SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION



SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION

1. The most common type of esophageal atresia is:

(A) atresia without fistula

(B) atresia with proximal fistula

(C) atresia with distal fistula

(D) atresia with proximal and distal fistula

(E) tracheoesophageal fistula without atresia

2. Meconium ileus is seen in what percentage of patients with cystic fibrosis?

(A) 10-15%

(B) 30%

(C) 90%

(D) 70-80%

(E) less than 1%

3. The bilateral urogenital ridges arise from the mass of intermediate mesoderm called

the

(A) metanephric blastema

(B) nephrogenic cord

(C) pronephric blastema

(D) cortical cord

(E) genital blastema

4. The mesonephric ducts are conserved and persist as the

(A) genital tubercle

(B) metanephric glomerulus

(C) male genital ducts

(D) female genital ducts

(E) ureters

SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION

5. Which of the following statements -about the development of the human genital system is FALSE?

(A) the Y chromosome has a strong testis-determining effect on the indifferent gonad

(B) in both the male and female, the primitive germ cells migrate into the primary sex corns

(C) female sexual differentiation is estrogen-dependent

(D) exposure of the developing female to androgen may result in abnormal sexual differentiation

(E) the thick tunica albuginea is diagnostic for testis formation

6. Male and female embryos have both mesonephric and paramesonephric ducts. The fact that both do not normally exist in adult humans is due to the

(A) presence of estrogen in the female

(B) presence of androgen in the male

(C) presence of androgen and an inducer/suppressor substance in the male

(D) presence of an inducer substance in the female

(E) different origin of the urogenital sinus in the male and female

7. In the male, testicular androgen andogenizes the phallus to become the penis. In the female, estrogen feminizes the phallus to become the

(A) clitoris

(B) labia majora

(C) labia minora

(D) labioscrotal folds

(E) none of the above

8. Oocyte maturation inhibitor

(A) retards the development of the dividing zygote in the fallopian tube

(B) keeps meiosis arrested in the first meiotic prophase

(C) acts as the zona receptor for proteins on the sperm plasmalemma

(D) encourages recruitment of primary follicles during the menstrual cycle

(E) mediates passage of small molecules through the zona pellucida

SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION

9. The sequence of events that converts a spermatid into a spermatozoan is called

(A) primary spermatogenesis

(B) secondary spermatogenesis

(C) spermiogenesis

(D) spermiation

(E) reduction division

10. The placenta-develops from the

(A) chorion frondosum and decidua basalis

(B) chorion frondosum and decidua parietalis

(C) chorion laeve and decidua basalis

(D) chorion laeve and decidua parietalis

(E) decidua capsularis alone

11. An ultrasound examination of a women at 25 weeks of gestation indicates severe

oligohydramnios. Which of the following is a likely reason for this condition?

(A) placenta previa

(B) Klinefelter`s Syndrome

(C) renal agenesis or urethral obstruction

(D) Tumer's Syndrome

(E) obstruction of the esophagus

12. Which vessel is NOT incorporated into the inferior vena cava?

(A) right posterior cardinal vein

(B) right supracardinal vein

(C) right common cardinal vein

(D) right subcardinal vein

(E) right sub-supracardinal anastomosis

SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION

13. The INCORRECT pair of these fetal/neonatal structures is

(A) ductus venosus/ligamentum venosum

(B) umbilical arteries/medial umbilical ligaments

(C) umbilical vein/median umbilical ligament

(D) foramen ovale/fossa ovalis

(E) none of the above

14. At birth, the

(A) right ventricular myocardium is hypertrophied

(B) left ventricular myocardium is hypertrophied

(C) myocardium of the right atrium is hypotrophied

(D) right ventricular myocardium is hypotrophied

(E) myocardium of both ventricles is equal

15. Which of the following is NOT a foregut derivative?

(A) liver

(B) spleen

(C) pancreas

(D) major duodenal papilla

(E) esophagus

16. After rotation, the

(A) stomach is retroperitoneal

(B) anterior midline of the stomach turns to the left

(C) greater omentum connects the stomach and liver

(D) artery of the foregut is celiac artery

(E) none of the above

SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION

17. A ventral mesentery persists at the level of the

(A) midgut

(B) urogenital sinus

(C) hindgut

(D) foregut

(E) jejunum

18. A Meckel's diverticulum is the persistence of portions of the

(A) ailantois

(B) proctodeum

(C) urogenital sinus

(D) yolk sac

(E) ventral pancreas

19. The calvaria is

(A) cartilaginous neurocranium

(B) cartilaginous splanchnocranium

(C) membranous neurocranium

(D) membranous splanchnocranium

(E) none of the above

20. All of the following are teratogens EXCEPT

(A) ethanol

(B) aminopterin

(C) tetracycline

(D) lithium

(E) amphetamines

21. Which fistula would pass inferior to the hypoglossal nerve?

(A) 2nd arch

(B) 3rd arch

(C) 4th arch

(D) 5th arch

(E) none of the above

SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION

22. A young child presents with an infected nodule in the side of the neck between the platysma and the stemocleidomastoid. This lesion is most likely a

(A) anterior cleft cyst

(B) branchial cleft cyst

(C) posterior cleft cyst

(D) thyroglossal duct cyst

(E) none of the above

FOR THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS, ANSWER

(A) IF CHOICES 1, 2 AND 3 ARE CORRECT

(B) IF CHOICES 1 AND 3 ARE CORRECT

(C) IF CHOICES 2 AND 4 ARE CORRECT

(D) IF ONLY CHOICE 4 IS CORRECT

(E) IF ALL CHOICES ARE CORRECT

23. The metanephros develops from the

(1) ureteric bud

(2) urogenital sinus

(3) metanephric mesoderm

(4) mesonephric tubule

24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the position of the metanephric kidneys?

(1) from a pelvic location, they come to lie in the abdomen

(2) migration is due to growth in the embryo caudal to the kidney

(3) there is a change in blood supply during kidney migration

(4) the definitive renal arteries are not recognizable until just before birth of the

fetus

FOR THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS, ANSWER

(A) IF CHOICES 1, 2 AND 3 ARE CORRECT

(B) IF CHOICES 1 AND 3 ARE CORRECT

(C) IF CHOICES 2 AND 4 ARE CORRECT

(D) IF ONLY CHOICE 4 IS CORRECT

(E) IF ALL CHOICES ARE CORRECT

25. Which of the following statements concerning Turner's Syndrome (45 X,0) are true?

(1) a female recently diagnosed with Turner's Syndrome would be considered

to be menopausal

(2) there is no known medical therapy for this sex chromosome abnormality

(3) the ovary of a patient with Turner's Syndrome has many mature follicles

(4) since the epiphyses of the Turner's Syndrome patient are open, further long

bone growth is possible

26. The term "cortical reaction" refers to

(1) metabolic derepression of the egg at the time of fertilization

(2) changes in the sperm plasmalemma at the time of fertilization

(3) decondensation of the oocyte chromatin

(4) a mechanism that blocks polyspermic fertilization

27. With respect to the fertilization/implantation process, the term "hatching" refers to the

(1) action of a lytic factor

(2) entrance of the morula into the uterus

(3) disappearance of the zona pellucida

(4) appearance of the first chorionic villi

28. Which of the following statements are true with regard to choriocarcinoma and hydatidiform mole?

(1) there is an absence of the fetus

(2) bleeding often occurs when these pathologies are present

(3) measuring hCG during medical therapy is helpful in treatment

(4) a molar pregnancy may progress to choriocarcinoma

FOR THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS, ANSWER

(A) IF CHOICES 1, 2 AND 3 ARE CORRECT

(B) IF CHOICES 1 AND 3 ARE CORRECT

(C) IF CHOICES 2 AND 4 ARE CORRECT

(D) IF ONLY CHOICE 4 IS CORRECT

(E) IF ALL CHOICES ARE CORRECT

29. Which of the following statements are true with respect to true hermaphroditism?

(1) the genotype is predominantly 46,XX

(2) both ovarian and testicular tissue is present

(3) the phenotype is variable

(4) medical care is often sought after pubertal changes occur

30. A foramen primum defect

(1) is an atrial septal defect

(2) is a ventricular septal defect

(3) always accompanies a mitral valve defect

(4) is a form of trunco-septal defect

31. In rotation of the mid gut, the

(1) proximal midgut loop rotates 270°

(2) distal midgut loop rotates 270°

(3) return of the gut to the abdomen is poorly understood

(4) axis of rotation is around the celiac artery

32. Teratogenic agents produce their effects through

(1) Chromosomal changes or

(2) Oncogenesis

(3) Mutagenesis

(4) Alteration of environment of developing embryo

FOR THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS, ANSWER

(A) IF CHOICES 1, 2 AND 3 ARE CORRECT

(B) IF CHOICES 1 AND 3 ARE CORRECT

(C) IF CHOICES 2 AND 4 ARE CORRECT

(D) IF ONLY CHOICE 4 IS CORRECT

(E) IF ALL CHOICES ARE CORRECT

33. Which of the following arises from a component of the FOURTH arch?

(1) stapes

(2) stylopharyngeus muscle

(3) taste buds

(4) aorta

34. The components of arch 2 which normally persist into adulthood include the

(1) external surface

(2) muscle

(3) ligament

(4) artery

35. The medial nasal processes form the

(1) intermaxillary raphe

(2) philtrum of the lip

(3) the secondary palate

(4) part of the maxilla that grows incisors

MATCHING

FOR EACH NUMBERED ITEM, SELECT THE ONE HEADING MOST CLOSELY ASSOCIATED WITH IT.

(A) peritoneal

(B) primarily retroperitoneal

(C) secondarily retroperitoneal

36. Transverse colon

37. Pancreas

38. Stomach

FOR EACH NUMBERED ITEM, SELECT THE ONE HEADING MOST CLOSELY ASSOCIATED WITH IT.

(A) epiblast

(B) ectoderm

(C) hypoblast

(D) endoderm

(E) mesoderm

39. Progenitor of all germ layers

40. Progenitor of all neural tissue

41. Parenchyma of lungs

42. Linings of body cavities

43. Somites

44. Vascular system

45. Musculature of the iris

46. Extraocular musculature

MATCHING

FOR EACH NUMBERED ITEM, SELECT THE ONE HEADING MOST CLOSELY

ASSOCIATED WITH IT.

(A) 4th week of development

(B) 8th week of gestation

(C) 12th week of development

(D) 28th week of gestation

(E) 40th week of gestation

47. Neuropores

48. Eyes reopen

EACH GROUP OF ITEMS IN THIS SECTION CONSISTS OF LETTERED HEADINGS

FOLLOWED BY A SET OF NUMBERED WORDS OR PHRASES. FOR EACH NUMBERED WORD OR PHRASE, SELECT

(A) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH (A) ONLY

(B) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH (B) ONLY

(C) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH BOTH (A) AND (B)

(D) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH NEITHER (A) NOR (B)

(A) Transverse pericardial sinus

(B) Oblique pericardial sinus

(C) Both A and B

(D) Neither A nor B

49. A hole in the mesocardium

(A) Duct of Wirsurg

(B) Duct of Santorini

(C) Both A and B

(D) Neither A nor B

50. Main pancreatic duct

51. Duct of the dorsal pancreas

EACH GROUP OF ITEMS IN THIS SECTION CONSISTS OF LETTERED HEADINGS

FOLLOWED BY A SET OF NUMBERED WORDS OR PHRASES. FOR EACH

NUMBERED WORD OR PHRASE, SELECT

(A) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH (A) NL

(B) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH (B) ONLY

(C) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH BOTH (A) AND(B)

(D) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH NEITHER (A) NOR (B)

(A) Unilateral renal agenesis

(B) Bilateral renal agenesis

(C) Both A and B

(D) Neither A nor B

52. Obeys Weigert-Meyer Law

53. Potter Facies

54. Turner's Syndrome

55. Ipsilateral absence of Vas deferens

(A) First arch derivative

(B) Second arch derivative

(C) Both A and B

(D) Neither A nor B

56. The inner ear is a

57. The middle ear is a

(A) Primary palate

(B) Secondary palate

(C) Both A and B

(D) Neither A nor B

58. The soft palate develops from the

EACH GROUP OF ITEMS IN THIS SECTION CONSISTS OF LETTERED HEADINGS

FOLLOWED BY A SET OF NUMBERED WORDS OR PHRASES. FOR EACH NUMBERED WORD OR PHRASE, SELECT

(A) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH (A) ONLY

(B) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH (B) ONLY

(C) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH BOTH (A) AND(B)

(D) IF THE ITEM IS ASSOCIATED WITH NEITHER (A) NOR (B)

(A) Gastrochisis

(B) Omphalocele

(C) Both A and B

(D) Neither A nor B

59. Occurs with a high incidence of associated anomalies

(A) Anoplasty

(B) Colostomy

(C) Both A and B

(D) Neither A nor B

60. Females with a low imperforate anus require

ANSWERS:

1. C

2. A

3. B

4. C

5. C

6. C

7. E

8. B

9. C

10. A

11. C

12. C

13. C

14. E

15. B

16. D

17. D

18. D

19. C

20. E

21. E

22. B

23. B

24. E

25. D

26. D

27. B

28. C

29. E

30. B

31. A

32. E

33. D

34. A

35. C

36. A

37. C

38. A

39. A

40. B

41. D

42. E

43. E

44. E

45. B

46. E

47. A

48. D

49. A

50. C

51. B

52. D

53. B

54. D

55. A

56. D

57. C

58. B

59. B

60. A

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