Otázky z patologické fyziologie 2



Questions of Pathological Physiology 2nd year Physiotherapy (foreign students)

to graded credit

The Test allow students to comprehensively and conveniently assess and review their knowledge of a particular basic science, in this instance Pathophysiology. Each question is accompanied by four answers and only one answer is correct.

1. The major immunoglobulin class in normal adult human serum:

2. The predominant antibody found in a primary immune response

3. Found on the surface of mast cells

4. A major component of mucosal secretions

5. Can cross the placenta

6. Which of the following cells are important in an innate immune response to extracellular bakteria?

7. Which of the following is NOT a function of macrophages?

8. Compared with a healthy individual, lymph nodes from a patient with a deficienty in B cells would have

9. A newborn infected with group B streptococci would produce and secrete antibody of which of the following class[es]?

10. Eosinophils are associated with the defense against infections caused by

11. To determine whether a fetus acquired an infection in utero, antigen-specific antibody of which of the following class should be measured?

12. During an immune response, antibodies are made against different structures [usually proteins] on an infectious agent. These structures are referred to as

13. Enhances phagocytosis of bakteria by opsonization

14. Mediates cytolysis

15. Binds to antibody to activate the classical pathway

16. A patient with a predisposition for infections Neisseria bacteria may have a deficiency in

17. Which of the following complement component deficiencies is associated with individuals with frequent pyogenic bacterial infections?

18. A person with an abnormality in which of the following early complement components would most likely have the most serious clinical manifestations?

19. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 is produced by some strains of Staphylococcus aureus and is thought to be responsible for the clinical manifestations of disease by this organism. This toxin is referred to as a superantigen because it can

20. Antiviral activity of antibody includes all of the following EXCEPT

21. During the course of an immune response to microbes, macrophages can cause damage to adjacent tissue by the release of all of the following EXCEPT

22. Goodpasture`s syndrome

23. Serum sickness associated with the condition described

24. Tuberculin reaction associated with the condition described

25. Poison ivy associated with the condition described

26. Anaphylactic reaction after bee sting associated with the condition described

27. Hemolytic disease of the newborn associated with the condition described

28. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis associated with the condition described

29. A patient with recurrent yeast infections and the incapacity to control viral infections may indicate a deficiency in

30. The cytokine that best fits the activity or function - promotes the proliferation of T and B lymphocytes – listed

31. The cytokine that best fits the activity or function – promotes various biologic actions associated with inflammation – listed

32. The cytokine that best fits the activity or function – activates macrophages and NK [natural killer] – listed

33. For the mediator of acute inflammation participate is true

34. Inflammation is associated with systemic signs and symptoms EXCEPT:

35. For the T-Cell disorders (DiGeorge Syndrome) is typical

36. IgA deficiency is a disorder in:

37. Passive immunity – which from those lettered answers is not correct?

38. Active immunity – which from those lettered answers is not correct?

39. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type I (Atopic, Anaphylactic)?

40. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type II (Cytotoxic, Cytolytic)?

41. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type III (Immune complex)?

42. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type IV (Delayed Hypersensitivity)?

43. If a person with blood group type A receives (by error) blood group type B, the resulting signs and symptoms include

44. Acute bacterial infections of the bone characteristically show all of the following EXCEPT

45. Infective endocarditis frequently occurs in injection drug users. The valve most often involved is

46. The pathogenesis of bacterial diarrhea involves all of the following EXCEPT

47. The endogenous mediators of sepsis include all of the following EXCEPT

48. The principal CD lymphocyte affected in HIV and AIDS is

49. The destruction of CD4 lymphocytes in HIV and AIDS involves all of the following EXCEPT

50. Typically HIV progresses from the onset of infection to evidence of immunosuppression over what period of time?

51. A patient who has the autosomal dominant gene for type I osteogenesis imperfecta has blue scleras and slightly reduced height, whereas his brother has multiple fractures and deformities. This is an example of

52. Your patient has an autosomal dominantly inherited disease. The patient and his grandfather show evidence of disease, but the patient`s father is asymptomatic. This is an example of

53. Two patients have the same eye color. They have the same

54. Cystic fibrosis

55. Which of the following conditions is known to be multifactorial in etiology and not due to a single gene disorder?

56. In the case of a dominant allele

57. All are true of human chromosomes EXCEPT

58. All are true of Down`s syndrome EXCEPT

59. Most children with Down`s syndrome are

60. Regarding life expectancy in Down`s syndrome

61. All are true of phenylketonuria [PKU] EXCEPT

62. The neurologic deficits of phenylketonuria [PKU] are due to

63. The different genetic forms of phenylketonuria [PKU] illustrate two different pathophysiologic mechanisms by which inborn errors of metabolism cause disease. These are

64. Sickle cell anemia

65. Cell as a part of a multicellular organism, needs to communicate with one another. Coordination of growth, cell division, and the functions of various tissues and organic systems are accomplished by principal means of communication EXCEPT

66. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the PROPHASE?

67. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the METAPHASE?

68. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the ANAPHASE?

69. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the TELOPHASE?

70. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the CYTOKINESIS?

71. Which of those sentences is correct?

72. Which of those sentences is correct?

73. Which of those sentences is correct?

74. Necrotic cells demonstrate typical changes EXCEPT

75. Apoptosis

76. Chromosomal imbalance is most frequent during which of the following stages of human evolution?

77. Chromosomal analysis reveals a 47, XYY karyotype. Which of the following descriptions best fits this abnormality?

78. Metabolic disease may include all of the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT

79. Initial tests that may help to diagnose an inborn error of metabolism include all the following EXCEPT

80. During endocytosis, low-density lipoprotein [LDL] is dissociated from its receptor in the:

81. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome

82. Individuals with Turner syndrome

83. For the malignant tumors fit following characteristics EXCEPT

84. Hyaline cartilage, which is the most common form of cartilage

85. In long bone development, hypertrophied chondrocytes are the source of:

86. Patients with Cushing`s syndrome often show osteoporotic changes. Which of the following characteristic is involved in the etiology of osteoporosis induced by Cushing`s syndrome?

87. What is the length of the sarcomere?

88. Which of the following statements is true for the cardiac muscle?

89. The cells responsible for the entry of human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] into the CNS are:

90. Regeneration of axons

91. The blood cell that is a precursor to microglia, Kupffer cells, and Langerhans cells is:

92. Distribution of blood to specific organs is regulated predominantly by:

93. Atherosclerosis is usually initiated by:

94. Which of the following is found in the plasma:

95. In the human fetus, the predominant site of hematopoiesis during gestational months 5 to 9 is the:

96. Anaphylactic shock is primarily due to the action of:

97. The bronchioles do not collapse during exhalation because they are:

98. Asthma is a consequence of the release of histamine and heparin from:

99. Which of the following occurs after exposure to ultraviolet [UV] radiation?

100. Decreased cytocrine secretion of melanin

101. A 42-year-old man has generalized lymphadenopathy, without fever or night sweats. His total white blood cell [WBC] count is elevated to 50,000, with small mature-appearing lymphocytes. A diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia [CLL] is ascertained. All of the following are typical characteristics of CLL EXCEPT

102. The etiology of chronic lymphocytic leukemia [CLL] is

103. Which of the following factors complexes with factor VIII, which is activated to factors VIIIa when released from the complex?

104. Which of the following factors is/are dependent on vitamin K for synthesis?

105. Which of the following causes of anemia is NOT associated with larger than normal red cells [macrocytosis]?

106. Which of the following causes of an elevated hemoglobin concentration in the blood is characterized by a LOW level of erythropoietin in the blood?

107. Which of the following causes of an increase in the neutrophil count in the blood is NOT associated with an absolute increase in the number of circulating polymorphonuclear neutrophil leukocytes?

108. In a typical case of iron deficiency, which of the following molecular forms that contains or can bind to iron, increases in the patient`s serum?

109. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement pertaining to pernicious anemia?

110. Which of the following statements related to circulating erythrocytes [red cells] is untrue?

111. Which of the following statements concerning the relationship of the neutrophil polymorphonuclear leukocyte [PMN] to infection with bacterial pathogens is incorrect?

112. For the question “If the item is associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:

113. For the question “If the item is associated with chronic myelocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:

114. For the question “If the item is associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia and with chronic myelocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:

115. Thrombocytopenia is most commonly produced by processes that reduce the survival of circulating platelets significantly below the normal average life span of 10 days. Which of the following statements about thrombocytopenia is true?

116. Acceleration of the destruction of platelets is owing to

117. Which of the following factors is not contributing to abnormal clotting in blood vessels [thrombosis]?

118. In the adult, the best place to sample for cells of this lineage would be

119. The granules that develop during differentiation of this cell type contain:

120. Human blood, if fresh, centrifuged in the presence of an anticoagulant such as heparin to obtain a hematocrit, the resulting fractions are:

121. Thrombocytopenia is a reduction in the number of circulating blood platelets. Which of the following would most likely occur in thrombocytopenia?

122. Erythrocytes may have abnormal shapes and sizes in certain diseases. In iron deficiency you would expect to see:

123. After loss or damage to the endothelium of a blood vessel, platelets carry out one of the following functions. Which one is it?

124. Cells that increase in number during an allergic reaction are:

125. Specific phagocytosis of bacteria is typical for the:

126. Non-specific phagocytosis of bacteria is typical for the:

127. Major component of pus is

128. Structure and granular content similar to that of mast cells is typical for

129. End product of protein catabolism in the blood is

130. End product of red blood cell destruction in the blood is

131. All of the following are typical waste products in the blood EXCEPT

132. Anemia is defined

133. All of the following are typical characteristic for aplastic anemia EXCEPT

134. Laboratory features for the anemia resulting from a deficiency of either B12 or folates are NOT:

135. Which of the following sentences is correct?

136. Sickle cell anemia

137. Acute blood loss anemia may present after trauma

138. For the pernicious anemia is valid:

139. For the iron deficiency anemia is valid

140. For the relative polycythemia is valid

141. For the absolute polycythemia vera is valid

142. For the secondary polycythemia is valid

143. Blood smear in folate deficiency anemia is:

144. Blood smear in relative polycythemia is:

145. Jaundice it is the typical symptom during

146. In the case of Hematochezia or melena excreta contains blood in

147. In the case of Hematemesis excreta contains blood in

148. All of the following are the causes of the coagulation disorders with prolonged bleeding from nasal or oral mucosa, deep tissue hematomas, spontaneous hematuria EXCEPT

149. Rh incompatibility

150. All of the following are etiology and pathogenesis of an insufficient quantity of platelets (fewer than 50,000/mm2) EXCEPT

151. Which one of the following ECG components varies with heart rate?

152. Which of the following cardiac parameters does not increase during pregnancy?

153. Which of the following does NOT occur during diastole?

154. Which of the following is NOT a component of cardiac output?

155. For the complex or wave form on the ECG tracing to be accepted

156. A normal frontal plane QRS axis is

157. Which of the following associations is correct?

158. For the Frank-Starling curve, match the appropriate curve with the following description: A normal individual whose stroke volume increases as preload increases is curve

159. For the Frank-Starling curve, match the appropriate curve with the following description: A patient in congestive heart failure due to systolic dysfunction is curve

160. Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Mitral valve opens

161. Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Mitral wave closes

162. Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Aortic valve opens

163. Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Aortic valve closes

164. Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: Influx of sodium ions

165. Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: May involve chloride ion movement

166. Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: Rapid potassium exit

167. Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: Resting state

168. Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: Mediated via slow calcium channels

169. Which of the following arterial pulse waveforms is consistent with severe left ventricular impairment?

170. Which of the following arteriole pulse waveforms is consistent with aortic stenosis?

171. Which of the following conditions is NOT consistent with a hypokinetic arterial pulse?

172. Which of the following statements is FALSE of a reversed splitting of the first heart sounds?

173. Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The first heart sound – S1:

174. Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The second heart sound – S2:

175. Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The third heart sound – S3:

176. Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The fourth heart sound – S4:

177. Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: Opening snap:

178. Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: Midsystolic click:

179. The onset of the QRS complex on surface ACG corresponds to which action potential phase?

180. The isoelectric ST segment on surface ECG corresponds to which action potential phase?

181. The T wave on the surface ECG corresponds to which action potential phase?

182. Which is present when no atrial impulse conducts to the ventricles?

183. Which ot he following AV blocks is characterized by progressive PR interval prolongation prior to loss of AV conduction?

184. Which of the following is NOT true regarding left ventricular ejection fraction?

185. Which of the following is the correct sequence for myocardial depolarization?

186. Which ECG leads represent the inferior cardiac wall?

187. Which of the following produces a diastolic murmur?

188. Loss of P waves on surface ECG is consistent with

189. Cardiac output is the product of

190. Which of the following is NOT true regarding right ventricular hypertrophy?

191. All of the following are risk factors commonly associated with thrombosis EXCEPT

192. All of the following are risk factors commonly associated with atherosclerosis EXCEPT

193. Substances that don’t increase blood pressure are

194. Effects of high systemic blood pressure are

195. Secondary hypertension refers to high blood pressure of known causes EXCEPT

196. Left-sided heart failure

197. Right-sided heart failure

198. Activation of sympathetic nervous system in the heard

199. Systemic congestion during right ventricular failure is due to

200. Pulmonary congestion during left ventricular failure is due to

201. All of the following are features of primary pulmonary hypertension. EXCEPT one.

202. The following are common causes of transudative pleural effusion EXCEPT

203. Obstructive airway defect is characterized on pulmonary function testing by

204. Which of the following is NOT a cause of bronchiectasis?

205. Which is NOT the risk factor for pulmonary thromboembolism?

206. Risk factors for the development of obstructive sleep apnea does NOT include

207. The causes of hemoptysis include all of the following EXCEPT

208. The bronchioles do not collapse during exhalation because they are

209. The smallest active functional unit (including conduction and air exchange) of the lungs is

210. The lung cells known as “congestive heart failure cells” are:

211. Surfactant is accurately described by which of the following statements?

212. Asthma is a consequence of the release of histamine and heparin from

213. Emphysema is a common occurrence in persons deficient in alpha1-antitrypsin and in those who smoke. Which of the following may occur in emphysema?

214. The changes in the respiratory system during aging process include all of the following EXCEPT

215. Which of the following definitions of lung volume is correct?

216. Which of the following definitions of lung capacities is correct?

217. Perfusion in the pulmonary

218. Factor shifting oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left is

219. Factor shifting oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right is

220. Hypoventilation

221. Hyperventilation

222. Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when

223. Circulatory hypoxia occurs when

224. Histotoxic hypoxia occurs when

225. Anemic hypoxia occurs when

226. All of the following are causes of acute respiratory failure in neuromuscular diseases EXCEPT

227. All of the following are causes of acute respiratory failure in pulmonary parenchyma diseases EXCEPT

228. The pathophysiologic mechanism of pulmonary hypertension includes

229. All of the following are factors predisposing to pulmonary embolism ECXEPT

230. Asthma is defined as a lung disease characterized by

231. The functional assessment of the pulmonary function and signs are: VC (vital capacity) decreased, FEV1 fall to the 60%, respiratory rate increased, pulse/min normal and/or increased and/or decreased, breathlessness at rest. This correspond to

232. The diagnosis of asthma attack is based on all of the following suggestions EXCEPT

233. The immunohistopathologic features of asthma include

234. The clinical manifestation in the patient with chronic bronchitis (Type B: “blue bloater”) is

235. The clinical manifestation in the patient with emphysema is

236. Emphysema is

237. Spirogram for restrictive lung disease is

238. Spirogram for obstructive lung disease is

239. Pathophysiologic changes in diffuse interstitial pulmonary fibrosis include all of the following EXCEPT

240. Laboratory values for patient with respiratory acidosis (acute asthma episode) are

241. Laboratory values for patient with respiratory acidosis (emphysema) are

242. Laboratory values for patient with respiratory alkalosis (pulmonary embolism) are

243. Common causes of respiratory alkalosis include all of the following EXCEPT

244. Common causes of respiratory acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT

245. Pneumothorax

246. Respiratory responses to changes in carbonic and metabolic acids are

247. Respiratory responses to changes in carbonic and metabolic acids are

248. Respiratory responses to changes in carbonic and metabolic acids are

249. Respiratory responses to changes in carbonic and metabolic acids are

250. Respiratory acidosis

251. Which finding is not common in acute glomerulonephritis?

252. Which finding is fairly specific for chronic renal failure?

253. A high fractional excretion of sodium is typically found in

254. In chronic renal failure, which of the following is not typical finding?

255. Which of the following describes bone abnormalities is patients with chronic renal failure?

256. Which of the following is useful in retarding progression of renal failure?

257. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized by the following EXCEPT

258. Which of the following is not a finding typical of nephrotic syndrome?

259. When vomiting the laboratory findings show

260. For the chronic obstructive pulmonary disease the laboratory findings show

261. For the diarrhea the laboratory findings show

262. For the respiratory arrest the laboratory findings show

263. For the Addison`s disease which type of hyponatremia is typical?

264. For the nephrotic syndrome which type of hyponatremia is typical?

265. For the hypothyroidism which type of hyponatremia is typical?

266. Changes in the glomerular filtration barrier in diabetes mellitus result in

267. Impermeability to water despite the presence of ADH is in

268. Site of countercurrent multiplier is

269. Site of action of aldosteron is

270. Capillaries involved in maintenance of hyperosmotic medulla is

271. Following statements regarding the percentage of total body water at all ages are correct EXCEPT

272. Extracellular fluid volume deficit

273. Clinical manifestation of extracellular fluid volume (ECV) deficit is

274. All of the following causes of extracellular fluid volume (ECV) excess are correct EXCEPT

275. Clinical manifestations during extracellular fluid volume (ECV) excess are

276. A serum sodium concentration below the lower limit of normal range indicates hyponatremia. This is called

277. Pathogenesis of hyponatremia.includes

278. Without water supply increases osmolality of the extracellular fluid, thirst and oliguria which correspond to

279. Hypokalemia indicates a decreased potassium concentration in the extracellular fluid.

280. For the hypocalcemia one of the following statement is correct. Which one is it?

281. The clinical symptoms during decreases of the extracelullar water may be all of the following EXCEPT

282. The clinical symptoms during increases of the extracelullar water may be all of the following EXCEPT

283. The clinical symptoms during increases of the extracelullar calcium level may be all of the following EXCEPT

284. The function of the nefron segment - glomerulus is that

285. The function of the nefron segment – proximal convoluted tubule is that

286. The function of the nefron segment – descending Henle´s loop is that

287. The function of the nefron segment – ascending Henle´s loop is that

288. The function of the nefron segment – collecting tubule is that

289. For proteinuria suit following causes EXCEPT

290. For glycosuria suit following causes EXCEPT

291. Nephrotic syndrome as a collection of symptoms may be characterized by

292. Nephrotic syndrome as a collection of symptoms may be characterized by

293. The prerenal acute renal failure manifests by

294. The intrarenal acute renal failure is present

295. The postrenal acute renal failure is present

296. Oliguria is urinary output less than

297. Anuria is urinary output less than

298. The cause of prerenal (decreased renal perfusion) acute renal failure may be all of the following EXCEPT

299. The cause of postrenal (obstruction) acute renal failure may be all of the following EXCEPT

300. The cause of intrarenal (damage of the nephron) acute renal failure may be all of the following EXCEPT

301. All the following may present with hematemesis EXCEPT

302. Bleeding peptic ulcer disease may NOT present with

303. Hepatitis C infection can be transmitted in all of the following manners EXCEPT by

304. Symptoms of acute pancreatitis may include

305. The ideology of acute pancreatitis includes all of the following EXCEPT

306. The most common location for a gastric ulcer is the

307. All of the following are consistent with the diagnosis of malabsorption EXCEPT

308. Causes of malabsorption include all of the following EXCEPT

309. All of the following are potential consequences of chronic hepatitis B or C infection EXCEPT

310. Serum alkaline phosphatase is NOT elevated in the disease of

311. In patients with alcohol-induced liver disease, all of the following are indicators of poor prognosis EXCEPT

312. The primary source of bilirubin is

313. Enteroendocrine cells secrete their products by

314. Which of the following processes is involved in lipid absorption and processed by the enterocytes?

315. As saliva passes through the duct system, which of the following changes occurs?

316. The primary regulator of salivary secretion is

317. Which of the following represents a major function of epithelial cells lining the small intestine?

318. Functions of hepatocytes include which of the following?

319. In saliva, IgA is complexed with

320. The diagram below shows the relationship between the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Match each description with the appropriate lettered site. The region in which the majority of parietal cells are found

321. The diagram below shows the relationship between the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Match each description with the appropriate lettered site. The region in which Brunner´s glands are found

322. The diagram below shows the relationship between the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Match each description with the appropriate lettered site. The side of glands with deep pits that produce mucus and a hormone that stimulates parietal cell HCl production

323. Match each function with the appropriate cell type – secretion of pepsinogen concerns

324. Match each function with the appropriate cell type – secretion of gastrin concerns

325. Match each function with the appropriate cell type – regulation of intestinal flora concerns

326. Match each function with the appropriate cell type – sampling of antigens from the intestinal lumen concerns

327. Match each function with the appropriate cell type – secretion of gastric intrinsic factor concerns

328. For the gastrin math the correct suggestion

329. For the secretin match the correct suggestion

330. Diarhea is

331. Helicobacter pylori has a key role in stimulating

332. Postgastrectomy (dumping) syndrome include

333. The main components of bile are

334. Conditions predisposing to acute pancreatitis may be all of the following EXCEPT

335. Jaundice results from impaired

336. During liver disease, when hepatic encephalopathy is the typical symptom - the pathophysiological mechanism of this symptom is

337. During liver disease when jaundice is the typical symptom - the pathophysiological mechanism of this symptom is

338. For the portal hypertension all of the following suggestions are correct. EXCEPT

339. Cirrhosis represents the irreversible end stage of many different impairments. Symptoms of cirrhosis may be all of the following EXCEPT

340. Which of the following is a response of the body to starvation?

341. Deficiency of Vitamin C has for effect

342. Deficiency of Vitamin D has for effect

343. Deficiency of Vitamin B12 has for effect

344. Deficiency of Vitamin K has for effect

345. Deficiency of Vitamin E has for effect

346. Role of proteins (amino acids and albumin) in wound healing is to

347. Role of carbohydrates (glucose) in wound healing is to

348. Role of fats (essential fatty acids) in wound healing is to

349. Role of vitamins in wound healing is to

350. Role of minerals in wound healing is to

351. For the necrotic cell death does not correspond one of proposed lettered answers. Which one is it?

352. Apoptotic cell death

353. Which one of the following chemical substances is not active even without physiological stimulators and can not thus trigger mitosis, independent of physiological growth factors

354. For the development of tumor cells are typical:

355. For the development of inflammation are typical:

356. For the development of Type III hypersensitivity are typical:

357. For the development of autoimmune diseases are typical:

358. Local reactions in the acute inflammation does not usually include

359. Hyperpnoe is

360. Eupnea is

361. Apnea is

362. Dyspnea is

363. The „barrel chest“ is typical in

364. Effects of hyperoxia are all for the following EXCEPT

365. If people drink sea-water, they suffer from following clinical symptom:

366. If people drink a “clean” water [without minerals], they suffer from following clinical symptom:

367. All of the following symptoms are typical for hyperkalemia EXCEPT

368. All of the following symptoms are typical for hypokalemia EXCEPT

369. If the patient has dg. hypercalcemia,

370. Hypocalcemia can be result of

371. Long-term reduction in bone mass independent on different categories (i.e. age, race, and sex) under standard values is defined as

372. When the mineralization of the bone matrix [osteoid] or of the growth plate is disturbed, it is the manifesting symptom of

373. What is the clinical state resulting from reduced bone mass? Effects of this disorder include skeletal pain even at rest, and lower arm or femoral neck fracture.

374. The clinical symptom of the portal hypertension is

375. In phenylketonuria

376. Uric acid is the end-product of

377. The result of chronically elevated uric acid/urate concentration in plasma is all of the following EXCEPT

378. In 40 year old women diagnostic is no menstrual bleeding- amenorrhea. All of the following causes are typical EXCEPT

379. In estrogen deficiency in women the

380. In progesteron deficiency in women the

381. In estrogens excess in women the clinical symptom is

382. In progesteron excess in women the clinical symptom is

383. The sex of an individual can be defined on the basis of the chromosomal set. Klinefelter`s syndrome is

384. The leukotrienes causes

385. Vascular occlusion as the cause of ischemia in medulla oblongata has for effect:

386. Vascular occlusion anterior choroid as the cause of ischemia in basal ganglia has for effect:

387. Vascular occlusion anterior cerebral as the cause of ischemia in cortex cerebri has for effect all of the following EXCEPT

388. The illness is characterized by delusions, hallucination, socially inacceptable behavior and/or inadequate association [so-called positive symptoms]. The disease is

389. Transcortical motor aphasia is caused by lesion in the anterior inferior frontal lobe near the Broca speech center.

390. Sensory transcortical aphasia occurs after a lesion in the parietal-temporal association cortex near the Wernicke speech center.

391. Subcortical aphasia occurs due to lesions in the region of the basal ganglia and the thalamus.

392. Anomic aphasia is the result of a lesion in the temporal lobe in the region of the medial and inferior gyrus.

393. In global aphasia both sensory and motor centers are damaged. It means that:

394. Open- eyed adult (awake) is under EEG examination. Which waves are predominant?

395. In adults who closed their eyes is predominantly of EEG

396. In adults who sleep is predominantly of EEG

397. All of the following clinical symptoms occur during hyperthermia EXCEPT

398. Obesity is not a risk factor for

399. Leptin is

400. The coagulation system is made up from numerous factors. Select one correct lettered answer.

401. Hyperthyroidism in a patient who moved from an iodine-deficient area to an iodine-sufficient area. Select one lettered answer.

402. Thyrotoxicosis and uniformly increased radioactive iodine uptake in the thyroid without thyrotropin receptor antibodies. Select one lettered answer.

403. Pretibial myxedema. Select one lettered answer.

404. Infiltration of orbital soft tissue and extraocular muscles with lymphocytes, mucopolysaccharides, and fluid. Select one lettered answer.

405. What is the most common cause of goiter in developing nations? Select one lettered answer.

406. What is the cause of endemic goiter? Select one lettered answer.

407. What inhibits conversion of T4 to T3. Select one lettered answer.

408. In which case occur high levels of thyroidal peroxidase antibody? Select one lettered answer.

409. What indicate elevated TSH, normal free T4, and no recent illnesses? Select one lettered answer.

410. What indicate normal TSH, normal T4, and low T3? Select one lettered answer.

411. What indicate low TSH, high T4, and high T3? Select one lettered answer.

412. What indicate normal TSH, high T4, and high T3? Select one lettered answer.

413. Low TSH and high T3. Select the one best lettered option.

414. What indicate markedly tender gland, low radioiodine uptake, and thyrotoxicosis? Select one lettered answer.

415. Thyrotoxicosis with a patchy pattern but normal amount of radioiodine uptake. Select one lettered answer.

416. What indicate diffusely enlarged gland with uniform and increased radioiodine uptake? Select one lettered answer.

417. Untreated acromegaly results in decreased life expectancy for the following reasons EXCEPT

418. A 30-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of amenorrhea. Your initial evaluation should include measurement of

419. A 26-old woman has been amenorrheic for 21/2 months. Your first choice for diagnostic evaluation is

420. Patients with pituitary macroadenoma present most commonly with

421. Which of the following organs is not a major estrogen-dependent tissue in women?

422. Which of the following organs does not require androgens for proper growth in males?

423. Which of these hormones is also produced in significant amounts outside of the gonads?

424. A 22-year-old female marathon runner has had amenorrhea for 8 months. There has been no weight change, and her serum pregnancy test is negative. Her menarche was at 13 years of age, and she had monthly menses until 8 months ago. Physical exam shows a women who is 66 inches tall, weighs 90 pounds, and is otherwise fully normal. Why douse she have amenorrhea?

425. A 28-year-old woman has had 2 days of abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She reports no dysuria. She reports a history of two episodes of pelvic inflammatory disease. Which of these is the most likely cause of the abdominal pain?

426. How does pregnancy increase the risk of diabetes mellitus?

427. Which of these hormones blocks milk production during pregnancy?

428. Which of the following causes of male infertility is not caused by androgen deficiency?

429. A 52-year-old woman is having hot flashes. You suspect menopause. Which of the findings below would confirm your diagnosis?

430. Which of the following organs does ovarian estrogen production have a stimulatory effect on?

431. Which of the following is not stimulated by LH?

432. Which of the following is not stimulated by FSH?

433. Which of the following hormones in excess causes male infertility?

434. Which of the following significant actions is initiated by estrogen?

435. Which of the following significant actions initiated by progesterone?

436. Which of the following significant actions initiated by follicle-stimulating hormone?

437. Which of the following significant actions initiated by luteinizing-hormone?

438. Metrorrhagia is

439. Hypomenorrhea is

440. Oligomenorrhea is

441. Dysmenorrhea is

442. Features of acromegaly include all of the following EXCEPT

443. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is present with

444. Lack of Antidiuretic hormone is manifested by

445. Manifestations of hypothyroidism include all of the following EXCEPT

446. Manifestations of hyperthyroidism include all of the following EXCEPT

447. Exophthalmos means

448. Hyperfunction of one part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis results in conditions characterized by hypercorticalism. Among common clinical manifestations belong:

449. For the diabetic ketoacidosis are typical

450. For the hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non-ketonic diabetic coma are typical

451. What indicates high-frequency fine tremor (may be difficult to see grossly)? Match one lettered answer.

452. Resting tremor that lessens with intentional movement. Match one lettered answer.

453. Tremor that lessens with consumption of small amounts of alcohol. Match one lettered answer.

454. Muscle weakness can be demonstrated in patients with all of the following disorders EXCEPT

455. A 75-year-old man with concerns over developing dementia problems is brought to your office by his son. Previously, the patient had been well but was forced to retire from his job a few months ago due to worsening arthritis symptoms limiting his mobility. He has been a widower for 4 months and lives alone. His family is worried about his safety in view of these changes. The likely cause of this dementia picture is

456. In myasthenia gravis, the antibody to the acetylcholine receptor acts via all the following mechanisms EXCEPT

457. Excitatory neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine and glutamate

458. Weakness is caused by impaired neuromuscular transmission in all the following disorders EXCEPT

459. Cerebellar disease causes all the following clinical symptoms EXCEPT

460. Pain and paresthesias [such as a burning or tingling sensation] in both feet and lower legs of a patient who has been diabetic for 15 years. Match the symptom description to the nerve disorder.

461. Pain and paresthesia over the lateral/anterior thigh of a moderately obese factory worker who stands for long periods time. Match the symptom description to the nerve disorder.

462. Impaired pain and temperature sensation in one leg and impaired proprioception and vibration sense in the opposite leg of a patient who was stabbed in the back during a fight. Match the symptom description to the nerve disorder.

463. Pain and weakness in the lower back, radiating down the posterolateral thigh and lower leg of a patient who has worked for many years as a stevedore. Match the symptom description to the nerve disorder.

464. An amenorrheic 35-year-old woman with galactorrhea is found to have a large prolactin-secreting pituitary tumor compressing her optic chiasm. Which visual disturbance does she have?

465. Subjective sensation of noise in the ear. Match the hearing disorder involved.

466. Failure of arousal (coma) may be caused by all the following EXCEPT

467. How is called the inability to understand speech or to perform meaningful speech. Match the disorder to its definition.

468. How is called the inability to retrieve from memory or to use previously learned words appropriately. Match the disorder to its definition.

469. How is called the blunted and apathetic affect caused by frontal lobe damage. Match the disorder to its definition.

470. How is called the inability to read printed words. Match the disorder to its definition.

471. How is called the inability to perform previously learned motor functions. Match the disorder to its definition.

472. All of the following have been identified as factors in the pathophysiology of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) EXCEPT

473. Which cerebral artery is blocked in an ischemic stroke that occurs with the following symptoms: aphasia, right hemiparesis, and right arm numbness?

474. Myasthenia gravis

475. The pseudomyasthenic syndrome

476. For the death of alfa-motoneurons all the following clinical symptoms are correct EXCEPT

477. Creatine

478. For the muscular dystrophies all the following clinical symptoms are correct EXCEPT

479. If the motor cortex or the internal capsule is damaged [e.g. bleeding] the results are

480. Babinski reflex is

For Parkinson`s disease all the following are correct EXCEPT

481. The result of striatal neurons destruction is

482. Hypotonia, nystagmus, scanning speech, stumbling gait, ataxia and disturbed balance are clinical manifestation of

483. Phantom pain is

484. In myopia

485. For the astigmatism is correct that

486. If the pressure in the intraocular increases, that is sign of

487. In hyperopia

488. In regular astigmatism

489. The high intraocular pressure irreversibly damages

490. Lesion in the temporal part of retina of the left eye causes

491. If the optic nerve of the left eye is interrupted

492. Complete lesion of the optic tract of the left eye results

493. Interruption of the pathway in the optic chiasm especially affects the crossing fibers, the consequences are manifested by

494. Homonymous anopsia results from

495. For the Broca`s aphasia is valid

496. For the Wernicke`s aphasia is valid

497. For the Alzheimer`s disease all the following are correct EXCEPT

498. Depression

499. For insomnia disorders all the following are correct EXCEPT

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