University at Buffalo



This exam is worth 50 points Evolutionary Biology You may take this part

in the whole course Exam I, 2018 of the exam with you

A. Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the best possible answer. Use the bubble sheet. (1 pt. each)

1. An evolutionary tree is also called (A) chronology (B) a dendrology (C) a phylogeny

(D) phrenology (E) an ontogeny.

2. What is an example of deductive reasoning? (A) Your dog barks. Therefore, every dog must bark. (B) All tigers are mammals; all mammals have 4-chmbered hearts; so all tigers have 4-chambered hearts. (C) Two-thirds of UB students receive student aid, so therefore, two-thirds of every college student receives student aid. (D) All boys in this class are blonde; therefore all of the boys in this city are blonde. (E) Parrots have feathers, so all birds have feathers.

3. Why did Darwin choose to defend his hypothesis of evolution by natural selection by making an analogy to artificial selection on farms instead of simply presenting the evidence that directly supported his hypothesis? (A) Bishop Wilberforce threatened to excommunicate Darwin if he presented the evidence that supported his hypothesis. (B) Darwin was in the process of amassing the evidence of natural selection occurring in real time. He simply had not yet published his findings. (C) Artificial selection is more effective than natural selection at choosing individuals that are fit enough to survive and reproduce. (D) Natural selection occurs at a very slow rate and Darwin had little evidence to support this portion of his hypothesis. (E) Darwin never argued by analogy as stated above.

4..Which statement best describes Darwin’s findings during his trip on the HMS Beagle. (A) The species on the Galapagos were similar to one another thus supporting Charles Hapsgood’s theory on crustal displacement. B) Populations living close to one another in South America were more different than those that lived far away. C) Fossil and living armadillos were living in the same part of the world suggesting that the fossils were ancestors. (D) Artificial selection as practiced by the farmers prompted him to propose the analogous argument of Natural Selection. (E) Captain Fitzroy suggested that he examine the coast of South America for fossil glyphodonts.

5..The hypothetico-deductive method does not realistically describe how the entire scientific enterprise works because it (A) neglects the role that experiments have (B) neglects the role that alternative hypotheses play (C) neglects the roles that other scientists have (D) neglects Occam’s razor (E) under values the importance of historical sciences like geology.

6. The usage of Charles Lyell’s geological data as evidence in support of Darwin’s evolution hypothesis illustrates (A) The law of parsimony (B) consilience (C) deductive reasoning (D) testable hypothesis (E) the hypothetico-deductive method

7..Which of the following groups is considered to be the most immediate ancestor of reptiles, including the flying reptiles such as pterodactyls? (A) Archaeopteryx (B) fish (C) amphibians D) dinosaurs (E) scaly anteaters

8..When we predict that fossil whales had lungs, we are using (A) inductive reasoning (B) deductive reasoning (C) the hypothetico-deductive method (D) Aristotle’s Scala Naturae (E) Linneaus’ Systema Naturae

9..The Carbon 14 method for dating, puts the age of the earth at (A) 6,000 years ago (B) 10,000 years ago (C) 28 million years ago (D) 4.6 billion years ago (E) none of the above

10..What kind of fossil is used to claim that living organisms lived on earth at least 3.8 billion years ago? (A) chemical fossil. (B) carbon film fossil (C) cast of a fossil (D) trace fossil (E) petrified fossil

11..Darwin and Lamarck’s views of evolution primarily differed in regard to (A) change over time (B) acquired characteristics (C) that natural selection was involved (D) genes were the factors that determined variability (E) new species were formed over time

12..A radioactive element has a half-life of 15,000 years. The fossil containing the radioactive element started with 100 grams, but it has decayed to just 6 grams. Approximately how old is the fossil? (A) 30,300 years (B) 45,000 years (C) 52,500 (D) 60,600 (E) None of the above

13..The prime reason that the lung of a snail and the lung of a bat cannot be homologous is that they do (A) not have exactly the same external structure (B) they didn’t receive their lungs historically from a common ancestor. (C) they are not derived from the same embryonic tissue (D) they do not function exactly in the same way (E) they don’t have the same internal structural anatomy

14..What is the least important indicator that two traits are homologous? (A) They are anatomically similar (B) They exhibit the same embryology (C) They perform the same function (D) They have a recent common ancestor with the same trait.

15...Which of the following would be found in a eukaryote but not in an eubacterium? (A) Golgi body (B) circular chromosome (C) messenger RNA (D) plasma membrane (E) cell wall.

16..Which of the following is not an eukaryote? (A) protist (B) green algae (C) sponge (D) mushroom (E) all are eukaryotes

17. What factor is present in the embryology of the whale that demonstrates Haeckel’s idea of Ontogeny Recapitulates Phylogeny? (A) Their ears are specialized for underwater hearing. (B) Their nostrils shift from the nose to the top of the head (C) They breathe air even though they live underwater. (D) They lack hair. (E) Their front legs are modified into fins and their back legs have disappeared.

18..Which of the following would be absent in prokaryotes? (A) adenine (B) chlorophyll

(C) uracil (D) plasmids (E) all would be present

19..Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross between a two heterozygous individuals? A) tt x tt (B) ttmm x TtMm ( C) Tt x Tt (D) ttmm x TTMM (E) none of the above

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20. In humans pointed eyebrows are dominant to smooth eyebrows and widow's peak (downward pointed frontal hairline) is dominant to continuous hairline. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the offspring from a cross between an individual heterozygous for both genes and an individual homozygous dominant for both genes? (A) 9:3:3:1 (B) 9:3:4 (C) 9:7

(D) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 (E) No ratio, all would be the same

21. A species of lizard has a single gene that controls whether the tail of the lizard will be red or green. Red is the dominant trait. If a homozygous red-tailed lizard is crossed with a heterozygous lizard what would be the theoretical percentage of the offspring that would have a green tail? (A) 100% (B) 75% (C) 50% (D) 25% (E) 0%

22..Which of the following pairs of crosses results in the same phenotypic ratios?

A) Aa x Aa and AA x aa

B) AA x aa and AA x Aa

C) AA x Aa and Aa x aa

D) AA x aA and aa x aa

E) None of the above

23. Transcription:

(A) Is the process of copying genetic information stored in DNA strands into a complementary strand of RNA (B) Occurs in the cytoplasm’s ribosomes (C)Is the decoding of a strand of mRNA to produce a sequence of amino acids (D) Is the process of copying genetic information stored in mRNA strands into a complementary strand of DNA (E) None of the above

24..Suppose this breeding combination occurred: RrYy x rryy. And suppose Ry are linked together & rY are linked together. Which mating combinations would NOT be possible if RY were linked & ry were linked? (A) rryy (B) RrYy (C) RRyy (D) All are possible (E) none of the above.

25..Which of the following is NOT important to the concept of transitional species: (A) Transitional species may not last long because they happen to be in the middle of a change that is occurring. (B) Transitional species occur must appear in strata deeper than the ancestral species. (C) Transitional species appear intermediate in characteristics and intermediate in time between the species that are linking together. (D) Archaeopteryx is considered a transitional species between reptiles and birds (E) The evolution of whales includes many transitional species

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26. Each of our chromosomes are composed of two chromatids joined by a centromere.

(A) These chromatids make up a diploid chromosome. (B) The cell that contains these sister chromatids must be diploid. (C) The sister chromatids were formed by replicating a single chromatid. (D) The sister chromatids were joined by fertilization, bringing together a maternal and paternal chromatid.

27. What happens after Meiosis I? (A) Four cells have been produced. (B) The cells are diploid. (C) The DNA will be replicated once more. (D) The cells are destined to be somatic cells. (E) Each chromosome consists of a single strand of DNA.

28. Positively charged subunits around which the DNA helix is wrapped are known as: 

(A) Proteins (B) Kinetochores (C) Nucleoli (D) Telomerases (E) Centromeres

29. Which statement about mitosis is not true? (A) A single nucleus gives rise to two identical daughter cells (B) The daughter nuclei are generally identical to the parent nucleus (C) the centromeres separate at the onset of anaphase. (D) Homologous chromosomes synapse in prophase (E) The centrosomes organize the microtubules of the spindle fibers

30. Which statement is true about cytokinesis? (A) In animals a cell plate is formed (B) In plants, it is initiated by furrowing of the membrane (C) It follows mitosis (D) In plant cells, actin and myosin play an important role (E) It is the division of the membrane

31. Mendel’s law of segregation ultimately allowed the rejection of the prevailing hypothesis of heredity that Flemming Jenkin used to criticize Darwin’s ideas of evolution. Which hypothesis was this? (A) Linked genes do not segregate independently (B) Blending hypothesis (C) Evolution by Acquired Characteristics (D) Catastrophe hypothesis (E) Particulate Theory

32. Which of the following is not a difference between RNA and DNA? (A) RNA has uracil and DNA has thymine (B) RNA has ribose and DNA has desoxyribose (C) RNA has five bases and DNA has four (D) RNA is a single strand polynucleotide and DNA is a double strand (E) RNA molecules are smaller than chromosomal DNA molecules

33. In a dihybrid cross with GgTt x GGTt, how many genotypes of GGtt are present?

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 0

34. Which statement about RNA is not true? (A) Transfer RNA functions in translation (B) Ribosomal RNA functions in translation (C) RNAs are produced by transcription

(D) Messenger RNAs are produced on ribosomes (E) DNA codes for mRNA, tRNA and rRNA.

35.Linked genes (A) must be immediately adjacent to one another on a chromosome (B) have alleles that assort independently of one another (C) never show crossing over (D) are on the same chromosome (E) always have multiple alleles

36. Archaeopteryx was discovered in 1861. Which prediction about Darwin’s theory of evolution did Archaeopteryx support? (A) If the hypothesis of evolution is correct, then fossils should show evidence of change over time. (B) If the hypothesis is correct, then the earth must be old that evolution had time to occur. (C) If the hypothesis of evolution is correct, then intermediate links between fossils must exist (D) If the hypothesis of evolution is correct, then more offspring must be born than will survive and reproduce (E) If the hypothesis is correct, then variation between specimens of Archaeopteryx must exist in order for natural selection to occur.

37. Which of the following have DNA in the form of a single circular chromosome? (A) Plants (B) Protozoa (C) Archea (D) Fungi (E) Green Algae

38..Finches that originated in Ecuador flew over to Galapagos and established residency. This is an example of: (A) Active immigration and dispersal (B) Active immigration and Vicariance (C) Passive Immigration and dispersal (D) Passive Immigration and Vicariance (E) Vicariance and dispersal

39..Which of the following supports the hypothesis that prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes? (A) Eukaryotes are smaller and simpler than prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes have flagella which prokaryotes lack (C) Prokaryotes have plastids which eukaryotes lack (D) Eukaryotes have chlorophyll which prokaryotes lack. (E) Prokaryotes are smaller and lack the membranous organelles that eukaryotes possess.

40. Which of the following is NOT part of the cell theory? (A) cells are the basic unit of life (B) all cells have membrane bound organelles. (C) all cells come from previous cells (D) all living organisms are made of cells (E) None. All are part of the Cell Theory

41 A person’s predisposition for cancer and diabetes are examples of continuous variation in humans, whereas in Mendel’s pea plants the tall allele was dominant over the short with no intermediates. Which is the best explanation for the differences described above? (A) The seeds coding for intermediate height are aborted within the seed pod and thus never develop (B) The seeds coding for intermediate height have deleterious alleles that prevent them from germinating (C) These variations in human are affected by lack of dominance in the alleles that control these traits (D) Humans are more advanced than pea plants, so the genetics of peas is much simpler that in humans (E) Many genes rather than one gene for a characteristic control some variations in species

42..When two alleles exist and code for a single trait but only one produces a functional protein which is only partially effective, we are dealing with (A) co-dominance (B) incomplete dominance (C) pleiotropy (D) polygene inheritance (E) epistasis

43. In which part of the flower are cells formed which are analogous to the mammalian sperm? (A) anther (B) pistil (C) carpel (D) antheridium (E) ovule

44.In which part of the hypothetico-deductive method do we most clearly see the deductive thinking? (A) observation (B) hypothesis formation (C) Prediction (D) Experiment (C) Conclusion

45. Cuvier’s Catastrophe Hypothesis stated that organisms were likely created and destroyed on multiple occasions by God. What evidence in the fossil record is consistent with this hypothesis? (A) The fact that a stratum will contain copious numbers of organisms while an adjacent strata lacks these species. (B) The fossil record shows complex organisms are found in the lower strata while less complex organisms occur in the newer strata. (C) Fossils are absent from most of the fossil record until recently (D) The discovery of the fresh water lizard fossils in both South America and Africa (E) Charles Lyell’s observations that the most complex mollusks are found in the higher newer rock strata.

46. Here is a tree showing the evolution of circle, square, and triangle traits. The shapes indicate the traits and the numbers (1-4) indicate common ancestors. Which trait displays apomorphy? A) circle B) square C) triangle D) none of the above

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47.Where is the most recent common ancestor of A and C? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

48.Who is the closest living ancestor to organism C? (A) organism C; (B) organism D;

(C) organism A; (D) organisms C and D; (E) all organisms are equally closely related to each other as they are all on the same time line.

49. The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology is represented by (A) RNA(DNA(Protein

(B) Protein(Lipids(Carbohydrates (C) RNA(DNA(Lipids (D) DNA(RNA(Protein

(E) DNA(RNA(Enzyme.

50. Select the option that correctly links the person who stated the idea. (A) Lamarck: “If a fast fox and a slow fox are bred together, the offspring will be able to run at an intermediate speed.” (B) Huxley: “The world is too young for evolution to have occurred.” (C) Darwin: “Species are fixed.” (D) Jenkins: “Acquired characteristics during the life time of an organism will be passed down to offspring.” (E) Malthus: “Human population growth is geometric and the growth of the food supply is arithmetic.”

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