Anatomy and Physiology



A&P II 2020 Final ExamLecture1) Put the following layers of the digestive tract wall in order from the lumen to the deepest layer.1. lamina propria4. digestive (mucous) epithelium2. muscularis externa5. serosa3. submucosa6. muscularis mucosaeA) 5, 2, 3, 6, 1, 4 B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5 C) 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5 D) 5, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3 E) 1, 4, 3, 6, 2, 5 2) If the lingual frenulum is too restrictive, an individual A) has a condition called ankyloglossia. B) has difficulty eating. C) cannot speak normally. D) cannot protract the tongue as far as most individuals.E) All of the answers are correct.3) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands wouldA) occur when too much protein is ingested. B) cause mumps. C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. D) prevent emulsification of lipids. E) inhibit the secretion of saliva from other glands.4) Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from A) sympathetic stimulation. B) hormonal stimulation. C) parasympathetic stimulation. D) myenteric reflexes. E) hunger. 5) During deglutition, which of the following phases is not present?A) buccalB) pharyngealC) gastric D) esophagealE) They are all present during deglutition.6) Distension of the gastric wall leads to secretion of histamines from the lamina propria. This is an example of ________ response.A) neural B) local C) muscular D) hormonal E) None of the answers is correct. 7) Mary had her stomach mostly removed to try to overcome obesity. As a result, you would expect Mary to be at risk for A) protein malnutrition. B) abnormal erythropoiesis. C) diarrhea. D) dehydration. E) an ulcer. 8) The term "alkaline tide" implies that the pH of the blood in gastric veins isA) greater during digestion of a large meal than following a 24-hour fast. B) greater following a 24-hour fast than during digestion of a large meal. C) constant because of buffering.D) None of the answers are correct. 9) Match the gastric phase on the left (1-3) with the correct description on the right (4-6): 1. intestinal phase4. prepares stomach for arrival of food2. gastric phase5. stomach empties and decreases secretions3. cephalic phase6. stomach secretes juice and mixes food into chyme A) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and 6 B) 1 and 6; 2 and 4; 3 and 5 C) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6 D) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and 4 E) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4 10) Put the following steps of stomach acid production in the correct order starting with the reaction that requires an enzyme.1. H2CO3 dissociates.2. Chloride ion combines with H+ in the gastric lumen.3. Water and CO2 combine to form carbonic acid.4. H+ and bicarbonate ion are transported into the gastric lumen.5. Cl- diffuses into the gastric lumen.A) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 B) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 C) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2 D) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 11) A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in A) a lower pH during gastric digestion. B) a higher pH during gastric digestion. C) decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells. D) increased protein digestion in the stomach. E) decreased gastrin production. Figure 24-1 The Stomach (dissected)Use Figure 24-1 to answer the following questions:12) What is the function of the structure labeled "6"? A) strains materials entering the stomach B) regulates gastric emptying C) mixes stomach juice into food D) controls contraction of stomach muscles E) prevents food from entering the esophagus 13) Identify the structure labeled "10." A) longitudinal muscle layer B) circular muscle layer C) oblique muscle layer D) rugae E) submucosa 14) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) longitudinal muscle layer B) circular muscle layer C) oblique muscle layer D) submucosa E) rugae 15) Which of the following enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine? A) the circular folds B) the villiC) the microvilli D) intestinal movements E) All of the answers are correct.16) Enterogastric reflexes A) inhibit gastric motility. B) inhibit gastric secretion. C) are triggered by chyme entering the duodenum. D) involve the enteric nervous system. E) All of the answers are correct.17) An obstruction of the common bile duct often results in A) undigested fat in the feces. B) a decrease in production of pancreatic juice. C) inability to digest protein. D) cirrhosis of the liver.E) hepatitis.18) If the pancreatic duct was obstructed, you would expect to see elevated blood levels of A) bilirubin. B) amylase. C) cholecystokinin. D) secretin. E) gastrin. 19) Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom? A) jaundice B) elevated levels of blood glucose C) impaired digestion of protein D) blood in the feces E) overproduction of blood plasma albumin 20) Tony is a chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis of the liver, a condition in which liver cells die and are replaced by connective tissue. Which of the following signs would you expect to observe in Tony? A) increased clotting time B) jaundice C) portal hypertension and ascites D) decrease in plasma protein productionE) All of the answers are correct. Figure 24-2 The Wall of the Small IntestineUse Figure 24-2 to answer the following questions:21) What is the function of the structure labeled "7"? A) production of sodium bicarbonate B) production of lipase C) protection from bacteria D) production of hydrochloric acid E) production of pepsinogen 22) Which structure controls the contraction of the muscularis externa? A) 2 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11 23) Contraction of the muscle layer labeled "9" causes the digestive tract to A) constrict. B) shorten. C) dilate. D) fold for increased surface area. E) secrete enzymes. 24) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term cholecystokinin (CCK)?A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenumB) carries absorbed sugars and amino acidsC) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluidD) causes gallbladder to contractE) stimulates gastric secretion 25) In order for glycolysis to proceed, which of the following need not be present? A) glucose B) acetyl-CoA C) ATP D) NAD E) ADP 26) The strategy of eating starchy foods for several days before an athletic event is known as A) carbohydrate craving. B) the Atkins diet. C) carbohydrate loading. D) glycolysis reaction. E) overeating. 27) In oxidative phosphorylation, energy for the synthesis of ATP is directly obtained from theA) splitting of oxygen molecules. B) breaking of the covalent bonds in glucose. C) movement of hydrogen ions through channels in the inner mitochondrial membrane. D) combination of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen to form water. E) oxidation of acetyl-CoA. Figure 25-1 The Citric Acid CycleUse Figure 25-1 to answer the following questions:28) What is the molecule labeled "1"? A) phosphoglyceric acid B) citric acid C) pyruvate D) NADH E) FADH2 29) What is the molecule labeled "2"? A) hydrogen atoms B) citric acid C) NADH D) carbon dioxide E) FADH2 30) What is the substance labeled "4"? A) hydrogen atomsB) citric acid C) 4 carbon molecule D) NADHE) FADH231) What is the molecule labeled "7"? A) hydrogen atomsB) citric acidC) 4 carbon moleculeD) NADHE) FADH232) In the human body, cholesterol is important because it A) helps waterproof the epidermis. B) is a lipid component of all cell membranes. C) is a key constituent of bile. D) is the precursor of several steroid hormones and vitamin D3. E) All of the answers are correct. 33) In order to determine the LDL level in a patient's blood, it is necessary to measureA) total cholesterol level. B) HDL level. C) triglyceride level. D) triglyceride and monoglyceride levels.E) total cholesterol level, HDL level, and triglyceride level.34) A high uric acid level (above 7.4 mg/dl) can lead to the painful condition known as A) gout. B) rheumatoid arthritis. C) anorexia nervosa. D) lupus. E) ketosis. 35) Catabolism of protein is not a practical source of quick energy because of all of the following except that A) proteins are more difficult to break apart than lipids or carbohydrates. B) the energy yield from protein is less than the yield from lipids. C) one of the by-products of protein catabolism is ammonia. D) most individuals have little protein to spare before harming vital organs. E) extensive catabolism of protein threatens homeostasis. 36) On a tour of African countries, Mark contracts a bad case of traveler's diarrhea. Because he can't eat very much, his body starts to use energy sources other than carbohydrates. This would result in A) increased levels of urea in the blood. B) ketosis and a decreased blood pH. C) increased gluconeogenesis in the liver. D) lipid metabolism.E) All of the answers are correct. 37) Wally decides to go on a hunger strike to further one of his favorite causes. After many days with nothing but water, you would not expect to observe A) elevated levels of glucocorticoids.B) ketone bodies in his urine. C) decreased blood pH. D) increased insulin secretion.E) All of the answers are correct.38) Impaired fat absorption in the intestine would interfere with the absorption of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin B12. C) vitamin C. D) niacin. E) riboflavin. 39) The heat-gain center for thermoregulation A) resides in the pre-optic hypothalamus.B) activates shivering thermogenesis.C) activates nonshivering thermogenesis.D) activates skin vasoconstriction.E) All of the answers are correct. 40) Which of the following statements regarding brown fat is false? A) Brown fat is found in infants. B) Brown fat functions in nonshivering thermogenesis. C) Brown fat contains a rich vascular supply. D) Brown fat is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. E) Brown fat is concentrated around visceral organs in the adult. 41) The position of the kidneys in the abdominal cavity is stabilized by A) the overlying peritoneum. B) contact with adjacent visceral organs. C) supporting connective tissues. D) the renal fascia. E) All of the answers are correct. 42) The condition called ________ is especially dangerous because the ureters or renal blood vessels can become twisted or kinked during movement. A) polycystic kidney disease B) floating kidney C) pyelonephritis D) renal calculi E) renal failure43) What is the proper order for the structures of the renal corpuscle through which a substance during filtration?1. filtration slit (slit pore) 2. capsular space3. dense layer 4. capillary endotheliumA) 4, 3, 2, 1 B) 4, 1, 2, 3 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 1, 4, 2 E) 2, 4, 3, 1 44) You have been diagnosed with lupus erythematosus, a very severe autoimmune disorder with a wide variety of associated organ-related problems. Your doctor is particularly worried about how this will affect your kidney function. He says that you are susceptible to ________ because of the lupus.A) polycystic kidneyB) glomerulonephritisC) cystitisD) diabetesE) renal calculi45) The following is a list of the blood vessels that carry blood to the kidney. In what order does blood pass through these vessels?1.afferent arteriole2.arcuate artery3.interlobar artery4.renal artery5.glomerulus6.cortical radiate artery7.efferent arteriole8.peritubular capillaryA) 4, 6, 2, 3, 1, 5, 7, 8 B) 4, 3, 2, 6, 1, 5, 7, 8 C) 4, 3, 2, 6, 7, 5, 1, 8 D) 4, 6, 2, 3, 7, 5, 1, 8 E) 4, 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 7, 8 Figure 26-1 The Structure of the KidneyUse Figure 26-1 to answer the following questions:46) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) renal pelvis B) minor calyx C) ureter D) major calyx E) renal column 47) Identify the structure labeled "8." A) renal pelvis B) minor calyx C) ureter D) major calyx E) renal column 48) Identify the structure labeled "11." A) renal pelvis B) minor calyx C) ureter D) major calyx E) renal column 49) Under normal conditions, glomerular filtration depends on three main pressures. From the list below, what are these three main pressures?1. blood hydrostatic pressure 2. capsular hydrostatic pressure 3. capsular colloid osmotic pressure 4. blood colloid osmotic pressure 5. urinary bladder hydrostatic pressureA) 1, 2, and 3 are correct.B) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.C) 3, 4, and 5 are correct.D) 1, 2, and 4 are correct.E) 2, 4, and 5 are correct.50) Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) in the glomerulus is generated byA) blood pressure.B) presence of albumin proteins in blood plasma. C) constriction of the efferent arteriole.D) protein in the filtrate.E) filtrate in the capsular space.51) The thick ascending limb of the nephron loop (loop of Henle) is almost impermeable to water, but reabsorbs sodium, potassium, and chloride ions from the filtrate.A) The first statement is true but the second statement is false.B) The first statement is false but the second statement is true.C) Both statements are true most of the time.D) Both statements are false.E) Both are true and relate to production of a dilute urine.52) Which of the following substances undergo tubular secretion? A) water B) glucose C) ammonium ions D) sodium ions E) All of the answers are correct. Figure 26-2 The NephronUse Figure 26-2 to answer the following questions:53) What physiological process occurs at the structure labeled "1"? A) reabsorption B) excretion C) secretion D) filtration E) micturition 54) Where does countercurrent multiplication occur? A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) 2 55) Where does most nutrient reabsorption occur? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 56) A boy has a genetic mutation such that FSH is not produced, but LH is normal. After the boy grows to maturity, it is likely he will A) not develop secondary sex characteristics. B) be sterile. C) be impotent. D) have impaired function of the interstitial cells. E) produce large amounts of inhibin. 57) A male bodybuilder starts taking injections of testosterone (an anabolic steroid) on a daily basis. After three weeks, which of the following would you expect to observe? A) increased sex drive B) decreased levels of GnRH C) decreased levels of LH and FSH D) increased muscle massE) All of the answers are correct. Figure 28-1 The Male Reproductive SystemUse Figure 28-1 to answer the following questions:58) Identify the structure labeled "11." A) bulbourethral gland B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle)D) epididymis E) ductus deferens 59) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) corpora cavernosa B) prostatic urethra C) corpus spongiosum D) spongy urethra E) ejaculatory duct 60) What is produced by the structure labeled "7"? A) seminal fluids B) spermatozoa C) testosterone D) FSH E) spermatozoa and testosterone 61) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) testis B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle)D) epididymis E) ductus deferens 62 Which of the following statements concerning oogenesis is false? A) Oogenesis begins before birth. B) Ova develop from stem cells called oogonia. C) An ovum completes its last meiosis after it is fertilized. D) About half the oogonia complete mitosis between birth and puberty. E) By the time of their birth, girls have already lost about 80 percent of their oocytes. 63) The granulosa cells of developing follicles secrete A) estradiol. B) progesterone. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GnRH. 64) Which of the following is not an action of estrogen? A) stimulates bone growthB) maintains female secondary sex characteristicsC) mimics the symptoms of menopauseD) maintains accessory reproductive organsE) initiates repair of the endometrium65) Problems with ligaments attachments to the uterus or stretched ligaments would result inA) an increased probability of STDs.B) cervical cancer.C) a change in orientation of the uterus.D) endometriosis.E) All of the answers are correct. 66) Which of the following statements is false regarding the female reproductive tract?A) Acidity in the vagina kills most sperm.B) The uterus contains large amounts of fructose nutrients.C) The size of breasts is primarily determined by adipose tissue.D) Cervical cancer is caused by a virus.E) The inner wall layer of the vagina consists of stratified squamous epithelium, like the skin. 67) A sample of a woman's blood is analyzed for reproductive hormone levels. The results indicate a high level of progesterone, relatively high levels of inhibin, and low levels of FSH and LH. The female is most likely experiencing ________ of the uterine cycle. A) the proliferative phase B) menses C) the secretory phase D) menarche E) menopause 68) Follicle-stimulating hormoneA) stimulates the thyroid follicles.B) stimulates ovulation.C) stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary.D) is important only in females.E) All of the answers are correct.69) A mature follicle releases an ovum in response to a surge inA) follicle-stimulating hormone.B) luteinizing hormone.C) estrogen.D) progesterone.E) oxytocin.70) After ovulation, the ovary secretesA) luteinizing hormone.B) estrogen.C) progesterone.D) both estrogen and progesterone.E) luteinizing hormone, estrogen, and progesterone.71) Which of the following statements about the menstrual cycle is true?A) The first occurrence is termed menarche. B) It is ultimately controlled by GnRH. C) It is skipped in pregnancy. D) It often involves painful myometrial contraction. E) All of the answers are correct. Figure 28-2 The Female Reproductive SystemUse Figure 28-2 to answer the following questions:72) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) vagina B) uterine tube C) clitoris D) ureter E) ovary 73) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) uterus B) vagina C) cervix D) clitoris E) greater vestibular gland 74) What is produced by the structure labeled "1"? A) eggs B) estrogen C) progesterone D) inhibin E) All of the answers are correct.75) The male reproductive system is most closely associated with which of the following systems? A) muscular B) urinary C) endocrine D) digestive E) integumentary 76) A primary spermatocyte matures into ________ spermatids having ________ chromosomes.A) millions of; 46B) four; 23C) one; 46D) millions of; 23E) four; 4677) How many tetrads form during synapsis? A) 23 B) hundreds C) thousandsD) 46 E) 4 78) In a mature human spermatozoan, theA) acrosome is next to the flagellum.B) midpiece contains the chromosomes.C) tail contains the mitochondria.D) head contains 23 chromosomes.E) head is diploid. 79) If the prostate stopped secreting fluid, this would result in semen A) that lacked sperm. B) with a higher than normal pH. C) with less fructose. D) with no mucus. E) that was rich in prostaglandins. 80) A boy has a genetic mutation such that FSH is not produced, but LH is normal. After the boy grows to maturity, it is likely he will A) not develop secondary sex characteristics. B) be sterile. C) be impotent. D) have impaired function of the interstitial cells. E) produce large amounts of inhibin. Lab Questions81) In addition to endocrine glands, some organs whose functions are primarily nonendocrine also produce hormones. These endocrine tissues include ________ and ________.A) heart and kidneysB) gastrointestinal tract and adrenalsC) parathyroids and skinD) adipose tissue and sweat glands82) Hormones released from this gland include ADH and oxytocin.A) anterior pituitaryB) posterior pituitaryC) hypothalamusD) pineal83) These hormones pass through the hypophyseal portal system to act on cells of the anterior pituitary gland.A) releasing or inhibiting hormonesB) tropic hormonesC) growth hormone and prolactinD) FSH and LH84) Hypersecretion of this hormone results in loss of calcium from the bones, and softening and spontaneous fractures of the bones.A) insulinB) gonadocorticoidsC) parathyroid hormoneD) growth hormoneFigure 18-1 Pituitary Hormones and Their TargetsUse Figure 18-1 to answer the following questions:85) Identify the hormone labeled "4." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxin D) thyrotropin E) calcitonin 86) Identify the hormone labeled "1." A) mineralocorticoid B) cortisol C) dopamine D) ACTHE) aldosterone 87) A deficiency of which hormone can lead to diabetes insipidus? A) 3 B) 7 C) 2 D) 8 E) 14 88) Identify the hormone labeled "5." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxine D) thyrotropin E) parathyroid hormone (PTH) 89) Identify the hormone labeled "13." A) LH B) progesterone C) estrogen D) oxytocin E) testosterone Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed ElementsUse Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions:90) Identify the cell labeled "5." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte 91) Identify the cell labeled "6." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte 92) Identify the cell labeled "4." A) neutrophil B) lymphocyte C) platelet D) basophil E) monocyte 93) Identify the cell labeled "3." A) eosinophil B) lymphocyte C) erythrocyte D) basophil E) monocyte 94) Identify the cell labeled "2." A) lymphocyte B) eosinophil C) basophil D) neutrophil E) monocyte Figure 20-1 The HeartUse Figure 20-1 to answer the following questions:95) Identify the structure labeled "19." A) tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum 96) Identify the structure(s) labeled "8." A) moderator band B) pectinate muscles C) papillary muscles D) trabeculae carneae E) chordae tendineae 97) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) cusp of tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum 98) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit? A) 5 B) 10 C) 16 D) 13 E) both 5 and 16 99) Identify the structure labeled "21." A) bicuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) ligamentum arteriosum E) tricuspid valve Figure 20-2 Cardiac CycleUse Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions:100) What occurs at the area labeled "D" on the graph? A) AV valve opens. B) Semilunar valve opens. C) Diastolic filling begins.D) AV valve opens and filling of ventricles begins. E) Ventricle contracts. 101) What volume is labeled "G" on the graph? A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) end-systolic volume D) end-diastolic volume E) ejection fraction 102) What occurs at "A" on the graph? A) Semilunar valve opens. B) Semilunar valve closes. C) AV valve opens. D) AV valve closes. E) end systolic volume 103) What volume is labeled "E" on the graph? A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) end-diastolic volume D) end-systolic volume E) total cardiac volume 104) What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph? A) peak systolic pressure B) isovolumetric systole C) isovolumetric contraction D) ventricular refilling E) increased heart rate 105) What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph? A) Ventricular ejection occurs. B) AV valve closes. C) Semilunar valve opens. D) Semilunar valve closes. E) AV valve opens.106) What occurs at the circled label "4" on the graph? A) ventricular ejection B) sympathetic stimulation C) isovolumetric ventricular contraction D) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation E) ventricular filling Figure 21-1 ArteriesUse Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions:107) Identify the artery labeled "16." A) axillary B) inferior mesenteric C) celiac D) superior mesenteric E) splenic 108) Identify the artery labeled "12." A) axillary B) inferior mesenteric C) celiac trunkD) superior mesenteric E) splenic 109) Identify the artery labeled "1." A) axillary B) brachiocephalic trunk C) common carotid D) ascending aorta E) brachial 110) Identify the arteries labeled "9." A) axillary B) brachiocephalic C) common carotid D) aorta E) brachial 111) Identify the artery labeled "6." A) common iliac B) internal iliac C) external iliac D) abdominal aorta E) femoral Figure 21-2 VeinsUse Figure 21-2 to answer the following questions:112) Identify the vein labeled "9." A) axillary B) brachial C) cephalic D) basilic E) median cubital 113) Identify the vein labeled "15." A) axillary B) brachial C) radial D) basilic E) ulnar 114) Identify the vein labeled "10." A) inferior vena cava B) superior vena cava C) aorta D) pulmonary E) thoracic 115) Identify the vein labeled "8." A) superior vena cava B) brachiocephalic C) axillary D) external jugular E) subclavian 116) Identify the vein labeled "6." A) inferior vena cava B) common iliac C) internal iliac D) external iliac E) femoral Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph NodeUse Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions:117) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) efferent lymphatic vessel B) venule C) arteriole D) afferent lymphatic vessel E) lymphatic nodule 118) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) deep cortex B) capsule C) subcapsular space D) trabeculae E) outer cortex 119) Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled "4." A) T cells B) B cells C) erythrocytes D) platelets E) All of the answers are correct. 120) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) medulla B) cortex C) capsule D) trabeculae E) cortical sinus 121) Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled "6." A) T cells B) B cells C) erythrocytes D) platelets E) All of the answers are correct.Figure 23-1 The Upper AirwaysUse Figure 23-1 to answer the following questions:122) What is the function of the structures labeled "12"? A) cause air to swirl within the respiratory passageway B) improve warming of incoming air C) create narrow passages D) help olfaction E) All of the answers are correct. 123) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) internal nares B) esophagus C) glottis D) oropharynx E) laryngopharynx 124) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) olfactory organ B) oropharynx C) nasopharynx D) internal nares E) nasal sinus 125) What is the function of the structure labeled "8"? A) forces air into the lungs B) causes air to swirl within the respiratory passageway C) prevents food from entering the larynxD) acts like a supplementary air pump E) adjusts tension of vocal folds 126) Which structure vibrates to produce sound? A) 5 B) 8 C) 10 D) 11 E) 19 Figure 24-1 The Stomach (dissected)Use Figure 24-1 to answer the following questions:127) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) rugae B) circular muscle layer C) oblique muscle layer D) longitudinal muscle layer E) submucosa 128) Identify the stomach region labeled "12". A) cardia B) pylorus C) body D) fundus E) rugae129) Identify the stomach region labeled "5." A) fundus B) cardia C) lesser curvature D) greater curvature E) pylorus Figure 24-2 The Wall of the Small IntestineUse Figure 24-2 to answer the following questions:130) What type of epithelium covers the structure labeled "6"? A) simple squamous B) stratified squamous C) simple cuboidal D) simple columnar E) pseudostratified ciliated columnar 131) What is the layer labeled "4"? A) mucosaB) submucusaC) muscularis externaD) muscularis mucosaeE) serosa132) What is the layer labeled "2"? A) muscularis externa B) circular muscleC) lamina propriaD) longitudinal muscleE) muscularis mucosae 133) What is the layer labeled "3"?A) mucosaB) submucosaC) muscularis externaD) muscularis mucosaeE) serosa134) The structure labeled "5" A) contributes to the mesentery of the small intestine. B) has a simple squamous epithelium. C) is part of the visceral peritoneum. D) is called the serosa. E) All of the answers are correct.135) Which structure(s) help(s) the stomach to stretch as it fills with food? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 9 136) Identify the stomach region labeled "7." A) esophagus B) cardia C) lesser curvature D) greater curvature E) pylorus Figure 26-1 The Structure of the KidneyUse Figure 26-1 to answer the following questions:137) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) renal sinus B) fibrous capsule C) renal pyramid D) renal papilla E) renal column 138) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) renal sinus B) fibrous capsule C) renal pyramid D) renal papilla E) renal column Figure 26-2 The NephronUse Figure 26-2 to answer the following questions:139) Which area is sensitive to the hormone ADH? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 and 6 E) 4, 5, and 6 140) Where would penicillin be secreted? A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) 3 and 4 141) Where does secretion mostly occur? A) 5 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 E) 2 142) Which area is sensitive to aldosterone? A) 2 B) 1 C) 4 D) 3 E) 5 143) Where does osmosis of water in the countercurrent multiplier process occur? A) 5 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 1 Figure 28-1 The Male Reproductive SystemUse Figure 28-1 to answer the following questions:144) Identify the structure that produces a fructose-rich fluid. A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12 E) 13 145) Identify the structure labeled "12."A) prostatic urethraB) ejaculatory ductC) ductus deferensD) vas deferensE) membranous urethra 146) Identify the structure labeled "6."A) ejaculatory ductB) seminiferous tubule C) ductus deferensD) epididymisE) testis147) Identify the structure labeled "1."A) membranous urethra B) ejaculatory ductC) corpora cavernosaD) corpus spongiosumE) membranous urethra148) Identify the structure labeled "9."A) scrotumB) cremaster muscle C) ductus deferensD) testisE) prepuce149) Identify the structure labeled "2."A) penile urethraB) ejaculatory ductC) corpora cavernosa D) corpus spongiosum E) membranous urethra Figure 28-2 The Female Reproductive SystemUse Figure 28-2 to answer the following questions:150) Which structure is lined by a ciliated epithelium? A) 1 B) 2 C) 9 D) 11 E) 12 151) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) uterus B) vagina C) clitoris D) labium minus E) ovary 152) Identify the structure labeled "7."A) vaginaB) clitorisC) greater vestibular glandD) labium minusE) labium majus153) Identify the structure labeled "8."A) vaginaB) clitorisC) greater vestibular glandD) labium minusE) labium majus154) Identify the structure labeled "10."A) fornixB) cervical canalC) ampullaD) areolaE) cervix155) Identify the structure labeled "5."A) cervixB) uterine tubeC) ureterD) vaginaE) urethra ................
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