbolfuchsin staining
c. methylen blue staining
d. Ziehl – Neelsen staining
e. Gram staining
311. What is a purpose of two glass urine test in examination of gonorrhoea in men?
a. detection of salts in the urine
b. specification of the localization of gonorrhoea
c. acquisition of material for culture gonococci
d. preparation for better taking of material for microscopic examination and culture
e. to distinguish syphilis
312. Why gonorrhoic infection primarily affects male and female urethra, cervix, rectum and ocular conjunctiva, as well as vulva and vagina of young girls?
a. these localizations are most exposed to gonorrhoic infection
b. mucous membranes of the human body are highly susceptible to gonorrhoic infection
c. they are covered with squamous epithelium
d. they are covered with columnar epithelium or transitional epithelium
e. they have a common basis in hormonal causes
313. What is the usual incubation period for gonorrhea in men?
a. 1-2 days
b. 3-5 days
c. 6-8 days
d. 1-2 weeks
e. 3-4 weeks
314. What are the first clinical findings of urethritis gonorrhoica anterior acuta in man?
a. burning in the orifice of the urethra especially during urination
b. initially mucous discharge appears and after a few hours a dense purulent yellow, yellow-green discharge
c. in the first days of infection tiny rhagas that cause escalation burning sensation are often manifest in the orifice of the urethra
d. fever
e. enlarged regional lymph nodes
315. Few extracellular gonococci in the smear suggest:
a. acute gonorrhea
b. relapse of acute gonorrhea
c. gonorrhoic cystitis
d. chronic gonorrhea
e. gonorrhea affects the front part of the urethra
316. What are the manifestations of urethritis gonorrhoica posterior acuta in men?
a. increase the amount of purulent discharge from the orifice of the urethra
b. urge for frequent urination of small quantum of urine
c. terminal hematuria
d. painful erection
e. burning pain during urination
317. Assign to gonorrhea anterior acuta tight finding:
a. there is mucus, epithelia, few leukocytes and little extracellular gonococci in the smear
b. in the two glass urine test both urine portions are cloudy
c. in the two glass urine test only the second urine portion is cloudy
d. in the two glass urine test only the first urine portion is cloudy
e. there are many leukocytes and intracellular gonococci in the smear
318. Assign to gonorrhoea anterior et posterior chronica tight finding:
a. there is mucus, epithelia, few leukocytes and little extracellular gonococci in the smear
b. in the two glass urine test both urine portions are cloudy
c. in the two glass urine test only the second urine portion is cloudy
d. in the two glass urine test only the first urine portion is cloudy
e. there are many leukocytes and intracellular gonococci in the smear
319. What are the forms of prostatitis in gonorrhea?
a. prostatitis parenchymatosa
b. prostatitis granularis
c. prostatitis catarrhalis
d. prostatitis abscedens
e. prostatitis follicularis
320. The provocation method in the follow-up examination of gonorrhea in men is done with:
a. boric acid 3% solution
b. diluted Lugol’s solution
c. rivanol 1 % solution
d. 1 % acetic acid solution
e. gentian violet 1 % solution
321. Mark the correct statements about trichomoniasis:
a. clinical manifestations are more frequently in women than in men
b. the clinical features are dominated by discharge accompanied by burning and itching
c. trichomoniasis is usually transmitted in swimming pools
d. trichomoniasis in men is seldom clinically apparent
e. it is transmitted most often by sexual contact
322. What type of vaginal discharge is characteristic for trichomoniasis in women?
a. profuse purulent foamy discharge
b. yellow-green dense discharge
c. greyish-white, dense, grainy discharge
d. profuse thin foamy discharge, whitish color
e. minimal thin foamy discharge, yellow-green color
323. What is used in the treatment of trichomoniasis?
a. high doses of penicillin administered parenteral
b. the infusion of amphotericin B
c. metronidazole
d. cephalosporins
e. tetracycline
324. In which of following diseases can occur arthritis?
a. gonorrhoea
b. vulvovaginitis candidomycetica
c. psoriasis vulgaris
d. ulcus molle
e. herpes simplex genitalis
325. Causative agent of ulcus molle is:
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Haemophilus Ducreyi
d. Haemophilus haemolyticus
e. Streptococcus pyogenes
326. Mark the correct statements about ulcus molle:
a. the first clinical symptoms begin after 1-3 days incubation period
b. the incubation period is 5-7 days
c. the first manifestation is a blister soon changing to pustule which is rapidly falling apart and creates an ulcer
d. creates a cyst which ulcerates
e. begins as a papula, which occurs on red inflamed base, changing to pustule, which ulcerates
327. Which of these drugs are used in treatment of ulcus molle:
a. penicillin
b. sulphonamides
c. vaccine
d. topical antibiotics
e. tetracycline
328. Mark the correct statements about granuloma inguinale:
a. the first manifestation of disease can be a papula, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
b. the first manifestation of disease can be a pustule, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
c. the first manifestation of disease can be a urtica, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
d. the first manifestation of disease can be a cyst, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
e. the first manifestation of disease can be a nodule, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
329. What is necessary for diagnosis of ulcus durum?
a. clinical features
b. examination of native specimen in dark field
c. examination of specimen with Gramm staining
d. two glass urine test
e. positive RRR in 3rd week of infection
330. What examination clearly confirms the diagnosis of ulcus durum?
a. history and clinical examination
b. history of sexual contact with a person suffering from syphilis
c. positive nontreponemal classical reactions (RRR)
d. proof of Treponema pallidum in the dark field
e. positive TPHA test
331. Treponema pallidum is getting into the human body usually:
a. through intact skin
b. through intact mucous membrane
c. through impaired skin
d. through impaired mucous membrane
e. by sexual intercourse
332. Mark the correct statements about leucoderma syphiliticum:
a. occurs on the lateral sides of trunk
b. its synonym is “Venus necklace”
c. belongs to prodromal symptoms of syphilis
d. arises usually around the 5th to 6th month after infection
e. occurs on the lateral sides of the neck
333. Which serological reaction to detection of syphilis may be positive already in 2nd week of infection?
a. TPHA
b. FTA-ABS
c. VDRL
d. RRR
e. 19S IgM FTA-ABS
334. Classical nontreponemal reactions become positive:
a. in the 2nd week after infection
b. in the 3rd week after infection
c. in the 6th week after infection
d. in the 9th week after infection
e. in the 11th week after infection
335. Incubation period of syphilis is:
a. 2 weeks
b. 3 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 8 weeks
e. 10 weeks
336. What are the typical clinical manifestations of ulcus durum?
a. soft infiltration dark-purple color, with verrucous surface
b. starting point for ulcer is sometimes a blister on intact skin
c. solid infiltration dark-pink color with smooth, shiny erosion on the surface
d. ulcer is not usually painful
e. arises on the basis of multiple flat grouped papules
337. What is masked syphilis?
a. synonym for syphilis decapitated
b. delay formation of ulcus durum due to the parallel treatment of other diseases, inadequate doses of antibiotics
c. obscure the symptoms of primary and early secondary syphilis due to the parallel treatment of other diseases, inadequate doses of antibiotics
d. synonym for syphilis connate
e. synonym for syphilis latens
338. Enlargement of regional lymph nodes by syphilis occurs:
a. in the 2nd – 3rd week after infection
b. in the 4th – 5th week after infection
c. in the 6th – 7th week after infection
d. in the 8th – 9th week after infection
e. in the 10th week after infection
339. Mark the correct statements about syphilis secundaria recens:
a. a smaller number of larger lesions compared with syphilis secundaria recidivans
b. lesions are symmetrically distributed
c. lesions often confluent
d. the most common is macular and papular rash
e. lesions significantly itch
340. Mark the correct statements for secondary syphilis recidivans:
a. a tiny number of larger lesions compared with syphilis secundaria recens
b. lesions are paler in comparison with syphilis secundaria recens
c. lesions often confluent
d. the intensity of recurrent eruptions is gradually increasing
e. lesions significantly itch
341. Mark the correct statements about secondary syphilis:
a. occurs around the 9th - 10th week after infection
b. typical symptoms are condylomata accuminata
c. typical symptoms are condylomata lata
d. lymph nodes are usually not enlarged
e. occurs around the 3rd to 4th week after infection
342. What are the symptoms of the primary syphilis?
a. macular syphilid
b. condylomata lata
c. enlargement of regional lymph nodes
d. ulcus durum
e. leucoderma syphilitica
343. Mark the correct statements about tertiary syphilis:
a. the most common manifestation is tuberous syphilid
b. the most common manifestation is macular syphilid
c. manifestations of tuberous syphilid are painful
d. tertiary syphilis is not infectious
e. disintegration of infiltrates forms deep ulcers with rigid edges
344. Mark the correct statements about tuberous syphilid:
a. tuberous syphilid is the most common clinical form of tertiary syphilis
b. the essential lesion is a well-defined nodule with size to 10 mm
c. lesions heal without a trace
d. lesions tend to spread serpiginous
e. ulcers heal with pigmented scar
345. Mark the correct statements about basal cell carcinoma:
a. younger people are mainly affected
b. in the pathogenesis excessive UV-radiation is significant
c. does not affect places exposed to UV-radiation
d. telangiectases, threadlike border, irregular pigmentation are typical
e. overgrowth to the deeper layers may result in destruction of cartilage and bone
346. Mark the correct statements about syphilis gummosa:
a. initially gumma seems as tough, elastic, painless nodule
b. the original nodule never disintegrates
c. disintegration of gumma forms ulcer of kidney shape
d. gumma heals without a trace
e. can also affect the mucous membranes
347. Congenital syphilis of the child is manifested by the most severe forms:
a. when Treponema pallidum is highly virulent
b. by insufficient fetal nutrition
c. when a pregnant woman suffers from recent syphilis
d. in case of an earlier syphilitic infection of mother
e. when the mother was treated for syphilis sufficiently in the first 3 months of pregnancy
348. Mark the correct statements about syphilis in pregnant women:
a. the treatment is using higher doses of penicillin than in non-pregnant women
b. infection with syphilis is occasionally transmitted to the fetus at the end of the second month of pregnancy
c. tertiary syphilis of mother can no longer cause any pathological changes in the fetus
d. fetus is safely protect against possible congenital disorders if a woman is treated in the first three months of pregnancy
e. recent untreated syphilis of the mother in early pregnancy causes significant fetal damage
349. Which symptoms are characteristic for syphilis connata praecox:
a. ulcus durum
b. syphilitic polished heels
c. parrot lines
d. coryza syphilitica
e. saber shins (curved tibias)
350. In which period of pregnancy, abortion of the fetus may occur as a result of mother's syphilitic infection?
a. In 1st -2nd month
b. before 5th month
c. in 6th – 7th month
d. only after 7th month
e. abortion can't occur
351. What are the clinical manifestations characteristic for the Hutchinson triad?
a. deafness
b. saddle nose
c. hutchinson incisors
d. keratitis parenchymatosa
e. parrot lines
352. The best drug for syphilis is considered to be:
a. sulphonamides
b. streptomycin
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. combination of erythromycin and iodine
353. Which drugs are appropriate for patient with syphilis, allergic to penicillin?
a. quinolones
b. sulphonamides
c. doxycycline
d. penicillin at the same time with corticosteroids
e. ceftriaxone
354. In which syphilitic lesions Treponema pallidum can be proved?
a. ulcus durum
b. tuberous syphilid
c. alopecia areolaris syphilitica
d. condylomata lata
e. gumma
355. Assign the clinical forms of primary syphilis:
a. macular syphilid
b. condylomata lata
c. plaques opalines
d. ulcus durum
e. tuberous syphilid
356. Assign the clinical forms of secondary syphilis:
a. macular syphilid
b. condylomata lata
c. plaques opalines
d. ulcus durum
e. tuberous syphilid
357. Assign the clinical forms of tertiary syphilis:
a. macular syphilid
b. condylomata lata
c. plaques opalines
d. ulcus durum
e. tuberous syphilid
358. Which disease is reportable?
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhoea
c. Lymphogranuloma venereum
d. Ulcus molle (Chancroid)
e. Trichomoniasis
359. Match the serologic type 1 Herpes simplex virus and the diseases it brings on:
a. Herpes simplex
b. gingivostomatitis herpetica
c. Herpes simplex progenitalis
d. aphthoid Pospischill – Feyrter
e. eczema herpeticum
360. Match the serologic type 2 Herpes simplex virus and the diseases it brings on:
a. herpes simplex
b. gingivostomatitis herpetica
c. herpes simplex progenitalis
d. aphthoid Pospischill – Feyrter
e. eczema herpeticum
361. How does the primary herpes simplex infection proceed most frequently?
a. subclinically
b. as eczema herpeticum
c. as vulvovaginitis
d. as keratoconjuctivitis
e. as aphthoid Pospischill – Feyrter
362. In which age group herpes simplex virus primoinfection usually occurs?
a. up to 12 months
b. 1 – 5 years
c. 6 – 10 years
d. 11 – 15 years
e. 15 – 20 years
363. What is the most frequent herpes simplex localization?
a. face
b. buccal mucosa
c. lips
d. conjunctiva
e. scalp
364. Mark the correct statements about gingivostomatitis herpetica:
a. herpes simplex virus primoinfection can proceed this way
b. occurs mostly in children
c. infection occurs as an acute illness with fever, headache and nausea
d. after disturbance thin roof of blisters develop grey-white erosions
e. disease is accompanied with excessive salivation, difficulty in opening the mouth and swallowing
365. Match the appropriate statements for gingivostomatitis herpetica:
a. it is rare in the elderly
b. mostly 1-2 lesions, exceptionally more than 5 lesions arise
c. round surface erosions
d. manifestations are localized mostly on tonsillae
e. excessive salivation
366. Mark the correct statements about aphthoid Pospischill – Feyrter:
a. disease caused by candida
b. disease of mucous membranes caused by bacterial agents
c. manifested by the cluster of vesicles on inflamed oral cavity mucosa
d. disease may affect not only oral cavity mucosa but also genital area
e. disease of mucous membranes caused by dermatophytes
367. Eczema herpeticum is:
a. primary HSV 1 infection
b. disease associated with atopica dermatitis
c. secondary HSV 1 infection
d. disease associated with psoriasis vulgaris
e. it is not a viral infection
368. Herpes zoster is a secondary infection of:
a. herpes simplex
b. morbilli
c. gingivostomatitis
d. varicella
e. variola
369. Mark the correct statements about herpes zoster:
a. disease occurs mostly in older age groups
b. numerous tiny vesicles arise on the inflamed baser grouped into herpetiform lesions
c. Recurrent eruptions of new vesicles caused developmental polymorphism of the clinical features
d. lesions are formed symmetrically on both body sides along the nerve
e. disease is accompanied with the neuralgic pain mostly in the elderly
370. Mark the correct statements about herpes zoster:
a. bleeding into the blisters (zoster haemorrhagicus) indicates short and mild course of disease
b. in herpes zoster ophthalmicus herpetic keratitis and uveitis may develop
c. in herpes zoster generalisatus immunodeficient condition has to be taken into account
d. neuralgia usually disappears simultaneously with the recession of skin lesions
e. uncomplicated forms of herpes zoster may heal without scar
371. Verrucae vulgares are caused by:
a. varicella-zoster virus
b. virus from group of poxviruses
c. human papilomavirus
d. Coxsackie virus
e. Candida albicans
372. Mark the correct statements about verrucae vulgares:
a. it is a contagious disease only in children´s age
b. it is a contagious disease regardless of age
c. contagiosity of the disease has not been proven
d. also healthy people can be the source of infection
e. plantar warts are usually very painful
373. Surface of verrucae vulgares is:
a. smooth with depression
b. smooth only initially
c. smooth with pearl appearance
d. gradually cornifies and becomes rough and verrucous
e. surface is not characteristic
374. Typical long-lasting verrucae vulgares look like:
a. tiny flat papules of the size of pinheads with smooth surface and color of normal skin or light-brown color
b. mostly flat papules of polygonal shape with smooth matt surface and violet-pink color
c. atypically round, sharply defined nodules 1 – 3 cm in diameter, at the periphery with violet-brown border
d. round or oval sharply defined papules up to 1 cm with rough verrucous surface usually in yellow-brown color
e. hemispherical papules up to 5 mm with smooth central depressed surface
375. Which warts are painful?
a. filiform warts around eyes
b. plantar warts
c. subungual warts
d. localized on palms
e. all are painful
376. What is the difference between verrucae plane and verrucae vulgares?
a. size
b. spontaneous disappearing
c. surface
d. typical localization
e. none
377. What are the most common localizations of condylomata acuminata?
a. oral cavity mucosa
b. labia minora
c. sulcus coronarius
d. armpits
e. perianal region
378. What are condylomata acuminata?
a. direct consequence of the skin maceration which accompanies inflammatory and by irritation induced processes on genitalia
b. manifestations appeared in early state of secondary syphilis
c. infected epithelioma caused by HPV (human papilomavirus)
d. disease of bacterial aetiology
e. disease of fungal aetiology
379. What are the typical signs of condylomata acuminata?
a. they resemble verrucae vulgares
b. they are transmitted by direct contact or indirectly
c. soft consistency, maceration, malodorous secretion
d. significant painfulness
e. itching
380. How to remove condylomata acuminata?
a. by radiation with Bucky marginal rays
b. with podophyllin in the solution or cream
c. by cryotherapy
d. by administration of systemic antibiotics
e. by excochleation
381. Mark the correct statements about molluscum contagiosum:
a. papula is hemispherical, sharply defined, violet color
b. papula is normal skin color or light-pink
c. papula is firm and smooth umbilicated usually 2-6 mm in diameter
d. manifestations are painful
e. poxvirus is a trigger
382. Mark the characteristic statements about molluscum contagiosum:
a. flat polygonal papules of blue-pink to blue-red shade, isolated or linear arrangement, itching
b. hemispherical nodules with smooth surface arranged into annular shape
c. indolent polygonal papules of light-yellow color with inflammatory border
d. round or oval sharply defined papules of the size of lentils with rough verrucous surface, usually grey or dirty-brown color
e. indolent hemispherical firm papules of the skin color, size of several millimetres with central dish-shaped vallecula
383. Mark the correct statements about noduli mulgentium:
a. a trigger is virus from poxviruses group
b. a trigger is virus of paravaccinia
c. hyperkeratosis from the pressure and friction on the fingers developed at milking
d. typical manifestation is a firm hemispherical papula or nodulus of violet-red color with a narrow erythemal border
e. develop from exogenous skin tuberculosis
384. Mark the correct statements about stomatitis epidemica epizootica:
a. contagious virus disease easily transmissible from animals to humans
b. rabbit is the most frequent source of infection
c. cattle is the most frequent source of infection
d. infection is induced by RNA epizootic stomatitis virus
e. infection is induced by paravaccinia virus
385. Mark the correct statements about clinical features of stomatitis epidemica epizootica:
a. lips and oral cavity mucosa are affected preferably
b. nonspecific systemic symptoms develop first
c. pathologic changes do not recede spontaneously – without treatment
d. systemic antiviral agents are always administered in treatment
e. vesicles may develop also on upper and lower limbs
386. Causative agent of lymphogranuloma venereum is:
a. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Ureaplasma urealyticum
e. Mycoplasma hominis
387. Causative agent of granuloma inguinale is:
a. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Ureaplasma urealyticum
e. Mycoplasma hominis
388. Mark the correct statements about lymphogranuloma venereum:
a. it is transmitted by sexual intercourse
b. incubation period is 2-3 days
c. lymph nodes in inguinal area are after 2-4 weeks enlarged, painful and connected with inflamed skin
d. lymph nodes colliquate and pus discharges from numerous fistulae
e. healing is usually without a trace
389. Molluscum contagiosum is caused by:
a. human papilloma virus
b. herpes simplex virus
c. virus from poxviruses group
d. Coxsackie virus
e. EBV
390. Mark the disease in which the virus as an aetiological agent has not been proved so far:
a. herpes simplex
b. pemphigus vulgaris
c. verrucae vulgares
d. condylomata acuminata
e. molluscum contagiosum
391. Herpes zoster is caused by:
a. human papilloma virus
b. herpes simplex virus
c. virus from poxviruses group
d. Coxsackie virus
e. varicella-zoster virus
392. How are hair, scale and nail in a suspicion of fungal infection microscopically examined?
a. gram staining
b. in lactophenol
c. Giemsa staining
d. in the solution of KOH
e. in a dark field
393. For cultural examination of pathologic material from dermatomycosis is used:
a. blood agar
b. Szenes medium
c. Czapek – Dox medium
d. Sabouraud´s glucose agar
e. none
394. Which of the following conditions are favourable for cultivation of dermatophytes?
a. light, dryness and temperature 37 ˚C
b. light, humidity and temperature 37 ˚C
c. dark, humidity and room temperature
d. dark, dryness and temperature 13-15 ˚C
e. CO2 atmosphere and temperature 28 ˚C
395. Hair affected by which dermatophyte fluoresce under the Wood´s light?
a. all hair affected by any dermatophyte
b. Trichophyton violaceum
c. Microsporum audouinii
d. Microsporum canis
e. Trichophyton rubrum
396. Causative agent of pityriasis versicolor is:
a. Malassezia sp.
b. Nocardia brasiliensis
c. Pityrosporum ovale
d. Corynebacterium tenuis
e. Corynebacterium minutissimum
397. Pityriasis versicolor occurs in people:
a. with increased level of sugar in the blood
b. with increased level of urea in the blood
c. with dry skin
d. immunosuppressive
e. which are more sweating
398. Typical localization of pityriasis versicolor is:
a. trunk
b. interdigital area of feet
c. perigenital area
d. armpits
e. scalp
399. Which symptoms are important for diagnosis of pityriasis versicolor?
a. Köbner phenomenon
b. evidence of fine dust – like scales
c. fluorescence in Wood´s light
d. preferable localization on inner thighs
e. microscopic evidence of fungal agents
400. Mark clinically characteristic sign of erythrasma:
a. sharply defined inflamed area of light-red color with slightly raised edges
b. weeping inflamed area of violet color
c. grouped tiny vesiculopustules
d. evenly brown-red color sharply defined area with a slight peel on surface
e. small infiltrates with tiny fistulas
401. Typical clinical manifestations of erythrasma include:
a. light-red color of patches
b. brown-red color of patches
c. sharply defined patches with raised peripheral border
d. recession of inflammation in central parts of patches
e. terracotta fluorescence of pathological patches on examination with Wood´s light
402. What is the relation of Candida albicans to human skin?
a. sometimes contaminates skin
b. often occurs in human skin as saprophyte
c. is occasionally pathogenic microorganism
d. always causes pathological processes in the skin
e. the development of candidiasis involves a number of factors from human organism
403. Which of the following factors are predisposing in the development of candidiasis?
a. cytostatics
b. diabetes mellitus
c. treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics
d. warm and humid environment
e. long-lasting treatment with corticosteroids
404. Where can develop infectious processes caused by Candida albicans?
a. on the nails
b. on the oral cavity mucosa
c. in gastrointestinal tract
d. on the mucosa of genitals
e. in intertriginous areas
405. Which of the following parts of the skin and mucous membranes tend to be prevalent localization of candidiasis?
a. scalp
b. submammary folds in women
c. mouth
d. trunk
e. inguinal folds
406. What are the characteristic clinical signs of candidal paronychia et onychia?
a. release of distal end of the nail
b. swollen, tight, shiny and inflamed skin of paronychial tissue
c. pain on pressure
d. transverse ridge on nails
e. lack of eponychium
407. What diagnosis would you assume in infants with small, whitish, increasing spots on the tongue, gums and buccal mucosa?
a. catarrh of digestive organs
b. diphtheria
c. Plaut – Vincent angina
d. oral candidiasis
e. beginning of leukoplakia
408. What is often the causative agent of oral candidiasis in the elderly persons suffering from digestive disorders, bad fitting prosthesis, or chronic use of antibiotics, pipe smoking?
a. Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Candida
d. Micrococcus
e. Fusobacterium
409. Erythema mycoticum infantile is:
a. erythroderma
b. pyoderma
c. dermatomycosis
d. candidiasis
e. blastomycosis
410. Candidal paronychia et onychia is most common in:
a. infants
b. adolescents
c. housewives
d. confectioners
e. masons
411. Oral candidiasis is most common in:
a. infants
b. diabetics
c. housewives
d. confectioners
e. masons
412. Erythema mycoticum infantile (Ibrahim – Beck) is most common in:
a. infants
b. adolescents
c. housewives
d. confectioners
e. masons
413. Choose the appropriate treatment of candidiasis:
a. fluconazole
b. erythromycin
c. terbinafine
d. tetracycline
e. ketoconazole
414. In the treatment of candidiasis is not used:
a. imidazole derivatives
b. penicillin
c. gentian violet
d. nystatin
e. fluconazole
415. Fungal infections on the skin are characterized by:
a. there are round, sharply defined lesions with maximum expression in the central part of the lesion
b. they are round or polycyclic sharply defined lesions with maximum expression in the peripheral zone
c. lesions are mainly on the mucous membranes
d. dermatophytes grow through the upper layer of epidermis or nail plate and hair
e. causal agent is identified only by serological testing
416. Mark three most common causative agents of tinea pedis (epidermophytia pedis):
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Trichophyton rosaceum
e. Trichophyton interdigitale
417. The most commonly causative agent of tinea manuum (epidermophytia manuum) is:
a. Epidermophyton floccosum
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Trichophyton interdigitale
d. Trichophyton schoenleinii
e. Microsporum canis
418. Tinea inguinalis (epidermophytia inguinalis) caused by Trichophyton rubrum is characterized by:
a. the edges of the lesions are nibbled, intermittent cracked
b. on the edge of the lesion are small vesicles present
c. the inflammation is more intense in the central part of the lesion then in the peripheral zone
d. itching
e. lesions are round with a continuous rim
419. Mark the correct statements about tinea pedum (epidermophytia pedum):
a. infection is often transmitted indirectly in the swimming pool, shared showers, sports facilities
b. diagnosis is confirmed by evidence of fungi and positive fungal culture
c. erosion between the toes can be an entrance for erysipelas
d. treatment with penicillin is used
e. treatment with terbinafine is used
420. Which of these pathogenic fungi does most commonly cause pathological changes on the nails (tinea unguium, onychomycosis)?
a. Trichophyton verrucosum
b. Trichophyton interdigitale
c. Trichophyton rubrum
d. Trichophyton violaceum
e. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
421. Which tests are used in pityriasis versicolor?
a. examination in dark field
b. microscopic examination using KOH solution
c. Wood`s light examination
d. dermatoscopy
e. preparation stained by Giemsa
422. Interdigital tinea pedis and its causative agent Trichophyton interdigitale is characterized by:
a. the skin of all interdigital spaces is usually affected
b. the 3rd and the 4th interdigital spaces are predominantly affected
c. lesions are slightly inflamed and they have a relative dry nature
d. all nail plates are always affected
e. macerated skin is white, madescent erosions and rhagas create
423. Interdigital candidiasis is characterized by:
a. skin of all interdigital spaces is usually affected
b. the 3rd and the 4th interdigital spaces are predominantly affected
c. lesions are slightly inflamed and they have a relative dry nature
d. skin is whitish, macerated, moist with erosions and rhagas
e. all nail plates are affected
424. Irritant contact dermatitis is characterized by:
a. lesions occur only in the location of the irritant
b. lesions spread to surrounding
c. monomorphic lesions are distributed evenly around the area
d. non well demarcated edges of the lesion
e. well demarcated edges of the lesion
425. Two most frequent causative agents of Tinea profunda in Slovakia are:
a. Trichophyton verrucosum
b. Trichophyton violaceum
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
e. Trichophyton rubrum
426. Mark the correct statements about tinea:
a. causative agent lives mainly in keratin
b. disease is contagious
c. tinea is listed among notifiable contagious disease
d. affects mainly mucous membrane
e. affects mainly skin
427. Tinea profunda (Kerion) is:
a. form of deep pyoderma
b. disease caused by virus
c. disease caused by yeast
d. special form of alopecia
e. deep fungal infection caused by dermatophytes
428. Mark the correct statements about tinea capitis:
a. causative agent is Microsporum audouinii
b. causative agent is Malassezia sp.
c. form well demarcated lesions
d. occurs mainly in childhood
e. Wood´s light examination shows bright green fluorescence
429. Mark the correct statements about favus:
a. causative agent is Trichophyton rubrum
b. causative agent is Trichophyton schoenleinii
c. causative agent is Microsporum audouinii
d. if the process takes a long time, there arise atrophy and alopecia
e. Wood´s light examination of affected hair shows bright green fluorescence
430. Tinea capitis caused by genus Microsporum is characterized by clinical findings:
a. multiple small diseminated scaly areas with thinned hairs, which break off at the scalp surface
b. round well demarcated areas, affected hairs break off 2-4 mm above the scalp surface
c. round well demarcated areas appearance of normal skin with hair loss
d. non well demarcated areas without scales
e. Wood´s light examination of affected hair shows bright green fluorescence
431. Nonimflammatory tinea capitis (trichophyton type) is characterized by clinical findings:
a. multiple small disseminated scaly areas with thinned hairs, which break off at or near to the scalp surface
b. round well demarcated areas with affected hair broken off 2-4 mm above the scalp surface
c. round well demarcated areas appearance of normal skin with hair loss
d. non well demarcated areas with massive scales
e. Wood´s light examination of affected hair shows bright green fluorescence
432. Alopecia areata is characterized by:
a. multiple small disseminated scaly areas with thinned hairs, which break off at the scalp surface
b. round well demarcated areas with affected hair broken off 3 mm above the scalp surface
c. round well demarcated areas appearance of normal skin with hair loss
d. non well demarcated areas with massive scales
e. Wood´s light examination of affected areas shows fluorescence
433. Causative agent of tinea versicolor (pityriasis versicolor) is:
a. Trichophyton schoenleinii
b. Trichophyton violaceum
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Malassezia sp.
e. Microsporum audouinii
434. Causative agent of tinea capitis is:
a. Trichophyton verrucosum
b. Trichophyton tonsurans
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Malassezia sp.
e. Microsporum audouinii
435. Causative agent of favus is:
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Trichophyton rubrum
e. Microsporum audouinii
436. Causative agent of inflammatory tinea capitis (Kerion Celsi) is:
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Trichophyton rubrum
e. Microsporum audouinii
437. Causative agent of trichophytia superficialis capillitii is:
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Trichophyton rubrum
e. Microsporum audouinii
438. Causative agents of erythrasma is:
a. Corynebacterium tenuis
b. Corynebacterium minutissimum
c. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
d. Trichophyton violaceum
e. Trichophyton rubrum
439. Causative agent of trichomycosis axillaris is:
a. Malassezia sp.
b. Corynebacterium minutissimum
c. Corynebacterium tenuis
d. Candida albicans
e. Trichophyton rubrum
440. Antropophilic dermatophytes are:
a. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
e. Microsporum gypseum
441. Zoophilic dermatophytes are:
a. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
e. Microsporum gypseum
442. Geophilic dermatophytes are:
a. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Trichophyton violaceum
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
e. Microsporum gypseum
443. Which of the following fungal infections are caused by antropophilic dermatophytes?
a. inflammatory tinea capitis (Kerion Celsi)
b. nodular folliculitis (epidermophytia granulomatosa nodularis cruris)
c. tinea capitis
d. tinea pedis
e. epidermophytia unguium
444. Which of the following fungal infections are caused by zoophilic dermatophytes?
a. inflammatory tinea capitis (Kerion Celsi)
b. nodular folliculitis (epidermophytia granulomatosa nodularis cruris)
c. favus caused by Trichophyton mentagrophytes
d. favus caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii
e. tinea unguium
445. The host of Trichophyton verrucosum is:
a. a human
b. a cat
c. a cattle
d. rodents
e. a dog
446. The host of Trichophyton mentagrophytes is:
a. a human
b. a cat
c. a cattle
d. rodents
e. a dog
447. The host of Microsporum canis is:
a. a human
b. a cat
c. a cattle
d. rodents
e. a dog
448. Choose the group of people in which Candida albicans cause a disease most frequently:
a. persons working with hay (feeders, etc.)
b. adolescents
c. housewives
d. gardeners
e. confectioners
449. Choose the group of people in which Microsporum gypseum cause a disease most frequently:
a. persons working with hay (feeders, etc.)
b. adolescents
c. housewives
d. gardeners
e. confectioners
450. Choose the group of people in which Trichophyton mentagrophytes cause a disease most frequently:
a. dog keepers
b. livestock keepers
c. rabbit breeders
d. swimming pool staff
e. confectioners
451. Choose the group of people in which Trichophyton verrucosum cause a disease most frequently:
a. dog keepers
b. livestock keepers
c. rabbit breeders
d. swimming pool staff
e. confectioners
452. Choose the group of people in which Trichophyton interdigitale cause a disease most frequently:
a. barbers
b. farmers
c. workers in the fruit-growing and canning industry
d. swimming pool visitors
e. confectioners
453. Choose the group of people in which Candida albicans cause a disease most frequently:
a. barbers
b. farmers
c. dog keepers
d. swimming pool visitors
e. confectioners
454. Choose the group of people in which Trichophyton rubrum cause a disease most frequently:
a. barbers
b. farmers
c. workers in the fruit-growing and canning industry
d. swimming pool visitors
e. confectioners
455. What is mykid?
a. primary infection of dermatophytes
b. dissemination of spores of dermatophytes to internal organs
c. secondary yeast infection
d. allergic manifestations induced by decay substances or metabolites of dermatophytes away from the fungal burden
e. secondary infection of dermatophytes
456. Which dermatosis is compulsorily notifiable?
a. candidiasis
b. trichophytia
c. microsporia
d. tinea
e. trichomycosis axillaris
457. Causative agent of scabies is a species which is appropriate to the genus:
a. pediculus
b. thrombiculus
c. pediculoides
d. sarcoptes
e. thyrogliphidae
458. Typical localizations for the occurrence of intraepidermal tunnels (burrows) in scabies in adults are:
a. palms and soles
b. extensors of extremities
c. parts of the body covered by clothing
d. around the navel
e. interdigital web spaces of the hands
459. Symptoms of hypersensitivity in scabies are:
a. inflammatory nodules
b. erythemas
c. wheals
d. itching without lesions
e. oedemas
460. Transmission of human scabies can be caused by:
a. droplets infection
b. linens
c. direct and long-term contact with the infected person
d. clothing
e. blood transfusion
461. Crusted scabies (Norwegian scabies) is:
a. geographic variant of human scabies
b. variant of animal scabies
c. atypical form of scabies in immune-depressed people
d. term for the skin manifestations, which are not related to infestations with the mite Sarcoptes scabiei
e. variant of scabies in children
462. Characteristic symptom of trombiculosis is:
a. seasonality of occurrence
b. disability of parts of the body covered by underwear
c. papules, erythemato-urticarial and hemorrhagic itchy rash
d. a history of stay in the nature
e. intense itching
463. The first symptom of pediculosis capitis is:
a. maculae coeruelae
b. bacterial infection
c. localized pruritus
d. fever
e. generalized erythema
464. Which clinical manifestations are caused by Pediculus capitis?
a. urticaria with central punctate haemorrhage
b. papulovesicles, urticaria
c. matt, dry, in flocks sticking hair
d. maculae ceruleae
e. parallel excoriations between shoulder blades
465. Mark clinical features caused by Pediculus pubis
a. urticaria with central punctate haemorrhage
b. papulovesicles, urticaria
c. matt, dry, in flaks sticking hair
d. maculae ceruleae
e. parallel excoriations between shoulder blades
466. Which of these symptoms distinguish alimentary urticaria from urticaria after flea bites?
a. more intense itching (pruritus)
b. central small haemorrhagic point
c. grouping of lesions
d. sudden development
e. slowly development of new wheals
467. Ixodes ricinus may cause:
a. erysipelas
b. erythema migrans
c. persistent oedema of affected parts of the skin
d. lymphadenosis cutis benigna
e. Lyme disease
468. Caterpillar dermatitis occurs as skin reaction to:
a. excrement of caterpillars
b. caterpillar´s hair
c. salivary glands secretion
d. viral infection caused by caterpillars
e. bacterial infection caused by caterpillars
469. The main differential diagnostic sign between ichthyosis vulgaris and X – linked recessive ichthyosis may provide:
a. perspiration
b. histological examination
c. age when first clinical signs occur
d. sex of the patient
e. direct immunofluorescent examination
470. Patient has very dry skin from 4 years of his life, the scalling is usually most prominent on the extensor surface of extremities and on the back, while flexural areas are spared. Father and his brother have the same symptoms. These clinical and history facts suggest:
a. X – linked recessive ichthyosis
b. ichthyosis hystrix
c. ichthyosis vulgaris
d. lamellar ichthyosis
e. atopic dermatitis
471. Which of diseases may occur at birth?
a. ichthyosis vulgaris
b. lamellar ichthyosis
c. X – linked recessive ichthyosis
d. ichthyosiform erythroderma
e. collodion baby
472. Recessive type of inheritance is typical for:
a. ichthyosis vulgaris
b. lamellar ichthyosis
c. non-bullous congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma
d. bullous congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma
e. acquired ichthyosis
473. The typical localizations of keratosis pilaris are:
a. areas abundant in sebaceous glands
b. flexor areas of upper and lower extremities
c. shoulders, thighs, buttocks
d. scalp
e. mucous membranes
474. The most reliable diagnostic sign for morbus Darier is:
a. the arrangement and localization of lesions
b. histological findings
c. the period when first symptoms of disease occur
d. mental retardation
e. itching
475. Acanthosis nigricans may be associated with:
a. internal malignancy
b. corticosteroid therapy
c. polycystic ovaries
d. Addison´s disease
e. oral contraceptives
476. Mark the correct statements about acrocyanosis:
a. it occurs chiefly in young women
b. spasms formed in cold
c. iris shutter sign
d. palms and soles are moist
e. the bluish red areas are cold to the touch
477. What is characteristic for erythrocyanosis crurum puellarum?
a. a reticular patchy and pinkish blue skin changes – „cutis marmorata“
b. slight swelling and bluish pink tint of the skin
c. most affected areas are legs
d. it occurs in young girls and women
e. iris shutter sign
478. What is characteristic for livedo racemosa?
a. iris shutter sign
b. mottled or reticulated pink or reddish blue discoloration of the skin
c. atrophic changes of the skin
d. most commonly affected area is trunk
e. the major vessels in the deep dermal plexus undergo inflammation or occlusion
479. What is characteristic for erythromelalgia?
a. first manifestation is cooling of the skin
b. the attack often begins with itching, progressing pain and burning sensation
c. bilateral erythema, swelling and warmth in the affected areas
d. blisters formed on the skin in the developed process
e. symptoms resulting from exposure to heat or muscle strain
480. Mark the correct statements about Raynaud syndrome?
a. males are more commonly affected
b. people working with devices causing vibration can be affected
c. triphasic colour change is typical – first white and stiff fingers are present, later cyanosis follows and in the final stage the fingers are bright red
d. it is typically triggered by cold exposure
e. transient vasospasms of peripheral arteries and arterioles are present
481. What is trigger factor for Raynaud syndrome?
a. heat
b. cold
c. stress
d. mechanical irritation
e. the cause is unknown
482. What are the clinical features of Raynaud syndrome?
a. pale skin
b. cyanosis
c. bright red colour of the skin
d. significant swelling
e. the hyperaemic phase is the most painful
483. What are the most commonly involved areas in Raynaudov syndrome?
a. trunk
b. toes
c. scalp
d. fingers
e. tights
484. What are the clinical features of polyarteritis nodosa?
a. urticaria-like nodules
b. blisters
c. livedo racemosa
d. pustules
e. haemorrhages and ulceracions
485. What are the systemic manifestations of polyarteritis nodosa?
a. weight loss
b. myalgias
c. arthralgias
d. fatigue and malaise
e. fever
486. Mark the correct statements of hypersensitivity vasculitis:
a. it can be caused by cold
b. it is a vascular type of serum sickness
c. antibiotics are the most common drugs causing this disease
d. it may be associated with food or food additives
e. it may be associated with streptococcal infection
487. What are the most affected areas of hypersensitivity vasculitis?
a. face
b. trunk
c. abdomen
d. mucosal surfaces
e. legs
488. Mark the correct statements about hypersensitivity vasculitis:
a. the most commonly affected internal organs are the gastrointestinal tract, kidneys and joints
b. haemorrhage is always present
c. Rumpel – Leede test is often positive
d. blisters are the most common lesions
e. fever is usually present
489. Mark the correct statements about superficial thrombophlebitis:
a. it presents as a single hard indurated inflammatory cord-like lesion
b. it usually developes in deep veins
c. it usually developes in superficial veins especially in the area of greater saphenous vein
d. the most critical complication is that of pulmonary embolism
e. postthrombophlebitic ulcer may develope
490. Mark the correct statements about phlebothrombosis:
a. the typical triat is pain, cyanosis and oedema
b. it usually developes in deep veins
c. postthrombotic syndrome is a frequent late complication
d. the most critical complication is that of pulmonary embolism
e. Homan sign is negative
491. Mark the correct statements about elephantiasis:
a. shins are most commonly affected
b. elephantiasis develops with long-term involvement of lymphoedema
c. it is a synonym for atrophie blanche
d. it is a synonym for stasis dermatitis
e. it is an area of cobble - stone hyperkeratotic papillomatous plaques
492. What is pachydermia?
a. it is a synonym for stasis dermatitis
b. it is a synonym for morphea
c. it is a thickening of nails
d. persistant oedema accompanied with papilomatous and verucous changes on a distal part of a leg
e. congenital thickening of palms and soles
493. What are characteristic changes of chronic venous insufficiency?
a. skin atrophy
b. subcutaneous cysts
c. dermatosklerosis
d. deposition of haemosiderin
e. papilomatous and verucous changes
494. Where are venous ulcers ususally located?
a. on feet
b. on a calf
c. aroun and above ancles
d. on toes
e. on heels
495. Which group is affected predominately in Henoch – Schönlein purpura?
a. children
b. patients with rheumatoid arthritis
c. pregnant women
d. women in menopause
e. older men
496. What is characteristic for Henoch – Schönlein purpura?
a. a serum IgA level is elevated
b. haemorrhages
c. serum markers of inflammation are never elevated
d. Rumpel – Leede test is positive
e. in many patients an infectious trigger can be found
497. Mark the correct statements about ephelides:
a. usually appear in childhood
b. their intensity increases into adulthood
c. freckles increase in number in summer
d. their intensity increases in summer
e. inheritance is autosomal dominant
498. The pigmented macules in Peutz – Jeghers syndrome may appear:
a. on external parts of nasal wings and on dorsal part of the nose
b. on dorsal parts of hands
c. around the mouth and on oral mucosa
d. on the neck
e. anywhere on the skin but always grouped
499. Symptoms of Peutz – Jeghers syndrome are:
a. whitish – brown macules reminding ephelides
b. pigmented patches never affecting the mucous membranes
c. pigmented macules around mouth and on the oral mucosa
d. polyps in the intestinal tract
e. hypopigmentations of the extremities
500. Which of these diseases are manifested by pigmentation of the mucous membranes?
a. morbus Addison
b. syndroma Peutz – Jeghers
c. ephelides
d. centrofacial lentiginosis
e. melanodermitis toxica
501. Melasma may be associated with:
a. the use of oral contraceptives
b. hyperthyroidism
c. pregnancy
d. the combined effect of hormonal changes and UV radiation
e. renal dysfunction
502. Mark the correct statements about melanodermitis toxica:
a. occurs after taking some oral drugs
b. hyperpigmentations disappear fast
c. is caused by photosensitising agents
d. cutaneous findings are usually localized on the face and neck
e. is photoallergic reaction
503. Mark the correct statements about incontinentia pigmenti:
a. only men are affected
b. in clinical picture are irregular in shape, not well demarcated linear, brown pigmentations on the trunk
c. appear at birth or within the first days of life
d. is secondary pigmentation, which precedens inflammation and formation vesicles and bullae
e. skin lesions may heal with scars
504. Piebaldism (partial albinism) is:
a. depigmentations on hairless skin
b. clinical feature of vitiligo in the scalp
c. congenital defects in melanin production, in which white hair grow on round depigmented area
d. naevus anaemicus is synonym
e. well demarcated skin depigmentation caused by spasm of blood vessels
505. What is the nature of vitiligo?
a. previous inflammatory processes
b. persistent spasm of blood vessels
c. absence of originally present melanocytes
d. congenital defects in melanin production
e. autoimmune processes consider in the aetiopathogenesis
506. Vitiligo occurs most frequently:
a. on the face
b. on the hands
c. on the upper arms
d. on the thigh and knee
e. on the tibia
507. Mark the correct statements about vitiligo:
a. is a congenital disorder of skin pigment production
b. the first symptoms usually appear in childhood
c. symptoms are most commonly on the face, neck and hands
d. subjective problems or systemic features don´t occur
e. development of lesions is accompanied by a feeling of tension in the skin
508. Vitiligo is characterized by:
a. does not react with hyperemia after friction
b. it occurs from birth
c. forms in the location of the previous dermatoses
d. occurs in childhood but also later
e. margins are always hyperpigmented
509. Albinizmus is characterized by:
a. does not react with hyperemia after friction
b. it occurs from birth
c. forms in the location of the previous dermatoses
d. occurs in childhood but also later
e. margins are always hyperpigmented
510. Naevus anaemicus is characterized by:
a. does not react with hyperemia after friction
b. it occurs from birth or from early childhood
c. forms in the location of the previous dermatoses
d. occurs in adulthood
e. margins are always hyperpigmented
511. Leukoderma is characterized by:
a. does not react with hyperemia after friction
b. it occurs from birth
c. forms in the location of the previous dermatoses
d. occurs only in childhood
e. margins are always hyperpigmented
512. Mark the correct statements about halo naevus:
a. the most frequently affected is trunk
b. it is lentigo surrounded by vitiligo
c. it is a pigmented fibroma surrounded by depigmented margin
d. it is a pigmented naevus surrounded by a depigmented margin
e. it may be the first sign of developing vitiligo
513. Leukoderma may arise:
a. in psoriasis vulgaris
b. in pityriasis rosea
c. in gonorrhoea
d. in syphilis
e. in atopic dermatitis
514. What is dyschromia?
a. discoloration of the skin resulting from the accumulation of exogenous pigment into the skin
b. the current incidence of hyperpigmentation and depigmentation in some areas
c. discoloration of the skin resulting from the accumulation of melanin in the skin
d. discoloration of the skin resulting from the accumulation of another endogenous pigment as melanin in the skin
e. discoloration of the skin resulting from the of accumulation of any endogenous dye-stuff
515. Haemochromatosis is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
516. Argyria is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
517. Ochronosis is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
518. Chrysiasis is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
519. Haemosiderosis is dyschromia, in which following substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
520. Demarcated hyperpigmentation can be caused by:
a. hormonal contraceptives
b. chronic exposure to heat
c. morbus Addison
d. bergamot oil
e. infection caused by Malassezia sp.
521. Generalized hyperhidrosis occurs:
a. in diabetes mellitus
b. in adipositas
c. in feochromocytoma
d. in hyperthyroidism
e. in hypothyroidism
522. Hyperhidrosis may be associated with:
a. diabetes mellitus
b. hidradenitis
c. emotional factors
d. hypothyroidism
e. bromhidrosis
523. What is the pathogenetic basis of all forms of miliaria?
a. obstruction of sweat glands by concentrated and viscous sweat
b. bacterial infection penetrating through macerated horny layer
c. keratotic seal of excretory duct of sweat glands
d. follicular hyperkeratosis
e. obstruction of excretory duct of the sweat glands in oedematous upper parts of the epidermis
524. Miliaria crystallina are characterized by:
a. excretory duct of eccrine sweat glands are blocked in the stratum corneum
b. present is a symmetrical eruption of small red papules, sometimes vesicles
c. an intense prickling sensation on the skin
d. an intense feeling of itching of the skin
e. appearance of small pure vesicles on unaffected skin
525. Miliaria rubra are characterized by:
a. excretory duct of eccrine sweat glands are blocked in the stratum corneum
b. present is a symmetrical eruption of small red papules, sometimes vesicles
c. excretory duct of eccrine sweat glands are blocked inside the epidermis
d. excretory duct of eccrine sweat glands are blocked in the dermis
e. appearance of small pure vesicles on unaffected skin
526. Mark the correct statements about the granulosa rubra nasi:
a. it occurs in children up to adolescence
b. skin of the nose is of red color
c. small papules can be transformed into small vesicles or pustules
d. local manifestation of hyperhidrosis are small drops of perspiration on his nose
e. this is a closure of terminal eccrine sweat glands
527. Mark the correct statements about morbus Fox – Fordyce:
a. it occurs in males
b. it occurs in women
c. manifested by small papules of skin color, or yellowish in color
d. it affects the localization of apocrine glands
e. it affects the localization of eccrine glands
528. What is sebostasis?
a. stopping the functions of sebaceous glands by therapeutic intervention
b. blockage of the sebaceous glands ducts with a sudden reduction in skin surface moisture
c. full blockage of the sebaceous glands function due to the disease process
d. reduced function of the sebaceous glands
e. temporary reduction of sebaceous glands function after degreasing the skin
529. Mark the correct statements about sebostasis:
a. the skin is very sensitive to drying out
b. it has a tendency to hyperkeratosis
c. dry skin is often graded by associated hypohidrosis
d. sebostasis may predispose to the development of eczema
e. tends to transition to psoriasis
530. Patients with reduced function of the sebaceous glands (sebostasis) have tendency to formation of:
a. dermatitis
b. pyoderma
c. pityriasis versicolor
d. vegetative disorders of internal organs
e. neurodermitis diffusa
531. What is seborrhoea?
a. increased function of sebaceous glands by therapeutic intervention
b. occlusion of the sebaceous glands terminals
c. increased production of pathologically changed sebum
d. increased sebum production due to its drying on the skin surface
e. transitional short-term increase of sebum by neurotics
532. What is ussually accompanied by seborrhoea?
a. hyperkeratosis of free skin
b. hyperhidrosis of palms and soles of the feet
c. hyperfunction of thyroid
d. carbohydrate metabolism disorders
e. nothing of that
533. What environment is not suitable for patients with seborrhoea?
a. wet
b. warm
c. dusty
d. work with water
e. work with lubrication oils and fats
534. Acne vulgaris is characterized by:
a. inflammatory process of apocrine sweat glands
b. inflammatory process of eccrine sweat glands
c. inflammatory process of sebaceous glands
d. inflammatory process of the follicle and sebaceous gland
e. inflammatory process of follicle and retention of sebum
535. When does acne vulgaris most often occur?
a. in childhood
b. in adolescence
c. in adulthood
d. by abstain of sexual activity
e. by prolonged use of certain drugs
536. Mark the incorrect statements about acne vulgaris:
a. mostly affects young people in adolescence
b. hyperkeratosis of the hair follicle infundibulum causes formation of comedones
c. in the formation participates sebostasis
d. acne conglobata is one of the easier forms of acne
e. in the formation participates seborrhoea
537. Acne indurata is characterised by:
a. tough, brownish-red nodules, painful on palpation
b. purulent lesions are disintegrate outside and usually heal with scars
c. present are only closed and open comedones
d. healing is usually without a trace
e. typical manifestations are deep seated cysts
538. Acne conglobata is characterised by:
a. it is the most severe form of acne
b. abscendens nodules and fistula formations may be present in the clinical features
c. there are no comedones in the clinical features
d. there are no scars in the clinical features
e. can be localized perigenital and axillary
539. Which substances should be preventively avoided in patients with acne vulgaris?
a. chlorine
b. resorcinol
c. tar
d. mineral oils and fats
e. vitamin A
540. What can participate in aetiopathogenesis of rosacea?
a. heredity
b. menstrual disturbances
c. hyperthyroidism
d. disorders of the digestive tract
e. vasoneurosis
541. Mark the correct statements about rosacea:
a. rosacea has an identical location as acne vulgaris
b. rosacea occurs only in women
c. erythema and telangiectases occur
d. rosacea occurs most frequently in adolescents
e. in the clinical features comedones are present
542. The course of rosacea may complicate by the occurence of:
a. acne conglobata
b. iridocyclitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. rhinophyma
e. keratitis
543. What is rhinophyma?
a. manifestation of lymphocyte leukemia on the nose
b. angiolupoid
c. hypertrophy of nasal skin and sebaceous glands
d. hypertrophic form of acne vulgaris
e. keloid process on the nose
544. Rhinophyma is characterized by:
a. the nose has “cauliflower” appearance with enhanced follicular orifices
b. hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands and connective tissue on the nose
c. the skin retains normal color, but becomes rough
d. telangiectases on the skin
e. hyperplastic changes on the chin
545. Mark the correct statements about perioral dermatitis (dermatitis rosaceiformis):
a. it is a dermatitis that results from hypersensitivity to lipstick
b. occurs most often in young women
c. favourite affected area is perioral
d. typical finding are telangiectases
e. the clinical picture is characterized by erythema with small papules and flushed papulovesicles
546. What is hypertrichosis?
a. abnormal long hair growth
b. excessive hair growth (generalized or localized)
c. telogen effluvium
d. hair of spiral shape
e. hormonal disorders are present
547. What is hirsutism?
a. overgrowth of lanugo
b. excessive growth of terminal hair in men
c. excessive hair growth in scalp
d. excessive growth of thick dark hair in locations where hair growth in women usually is minimal or absent
e. excessive growth of terminal hair, which may occur in the ovary or adrenal tumors
548. Hirsutism in women is associated with:
a. ovarian disorders
b. administration of certain drug (contraceptives, corticosteroids)
c. porphyria
d. adrenal tumors
e. some brain tumors
549. What is the daily limit of hair loss?
a. up to 10
b. 20 – 30
c. 70 – 100
d. 110 – 150
e. 150-200
550. Trichotillomania is caused by:
a. congenital defect of hair growth
b. rough skin friction of itching skin
c. excessive tension induced by various hairstyling practises
d. chemical treatment of hair
e. repetitive hair manipulations by the patients own hands
551. Mark the correct statements about alopecia areata:
a. it is manifested as diffuse hair loss
b. it is manifested as noncicatricial focal hair loss
c. it is manifested as circumscribed area with atrophic skin
d. scars are occasionally created in the area
e. alopetic areas can occur anywhere on the body parts with hair
552. Which are characteristic manifestations of alopecia areata?
a. rapid hair loss with the creation of sharply defined lesions, which tend to confluent
b. alopetic areas occur most commonly in the occipital and temporal scalp
c. hair follicles are not preserved
d. subjective difficulties usually are not present
e. sebum and sweat production is increased on the alopetic areas
553. Ophiasis means:
a. androgenetic alopecia
b. the form of alopecia areata, which leads to atrophy
c. strips hair loss on the scalp border
d. parasitic disease
e. all forms of focal alopecia, which affect larger scalp areas
554. Mark the statements about pseudopelade Brocq:
a. hair loss in a small circumscribed areas with subsequent scars
b. hair loss in a small circumscribed areas without atrophy
c. hair loss in a slow increasing, confluent areas with atrophic skin
d. hair loss in non well defined small areas without atrophy
e. skin is not inflammatory altered, hair follicles are not present
555. Mark the correct statements about pseudopelade Brocq:
a. irreversible character of alopecia
b. isolated hair or clumps of normal hair on pathological areas
c. skin of the lesion is slightly decreased, tight, shiny, atrophic
d. lesion is painful on touch
e. hair follicles are not present
556. Irreversible alopecia includes:
a. telogen effluvium
b. trichotillomania
c. alopecia areata
d. pseudopelade Brocq
e. hirsutism
557. What is the characteristic change of the nail plates in heart failure?
a. the proximal end or the entire nail plate has a blue appearance
b. the proximal end or the entire nail plate has a yellow appearance
c. the proximal end or the entire nail plate has a white appearance
d. the proximal end or the entire nail plate has a brown appearance
e. the proximal end or the entire nail plate has a green appearance
558. What is the characteristic change of the nail plates in renal diseases?
a. nail pitting
b. oil spot
c. Koenen tumours
d. half – and – half nails
e. Mees lines
559. Yellow nail syndrome is a typical nail change in:
a. ulcerative colitis
b. renal diseases
c. fungal infections
d. lymphoedema
e. streptococcal infections of the skin
560. What is the characteristic change of the nail plates in arsenic and thallium poisoning?
a. subungual hyperkeratosis
b. nail pitting
c. oil spot
d. Koenen tumours
e. Mees lines
561. What is the characteristic change of the nail plates in psoriasis vulgaris?
a. subungual debris
b. nail pitting
c. oil spot
d. Koenen tumours
e. Mees lines
562. What is the characteristic change of the nail plates in mycotic infections?
a. subungual hyperkeratosis
b. nail pitting
c. oil spot
d. Koenen tumours
e. Mees lines
563. What is the characteristic change of the nail plates in Morbus Pringle?
a. subungual hyperkeratosis
b. nail pitting
c. oil spot
d. Koenen tumours
e. Mees lines
564. Onychorrhexis means:
a. brown colour of nail plates
b. thickening of nail plates
c. separation of the nail plate from the nail bed
d. btittleness with breakage of nails
e. concave shape of nail plates
565. What is the characteristic change of the nail plates in onychogryphosis?
a. flattening of nails
b. softening of nails
c. breakage of nails
d. claw - resembling nails
e. green colour of nails
566. Koilonychia is symptom of:
a. vitamin A deficiency
b. diabetes mellitus
c. iron deficiency
d. cirrhosis
e. peripheral vascular problems
567. Anetoderma is most commonly located:
a. on the trunk
b. on the extremities only
c. on the face
d. in areas exposed to sunlight
e. in place of the previous healing inflammatory dermatoses
568. Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus is a disease:
a. of connective tissue
b. of sebaceous glands
c. affecting only the epidermis
d. bullous
e. variant of scleroderma
569. Diseases of connective tissue are the disease:
a. with immune pathogenesis
b. on the basis of congenital disposition
c. on the basis of the circulatory disturbances
d. on the basis of an allergy to bacterial toxins
e. often accompanied by signs of involvement of internal organs
570. Mark correct factors which support development of discoid lupus erythematosus:
a. drugs (thiazide diuretics)
b. hormonal dysfunction
c. exposure to sunlight
d. gastrointestinal disorders
e. herpetic infections
571. Which are the favourite areas for discoid lupus erythematosus?
a. ears
b. back
c. palms
d. nose and cheeks
e. thighs
572. Hyperkeratotic spicules on lower surface of white-yellow scales (carpet tack sign) are typical for:
a. psoriasis vulgaris
b. morbus Darier
c. dermatitis herpetiformis
d. discoid lupus erythematosus
e. parapsoriasis
573. Clinical features of discoid lupus erythematosus include:
a. sharply defined chronic indurated plaques with scales
b. healing ad integrum
c. oral cavity mucosa is affected occasionally
d. Nikolsky sign is positive
e. carpet tack sign is positive
574. Chilblain lupus is:
a. form of lupus vulgaris
b. involves acral areas
c. located on ears
d. located in oral cavity mucosa
e. form of discoid lupus erythematosus
575. Which of these histological findings are characteristic for discoid lupus erythematosus?
a. disappearance of basement membrane
b. thickening of basement membrane
c. parakeratotic changes in horny layer
d. perivascular and perifollicular inflammatory lymphocyte cells infiltrate
e. follicular hyperkeratosis
576. Diagnosis of discoid lupus erythematosus is based on:
a. direct immunofluorescent examination
b. culture
c. histological examination
d. positive patch tests
e. clinical picture
577. Choose the appropriate treatment of discoid lupus erythematosus:
a. antibiotics
b. corticosteroids
c. antifungal agents
d. cytostatics
e. antimalarials
578. Choose the appropriate treatment of lupus erythematosus:
a. corticosteroids
b. Bucky rays radiotherapy
c. kryotherapy
d. sunscreens
e. antibiotics
579. What is characteristic for systemic lupus erythematosus?
a. the disease is provoked by UV radiation
b. the disease begins often with fever, lassitude, loss of appetite
c. men are affected slightly more than women
d. histological changes of collagenosis are present in any part of skin
e. „butterfly rash“ on the face
580. For skin manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus is typical:
a. accompanying symptoms are erythematous macules, telangiectases and small haemorrhages on the fingers, especially on fingertips and around the nails
b. skin manifestations are definitely pathognomonic
c. vasculitis may remain under the clinical features of urticarial vasculitis, livedo reticularis and vasculitis allergica
d. adnexal changes may be present by hair loss
e. skin manifestations are present in each patient with systemic lupus erythematosus
581. Lupus erythematosus is asociated with:
a. peptic ulcers
b. arthralgia of small joints
c. pericarditis
d. nephritis and proteinuria
e. bilateral parotitis and inflammation of lacrimal glands
582. Choose the appropriate treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus:
a. antihistamines
b. immunosuppressive therapy
c. high doses of systemic corticosteroids
d. protection from UV radiation
e. antimalarials
583. What is characteristic for systemic sclerosis?
a. women are affected more than men
b. sclerodactylia
c. Raynaud syndrome is not present
d. fibrotic processes may involve the gastrointestinal system
e. if a scalp is affected, alopecia may occur
584. What is characteristic for morphea?
a. women are affected more than men
b. sclerodactylia
c. lilac ring
d. sclerotic changes are present in oesophagus
e. loss of facial expressions
585. Mark skin manifestations of limited form of systemic sclerosis:
a. Raynaud syndrome
b. sclerotic changes in the skin, beginning on the trunk and spreading to the periphery and extremities
c. microstomia
d. sclerodactylia
e. small necrotic ulcers on the distal phalanges
586. What internal disorders may occur in diffuse systemic sclerosis?
a. oesophageal involvement
b. fibrotic changes of kidneys
c. damage of bone marrow and haematopoesis
d. changes of myocardium
e. fibrotic changes of lungs
587. What signs and symptoms are present in diffuse systemic sclerosis?
a. food regurgitation, malabsorption
b. cardiac arrhythmia
c. renal insufficiency
d. fractures of ribs
e. spina bifida
588. What are the typical histological findings of sclerosis?
a. overgrowth and thickening of collagen fibers
b. overgrowth of elastic fibers
c. rich chronic inflammatory infiltrate in whole derma
d. perivascular infiltrate of lymphocytes
e. reduction of hair follicles
589. What is used in treatment of sclerosis?
a. antimalarials
b. corticosteroids
c. antihistamines
d. penicillin
e. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
590. Lilac ring is typical for:
a. morphea
b. diffuse sclerosis
c. lichen sclerosus et atrophicus
d. lichen planus
e. discoid lupus erythematosus
591. Mark the correct statements about scleroedema adultorum:
a. elastic fibers are affected
b. large amount of mucopolysaccharides in derma
c. disease is a variant of sclerodermas
d. aetiological factor can be diabetes mellitus
e. can be cured ad integrum
592. What disease is probable when a patient complains of muscle pain, has trouble climbing stairs, combing and shaving and a general weakness?
a. granuloma annulare
b. lichen myxoedematosus
c. dermatomyositis
d. morphea
e. scleroedema adultorum of Buschke
593. Mark the correct statements about dermatomyositis:
a. it is an autoimmune disease
b. is often associated with an occult malignancy
c. skin manifestations are most often on a face and hands
d. facial expression is not affected
e. muscles are not affected
594. Which of these symptoms confirm the diagnosis of dermatomyositis?
a. increased creatinine in urine in an active period
b. reduced serum levels of muscle enzymes
c. lupus band test is positive
d. electromyographic examination
e. biopsy from affected muscle groups
595. Dermatomyositis is characterized by:
a. development of permanent changes in the skin with stiffness
b. finding Gottron papules on the dorsal surfaces of fingers of hands
c. favourite affected areas on a face and hands
d. „lilac ring“
e. facial expression of sadness, with reduced facial expression
596. What is characteristic for pseudoxanthoma elasticum?
a. disease is autosomal dominantly inherited
b. favourite affected areas are flexors
c. the first skin symptoms are manifested immediately after birth
d. skin loses its elasticity a poorly hanging folds can occure as in cutis laxa
e. eyes are not affected
597. What kind of disease is pseudoxanthoma elasticum?
a. disease of connective tissue
b. autosomal dominantly inherited disease
c. involvement of elastic fibers
d. disorder of adipose tissue
e. manifestation of the natural process of skin aging
598. What are the features of cutis laxa?
a. increased amount of mucopolysaccharides in the skin
b. lung may be affected by emphysema
c. disease is manifested only in adulthood
d. it is a form of morbus Recklinghausen
e. a skin can be stretched considerably
599. What are the symptoms for Ehler - Danlos syndrome?
a. hyperelasticity of the skin
b. fragility of the skin is not significant
c. increased bone fragility
d. increased flexibility of joints
e. spastic muscles
600. Ehler - Danlos syndrome is characterized by:
a. decreased elasticity of the skin
b. Gorlin symptom
c. the skin is more vulnerable and fragile
d. increased flexibility of joints
e. it is a hereditary disorder of connective tissue
601. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum is charactererized by:
a. calcification of elastic membranes in the retina
b. favourite affected areas are extensors
c. favourite affected areas are flexors
d. increased flexibility of joints
e. autosomal recessive inheritance
602. Progeria adultorum is characterized by:
a. the first symptoms usually appear around 15 years of age
b. typical is a high growth
c. hyperelasticity of the skin
d. increased flexibility of joints
e. autosomal recessive inheritance
603. Cutis laxa is characterized by:
a. the stiffness of the skin
b. Gorlin symptom
c. flatness of the skin
d. increased flexibility of joints
e. frequent involvement of internal organs
604. Mark the correct statements about panniculitis:
a. inflammation of the subcutaneous adipose tissue
b. favourite affected area is trunk
c. the most common manifestation are subcutaneous nodules with the size of several millimeters to centimeters
d. can be induced by drugs
e. favourite affected areas are lower limbs
605. Weber – Christian syndrome is characterized by:
a. An inflammation of subcutaneous adipose tissue
b. Systemic symptoms such as fever, malaise, muscle and joint pain are present
c. Men in old age are mostly affected
d. Favourite affected areas are face and neck
e. Favourite affected areas are lower limbs
606. Rothmann – Makai syndrome is characterized by:
a. children and young women are mostly affected
b. systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise are present
c. favourite affected areas are lower limbs
d. systemic symptoms are not present
e. favourite affected areas are face and neck
607. Mark the right statements about neonatal fat necrosis (adiponecrosis subcutanea neonatorum):
a. it occurs in premature infants
b. favourite affected areas are areas of pressure
c. often ends fatally
d. deep-seated solid nodules are present symmetrically, overlapping skin is blue-red
e. health status is not disturbed
608. Mark the correct statements about sclerema neonatorum:
a. it occurs in premature infants
b. a solid subcutaneous swelling is present, which spreads from the legs towards proximal
c. often ends fatally
d. subcutaneous nodules appears
e. health status is not disturbed
609. Mark the correct statements about diffuse myxoedema:
a. there is an accumulation of acid mucopolysaccharides and water in the skin
b. arises due to hypothyroidism
c. after finger pressure in myxedema there typically arise a depression
d. favourite affected area is trunk
e. the treatment of hypothyroidism is needed
610. Mark the correct statements about pretibial myxoedema:
a. arises due to hypothyroidism
b. arises due to hyperthyroidism
c. affected skin gradually acquire the look of orange peel
d. in affected areas hypertrichosis is usually present
e. arises on the basis of deposition of acidic mucopolysaccharides in the corium
611. Mark the correct statements about mucinosis follicularis:
a. mucin depositions in the outer sheath of the hair follicle and sebaceous glands
b. usually occurs primarily
c. favourite affected areas are the palms and soles of the feet
d. distinguished two types - idiopathic and associated with lymphoma
e. favourite affected areas are face and scalp, in areas with terminal hair alopecia occurs
612. Mark the correct statements about xanthomas:
a. they are contingent deposition of variable fats in disorders of lipid metabolism
b. their treatment consists of treating the underlying disease
c. presenting as yellowish papules or nodules
d. xantelasma palpebrarum is most often form of xanthomas
e. tend to be associated with familial hyperlipidaemia, hypercholesterolaemia
613. Assign the skin manifestations of riboflavin hypovitaminosis:
a. follicular hyperkeratosis, dry skin, scaling, night blindness
b. anguli infectiosi, erythematosquamous manifestations of seborrhoeic dermatitis, glossitis
c. perifollicular punctate haemorrhages, suffusions, follicular keratosis
d. on the sun-exposed areas sharply demarcated erythema is present, followed by pigmentation
e. scorbut develops
614. Assign the skin manifestations of the vitamin A hypovitaminosis:
a. follicular hyperkeratosis, dry skin, scaling, night blindness
b. anguli infectiosi, erythematosquamous manifestations of seborrhoeic dermatitis, glossitis
c. perifollicular punctate haemorrhages, suffusions, follicular keratosis
d. on the sun-exposed areas sharply demarcated erythema is present, followed by pigmentation
e. scorbut develops
615. Assign the skin manifestation of the nicotinic acid hypovitaminosis:
a. follicular hyperkeratosis, dry skin, scaling, night blindness
b. they are often abdominal pain, diarrhea
c. perifollicular punctate haemorrhages, suffusions, follicular keratosis
d. on the sun-exposed areas sharply demarcated erythema is present, followed by pigmentation
e. scorbut develops
616. Pellagra may develop because of:
a. insufficient intake of nicotinic acid
b. insufficient intake of amino acids tryptophan
c. gastroenterological diseases
d. hereditary disorder
e. insufficient intake of the vitamin C
617. Granuloma annulare occurs:
a. only in men
b. mostly in women
c. usually in the older age groups
d. especially among young people
e. usually in young children
618. Granuloma annulare is characterized by:
a. creation of solid papules with smooth surface, with skin color or slightly red
b. centrifugal spread with peripheral raised edge
c. significant tenderness on pressure
d. no subjective symptoms
e. healing by scar
619. Mark the correct statements about necrobiosis lipoidica:
a. association with diabetes mellitus is frequent
b. developed lesions have red-brown borders, with yellow and atrophic center and multiple telangiectatic vessels can be seen
c. favourite affected area is trunk
d. favourite affected areas are extensors of shins, dorsa of hands and maleolar areas
e. there is no link with metabolic disorders
620. Where are skin nodules in rheumatoid nodule localized?
a. on the cheeks
b. around the elbow
c. over the joints of fingers
d. on the trunk
e. on the fold of the ear
621. An infiltrated lesion on shins with a glossy surface and diameter 10 cm, sclerotic center, solid, waxy yellow with telangiectases was created in elderly patient. Borders were slightly elevated, red-brown, slowly spread into the perifery. The process healed by scar. Which disease could Choose the correct disease?
a. granuloma annulare
b. panniculitis
c. necrobiosis lipoidica
d. lupus erythematodes
e. rheumatoid nodule
622. Granuloma faciale is a disease atributed to:
a. syndroma Rothmann – Makai
b. syndroma Weber – Christian
c. histiocytosis
d. allergic vasculitis
e. granulomatous disease
623. Cells containing melanin:
a. formed in the dermis, but migrate into the epidermis
b. formed and stay in dermis
c. formed in epidermis, but migrate into the dermis
d. formed and stay in epidermis
e. formed in hypodermis
624. Where is the greatest risk of melanomas?
a. in the naevus sebaceus
b. in the naevus flammeus
c. in the naevus anaemicus
d. in the naevus coeruleus
e. in the naevus naevocellularis
625. Which statements about naevus comedonicus are correct:
a. it belongs to melanocytic naevi
b. it is dirty-brown colored lesion with verrucous surface
c. it is vascular malformation
d. it consist predominantly of sebaceous glands
e. it is congenital disorder of hair follicles
626. Which statements about naevus sebaceus are correct:
a. it belongs to melanocytic naevi
b. it is dirty-brown colored lesion with verrucous surface
c. it is vascular malformation
d. it consist of sebaceous glands
e. it is congenital disorder of hair follicles
627. Which statements about verrucous epidermal naevus are correct?
a. it belongs to melanocytic naevi
b. it is dirty-brown colored lesion with verrucous surface
c. it is vascular malformation
d. it consist of sebaceous glands
e. it is congenital disorder of hair follicles
628. Flat dark red naevi, sharply defined, of irregular shape, usually unilateral localized are typical for:
a. naevus coeruleus
b. naevus flammeus
c. naevus comedonicus
d. naevus verrucosus
e. naevus sebaceus
629. What is the basis of development of primary skin tumors in adenoma sebaceum morbus Bourneville - Pringle?
a. hyperproliferation of sebaceous glands
b. hyperproliferation of connective tissue in pars papillaris of the dermis
c. hypertrophy of hair follicles
d. hypertrophy of primary vessels
e. epidermal hypertrophy and it´s appendages
630. Correct statements about morbus Recklinghausen are:
a. buttonhole-like invagination of lesions is typical
b. Koenen tumors are typical for this disease
c. café au lait macules are present
d. glioma of optic nerve may often occur
e. pregnancy doesn´t worsen disease
631. Correct statements about lymphangiosarcoma are:
a. it is benign tumour
b. it is malignant tumour from endotel of lymphatic vessels
c. develops in places of chronic lymphoedema
d. manifests as multiple purplish or redish rapidly growing nodules
e. metastases are rare
632. Mark the correct statements about therapy of lymphangiosarcoma:
a. radical amputation is the therapeutic option
b. tumors are not radiosensitive
c. tumors are radiosensitive
d. chemotherapy is used in the therapy
e. therapy is not necessary
633. Sézary syndrome is defined by:
a. erythroderma
b. vesicles and bullae
c. lymphadenopathy
d. hyperkeratosis on palms and soles
e. severe itching
634. Mark the correct statements about mycosis fungoides:
a. affect lymph nodes and visceral organs
b. the first stage of mycosis fungoides is patch stage
c. significant pruritus is present
d. lymph nodes are not enlarged
e. mucous membranes are not affected
635. The diagnosis of mycosis fungoides is based on:
a. histological examination
b. presence of pruritus
c. mycological examination
d. haematological examination
e. clinical picture
636. How is the treatment of mycosis fungoides?
a. antiviral agents
b. radiotherapy
c. PUVA therapy
d. chemotherapy
e. antifungal agents
637. Morbus Hodgkin is characterised by:
a. specific skin changes are rare
b. absence of pruritus
c. about half of the patients have skin changes
d. diagnosis can be estabilished by clinical symptoms without histological examination
e. histological examination is necessary to establish the diagnosis
638. Urticaria pigmentosa belongs to a group of:
a. mastocytoses
b. allergic dermatoses
c. pigmentation disorders
d. viral dermatoses
e. histiocytoses
639. Urticaria pigmentosa most often affects:
a. children in first year of life
b. older children
c. people after puberty
d. adult people
e. elderly people
640. What are the clinical features of urticaria pigmentosa?
a. lesions are located mainly on the face, less on the trunk
b. lesions are located predominantly on the trunk
c. mucous membranes are usually affected
d. itching varies in its intensity
e. general symptoms are not present
641. Mastocytoma is characterized by:
a. presence of too many eosinophils in the skin
b. presence of too many mast cells in the skin
c. it occurs mainly in elderly people
d. a positiv Darier sign
e. unirritated mastocytoma usually causes no subjective difficulties
642. The most acute form of histiocytosis, which occurs in infancy, is:
a. morbus Abt-Letterer-Siwe
b. morbus Hand – Schüller – Christian
c. eosinophilic granuloma of bone
d. xanthogranuloma iuvenile
e. urticaria pigmentosa
643. Morbus Abt - Letterer - Siwe is characterized by:
a. predominant affection of palms and soles
b. predominant affection of seborrhoic areas
c. hepatosplenomegaly
d. lymphadenopathy
e. absence of systemic symptoms
644. The main symptoms of morbus Hand – Schuller – Christian are:
a. involvement of bones
b. exophthalmus
c. diabetes insipidus
d. diabetes mellitus
e. affected lungs
645. Mark the correct statements about eosinophilic granuloma of bone:
a. the most benign variant of Langerhans cells histiocytosis
b. it mostly affects infants
c. it is often accompanied by diabetes insipidus
d. generalized lymphadenopathy is typically present
e. spontaneous bone fractures are frequent
646. Soft pedunculated skin-colored nodules on neck or in intertriginous areas can include:
a. hemangioma
b. lipoma
c. angiofibroma
d. fibroma molle
e. glomus tumor
647. Fundamental of keloid is:
a. thickened bundles of collagen fibers
b. large number of fibroblasts
c. thickened bundles of elastic fibers
d. exuberant production of hyaline of fibrous origin
e. hyperplasia of epidermal keratinocytes
648. The frequent localization of keloid is:
a. after burns
b. over sternum
c. on abdomen
d. on extremities
e. on the site of vaccination
649. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is characterised by:
a. its formation is associated with local skin damage
b. it never reccures
c. it is a tumor of adipose tissue
d. it often metastasizes
e. it is a tumor of connective tissue
650. Lipoma is charakterized by:
a. it is a tumor of connective tissue
b. lipomatosis of neck and shoulders is known as Madelung neck
c. it is a tumor of adipose tissue
d. it does not metastasize
e. it often metastasizes
651. Mark lesion, which is consist of smooth muscle:
a. glomus tumor
b. leiomyoma
c. histiocytoma
d. syringoma
e. cylindroma
652. Granuloma pyogenicum is charakterized by:
a. it is a malignant tumor
b. it is a benign tumor
c. the most common localization are acral parts of the body
d. it is a tumor from blood vessels
e. it is a tumor from hair follicles
653. Localization of tumor under the nail can indicate:
a. lipoma
b. leiomyoma
c. malignant melanoma
d. glomus tumor
e. lymphangiosarkoma
654. Kaposi sarcoma is based on:
a. muscle tissue of thicker vessels
b. adipose tissue
c. perivascular connective tissue
d. endothelium of lymphatic vessels
e. endothelium of blood vessels
655. Which tumor can develop in areas of chronic lymphedema:
a. elephantiasis
b. glomus tumor
c. lymphangiosarcoma
d. hemangioma
e. angiokeratoma
656. Mark the correct statements about cylindroma:
a. tumor creates massive knotty masses in the form of a turban
b. it often occurs familially
c. affected areas are limbs
d. affected is scalp
e. it is a tumor of smooth muscle
657. Seborrhoic keratosis (verruca senilis) is characterized by:
a. it is precancer
b. it occurs more often in elderly
c. it occurs in areas exposed to sunlight
d. it occurs usually on trunk
e. the surface is greasy, ridged
658. Mark the correct statements about actinic keratosis:
a. it is precancer
b. it occurs more often in elderly
c. it occurs in areas exposed to sunlight
d. it occurs usually on trunk
e. the surface is greasy, ridged
659. Squamous cell carcinoma may usually develop from:
a. morbus Paget
b. morbus Bowen
c. actinic keratosis
d. verruca seborrhoica
e. leukoplakia
660. Mark the correct statements about keratoacanthoma:
a. tumor arises from sweat glands
b. it is associated with long – term chemical exposure
c. may be associated with Muir – Torre syndrome
d. arises on non – sun – exposed areas
e. rarely may progress to invasive or metastatic carcinoma
661. Mark clinical and morphological features about basal cell carcinoma:
a. is benign skin tumor
b. metastases are common
c. the face is the most common site
d. erosions and ulcers may occur
e. elderly people are usually affected
662. Which form of basal cell carcinoma does destroy tissue?
a. ulcus rodens
b. ulcus terebrans
c. basalioma solidum
d. basalioma sclerodermiforme
e. basalioma keloidiforme
663. Choose the appropriate treatment of basal cell carcinoma:
a. systemic corticosteroids
b. surgical excision
c. radiation therapy
d. local cytostatic therapy
e. cryotherapy
664. Erythroplasia Queyrat is disease:
a. of the mucosa of glans penis
b. of the skin and develops from herpes simplex virus infection
c. of the skin and develops from human papilloma virus infection
d. which often develops into squamous cell carcinoma
e. which belongs to obligatory premalignant conditions
665. Squamous cell carcinoma:
a. develops from preexisting actinic keratosis
b. develops from premalignant cutaneous conditions
c. is associated with long – term chemical exposure
d. occurs after organ transplantation
e. develops from xerodema pigmentosum
666. Syringoma:
a. has adnexal origin
b. has mesenchymal origin
c. arises from sebaceous glands
d. is malignant tumor
e. develops from sweat glands
667. Which histopatological findings are typical for Paget disease?
a. the great cells with foaming cytoplasm
b. mucoid substance in the cells
c. the large fair cells containing glycogen
d. numerous epithelial stripes and cysts
e. Munro's microabscesses
668. What should be done with clinically evident melanoma?
a. probatory excision and radiotherapy according to the result
b. extirpation and further therapeutic procedure according to the result of histological examination
c. wide excision including the area of healthy skin (1-3 cm) depending on the thickness of the tumor
d. most effective is radiation therapy
e. to start cytostatic therapy
669. Which of the following layers of the epidermis are lacking in oral cavity mucosa?
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
670. Mark the correct statements relating to the clinical manifestations of oral cavity mucosa:
a. aphthae typically occur on the mucous membranes
b. aphthae represent thickening of the mucosal epithelium caused by excessive keratinisation
c. vesicles persist as long as vesicles on the skin
d. the cover of vesicles mechanically quickly disrupt
e. there is no itching of oral mucosa
671. Status Fordyce is characterised by:
a. horny cysts on the gums localised in groups
b. mucous cysts on the palate and labial mucosa
c. ectopic sebaceous glans on labial mucosa, bucal mucosa, glans penis, inner side of prepucium and labia minora
d. abnormal keratinisation of oral mucosa with pinhead-sized whitish-yellow papules
e. ectopic sweat glands on labial mucosa, bucal mucosa, glans penis, on inner side of prepucium and labia minora
672. Mark the correct statements about plicated tongue (lingua plicata):
a. synonym is geographic tongue
b. it is a common benign clinical condition
c. surphace of tongue mucosa is ridged with deep fissures
d. may be associated with syndroma Melkersson – Rosenthal
e. furrows are often initial site of entry
673. Migratory glossitis (lingua geographica) is characterised by:
a. burning sensation of lesions
b. lesions wax and wane over time
c. migration of clinical findings
d. focal thick whitish coating on tongue
e. focal proliferation of the filliform papillae on tongue
674. Clinical features of migratory glossitis (lingua geographica) are:
a. well-demarcated area of erythema with smooth surface, without whitish coating on keratinising surphace of tongue
b. focal hyperkeratotic papillae which peel off sometimes and leave erosions behind
c. focal manifestations of lingua villosa nigra with hypertrophy of filiform papillae
d. bordered round patches with thick whitish-grey coating
e. well-demarcated areas of erythema leading to the formation geographical patches
675. Mark the correct statements about leucokeratosis nicotina palate:
a. belongs to precancerous conditions
b. it is characterized by small grouped macules and papules of whitish color
c. causes significant subjective problems
d. the condition usually heals spontaneously after stopping the long-term smoking
e. there are dark red dots in the centre of whitish lesions formed by mucous glands
676. Etiopathogenesis of lingua villosa nigra is:
a. antibiotic therapy
b. digestive disorders
c. vitamin C deficiency
d. nicotine abuse
e. menopause
677. Mark the areas, where leukoplakia can occur:
a. uvula
b. bottom of tongue
c. lips (labial mucosa)
d. external genitalia
e. palate
678. What is the cause of leukoplakia?
a. chemical irritants
b. chronic irritating cough
c. vitaminsdeficiency
d. chronic mechanical irritation
e. alcohol abuse
679. Assign important characteristic and differential diagnostic signs of leukoplakia:
a. changes can be found on the buccal mucosa close to molars, on the tongue- there is typical white net without papules
b. uniformly white-colored spots on the buccal mucosa, which may grow, infiltrate or erode
c. changes can be localized on the oral mucosa, where they form asymptomatic erythematous plaques covered with white hyperkeratosis
d. gray pseudomembranous coatings tightly bounded to the mucosa
e. painful superficial erosions surrounded by a narrow erythema, covered by white film on the bucal mucosa and soft palate
680. Assign important characteristic and differential diagnostic signs of lichen ruber:
a. changes can be found on the buccal mucosa close to molars, on the tongue- there is typical white net without papules
b. uniformly white-colored spots on the buccal mucosa, which may grow, infiltrate or erode
c. changes can be localized on the oral mucosa, where they form asymptomatic erythematous plaques covered with white hyperkeratosis
d. gray pseudomembranous coatings tightly bounded to the mucosa
e. painful superficial erosions surrounded by a narrow erythema, covered by white film on the bucal mucosa and soft palate
681. Assign important characteristic and differential diagnostic signs of lupus erythematodes chronicus discoides:
a. changes can be found on the buccal mucosa close to molars, on the tongue- there is typical white net without papules
b. uniformly white-colored spots on the buccal mucosa, which may grow, infiltrate or erode
c. changes can be localized on the oral mucosa, where they form asymptomatic erythematous plaques covered with white hyperkeratosis
d. gray pseudomembranous coatings tightly bound to the mucosa
e. painful superficial erosions surrounded by a narrow erythema, covered by white film on the bucal mucosa and soft palate
682. Mark the correct statements about glossitis Möller – Hunter:
a. subjective symtom is dry mouth
b. subjective symptom is burning sensation and pain on spicy foods
c. inflamated hypertrophic red plaques on the surface of the tongue
d. atrophic plaques with a smooth sufrace at a later phase
e. vesicles in the final phase
683. Which symptom does occur in glossitis Möller – Hunter?
a. dry mouth
b. burning tongue
c. patchy anemisation by shooting out of tongue
d. coated tongue
e. Arndt sign
684. The correct statement about lingua plicata is:
a. localization of symptoms varies
b. tongue surface is highlighted
c. it is one of the first signs of pernicious anemia
d. sharply defined areas are red
e. it does not cause any difficulties
685. The correct statement about glossitis migrans (lingua geographica) is:
a. localization of symptoms varies
b. tongue surface is highlighted
c. it is one of the first signs of pernicious anemia
d. sharply defined areas are red
e. it does not cause any difficulties
686. The correct statement about glossitis Möller – Hunter is:
a. localization of symptoms varies
b. tongue surface is highlighted
c. it is one of the first signs of pernicious anemia
d. sharply defined areas are red
e. it does not cause any difficulties
687. Typical signs of Sjögren syndroma are:
a. tongue papillae atrophy
b. interstitial glossitis
c. burning tongue
d. dry mouth and conjunctiva
e. dry skin
688. Etiopathogenesis of Sjögren syndroma is:
a. underproduction of salivary glands
b. underproduction of lacrimal glands
c. underproduction of sweat glands
d. atypical keratinisation of the mucosa
e. atrophic process
689. What does not belong to the clinical features of Sjögren syndroma?
a. xeropthalmy
b. leukoplakia
c. xerostomy
d. xeroderma
e. polyarthritis
690. Mark the correct statements about cheilitis glandularis simplex:
a. it leads to inflamation of the glands in lip mucosa
b. it leads to blockage of small mucous lip glands
c. small red papules with a small red dot in the center on lips
d. secretion of glassy mucus
e. complete obstruction of the small cysts leads to occurrence of big cysts
691. What is the clinical features of cheilitis granulomatosa?
a. lips tend to become red, swollen and tough
b. lower lip is affected frequently
c. lips can bulge out later
d. upper lip is affected frequently
e. finally occurs lichenification of the lip
692. What are the symptoms of Melkersson – Rosenthal syndroma?
a. cheilitis granulomatosa
b. paresis nervi facialis
c. lingua plicata
d. tonsillitis
e. blepharochalasis
693. In which cases is gingivitis hyperplastica found?
a. xerostomia
b. hydantoin treatment
c. long- term treatment with corticoids
d. during pregnancy
e. result of focal fluoridation of teeth
694. Mark the correct statements about stomatitis ulceromembranosa:
a. synonymum is stomatitis Plaut-Vincent
b. increased salivation, foetor ex ore, fever
c. necrotic ulcers
d. gingival mucosa is never affected
e. deep tissue destruction in the worst phase
695. What are the common manifestations of aphthous disease?
a. vesicles persist long
b. painful, sharply defined erosions or ulceration
c. red inflamatory edge
d. tendency to clustering and grouping
e. white coat on the surface of the aphths
696. What are characteristic symptoms of chronic stomatitis aphthosa recurrens?
a. they couse the food intake problems
b. they couse speech problems
c. they are painless
d. they are painful
e. they tend to recur for many years
697. What are characteristic symptoms of morbus Behçet?
a. stomatitis catarrhalis
b. ulcers of the oral cavity mucosa and genitals
c. they affect mucous membranes, skin, eyes and centra nervous system
d. they cause uveitis or iridocyclitis, there is a risk of blindness
e. non-specific systemic symptoms are not present
698. Which microorganisms are grown on chocolate agar?
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
e. Candida albicans
699. Which microorganisms are grown on Sabouraud’s glucose agar?
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Trichophytom rubrum
c. anaeróbne baktérie
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
e. Candida albicans
700. Which disease is reportable?
a. venereal diseases
b. professional dermatoses
c. any mycotic infections
d. skin tuberculosis
e. precanceroses and malignancies of the skin
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