Technical symposium.com-Janurary 28,2021.
Wipro Latest selection Process
1.Written Test
2.Technical Interview
3.HR Interview
Wipro written Test contains 3 major SECTIONS with sectional cut-off:->
Time Limit :1 hour
1.Written Test
a.Verbal Section.(20 Qs
b. Analytical Section.(20 Qs)
c.Case Writing give one Topic 10 minutes
3.Technical Section.(10 Qs).each section has 45%cutoff.
UNIX,DBMS,Data Structures,OS,C,C++,
2.Tecnical Interview
Questions fromm all Technical Topics
3.HR Interview
About your Project
About your resume based Questions
Your Hobbies,
About wipro,shift work as ususal HR Questions
Wipro previous questions |MACE Kothmangalam Kerala,Wipro Campus, Gachibowli, Hyderabad 2011
Wipro Aptitude Test:-
The correct answer is:
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
1. What is John's age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)
2. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)
3.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)
4. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)
5.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)
6. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)
7. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)
8. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
9. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)
10. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word"MANGO" would be
(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347
Ans. (d)
11. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS ,then "PLAYER" should be
(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI
Ans. (a)
12. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels
6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west
Ans. (c)
13. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14
Ans.(b)
14. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages canthey type in 30 minutes?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75
Ans: E
15. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how many times they toll together.
a) 4
b) 10
c) 15
d) 16
Ans: d)
Wipro Technical , 20 Questions:
16. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
17. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
18. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable
Ans. (a)
19. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case
and a worst time algorithm in worst case is
(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort
Ans. (a)
5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
20. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
21. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
8. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
22.. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixed band channels
Ans. (b)
23. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams
Ans. (d)
24. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?
(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data
Ans. (a)
25. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM
Ans. (a)
26. A shift register can be used for
(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
27. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady's anomaly occurs?
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU
Ans. (a)
28. Subschema can be used to
(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema's description
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
29. A 12 address lines maps to the memory of
a. 1k bytes b. 0.5k bytes c. 2k bytes d. none
Ans: b
30. In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to implement this instructions
[a] 6 [b] 7 [c] 10 [d] none
ans: b
31. In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed.
[a] 2k/9 [b] (2k+8/9 [c] (k+8/9 [d] 2*(k+8/9 [e] none
Ans: a
32. Virtual memory size depends on
[a] address lines [b] data bus[c] disc space [d] a & c [e] none
Ans : a
Wipro Verbal ability Questions
Section1- English, 15 questions
Direction 1-5 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'
33. The house with all its / furniture and exotic plants / were sold for Rs. 50,000 / No error
Ans : C
34 The teacher asked the students / if everyone of them were interested in / going on an excursion / No error
Ans : B
35. a physiologist in the last century demonstrated / that puppies will die / if kept awake for more than five days / No error
Ans : B
36. It is unfortunate that / many youngsters get / addicted to gamble / No error
Ans : C
37. I have seen / that film last year / but I do not remember its story / No error
Ans: A
Directions 6-10: The following questions, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
38. Plants : Coal
A) Crops : Manure B) Animals : Oil C) Cow : Milk D) Fire : Smoke
Ans : B
39. Rectangle : Cylinder
A) Square : Sphere B) Circle : Dosc C) Triangle : Cone D) Wall : Room
Ans : C
40. Expend : Replenish
A) Exhort : Encourage B) Formant : Rebellion C) Defect : Rejoin D) Encroachment : Occupy
Ans : C
1.Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
2.Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
3. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below. Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
4.For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at) The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second
5.In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142
6.Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
7.The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
8.Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
9.In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
10.Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
11.In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
12.When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above
13.As compared to analog multimeters, digital Multimeters's are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.
14.When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter
15.Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off
16.The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling
17.A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
18.When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF
19.The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
20.When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
21) X varies inversely as square of y. Given that y = 2 for x = 1. The value of x for y = 6 will be equal to
A) 3 B) 9 C) 1/3 D) 1/9
Ans : D
22) If 10% of x = 20% of y, then x : y is equal to
A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 1 C) 5 : 1 D) 10 : 1
Ans : B
23) A starts business with Rs.3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B's contribution in the Capital ?
A) Rs. 7500 B) Rs. 8000 C) Rs. 8500 D) Rs. 9000
Ans : D
24) Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronald takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a computer, while Elan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages ?
A) 7 hours 30 minutes B) 8 hours C) 8 hours 15 minutes D) 8 hours 25 minutes
Ans : C
25) A and B can do a piece of work in 72 days; B and C can do it in 120 days; A dn C can do it in 4 days. Who among these will take the least time if put to do it alone?
A) 80 days B) 100 days C) 120 days D) 150 days
Ans : C
26) A cistern can be filled by a tap in 4 hours while it can be emptied by another tap in 9 hours. If both taps are openedsimultaneously, then after how much time will the cistern get filled ?
A) 4.5 hours B)5 hours C) 6.5 hours D) 7.2 hours
Ans : D
27) Pipe a can fill a tank in 5 hours, pipe B in 10 hours and pipe C in 30 hours. If all the pipes are open, in how many hours will the tank completely ?
A) 6 min. to empty B) 6 min to fill C) 9 min. to empty D) 9 min. to fill
Ans : C
28) A thief steals a car at 2.30 p.m and drives it at 60 kmph. The theft is discovered at 3 p.m and the owner sets off in anothercar at 75 kmph. When will be overtake the thief.
A) 4.30 p.m B) 4.45 p.m C) 5 p.m D) 5.15 p.m
Ans : E
29) Two trains starting at the same time from two stations 200 km apart, and going in opposite directions cross each other at a distance of 110 km from one of the stations. What is the ratio of their speeds
A) 9 : 20 B) 11 : 9 C) 11 : 20 D) None of these
Ans : B
30). Two trains each 100 m long, moving in opposite directions, cross each other in 8 seconds. If one is moving twice as fast the other, then the speed of the faster train is
A) 30 km /hr B) 45 km / hr C) 60 km/hr D) 75 km/hr
Ans : C
Exam/Interview Date: 8, January 2011.
Section 1: English, 15 questions
Direction 1-5: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake the answer is ‘no error’
Twice twelve / makes / twenty four / No error
A B C D
Ans: B
2. The flight purser took control / of the plane after / the pilot had had / a heart attack / No error
A B C D E
Ans: C
3. My friend did not see me / for many years / when I met him last week / No error
A B C D
Ans: A
4. We grieve our loss and cry helplessly / while we should be fighting for our rights / and die a noble death / No error
A B C D
Ans: B
5. Work hard / lest you will / fail / No error
A B C D
Ans: D
Directions 6-10: The following questions consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
6. Kangaroo: Australia
A) Whale: River B) Elephant: Russia C) Penguin: Antarctica D) India: Peacock
Ans: C
7. Coronation: Reign
A) Vaccination: Immunity B) Sculptor: Statue C) Degree : Graduate D) Summer: Rain
Ans: D
8. Grain: Salt
A) Chip: Glass B) Blades: Grass C) Shred: Wood D) Shard: Pottery
Ans: A
9. Scythe; Reaping
A) Light: Shining B) Shears: Cutting C) Saws: Gluing D) Screws: Turning
Ans: B
10. Dislike: Repulsion
A) Dream: Sleep B) Steal: Crime C) Reputation: Behavior D) Intelligence: Wit
Ans: D
Directions 11-12: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) Voice.
11. His pocket has been picked.
A) They have his pocket picked
B) Picking has been done to his pocket
C) Picked has been his pocket
D) Someone has picked his pocket.
Ans: D
12. Someone gave her a bull dog.
A) She was given a bull dog.
B) a bull dog was given to her
C) She has been given a bull dog
D) She is being given a bull dog by someone
Ans: B
Directions 13-15: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete
13. He succeeded in getting possession…………..his land after a long court case
A) For B) to C) of D) with E) against
Ans: C
14. Now a day Rajani is ………….busy to take care of her health.
A) Very B) too C) so D) extremely
Ans: B
15. Had the police not reached there in time the bandits him
A) Did have killed B) will have killed C) would kill D) would have killed
Ans: D
Section 2: Aptitude 15 questions
The questions 1-5 are based on the following data six knights – P, Q, R, S, T and U – assemble for a long journey in two traveling parties. For security, each traveling party consists of at least two knights. The two parties travel by separate routes, northern and southern. After one month, the routes of the northern and southern groups converge for a brief time and at that point the knights can, if they wish, rearrange their traveling.
Parties before continuing, again in two parties along separate northern and southern routes. Throughout the entire trip, the composition of traveling parties must be in accord with the following conditions P and R are deadly enemies and, although they may meet briefly, can never travel together.
P must travel in the same party with S
Q can’t travel by the southern route
U can’t change routes
1. If one of the two parties of knights consists of P and U and two other knights and travels by the southern route, the other members of this party besides P and U must be
a) Q and S
b) Q and T
c) R and S
d) R and T
e) S and T
Ans: e
2) If each of the two parties of knights consists of exactly three members, which of the following is not a possible traveling party and route?
a) P,S,U by the northern route
b) P,S,T by the northern route
c) P,S,T by the southern route
d) P,S,U by the southern route
e) Q,R,T by the southern route
Ans: a
3) If one of the two parties of knights consists of U and two other knights and travels by the northern route, the other members of this party >besides U must be
a) P and S
b) P and T
c) Q and R
d) Q and T
e) R and T
Ans: c
4) If each of the two parties of knights consists of exactly three members of different parties, and R travels by the Northern route, then T must travel by the
a) southern route with P and S
b) southern route with Q and R
c) southern route with R and U
d) northern route with Q and R
e) northern route with R and U
Ans: a
5) If, when the two parties of knights encounter one another after a month, exactly one knight changes from one traveling party to the other traveling party, that knight must be
a) P b) Q c) R d) S e) T
Ans: e
6. X varies inversely as square of y. Given that y = 2 for x = 1. The value of x for y = 6 will be equal to
A) 3 B) 9 C) 1/3 D) 1/9
Ans: D
7. If 10% of x = 20% of y, then x: y is equal to
A) 1: 2 B) 2: 1 C) 5: 1 D) 10: 1
Ans: B
8. A starts business with Rs.3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B’s contribution in the Capital?
A) Rs. 7500 B) Rs. 8000 C) Rs. 8500 D) Rs. 9000
Ans: D
9. Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronald takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a computer, while Elan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
A) 7 hours 30 minutes B) 8 hours C) 8 hours 15 minutes D) 8 hours 25 minutes
Ans: C
10. A and B can do a piece of work in 72 days; B and C can do it in 120 days; A dn C can do it in 4 days. Who among these will take the least time if put to do it alone?
A) 80 days B) 100 days C) 120 days D) 150 days
Ans: C
11. A cistern can be filled by a tap in 4 hours while it can be emptied by another tap in 9 hours. If both taps are opened simultaneously, then after how much time will the cistern get filled?
A) 4.5 hours B) 5 hours C) 6.5 hours D) 7.2 hours
Ans: D
12. Pipe a can fill a tank in 5 hours, pipe B in 10 hours and pipe C in 30 hours. If all the pipes are open, in how many hours will the tank completely?
A) 6 min. to empty B) 6 min to fill C) 9 min. to empty D) 9 min. to fill
Ans: C
13. A thief steals a car at 2.30 p.m and drives it at 60 kmph. The theft is discovered at 3 p.m and the owner sets off in another car at 75 kmph. When will be overtake the thief.
A) 4.30 p.m B) 4.45 p.m C) 5 p.m D) 5.15 p.m
Ans: E
14. Two trains starting at the same time from two stations 200 km apart, and going in opposite directions cross each other at a distance of 110 km from one of the stations. What is the ratio of their speeds?
A) 9: 20 B) 11: 9 C) 11: 20 D) None of these
Ans: B
15. Two trains each 100 m long, moving in opposite directions, cross each other in 8 seconds. If one is moving twice as fast the other, then the speed of the faster train is
A) 30 km /hr B) 45 km / hr C) 60 km/hr D) 75 km/hr
Ans: C
Wipro Technical Questions with answers
Section 3: Technical, 20 questions
Predict the output or error(s) for the following:
1. main()
{
char string[]=”Hello World”;
display (string);
}
void display (char *string)
{
printf(“%s”,string);
}
Ans: Compiler Error: Type mismatch in redeclaration of function display
2. What are the values printed by the following program?
#define dprint(expr) printf(#expr “=%d\n”,expr)
main()
{
int x=7;
int y=3;
dprintf(x/y);
}
a) #2 = 2 b) expr=2 c) x/y=2 d) none
Ans: c
3) Parameterization generally involves
a. Data table
b. Random number
c. Environment
d. Both A & B
e. Both A, B & C
Ans: e
4) The file which is used for recovering from the run time errors known as
A. QRS B. TSR C. PNG D. DAT
Ans: A
5) Among the following recording modes, which method uses both the objects and mouse coordinates
a. Normal b. Low level c. Analog d. All of the above
Ans: b
6) Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
a. Action Settings
b. Action Properties
c. Action Run Properties
d. Action Call Properties
Ans: d
6) Where do you mark an action as reusable?
a. Action Settings
b. Action Properties
c. Action Run Properties
d. Action Call Properties
Ans: b
7) After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, where can the results of an output parameter be found?
a. Local Data Sheet
b. Global Data Sheet
c. Run-time Data Table
d. Design-time Data Table
Ans: c
If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don’t want to use it what you must do?
a. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
b. Remove the Collection from your machine
c. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
d. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
Ans: c
9. For a 25MHz processor, what is the time taken by the instruction which needs 3 clock cycles,
(a) 120 nano secs (b) 120 micro secs
(c) 75 nano secs (d) 75 micro secs
Ans: a
10. For 1 MB memory, the number of address lines required,
(a) 11 (b) 16 (c) 20(d) 24
Ans. (c)
11. Semaphore is used for
(a) synchronization (b) dead-lock avoidance (c) box (d) none
Ans. (a)
12. OLE is used in
a) Inter connection in UNIX
b) Interconnection in WINDOWS
c) Interconnection in WINDOWS NT
d)None
Ans: c
13. Preprocessor does not do which one of the following
(a) macro (b) conditional compliclation (c) in type checking (d) including load file
Ans. (c)
14. Piggy backing is a technique for a) Flow control b) Sequence c) Acknowledgement d) retransmission
Ans. (c)
15. In signed magnitude notation what is the minimum value that can be represented with 8 bits
(a) -128 (b) -255 (c) -127 (d) 0
Ans: a
17. When an array is passed as parameter to a function, which of the following statement is correct
a) The function can change values in the original array
b) In C parameters are passed by value. The function cannot change the original value in the array
c) It results in compilation error when the function tries to access the elements in the array
d) Results in a run time error when the function tries to access the elements in the array
Ans: a
18. The type of the controlling statement of a switch statement cannot be of the type
a) int b) char c) short d) float e) none
Ans: d
19. What is the value of the statement (3^6) + (a^a)?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) a+18 e) None
Ans: b
20. Consider the following program:
# include
class x {
public:
int a;
x();
};
x::x() { a=10; cout<
class b:public x {
public:
b();
};
b::b() { a=20; cout<
main ()
{ b temp;
}
21. What will be the output of this program?
a) 10 b) 20 c) 2010 d) 1020
Ans: b
Wipro Programming Questions Programs
• Prime and Odd number?
• Sorting an array??
• Fibonacci series?
• Perfect number?
• Armstrong number?
Wipro Technical Questions
Technical Questions
• What is networks?
• Difference between calloc and malloc?
• What are the advantages of using pointers
• What is the difference between White box testing and Black box testing?
• What is Ip address?
• Difference between Arrays and Linked List?
• What are pointers in c?
• What is data warehousing?
• What is Recursion Function?
• What is TDM?
• What are the types of Networks?
• Difference beyween callby value and callby reference?
• What is the difference between Ram and Rom?
• What is polymorphism?
• What are the layers of OSI Model?
• Difference between TCP and UDP?
• What is Function Overloading?
• What is Inheritance?
• What is the difference between C and C++?
• What is the difference between array and pointer?
• What is normalisation?and their types?
• What is the difference between Char and Varchar in DBMS?
• What is OS?
• What is a tree?
• What is a linked list?
• What is a struct?
Wipro Latest 2012-2013 On Campus Recruitment Written Test Paper at ETC Engg College, ETC Engineering student from Synergy Institute of Technology ,Dhenkanal,orissa.
Wipro Latest selection Process
1. Will the postman deliver the letters? Turn into passive voice
Ans.will the letters be delivered by the postman?-repeated question.
2.THE option that gives the correct meaning of idiomatic phrase-TO stand to one guns,,,
ans.to maintain a dignified and unbending attitude.
3.THE PATH OF EARTH ROTATING AROUND THE SUN:
choose the word does no't belongs to same category,,a.revolutionb.orbitc.parabolad.trajectory,,,
ans.c
4.One synonym ques.EXCERPT:NOVEL,REVIEW::
ANS.MANUSCRIPT
5.One antonym ques,pretentious:
ans.UNASSUMING
6.ARE YOU READY?"she asked the torist."
indirectspeech:she asked the tourist, if he was ready.
7.Choose the combination of numbers so that the letters arranged formed a meaningful word,
RACET 12345,A.12354,B.32541,C.23451 D.51234 ANS:51234-TRACE --REPEATED QUESTIONS
8.CORRECT MEANING OF: A BROKEN REED::AN UNDEPENDABLE PERSON
9.Select word of similar meaning::default::
10.Vinay wanted to have gone to the movies ,,choose the correct form of the verb
ans:wanted to go
11.One big passage and following that passage 2 questions will be asked,,
a.forexa:this word represents which expression of the passage.
12Iit is obviously asked that what does the writer wants to narrate in the passage?
13.What is the syno/antonym of the word used in the passage????
14.Gradual recovery from illness-convalescence
15.One short passage and one question from that passage.
16.A snake in the grass-correct meaning
ans. Unrecognizable danger ----------REPEATED
17.A person sharing responsible for political party-
ans. DIPLOMAT ----REPEATED
18.hobson's choice::only one choice,,choice to live or die
19.FILL IN THE BLANKS WITH SUITABLE PREPOSITION ONE QUESTION
A.ON B.IN C.AT
20.A PERSON WHO HAS JUST STARTED LEARNING,,,
ANS.APPRENTICE ------REPEATED
APTITUDE:::::::::::
21. PROBLEM ON TRAIN ---SURE
22.PROBLEMS ON TIME AND DISTANCE --SURE
23.PROBLEMS ON RATIO AND PROPORTION
24.PROBLEMS ON CLOCKS
25.PROBLEMS ON PERCENTAGE
26.PROBLEMS ON AGES
27.PROBLEMS ON PARTNERSHIPS,,,THESE are not so easy ,,plz try to solve ages,partnerships problems then quickly shifts to reasoning question..
28.problems on directions
29.PROBLEMS ON Dice
30.PROBLEMS ON probability
REASONINGS:::::::::::::::THESE ARE EASY FROM APTITUDES.
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31.problems on blood relations
32.Sushma is richer than rashmi,where as anand is richer than priya,,arun is as rich as rashmi,sobha is richer than sushma..then options are given which is true
ans.c.arun is poorer than sushma -----repeated many times
33.if radius of a circle increased by 8% ,then area of circle increased by
ans.8+8+(8*8)/100=16.64%
34.A D
B G E
C F
represents digits from 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9.
nonedigts are repeatd,,positioned in figure above:A*B*C=B*G*E=D*E*F
WHICH DIGIT DOES "G" REPRESENT??
ANS:2 ----PRACTICE IT ATLEAST 3 TIMES MOSTLY REPEATED
35.Cost of a diamond varies as a square of its weight.A diamond is broken into 4 pieces in the ratio of 1:2:3:4.what is the original price of diamond if loss value is 1,40,000.
ans.2,00,000
36.The variance of population of observations of 99,100,101,102,103 is
ans. 2
37.Two dice are tossed once.what is the probability of getting an even no. on first die or sum is 8,,
ans.5/9
38.There are 3 red, 3 blue,3 green marbles.What is the probability atleast two of them are of same colour,,if 3 marbles are done without repacement,,
ans.156/220
39.IN BETWEEN them which is the longest 15 number:
a.999999999876451 c.999999999988675
b.999999999945612 d.9999999999999999 ans.c
40.p*q=p is sister of q,p+r=p is the mother of r,,
so which of following represents that q and r aresisters,,options with other hints are given,,soplz analysis R.S.AGARWAL this type questions
41.coding-Decoding questions
42.FIND THE NEXT NUMBER IN THE SERIES,,
2,5,10,17
ANS.26=5^2+1,,,ALL ARE IN 1^2+1,2^2+1,3^2+1,4^2+1
43.2,5,17,31,35
ANS.2=EVEN OTHER ARE ODD
44.The minute and hour hand of a clock meets in every 65 minutes.how much does the watch loss or gains
ans.Gains 5/11 minutes
45.Most most repeated this type questions:::Eight friends p,q,r,s,t,u,v and w are sitting around a circular table facing center.q is sitting between v and s.w is sitting third to the left of q and second to the right of p.r is sitting between p and v. q and t are not sitting opposite to each other.which is true,,
some options are given u have to choose by solving,fist interpret the datas one by one by drawing a circle and taking 8 points on it then solve.
Wipro Technical Questions:
1.main()
{
int x=5,*p=&x;
printf("%d",++(*p));
}ans.6 if it is (*p)++ then ans is 5.
2.sure questions on UNIX COMMANDS,SO GO THOROUGHLY OF IT
3.main(){ int i;
for(i=0;i a|A, A --> S
(b) S --> a|A, A --> b
(c) S -->aA, A-->S
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
VERBAL SECTION ( 1-20)
Read the following Passage and select the best answer to questions(1-4) among the given choices
Routines are the unreturned algorithms followed by each one of us, every in life. Routine is a chain of events, which never changes there order once it is prioritized. Following the routine is a schedule of events. For a student it would it be assignments, attending schools, coaching classes or doing a Project. For the business man, brandishing the tiniest mobile phone and shielded by the doctor than black shade of Mercedes, schedule is restricted to attend meetings, presentations and entertaining new Prospective clients.
Sometimes life begins so hectic that you feel as if you are the only person who is working harder than all others. Such type of thoughts comes to us due to thinking about ourselves. Others may be facing the same shade of destiny as you, but you think there are luckier than you. Yes, the grass on the other side is always greener and fresher.
Maintaining your cool, at the times of the difficulty and in spite of hectic-schedules is the key to a bright career and success in life. Because, unless we ourselves change the pace with the change in times and keep ourselves abreast of the latest time table of our organizer, we will lag behind.
The more the things one has to do or one is into, more is his involvement in a mental, physical or social way into these things. Due to this his own personal problems are out of sight because, all time his mind is thinking of completing the task undertaking problems which are out of sight are out of mind.
Each thing that we do adds to our personality. It shapes our thinking and makes us more organized, experienced knowledgeable and creative. The time and effort that we put in every day into tasks is the brick and mortar of our future life. So friends, it is always better to be busy rater then idle. Hasn’t everyone heard that an idle mind is the devils work shop? Behind every successful man is a devotedly followed schedule.
1) The author of the passage is of the opinion that
a) The world is merciless to a few persons
b) Behind every successful there is a women
c) All other people seem to be luckier than the author
d) We must keep cool even in difficult times
2) What is the general observation about human nature that the writer makes?
a) People generally hate to be tied to a schedule or routine
b) People generally feel that they can progress by following a schedule
c) People feel that they alone are overburdened and being treated crudely
d) People follow routines happily because they require less effort.
3) According to the above passage, we must
a) Not involve ourselves too much in the work that we do
b) Avoid keeping hectic schedules because they must harm our body.
c) Be loathing to put time and sweet into our bodies.
d) Run neck and neck with God’s timetable less we lag behind.
4) The result of many things we do results in-
a) Enhancing our personality
b) Bettering our organizational and creative ability
c) Giving us knowledge and experience
d) All the above
5) From the following sets of words, choose the word correctly spelt
a) Accomodate
b) Acommodate
c) Accommodate
d) Accommodate
6) Select the option that gives the correct meaning of the given idiomatic expression or phrase. “ A rising star “
a) A star that rises the highest in the sky
b) A star which shines the most.
c) A person coming into prominence
d) A star that appears only once in a month.
7) Select among the given choices the word or phrase for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. The recent nuclear threat is the ________________of 12 years of terrorist attacks, which have inflicted on us more casualties both military and civilian than Iraq did on Kuwait
a) Culmination
b) Reflection
c) Dogma
d) Defiance
8) Select the option that can be substituted the given sentence
a) Condolence
b) Calumny
c) Obituary
d) Corrigendum
9) Given below are sentences which when arranged logically form a coherent passage? Choose the given option which gives the correct sequence.
a) The alternative was a blitz by the health workers to popularize preventive measures.
b) The information was considered inadequate.
c) People have been reading about AIDS in the mass media
d) Nobody is sure as to low effective this would be.
e) People were also not being influenced enough to take preventive measures.
A) cbade
B) abcde
C) bacde
D) cdabe
10) chose the lettered pair that express a relationship most similar to the relationship expressed in the capitalized pair HOBBLE ::WALK
a) Gallop ::Run
b) Stammer::Speak
c) Stumble::Fall
d) Sniff::Smell
11) Select among the given choices the word or phrase for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. While there is hope in the one-day game, where Indian team has at last cast aside the chains of________________thought, there is a very long journey to make in Test cricket
a) Delinguent
b) Delirious
c) Decadent
d) Disruptive
12) Select among the given choices the word or phrase to replace the underlined phrase ion the following sentence Our departure from this place from now depends on they coming here.
a) Depends on them coming here
b) Depends on their coming here
c) Depend on their’s coming here
d) Depends on their’s coming here
13) Choose the lettered pair that express relationship most similar to the relationship expressed in the capitalized pair. FRAYED::FABRIC
a) Thawed::Ice
b) Renovated::Building
c) Frazzled::Nerves
d) Watered::Lawn
14) Select the option that gives the correct meaning of the given idiomatic expression or phrase “ To wash one’s hand off “
a) To wash one’s hand with water
b) To wash one’s hand with soap
c) To disclaim the entire responsibility
d) To put one’s firm in trouble
15) Given below are sentences which when arranged logically from a coherent passage. Choose the given option which gives the correct sequence.
a) What is amazing is that resending of decisions does not seem to be one bit embarrass the government.
b) “Rollback “appears to have now became an institutionalized decision making process of the government
c) This is the certainly suggested by the frequency on prices and subsidies are announced and them the status quo restored in part or in full.
d) It has well and truly functioning an integral part of the functioning of the government.
e) Even the word, “Rollback “, has became a permanent entry lexicon of political discourse.
A) abcde
B) bcade
C) bcdae
D) ebdca
16) Choose the lettered pair that expresses relationship most similar to the relationship expressed in the capitalized pair. LACHRYMOSE::TEARS
a) Effusive::requests
b) Ironic::jests
c) Morose::speeches
d) Verbose::words
17) Select among the given choices that is most nearly opposite word “ AUTONOMY”
a) submissiveness
b) dependence
c) subordination
d) slavery
18) Select among the given choices that is most nearly similar word “OCCULT”
a) Dreadful
b) Harmless
c) Amazing
d) Mysterious
19) Given below are words three of which belong to same category. Find the word which does not belong to that category
a) Convulse
b) Soothe
c) Compose
d) Assuage
20) One of the words each set of four words is misspell . Choose the misspell word.
a) Effeminate
b) Endeavour
c) Exhilaration
d) Exhaustion
wipro analytical ability questions
ANALYTICAL SECTION ( 21-40)
21) Ashok bought 16kg of wheat at the rate of Rs 11.50 per kg and 14 kg wheat at rate of Rs 14.50 per kg. He mixed the two and sold the mixture at the rate of 13.50 kg. What is his gain in the transaction ?
a) Rs 16
b) Rs 18
c) Rs 24
d) Rs 28
22) What is the probability of answering a multiple choice question correctly, If you know that one of the answer if definitely wrong but you have to guess between the 3 remaining answers?
a) ¼
b) ¾
c) ½
d) 1/3
23) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
22, 66, 132, 792 , ?
a) 1584
b) 2376
c) 1246
d) 2674
24) The difference between two numbers is one-seventh of the sum of these numbers two numbers. What is the ratio of the two numbers?
a) 3:4
b) 4:3
c) 2:3
d) 3:2
25) On return from a business trip Mr. Chidambaram was to be picked up from the railway station by his coachman. Someone he managed a train connection earlier and thus arrived two hours too early. Immediately on arrived he rang up home for the coach and was told that it had just left in order to be exactly in time for the train by which he was scheduled to come. To save the time he started walking homeward at 3kmph. On the way he met the coachman who brought him home an hour before schedule. How far is the Mr. Chidambaram’s house from the railway station?
a) 12 Km
b) 15 Km
c) 18 Km
d) 23 Km
26) A train travelled from Delhi to Patna and back in a certain time at the rate of 60kmph.But if the train had travelled from Delhi to Patna at rate of rate 80Kmph. And back from Patna to Delhi at the rate of 40Kmph. It would take two hours Longer. Find the distance between Delhi and Patna?
a) 480Km
b) 460Km
c) 450Km
d) 465Km
27) On a certain pasture the grass grows at an even rate. It knows that 40 cows can graze on it for 40 days before the grass is exhausted, but 30 cows can graze there as long as 60 days. How many would the pasture last if 20 Cows were to graze on it?
a) 140days
b) 100 days
c)110 days
d) 120 days
28) Most people in the United States view both neither big nor small business as particulary efficient or dynamic and regard both as providing consumers with fairly priced goods and services. However, most people consistently perceive small business as a force for good in Society, whereas bid business is perceived as socially responsible only in times of prosperity. The statement above, if true, would provide the strongest support for which one of the following hypotheses?
a) Most of the people in the United states give little thought to the value of business to society.
b) If small business were regarded as being more dynamic, it, too, would receive strongly favorable ratings only in times of general prosperity.
c) Many people in the united states regard the social responsibility of big business as extending beyond providing consumers with fairly priced goods and services.
d) Even if people did not regard big business as providing consumers with value for their money, they would still regard it as socially responsible in times of general prosperity.
29) In the first innings of the First Test match between India and West Indians at Sabina Park, Kingston. February 18 to 23 1971, the bowling honors’ in the Indians team were shared by B.S.Bedi, E.A.S. Prasanna and S.Venkataraghavan. Can you, based on the following statements, conclude the number of wickets each took?
1) Either Bedi took 5 wickets and S.Venkataraghavan took 3, or Prasanna took one more than S.Venkataraghavan.
2) Either Bedi took half the wickets or one of the players was run out.
3) The sum of Bedi’s victims and double those of prasanna is one more than three times Venkataraghavan’s.
a) Bedi-2, Prasanna-4, and Venkataraghavan-3
b) Bedi-3, Prasanna-4, and Venkataraghavan-2
c) Bedi-2, Prasanna-4, and Venkataraghavan-4
d) Bedi-2, Prasanna-5, and Venkataraghavan-3
30) The Basic College Council is made up of representatives from the departments in the various divisions. From the science Division is one representative from each of the departments of chemistry, Mathematics, and Biology. The social Science Division provides a representative each History, Linguistics, and Economics. A representative from Philosophy and one from Rhetoric serve for the Humanities Division
All Council Committees are made up entirely of Council members.
Each Committee has exactly four members.
Each Committee has at least one member from each Division.
The representative from chemistry will not serve on a Committee with the representative from Biology. The representatives from Mathematics and Economics always serve on the same Committees. The representative from Rhetoric will only serve on a Committee on which the representative from Biology or the one from Economics, or both, serve.
a) Chemistry, Mathematics, History, Economics
b) Chemistry, Mathematics, History, Philosophy
c) Biology, History, Economics, Rhetoric
d) Mathematics, Biology, Economics, Rhetoric
31) A train leaves New York City at 7.15 Am and arrives in Buffalo at 2.47 that afternoon. What total length of time does the trip take?
a) 6hrs, 28mins
b) 7hrs, 12mins
c) 7hrs, 32mins
d) 8hrs, 12mins
32) After several attempts to district his young parrot from Chewing on furniture, George reluctantly took an expert’s advice and gently hit the parrot’s beak whenever the bird started to chew furniture, The bird stopped chewing furniture, but it is now afraid of hands and will sometimes bite. Since Chewing on the furniture would not have hurt the bird, George should not have hit it.
When Carla’s puppy escaped from her yard, it bounded into a busy street. Although Carla does not generally approve of physical discipline, she hit the puppy sharply with her hand. Now the puppy enters the street only when accompanied by Carla, so, Carla was justified in disciplining the puppy.
Which one of the following principles, if established, would justify the judgments about George’s and Carla’s actions?
a) When disciplining an animal physically, a trainer should use an object such as a rolled up newspapers to avoid making the animal frightened of hands.
b) When training an animal, physical discipline should be used only when such discipline is necessary to correct behavior that could result in serious harm to the animal.
c) Using physical discipline to train an animal is justified only when all alternative strategies for the correcting undesirable behavior have failed.
d) Physical discipline should not be used on immature animals.
33) In a Conventional Clock, how many times does the minutes hand pass the hour hand between noon and midnight?
a) 8 times
b)10 times
c)12 times
d)15 times
34) If 24+35=28, 15+49=24, and 69+37=50 then 27+48=?
a) 27
b)36
c)48
d)59
35) Its not easy having a mathematics professor as a friend. When she invited you to her house she says, “All the houses on my side of the street are numbered consecutively in even numbers. There are Six houses on my Side of my block and sum of their numbers is 9870. You don’t know which block I live on, and it’s a long street, but I will tell you that I live in the lowest number on my side of the block. What’s the number? Or are you just going to ring the first- numbered doorbell for twenty blocks?
a) 1580
b)1640
c)1650
d)1680
36) The time to complete a standardized exam is approximately normal with a mean of 70 minutes and a standard deviation of 10 minutes. Suppose the students are given 1 hour to complete the exam. The proportion of students who don’t complete the exam is
a) 0.500
b)0.159
c)0.341
d)0.841
37) Rajesh brought a TV priced at Rs 2000. He was given two Successive discounts of 10 and 5 percent. If he has to pay percent sales tax, the net amount he paid was
a) Rs 2663.40
b) Rs 2660
c) Rs 2350
d) Rs 2460
38) A drawer contains a number of Red and Blue socks. If I pull two out of random, then the chance of them being a Red pair is a half and chance of them being a blue pair is a twelfth. How many socks are in the drawer?
a)120
b)140
c)150
d)160
39) A Clock strikes every hour-once at 1.00, twice at 2.00, and so on. The clock takes 6 seconds to strike 5.00 and 12 seconds to strike 9.00. the time needed to strike 1.00 is negligible. How long does the clock need for all its striking in 24hours?
a)168 Seconds
b)178 Seconds
c)188 Seconds
d) 198 Seconds
40) Grandpa was feeling generous, so he gave a total of Rs 100 to his Five grandchildren. Starting with the Youngest each got Rs 2.00 more than the next Younger one. In Other words, the youngest got one sum, the next got Rs 2.00 more, and so on. How much did the Youngest Grandchild get?
a)14
b)15
c)16
d)17
Wipro Technical Questions
TECHNICAL SECTION ( 41-50)
41) Which of the following is not associated with magnetic memory?
a) Sector
b) Pit
c) Track
d) All of these
42) NASSCOM
a) IT services Industry body
b) Manufacturing Industry body
c) Infrastructure Industry body
d) None of the above
43) Which of the following is not a codec
a) DiVX
b) EVid
c) FLAC
d) XviD
44) Which of the following Chipmaker has designed Athlon?
a) Intel
b) Freescale
c) AMD
d) IBM
45) Which of the following is a formatted input function in ‘C’
a) getchar()
b) getche()
c) gets()
d) None of these
46) Rank the following 4 items in terms of access speed:
a) Main Memory
b) Magnetic Disk
c) Registers
d) Cache
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 1,3,4,2
C) 3,4,1,2
D) 3,1,4,2
47) What kind of a structure is a queue?
a) First in First out
b) First in last out
c) First in middle out
d) First in second last
48) A Jazz drive is a separate drive. What is the storage space of Jazz drive
a) 100KB
b) 20-40 GB
c) 1-2 GB
d) 650 MB
49) Which of the following is doesn’t affect resolution of a video Display image?
a) Bandwidth
b) Raster Scan rate
c) Vertical and Horizontal lines of resolution
d) Screen size
50) Which of the following statement are applicable to LINUX?
i) Multi-User and Multi-Tasking
ii) Open Source OS
iii) Developed at AT&T’s Bell Laboratory, USA
A) ( i ) only
B) ( ii ) only
C) Both ( i) and ( ii )
D) ( i) , ( ii) and ( iii )
WIPRO Aptitude Test
1.When a bicycle is in motion,the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two wheels is such that it acts
(a) In the backward direction on the front wheel and in the forward direction on the rear wheel.
(b) In the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward direction on the rear wheel.
(c) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
(d) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
Ans. (d)
2. A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds. In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so far decayed is nearly
(a) 29%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 45%
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following plots would be a straight line ?
(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time
Ans. (b)
4. A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100. It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z. In both processes a charged particle is emitted.
Which of the following statements would be true?
(a) y has an atomic number of 102
(b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100
(d) z has an atomic number of 101
Ans. (b)
5. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals then a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
6. A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports it to be a 6. What is the probability of it being a 6?
(a) 3/8
(b) 5/8
(c) 3/4
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
7. If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a
(a) Right angle triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
(c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
8. Image of point (3,8) in the line x + 3y = 7 is
(a) (-1,-4)
(b) (-1,4)
(c) (2,-4)
(d) (-2,-4)
Ans. (a)
9. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
10. The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface
Ans. (c)
11. Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference
(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or
the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source
Ans. (c)
12. When X-Ray photons collide with electrons
(a) They slow down
(b) Their mass increases
(c) Their wave length increases
(d) Their energy decreases
Ans. (c)
13. An electron emits energy
(a) Because its in orbit
(b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits
Ans. (b)
14. How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 4
Ans. (d)
15. In a balanced chemical equation
(a) Atoms are conserved
(b) Molecules are conserved
(c) Moles are conserved
(d) Reactant and product molecules are preserved
Ans. (a)
16. How many grams of NaOH will react with 0.2 equivalent of HCl?
(a) 0.59
(b) 0.285
(c) 1.18
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following is least acidic
(a) Ortho-cresol
(b) Para-cresol
(c) Phenol
(d) Meta-cresol
Ans. (b)
18. In Reimer-Tiemann's reaction, the reaction intermediate is
(a) Carbene
(b) Dichloro carbene
(c) Carbonion
(d) Carbonium ion
Ans. (b)
19. Which of the following is most acidic?
(a) C2H5OH
(b) CH3CHOHCH3
(c) Ethanol
(d) CH3OH
Ans. (b)
20.A catalyst
(a)always slows down the reaction
(b)always starts a rection that would not have ocurred at all otherwise
(c)causes changes in the rate of the reaction
(d)changes the quantities of the products formed
Ans. (c)
21.The rate of the first order reaction depends on the
(a) Concentration of the reactant
(b) Concentration of the product
(c) Time
(d) Temperature
Ans. (d)
22. The most abundant element in the universe is
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Helium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Silicon
Ans. (a)
23. Integrate 3x + 5 / (x3-x2-x+1)
(a) 1/2 log | (x+1)/(x-1) | - 4/(x-1)
(b) log |2+tanx|
(c) -(1+logx)/x
(d) 2 log|(tanx)/(tanx+2)
Ans. A
24. If y=cos-1(cosx + 4sinx)/(17)1/2, then dy/dx is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c)-1
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
25. If the sum of n terms of two series of A.P are in the ratio 5n+4:9n+6 .find the ratio of their 13th
terms
(a) 129/231
(b) 1/2
(c) 23/15
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
26. If the letters of the word "rachit" are arranged in all possible ways and these words are written
out as in a dictionary, what is the rank of the word "rachit".
(a) 485
(b) 480
(c) 478
(d) 481
Ans. (d)
27. Ravi's salary was reduced by 25%.Percentage increase to be effected to bring the salary
to the original level is
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 33 1/3%
(d) 30%
Ans. (c)
28. A and B can finish a piece of work in 20 days .B and C in 30 days and C and A in 40 days.
In how many days will A alone finish the job
(a) 48
(b) 34 2/7
(c) 44
(d) 45
Ans. (a)
29. How long will a train 100m long travelling at 72kmph take to overtake another train
200m long travelling at 54kmph
(a) 70sec
(b) 1min
(c) 1 min 15 sec
(d) 55 sec
Ans. (b)
30. What is the product of the irrational roots of the equation (2x-1)(2x-3)(2x-5)(2x-7)=9?
(a) 3/2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 3/4
Ans. (a)
31. Which of the following parameters is the same for molecules of all gases at a given temperature?
(a) Mass
(b) Momentum
(c) Speed
(d) Kinetic energy
Ans. (d)
32. A solid is completely immersed in liquid. The force exerted by the liquid on the solid will
(a) Increase if it is pushed deeper inside the liquid
(b) Change if its orientation is changed
(c) Decrease if it is taken partially out of the liquid
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
33. Select the correct statements
(a) A simple harmonic motion is necessarily periodic
(b) An oscillatory motion is necessarily periodic
(c) A periodic motion is necessarily oscillatory
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
34. An elecrton is injected into a region of uniform magnetic flux density with the components
of velocity parallel to and normal to the flux.What is the path of the electron?
(a) Helix
(b) Parabola
(c) Circle
(d) Rectangle
Ans. (a)
35. A constant voltage is applied between the 2 ends of a uniform metallic wire.
Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if
(a) both the length and radius of the wire are halved.
(b) both the length and radius of the wire are doubled
(c) the radius of the wire is doubled
(d) the length of the wire is doubled
Ans. (b)
36. If Young's double slit experiment is performed in water
(a) the fringe width will decrease
(b) the fringe width will increase
(c) the fringe width remains unchanged
(d) there will be no fringe
Ans. (a)
37. The shape of a spot of light produced when bright sunshine passes perpendicular
through a hole of very small size is
(a) Square, because the hole is a square
(b) Round, because it is an image of the sun
(c) Round with a small penumbra around it
(d) Square with a small penumbra
Ans. (b)
38.Select the alternative that logically follows from the two given statements.
Some forms are books
All books are made of paper
(a) Some forms are made of paper
(b) Some forms are not made of paper
(c) No forms are made of paper
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
39.All toffees are chocolates
Some toffees are not good for health
(a) Some chocolates are not good for health
(b) Some toffees are good for health
(c) No toffees are good for health
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a)
The questions 40-46 are based on the following pattern.The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are
sufficient for answering the questions.The correct answer is
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement(II) alone is sufficient but statement(I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
(E) If statements (I) and (II) are not sufficient
40. What is the volume of a cubical box in cubic centimetres?
(I) One face of the box has an area of 49 sq.cms.
(II) The longest diagonal of the box is 20 cms.
Ans. D
41. Is z positive?
(I) y+z is positive
(II) y-z is positive
Ans. E
42. Is x>y ? x, y are real numbers?
(I) 8x = 6y
(II) x = y + 4
Ans. B
43. If a ground is rectangular, what is its width?
(I) The ratio of its length to its breadth is 7:2
(II) Perimeter of the playground is 396 mts.
Ans. C
44. If the present age of my father is 39 yrs and my present age is x yrs, what is x?
(I) Next year my mother will be four times as old as i would be.
(II) My brother is 2 years older than I and my father is 4 years older than my mother.
Ans. C
45. How many brothers and sisters are there in the family of seven children?
(I) Each boy in the family has as many sisters as brothers
(II) Each of the girl in the family has twice as many brothers as sisters
Ans. D
46. x is not equal to 0, is x + y = 0?
(I) x is the reciprocal of y
(II) x is not equal to 1
Ans. A
Following questions are based on letter's analogy.First pair of letters should have the same relationship as the second pair of letters or vice versa.
47. ? : BGLQ : : YDIN : VAFK
(a) EKNS
(b) DKMT
(c) DLMS
(d) EJOT
Ans. (d)
48. NLO : RPS : : ? : ZXA
(a) VUW
(b) VTR
(c) VTW
(d) TRP
Ans. (c)
49. If "segment" is coded as rffndou, then "ritual" is coded as
(a) shutbm
(b) qjutbk
(c) qhutbk
(d) qhubtk
Ans. (c)
50. If "football" is "cricket" ,"cricket" is "basketball" ,"basketball" is "volleyball","volleyball" is
"khokho" and "khokho" is cricket, which is not a ball game?
(a) cricket
(b) football
(c) khokho
(d) basketball
Ans. (a)
51. Which of the following is a recursive set of production
(a) S --> a|A, A --> S
(b) S --> a|A, A --> b
(c) S -->aA, A-->S
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Wipro Technical Questions with answers
1. An electron moving in an electromagnetic field moves in a
(a) In a straight path
(b) Along the same plane in the direction of its propagation
(c) Opposite to the original direction of propagation
(d) In a sine wave
Ans. (b)
2. The total work done on the particle is equal to the change in its kinetic energy
(a) Always
(b) Only if the forces acting on the body are conservative.
(c) Only if the forces acting on the body are gravitational.
(d) Only if the forces acting on the body are elastic.
Ans. (a)
3. The following unit measure energy:
(a) Kilo-watt hour.
(b) Volt*volt/sec*ohm.
(c) Pascal*foot*foot
(d) (Coulomb*coulomb)*farad
Ans. (a)
4. Astronauts in stable orbits around the earth are in a state of weightlessness because
(a) There is no gravitational force acting on them.
(b) The satellite and the air inside it have an acceleration equal to that of gravitational acceleration there.
(c) The gravitational force of the earth and the sun balance giving null resultant.
(d) There is no atmosphere at the height at which the satellites move.
Ans. (b)
5. An organ pipe, open at both ends and another organ pipe closed at one end, will resonate with each other, if their lengths are in the ratio of
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:4
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Ans. (c)
6. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
(a) Its internal energy increases.
(b) Its internal energy decreases.
(c) Its internal energy does not change.
(d) The work done by the gas is not equal to the quantity of heat absorbed by it.
Ans. (c)
7. A parallel plate capaciator is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected.If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles
(a) The charge on the capacitor increases.
(b) The voltage across the plates increases.
(c) The capacitance increases.
(d) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases.
Ans. (b)
8. Two equal negative charges q are fixed at point (0,a) and (0,-a) on the y-axis.A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a,0) on the x-axis. The charge Q will
(a) Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin
(b) Move to the origin and remain at rest
(c) Move to infinity
(d) Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion
Ans. (d)
9. A square conducting loop of length Lon a side carries a current I.
The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is
(a) Independant of L
(b) Proportional to L*L
(c) Inversely proportoinal to L
(d) Directly proportional to L
Ans. (c)
10. The focal length of a convex lens when placed in air and then in water will
(a) Increase in water with respect to air
(b) Increase in air with respect to water
(c) Decrease in water with respect to. air
(d) Remain the same
Ans. (a)
11. The maximum kinectic energy of the photoelectron emitted from the surface is dependant on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface
Ans. (c)
12. An electron orbiting in a circular orbit around the nucleus of the atom
(a) Has a magnetic dipole moment
(b) Exerts an electric force on the nucleus equal to that on it by the nucleus
(c) Does not produce a magnetic induction at the nucleus
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
13. The X-rays beam coming from an X-ray tube will be:
(a) Monochromatic
(b) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain minimum wavelength
(c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength
(d) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength
Ans. (c)
14. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Always equal to its atomic number
(d) Sometimes more and sometimes equal to its atomic number
Ans. (d)
15. Two successive elements belonging to the first transition series have the same number of electrons partially filling orbitals. They are
(a) V and Cr
(b) Ti and V
(c) Mn and Cr
(d) Fe and Co
Ans. (c)
16. When n+l has the same value for two or more orbitals,the new electron enters the orbital where
(a) n is maximum
(b) n is minimum
(c) l is maximum
(d) l is minimum
Ans. b
17. A balloon filled with ethylene is pricked with a sharp pointed needle and quickly placed in a tank full of hydrogen at the same pressure. After a while the balloon would have
(a) Shrunk
(b) Enlarged
(c) Completely collapsed
(d) Remain unchanged in size
Ans. (b)
18. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The ratio of the mean speed to the rms speed is independant of temperature
(b) Tthe square of the mean speed of the molecules is equal to the mean squared speed at a certaintemperature
(c) Mean kinetic energy of the gas molecules at any given temperature is independant of the meanspeed
(d) None
Ans. (b)
19. Which of the following statements represent Raoult's Law
(a) Mole fraction of solvent = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of thesolvent
(b) Mole fraction of solute = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of thesolvent
(c) Mole fraction of solute = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution
(d) Mole fraction of solvent = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution
Ans. (a)
20. Elements having the same atomic number and the same atomic mass are known as
(a) Isotopes
(b) Isotones
(c) Isomers
(d) None of the above
21.Which is the most acidic amongst
(a) Nitrophenol
(b) O-toulene
(c) Phenol
(d) Cresol
22. Pure water does not conduct electricity because it is
(a) Almost not ionised
(b) Low boiling
(c) Neutral
(d) Readily decomposed
Ans. (a)
23. In a salt bridge, KCl is used because
(a) It is an electrolyte
(b) The transference number of K+ and Cl¯ is nearly the same
(c) It is a good conductor of electricity
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
24. A depolarizer used in the dry cell batteries is
(a) KCl
(b) MnO2
(c) KOH
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
25. The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by aqueous NaOH is best termed as
(a) Electrophylic substitution reaction
(b) Electrophylic addition reaction
(c) Nnucleophylic addition reaction
(d) Nucleophylic substitution reaction
Ans. (d)
26. The hydrocarbon that gives a red precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is (where 'º' means
a triple bond)
(a) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
(b) CH3-CºC-CH3
(c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
(d) CH3-CH2-CºCH
Ans. (d)
27. Which of the following reagents is neither neutral nor basic
(a) Lucas' reagent
(b) Tollen's reagent
(c) Bayer's reagent
(d) Fehling's solution
Ans. (a)
28. The substance which is most easily nitrated
(a) Toluene
(b) Bbenzene
(c) Nitrobenzene
(d) Chlorobenzene
Ans. (a)
29. Carbylamine reaction is a test for
(a) Primary amine
(b) Secondary amine
(c) Tertiary amine
(d) Quarternary ammonium salt
Ans. (a)
30. Which of the following oxides cannot be reduced by carbon to obtain metal
(a) ZnO
(b) Al2O3
(c) Fe2O3
(d) PbO
Ans. (b)
31. Which of the following is not an oxide ore?
(a) Cassiterite
(b) Siderite
(c) Pyrolusite
(d) Bauxite
Ans. (b)
32. Which among the following is called philosopher's wool
(a) Cellulose
(b) Calamine
(c) Stellite
(d) Cerussite
Ans. (c)
33. Out of 10 white, 9 black and 7 red balls, in how many ways can we select one or more balls
(a) 234
(b) 52
(c) 630
(d) 879
Ans. (d)
34. A and B throw a dice. The probabilty that A's throw is not greater than B's is
(a) 5/12
(b) 7/12
(c) 11/12
(d) 5/36
Ans. (b)
35. Given two numbers a and b. Let A denote the single AM between these and S denote the sum of n AMsbetween them. Then S/A depends upon
(a) n
(b) n,a
(c) n,b
(d) n,a,b
Ans. (a)
36. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax²+bx+c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals,then, a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of the these
Ans. (c)
In the following questions ~ represents the integral sign-for eg. 1~2[f(x)] means integration of the function f(x) over the interval 1 to2.
37. Value of -1~2[|2-x²|]dx, ie integration of the function |2-x²| over the interval -1 to 2.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
38. If 0~P[log sinx]dx=k,then the value of 0~P/4[log(1 + tan x)]dx ,where P stands for pi,is
(a) -k/4
(b) k/4
(c) -k/8
(d) k/8
Ans. (c)
39. If a,b,c be in GP and p,q be respectively AM between a,b and b,c then
(a) 2/b=1/p+1/q
(b) 2/b=1/p-1/q
(c) 2=a/p-c/q
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
40. A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to MnO2 .The normality of solution is 0.6.The molarity is
(a) 1.8M
(b) 0.6M
(c) 0.1M
(d) 0.2M
Ans. (d)
The questions 41-46 are based on the following pattern.The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the questions.The correct answer is
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement(II) alone is sufficient but statement(I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
41. What is John's age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)
42. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)
43.Is A=C ? A,B,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)
44. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)
45.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)
46. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)
47. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels15km toward the right and finally travels
5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)
48. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
49. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)
50. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678.Then the code for the word "MANGO" would be
(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347
Ans. (d)
51. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS ,then "PLAYER" should be
(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI
Ans. (a)
The questions 52-53 are based on the following datapeople A,B,C,D,E and F sit around a table for dinner.Since A does not like C, he doesn't sit either opposite or beside C.B and F always like to
sit opposite each other.
52. If A is beside F then who is are the two neighbours of B?
(a) D and C
(b) E and C
(c) D and E
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Ans. (c)
53. If D is adjacent to F then who is adjacent to C?
(a) E and B
(b) D and A
(c) D and B
(d) either (a) or (c)
Ans.(d)
54. Complete the sequence A, E ,I ,M ,Q ,U , _ , _
(a) B, F
(b) Y, C
(c) G, I
(d) K, O
Ans.(b)
55. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west
Ans. (c)
56. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times.What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14
Ans.(b)
57. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
58. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
59. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable
Ans. (a)
60. Virtual functions allow you to
(a) Create an array of type pointer-to-base-class that can hold pointers to derived classes
(b) Create functions that have no body
(c) Group objects of different classes so they can all be accessed by the same function code
(d) Use the same function call to execute member functions to objects from different classes
62. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one caseand a worst time algorithm in worst case is
(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort
Ans. (a)
63. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
64. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
65. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
66. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
67. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixedband channels
Ans. (b)
68. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams
Ans. (d)
69. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?
(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data
Ans. (a)
70. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?
(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Fiber optic cable
(c) Microwave circuits
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
71. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM
Ans. (a)
72. A shift register can be used for
(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
73. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady's anomaly occurs?
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU
Ans. (a)
74. Subschema can be used to
(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema's description
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
Wipro Selection Procedure
1.Writtent Test 50 Questions in
2.Technical and HR
1 Quantitative /analytical reasoning (20 questions)
2 Verbal ability (20 questions)
3 Technical section (10questions)
Wipro Technical Interview Questions
a)Technical Questions
1)Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
2) .In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
3) When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above
4) As compared to analog multimeters, digital Multimeters's are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.
5) When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter
6) Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off
7) The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling
8) A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
9) When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF
10) .The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
11) When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
Predict the output or error(s) for the following:
12). main()
{
static int var = 5;
printf("%d ",var--);
if(var)
main();
}
Ans: 5 4 3 2 1
13). main()
{
int c[ ]={2.8,3.4,4,6.7,5};
int j,*p=c,*q=c;
for(j=0;j S
(b) S --> a|A, A --> b
(c) S -->aA, A-->S
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
14. A sum 's' is divided into 4 parts. second person gets Rs 10 more than first.3rd person is Rs 10 more than second, 4th is 10 more than 3rd.how much amount do 1st person get.
Ans: (s-60)/4
15. One ship goes along the stream direction 28 km and in opposite direction 13 km in 5 hrs for each direction. What is the velocity of stream?
Ans: 1.5 kmph
Wipro Technical Questions
Section3-Technical ,20 questions
1. What sorting algos have their best and worst case times equal ?
Ans. O(nlogn) for mergesort and heap sort
2. What page replacement algorithm has minimum number of page faults ?
Ans. Optimality algorithm
3. What is the use of virtual base class in c++
Ans. Multiple lines between derived classes.
4. Assignment operator targets to _____
Ans. l-value
5. A byte addressable computer has memory capacity of 2 power m Kbytes and can perform 2 power n operations an instruction involving three operands and one operator needs maximum of___________ bits
Ans. 3m + n
6. In round robin scheduling, if time quantum is too large then it degenerates to
Ans. FCFS
7. What data structures you should use for dictionary searching and it should be capable of doing spell check also ?
Ans: Hashing
8. What is the value of 121 base 4 + 84 base 16 ?
Ans : 2130
9. When the fn. is called where the return address is stored?
Ans. stack
10. C program code
int zap (int n)
{
if (n divider -> schmitt trigger -> flip flop -> o/p= ? ( -> represents followed by symbol )
16. a ckt: op amp ->diode and capacitor -> o/p; name the ckt?
17. Pblm on binary adder ( 6 bit)
18. Feedback factor is 0.1, forward gain of system is 10, sensitivity w.r.t f/b element?
19. Linux is implemented as?
20. Feedback control system characteristics?
21. Phased locked loop is used in ?
22. A problem on random variables…
23. Frequency response char of ideal comm chnl..
24. best error performance for same avg energy per bit (options 16QAM, 16ASK, 16PSK, QPSK)
25. Tx band width od SSB?
26. Nyquist interval..
27. r/n b/n spectral density &auto correlation fpor a periodic function.
28. Thermal noise power in a conductor is proportional to…
29. Numerical on modulation index…
30. Question on radar range..
31. Question on doppler radar…
32. Microwave signal follows earth curvature, phenomenon called as…
33. Flex klystron functions as…
34. Microwave junction matched at all points is called…’
35. Numerical on schmitt trigger ckt operation on a sine wave.
36. Question on assembly language ( up ) .
37. Assembly language ( up ).
38. Assembly language (up)/(uc).
39. Operating system architecture.
40. OS architecture..
41. Protocol to receive mails from server ..
42. Question on ethernet involving distances( 2500 mts ).
43. Pc to hub distance in 10base T ethernet.
44. Ip-sec is an internet security mechanism for ?
1. What are the basic functions for master, msdb, model, temp db and resource databases?
1. The master database holds information for all databases located on the SQL Server instance and is the glue that holds the engine together. Because SQL Server cannot start without a functioning master database, you must administer this database with care.
2. The msdb database stores information regarding database backups, SQL Agent information, DTS packages, SQL Server jobs, and some replication information such as for log shipping.
3. The tempdb holds temporary objects such as global and local temporary tables and stored procedures.
4. The model is essentially a template database used in the creation of any new user database created in the instance.
5. The resoure Database is a read-only database that contains all the system objects that are included with SQL Server. SQL Server system objects, such as sys. Objects, are physically persisted in the Resource database, but they logically appear in the sys schema of every database. The Resource database does not contain user data or user metadata.
2. What is Service Broker?
Service Broker is a message-queuing technology in SQL Server that allows developers to integrate SQL Server fully into distributed applications. Service Broker is feature which provides facility to SQL Server to send an asynchronous, transactional message. It allows a database to send a message to another database without waiting for the response, so the application will continue to function if the remote database is temporarily unavailable.
3. Where SQL server user names and passwords are stored in SQL server?
They get stored in System Catalog Views sys. Server_principals and sys. Sql_logins.
4. What is Policy Management?
Policy Management in SQL SERVER 2008 allows you to define and enforce policies for configuring and managing SQL Server across the enterprise. Policy-Based Management is configured in SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS). Navigate to the Object Explorer and expand the Management node and the Policy Management node; you will see the Policies, Conditions, and Facets nodes.
5. What is Replication and Database Mirroring?
Database mirroring can be used with replication to provide availability for the publication database. Database mirroring involves two copies of a single database that typically reside on different computers. At any given time, only one copy of the database is currently available to clients which are known as the principal database. Updates made by clients to the principal database are applied on the other copy of the database, known as the mirror database. Mirroring involves applying the transaction log from every insertion, update, or deletion made on the principal database onto the mirror database.
6. What are Sparse Columns?
A sparse column is another tool used to reduce the amount of physical storage used in a database. They are the ordinary columns that have an optimized storage for null values. Sparse columns reduce the space requirements for null values at the cost of more overhead to retrieve nonnull values.
7. What does TOP Operator Do?
The TOP operator is used to specify the number of rows to be returned by a query. The TOP operator has new addition in SQL SERVER 2008 that it accepts variables as well as literal values and can be used with INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETES statements.
8. What is CTE?
CTE is an abbreviation Common Table Expression. A Common Table Expression (CTE) is an expression that can be thought of as a temporary result set which is defined within the execution of a single SQL statement. A CTE is similar to a derived table in that it is not stored as an object and lasts only for the duration of the query.
9. What is MERGE Statement?
MERGE is a new feature that provides an efficient way to perform multiple DML operations. In previous versions of SQL Server, we had to write separate statements to INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE data based on certain conditions, but now, using MERGE statement we can include the logic of such data modifications in one statement that even checks when the data is matched then just update it and when unmatched then insert it. One of the most important advantages of MERGE statement is all the data is read and processed only once.
10. What is Filtered Index?
Filtered Index is used to index a portion of rows in a table that means it applies filter on INDEX which improves query performance, reduce index maintenance costs, and reduce index storage costs compared with full-table indexes. When we see an Index created with some where clause then that is actually a FILTERED INDEX.
11. Which are new data types introduced in SQL SERVER 2008?
1. The GEOMETRY Type: The GEOMETRY data type is a system. NET common language runtime (CLR) data type in SQL Server. This type represents data in a two-dimensional Euclidean coordinate system.
2. The GEOGRAPHY Type: The GEOGRAPHY datatype\'s functions are the same as with GEOMETRY. The difference between the two is that when you specify GEOGRAPHY, you are usually specifying points in terms of latitude and longitude.
3. New Date and Time Datatypes: SQL Server 2008 introduces four new datatypes related to date and time: DATE, TIME, DATETIMEOFFSET, and DATETIME2.
1. DATE: The new DATE type just stores the date itself. It is based on the Gregorian calendar and handles years from 1 to 9999.
2. TIME: The new TIME (n) type stores time with a range of 00:00:00. 0000000 through 23:59:59. 9999999. The precision is allowed with this type. TIME supports seconds down to 100 nanoseconds. The n in TIME (n) defines this level of fractional second precision, from 0 to 7 digits of precision.
3. The DATETIMEOFFSET Type: DATETIMEOFFSET (n) is the time-zone-aware version of a datetime datatype. The name will appear less odd when you consider what it really is: a date + a time + a time-zone offset. The offset is based on how far behind or ahead you are from Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) time.
4. The DATETIME2 Type: It is an extension of the datetime type in earlier versions of SQL Server. This new datatype has a date range covering dates from January 1 of year 1 through December 31 of year 9999. This is a definite improvement over the 1753 lower boundary of the datetime datatype. DATETIME2 not only includes the larger date range, but also has a timestamp and the same fractional precision that TIME type provides.
12. What are the Advantages of using CTE?
1. Using CTE improves the readability and makes maintenance of complex queries easy.
2. The query can be divided into separate, simple, logical building blocks which can be then used to build more complex CTEs until final result set is generated.
3. CTE can be defined in functions, stored procedures, triggers or even views.
4. After a CTE is defined, it can be used as a Table or a View and can SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE or DELETE Data.
13. What is CLR?
In SQL Server 2008, SQL Server objects such as user-defined functions can be created using such CLR languages. This CLR language support extends not only to user-defined functions, but also to stored procedures and triggers. You can develop such CLR add-ons to SQL Server using Visual Studio 2008.
14. What are synonyms?
Synonyms give you the ability to provide alternate names for database objects. You can alias object names; for example, using the Employee table as Emp. You can also shorten names. This is especially useful when dealing with three and four part names; for example, shortening server. Database. Owner. Object to object.
15. What is LINQ?
Language Integrated Query (LINQ) adds the ability to query objects using. NET languages. The LINQ to SQL object/relational mapping (O/RM) framework provides the following basic features:.
1. Tools to create classes (usually called entities) mapped to database tables.
2. Compatibility with LINQ's standard query operations.
3. The DataContext class, with features such as entity record monitoring, automatic SQL statement generation, record concurrency detection, and much more.
16. What is Isolation Levels?
Transactions specify an isolation level that defines the degree to which one transaction must be isolated from resource or data modifications made by other transactions. Isolation levels are described in terms of which concurrency side-effects, such as dirty reads or phantom reads, are allowed.
Transaction isolation levels control:.
1. Whether locks are taken when data is read, and what type of locks are requested.
2. How long the read locks are held.
3. Whether a read operation referencing rows modified by another transaction:.
1. Blocks until the exclusive lock on the row is freed.
2. Retrieves the committed version of the row that existed at the time the statement or transaction started.
3. Reads the uncommitted data modification.
17. What is use of EXCEPT Clause?
EXCEPT clause is similar to MINUS operation in Oracle. The EXCEPT query and MINUS query returns all rows in the first query that are not returned in the second query. Each SQL statement within the EXCEPT query and MINUS query must have the same number of fields in the result sets with similar data types.
18. How would you handle error in SQL SERVER 2008?
SQL Server now supports the use of TRY. CATCH con handling. TRY. CATCH lets us build error handling at the level we need, in the way w to, by setting a region where if any error occurs, it will break out of the region and head to an error handler.
The basic structure is as follows:
BEGIN TRY
Stmts...
END TRY
BEGIN CATCH
Stmts...
END CATCH
19. What is RAISEERROR?
RaiseError generates an error message and initiates error processing for the session. RAISERROR can either reference a user-defined message stored in the sys. Messages catalog view or build a message dynamically. The message is returned as a server error message to the calling application or to an associated CATCH block of a TRY | CATCH construct.
20. How to rebuild Master Database?
Master database is system database and it contains information about running server's configuration. When SQL Server 2005 is installed it usually creates master, model, msdb, tempdb resource and distribution system database by default. Only Master database is th one which is absolutely must have database. Without Master database SQL Server cannot be started. This is the reason it is extremely important to backup Master database.
To rebuild the Master database, Run Setup. Exe, verify, and repair a SQL Server instance, and rebuild the system databases. This procedure is most often used to rebuild the master database for a corrupted installation of SQL Server.
21. What is XML Datatype?
The xml data type lets you store XML documents and fragments in a SQL Server database. An XML fragment is an XML instance that is missing a single top-level element. You can create columns and variables of the xml type and store XML instances in them. The xml data type and associated methods help integrate XML into the relational framework of S Server.
22. What is Data Compression?
In SQL SERVE 2008 Data Compression comes in two flavors:.
1. Row Compression: Row compression changes the format of physical storage of data. It minimize the metadata (column information, length, offsets etc) associated with each record. Numeric data types and fixed length strings are stored in variable-length storage format, just like Varchar.
2. Page Compression: Page compression allows common data to be shared between rows for a given page. Its uses the following techniques to compress data:.
1. Row compression.
2. Prefix Compression. For every column in a page duplicate prefixes are identified. These prefixes are saved in compression information headers (CI) which resides after page header. A reference number is assigned to these prefixes and that reference number is replaced where ever those prefixes are being used.
3. Dictionary Compression: Dictionary compression searches for duplicate values throughout the page and stores them in CI. The main difference between prefix and dictionary compression is that prefix is only restricted to one column while dictionary is applicable to the complete page.
23. What is Catalog Views?
Catalog views return information that is used by the SQL Server Database Engine. Catalog Views are the most general interface to the catalog metadata and provide the most efficient way to obtain, transform, and present customized forms of this information. All user- available catalog metadata is exposed through catalog views.
24. What is PIVOT and UNPIVOT?
A Pivot Table can automatically sort, count, and total the data stored in one table or spreadsheet and create a second table displaying the summarized data. The PIVOT operator turns the values of a specified column into column names, effectively rotating a table.
UNPIVOT table is reverse of PIVOT Table.
25. What is Dirty Read ?
A dirty read occurs when two operations say, read and write occurs together giving the incorrect or unedited data. Suppose, A has changed a row, but has not committed the changes. B reads the uncommitted data but his view of the data may be wrong so that is Dirty Read.
26. What is Aggregate Functions?
Aggregate functions perform a calculation on a set of values and return a single value. Aggregate functions ignore NULL values except COUNT function. HAVING clause is used, along with GROUP BY, for filtering query using aggregate values.
Following functions are aggregate functions.
AVG, MIN CHECKSUM_AGG, SUM, COUNT, STDEV, COUNT_BIG, STDEVP, GROUPING, VAR, MAX. VARP.
27. What do you mean by Table Sample?
TABLESAMPLE allows you to extract a sampling of rows from a table in the FROM clause. The rows retrieved are random and they are not in any order. This sampling can be based on a percentage of number of rows. You can use TABLESAMPLE when only a sampling of rows is necessary for the application instead of a full result set.
28. What is the difference between UNION and UNION ALL?
1. UNION The UNION command is used to select related information from two tables, much like the JOIN command. However, when using the UNION command all selected columns need to be of the same data type. With UNION, only distinct values are selected.
2. UNION ALL The UNION ALL command is equal to the UNION command, except that UNION ALL selects all values.
The difference between Union and Union all is that Union all will not eliminate duplicate rows, instead it just pulls all rows from all tables fitting your query specifics and combines them into a table.
29. What is B-Tree?
The database server uses a B-tree structure to organize index information. B-Tree generally has following types of index pages or nodes:.
1. Root node: A root node contains node pointers to branch nodes which can be only one.
2. Branch node: A branch node contains pointers to leaf nodes or other branch nodes which can be two or more.
3. Leaf nodes: A leaf node contains index items and orizantal pointers to other leaf nodes which can be many.
Wipro
1 Quantitative /analytical reasoning (20 questions)
2 Verbal ability (20 questions)
3 Technical section (10questions)
Section-A Quantitative \analytical reasoning
1. there are two sections A and B of a class consisting of 36 and 44 students respectively. If the average weight of section A is 40kg and that of section B is 35kg, find the average weight of the whole class?
2. A batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17th inning and thus increases his averages by 3.Find his average after 17th inning?
A. 19
B. 29
C. 39
D. 49
Ans-C
3. Sound is said to travel in air at about 1100 feet per second. A man hears the axe striking the tree, 11/5 seconds after he sees it strike the tree. How far is the man from the wood chopper?
A. 2197 ft
B. 2420 ft
C. 2500 ft
D. 2629 ft
Ans-B
4. . A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days; Band C can do it in 24 days A and C can do it in 36 days. In how many days will A, Band C finish it together and separately?
5. A man can do a job in 15 days. His father takes 20 days and his son finishes it in 25 days. How long will they take to complete the job if they all work together?
A. Less than 6 days
B. exactly 6 days
C. approximately 6.4 days
D. more than 10 days
Ans-C
6. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs.529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and Band C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
A. Rs.315
B. Rs.345
C. Rs.355
D. Rs.375
Ans-B
7. A train 150 m long is running with a apecd of 68 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who is running at 8 kmph in the same direction in which the train is going?
A. 6sec.
B. 9sec.
C. 19sec.
D. 11sec.
Ans-B
8. A train travelling at a speed of 75 mph enters a tunnel 3 1/2 miles long. The train is 1/4 mile long. How long does it take for the train to pass through the tunnel from the moment the front enters to the moment the rear emerges ?
A. 2.5 min
B. 3 min
C. 3.2 min
D. 3.5 min
Ans-B
9. Look at this series: 22, 25, 21, 24, 20, 23, ... What number should come next?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 19
Ans-D
10. Look at this series: V, VIII, XI, XIV, __, XX, ... What number should fill the blank?
A. IX
B. XXIII
C. XV
D. XVII
Ans-D
11. A clock is set at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the true time when the clock indicates 10 p.m. on 4th day?
A. 9 p.m
B. 10 p.m
C. 11 p.m
D. 12 p.m
Ans-C
12. Find at what time between 8 and 9 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but not together.
A. 10x11/10
B. 10x10/11
C. 11x10/11
D. 12x10/11
Ans-B
13. Rahul’s mother is the only daughter of Monika’s father. How is Monika’s husband related to Rahul?
A. Uncle
B. Father
C. Grandfather
D. Data inadequate
Ans-B
14. If Z X T -S X U +P, what is U to Z.
A. Grandmother
B. Grandfather
C. Father
D. Cannot be determined
Ans-A
15. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Anjali said,”He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother .” How is that person related to Anjali?
A. Mother
B. Father
C. Maternal uncle
D. None of these
Ans-D
16. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ?
A. Between B and D
B. Between B and C
C. Between E and D
D. Between C and E
Ans-B
17. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ?
A. A
B. X
C. S
D. Z
Ans-B
18. In a certain code, TRIPPLE is written as SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that code?
A. CHRONRD
B. DSOESPI
C. ESJTPTF
D. ESOPSID
Ans-A
19. In a certain code INSTITUTION is written as NOITUTITSNI. How is PERFECTION written in that code?
A. NOICTERFREP
B. NOITCEFERP
C. NOITCEFRPE
D. NOITCEFREP
Ans-D
20. If Go =32, SHE = 49, then SOME will be equal to
A. 56
B. 58
C. 62
D. 64
Ans-A
Section-B Verbal Ability
1. Find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
A. I could not put up in a hotel
B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant
D. No error.
Ans-A
2. Find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
A. One of the members
B. expressed doubt if
C. the Minister was an atheist.
D. No error.
Ans-B
3. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
ALERT
A. Energetic
B. Observant
C. Intelligent
D. Watchful
Ans-D
4. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
SYNOPSIS
A. Index
B. Mixture
C. Summary
D. Puzzles
Ans-C
5. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or phrase
I thought about her a lot during the following months.
A. succeeding
B. proceeding
C. preceding
D. receding
Ans-C
6. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or phrase
She used to disparage her neighbor every now and then.
A. please
B. praise
C. belittle
D. denigrate
Ans-B
7. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
If you smuggle goods into the country, they may be ...... by the customs authority.
A. possessed
B. punished
C. confiscated
D. fined
Ans-C
8. In sentence given below, four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed in bold type, one which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt.The letter of that word is answer
A. I ordered him to keep quite
B. but he disobeyed
C. and continued
D. shouting
E. All correct
Ans-A
9. In question below a sentence broken into five or six parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.
1. him 2. the 3. To 4. charge 5. handover
A. 42531
B. 51342
C. 41352
D. 45231
E. 52431
Ans-E
10. Directions to Solve
In question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
Then
P : it struck me
Q : of course
R : suitable it was
S : how eminently
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SPQR
B. QSRP
C. PSRQ
D. QPSR
Ans-C
11. Which of phrases given below the sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct?
There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their short names only
A. initials
B. signatures
C. pictures
D. middle names
E. No correction required
Ans-A
12. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.
He has no money now ......
A. although he was very poor once
B. as he has given up all his wealth
C. because he was very rich once
D. because he has received huge donation
E. because he was very greedy about wealth
Ans-B
13. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.
Because he believes in democratic principles, he always ......
A. decides all the matters himself
B. listen to others views and enforces his own
C. shown respect to others opinions if they match his own
D. reconciles with the majority views and gives us his own
E. imposes his own views on others
Ans-D
14. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1: I keep on flapping my big ears all day.
P : They also fear that I will flip them all away.
Q : But children wonder why I flap them so.
R : I flap them so to make sure they are safely there on either side of my head.
S : But I know what I am doing.
S6: Am I not a smart, intelligent elephant?
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SRQP
B. QPSR
C. QPRS
D. PSRQ
Ans-B
15. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
A person of good understanding knowledge and reasoning power
A. Expert
B. Intellectual
C. Snob
D. Literate
Ans-B
16. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence
A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge
A. Pedantic
B. Verbose
C. Pompous
D. Ornate
Ans-A
17. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
She said that her brother was getting married.
A. She said, "Her brother is getting married."
B. She told, "Her brother is getting married."
C. She said, "My brother is getting married."
D. She said, "My brother was getting married."
Ans-C
18. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech
He exclaimed with joy that India had won the Sahara Cup.
A. He said, "India has won the Sahara Cup"
B. He said, "India won the Sahara Cup"
C. He said, "How! India will win the Sahara Cup"
D. He said, "Hurrah! India has won the Sahara Cup"
Ans-D
19. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.
Who is creating this mess?
A. Who has been created this mess?
B. By whom has this mess been created?
C. By whom this mess is being created?
D. By whom is this mess being created?
Ans-D
20. Select the pair which has the same relationship.
HOPE:ASPIRES
A. love:elevates
B. film:flam
C. fib:lie
D. fake:ordinary
Ans-C
Section-C Technical
1. What is static memory allocation?
2. What is the output of the program?
#include
int main()
{
extern int a;
printf("%d\n", a);
return 0;
}
int a=20;
Ans-20
3. What are the basic concepts of object oriented programming?
4. What are the types of STL containers?
5. What is the coding pattern for using a JDBC driver?
6. Describe and contrast a trigger and a procedure.
7. Which command is used to copy all files having the string chap and any two characters after that to the progs directory?
A. cp chap?? progs
B. cp chap* progs
C. cp chap[12] /progs/*.*
D. cp chap?? /progs/*
E. None of the above
Ans-A
8. What hardware architectures are not supported by Ret Hat?
A. SPARC
B. IBM-compatible
C. Alpha
D. Macintosh
E. None of the above
Ans-A
9. Format flags may be combined using
A. the bitwise OR operator (|)
B. the logical OR operator (||)
C. the bitwise AND operator (&)
D. the logical AND operator (&&)
Ans-A
10. What is the difference between the 8031 and the 8051?
A. The 8031 has no interrupts.
B. The 8031 is ROM-less.
C. The 8051 is ROM-less.
D. The 8051 has 64 bytes more memory.
Wipro
1 Quantitative /analytical reasoning (20 questions)
2 Verbal ability (20 questions)
3 Technical section (10questions)
Section-A Quantitative /analytical reasoning
1. Mr. Sharuk decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?
Ans.46 steps.
2. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs. Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?
(a) 1/2 kmph
(b) 7/12 kmph
(c) 5 kmph
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
3. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?
4. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?
Ans. 991.
5. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then divided by 2. The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are in reverse order. The ten's place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits. What is the number?
Ans. 46
6. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?
Ans.18 hours.
7. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo?
Ans. 360 years old.
8. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men.
9. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
Ans. 3720.
10. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = ?
A. 0.172
B. 1.72
C. 17.2
D. 172
Ans-C
11. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
A.1/2
B. 2/5
C. 8/15
D. 9/20
Ans-D
12. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Anjali said,”He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother .” How is that person related to Anjali?
A. Mother
B. Father
C. Maternal uncle
D. None of these
Ans-D
13. If A + B means A is the sister of B; A - B means A is the brother of B; A X B means A is the daughter of B, which of the following shows the relation that E is the maternal uncle of D?
A. D + F x E
B. D - F x E
C. D x F + E
D. D x F – E
Ans-C
14. A is father of C and D is son of B. E is brother of A. If C is sister of D, how is B related to E?
A. Daughter
B. Brother-in-law
C. Husband
D. Sister-in-law
Ans-A
15. There are 8 houses in a line and in each house only one boy lives with the conditions as given below:
1. Jack is not the neighbour Siman.
2. Harry is just next to the left of Larry.
3. There is at least one to the left of Larry.
4. Paul lives in one of the two houses in the middle.
5. Mike lives in between Paul and Larry.
If at least one lives to the right of Robert and Harry is not between Taud and Larry, then which one of the following statement is not correct ?
A. Robert is not at the left end.
B. Robert is in between Simon and Taud.
C. Taud is in between Paul and Jack.
D. There are three persons to the right of Paul.
Ans-C
16. If PAINT is coded as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then how would you encode ACCEPT?
A. 455978
B. 547978
C. 554978
D. 735961
Ans-A
17. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ?
A. A
B. X
C. S
D. Z
Ans-B
18. Which of the following words would correctly decode the word ZHOFRPH if the simple alphabet shifting code is used?
A. ARTISTS
B. COMPUTE
C. MAILING
D. MAILING
Ans-D
19. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives:
A. Rs. 8400
B. Rs. 11,900
C. Rs. 13,600
D. Rs. 14,700
Ans-D
20. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had partnered for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of their investments?
A. 5 : 7 : 8
B. 20 : 49 : 64
C. 38 : 28 : 21
D. None of these
Ans-B
Section-B Verbal ability
1. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. In the west, Allied Forces had fought their way through southern Italy as far as Rome.
B. In June 1944 Germany’s military position in World War Two appeared hopeless.
C. In Britain, the task of amassing the men and materials for the liberation of northern Europe had been completed.
D. The Red Army was poised to drive the Nazis back through Poland.
E. The situation on the eastern front was catastrophic.
a. EDACB
b. BEDAC
c. BDECA
d. CEDAB
e. ABCDE
2. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. The two neighbours never fought each other.
B. Fights involving three male fiddler crabs have been recorded, but the status of the participants was unknown.
C. They pushed or grappled only with the intruder.
D. We recorded 17 cases in which a resident that was fighting an intruder was joined by an immediate neighbour, an ally.
E. We therefore tracked 268 intruder males until we saw them fighting a resident male.
a. BEDAC
b. DEBAC
c. BDCAE
d. BCEDA
e. ABCDE
3. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
A. If I had known
B. this yesterday
C. I will have helped him.
D. No error.
Ans-C
4. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
A. I have got
B. my M.Sc. degree
C. in 1988.
D. No error.
Ans-A
5. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
A. Though he stoutly persisted in denying his involvement in the case,
B. the facts made it very clear
C. that he had hand in the cruel murder of his wife.
D. No error.
Ans-C
6. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
AUGUST
A. Common
B. Ridiculous
C. Dignified
D. Petty
Ans-C
7. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
FURORE
A. Excitement
B. Worry
C. Flux
D. Anteroom
Ans-A
8. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.
RELINQUISH
A. Abdicate
B. Renounce
C. Posses
D. Deny
Ans-C
9. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.
MORTAL
A. Divine
B. Immortal
C. Spiritual
D. Eternal
Ans-b
10. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
A person of good understanding knowledge and reasoning power
A. Expert
B. Intellectual
C. Snob
D. Literate
Ans-B
11. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
To issue a thunderous verbal attack
A. Languish
B. Animate
C. Fulminate
D. Invigorate
Ans-C
12. Select the pair which has the same relationship.
TEN:DECIMAL
A. seven:septet
B. four:quartet
C. two:binary
D. five:quince
Ans-C
13. Select the pair which has the same relationship.
FILTER:WATER
A. curtail:activity
B. expunge:book
C. edit:text
D. censor:play
Ans-D
14. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.
His appearance is unsmiling but ......
A. his heart is full of compassion for others
B. he looks very serious on most occasions
C. people are afraid of him
D. he is uncompromising on matters of task performance
E. he is full of jealousy towards his colleagues
Ans-A
15. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.
The officer who had neglected to files his income tax returns had to ......
A. return the files
B. pay a fine
C. be rewarded
D. play mischief
E. give warning
Ans-B
Questions(16-20) Read the paragraph given below and answer
Until the end of his first year at school, Cyril retained many of the pleasures and pursuits he had brought with him from home, and he kept an old interest in butterflies and fossils. His grandmother had presented him with a fine bird's eggs cabinet, but he could never bring himself to risk in climbing trees. Once or twice he dissected dead birds from sheer determination to overcome his horror of the operation. Probably it was his envy of those physically unlike himself that brought on a phase during which he drew massive athletes with thick necks and square shoulders. Again he was pitying himself for what he could never be.
16. Cyril dissected dead birds to
A. see if he would like to become a doctor
B. please his grandmother
C. satisfy his curiosity
D. overcome the fear of act
Ans-D
17. The reason Why Cyril made drawings of athletes was that
A. though he admired them, he lacked a fine physique himself
B. he loved violent exercises
C. athletics was a passion with him
D. he had to complete an assignment
Ans-A
18. Cyril did not want to climb trees because he
A. loved to play on the ground
B. was scared of falling down
C. disliked trees
D. thought it was childish
Ans-B
19. Until the end of first year, Cyril retained his interest in
A. bird's eggs
B. butterflies and fossils
C. dissecting bird's
D. drawing pictures of athletes
Ans-B
20. Cyril's early schooling was in some ways like home life because
A. he had all his old friends with him
B. the food and the climate were same as at home
C. he kept an doing what gave joy and recreation at home
D. his family visited him often
Ans-C
Section-C Technical
1. What is the difference between a NULL Pointer and a NULL Macro?
2. What is the difference between const char*p and char const* p?
3. What do you mean by pure virtual functions?
4. What is a conversion constructor?
5. What is the Java Virtual Machine (JVM)?
6. What modifiers are allowed for methods in an Interface?
7. What are the transaction properties?(SQL)
8. What is log shipping?(SQL)
9. If both data and database administration exist in an organization, the database administrator is responsible for which of the following?
A. Data modeling
B. Database design
C. Metadata
D. All of the above.
Ans-B
10. Backward recovery is which of the following?
A. Where the before-images are applied to the database
B. Where the after-images are applied to the database
C. Where the after-images and before-images are applied to the database
D. Switching to an existing copy of the database
Ans-A
Wirpo
1 Quantitative /analytical reasoning (20 questions)
2 Verbal ability (20 questions)
3 Technical section (10questions)
Section-A Quantitative /analytical reasoning
1. Rajeev obtained 76, 65, 82, 67 and 85 marks (out in 100) in English, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.What are his average marks?
A. 65
B. 69
C. 72
D. 75
Ans-D
2. A library has an average of 510 visitors on sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a sunday is
A. 250
B. 276
C. 280
D. 285
Ans-D
3. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs.529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and Band C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
A. Rs.315
B. Rs.345
C. Rs.355
D. Rs.375
Ans-B
4. P can complete a work in 12 days working 8 hours a day,Q can complete the same work in 8 days working 10 hours a day. If both P and Q work together, working 8 hours a day, in how many days can they complete the work?
A. 5x5/11
B. 5x6/11
C. 6x5/11
D. 6x6/11
Ans-A
5. Sound is said to travel in air at about 1100 feet per second. A man hears the axe striking the tree, 11/5 seconds after he sees it strike the tree. How far is the man from the wood chopper?
A. 2197 ft
B. 2420 ft
C. 2500 ft
D. 2629 ft
Ans-B
6. A person croses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?
A. 3.6
B. 7.2
C. 8.4
D. 10
Ans-B
7. A train 150 m long is running with a apecd of 68 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who is running at 8 kmph in the same direction in which the train is going?
A. 6sec.
B. 7sec.
C. 9sec.
D. 11sec.
Ans-C
8. Two trains 200 m and 150 m long are running on parallel rails at the rate of 40 kmph and 45 kmph respectively. In how much time will they cross each other, if they are running in the same direction ?
A. 72 sec
B. 132 sec
C. 192 sec
D. 252 sec
Ans-D
9. Today is Thursday. The day after 59 days wil be?
A. Sunday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday
Ans-A
10. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through
A. 145°
B. 150°
C. 155°
D. 160°
Ans-C
11. Daya has a brother Anil. Daya is the son of Chandra, Bimal is Chandra s father. In terms of relationship, what is Anil of Bimal?
A. Son
B. Grandson
C. Brothers
D. Grandfather
Ans-B
12. If A+ B means A is the mother of B; A/ B means A is the brother of B and A x B means A is the son of B and A- B means A is the daughter of B, which of the following means C is the niece of D?
A. C- P / D
B. D X P- C
C. D-C
D. P + D / c
Ans-A
13. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ?
A. Between B and D
B. Between B and C
C. Between E and D
D. Between C and E
Ans-B
14. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.
A. Rs. 1900
B. Rs. 2660
C. Rs. 2800
D. Rs. 2840
Ans-B
15. Aman started a business investing Rs. 70,000. Rakhi joined him after six months with an amount of Rs.. 1,05,000 and Sagar joined them with Rs. 1.4 lakhs after another six months. The amount of profit earned should be distributed in what ratio among Aman, Rakhi and Sagar respectively, 3 years after Aman started the business?
A. 7 : 6 : 10
B. 12 : 15 : 16
C. 42 : 45 : 56
D. Cannot be determined
Ans-B
16. In question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: All mangoes are golden in colour. No golden-coloured things are cheap.
Conclusions:
1. All mangoes are cheap.
2. Golden-coloured mangoes are not cheap.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Ans-B
17. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.
CMM, EOO, GQQ, _____, KUU
A. GRR
B. GSS
C. ISS
D. ITT
Ans-C
18. Read paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.
The future of women in India is quite bright and let us hope that they will justify their abilities by rising to the occasion. Napoleon was right when he declared that by educating the women we can educate the whole nation. Because a country can never rise without the contribution of 50% of their population.
The passage best supports the statement that:
A. India is striving hard for the emancipation of women.
B. all women should be well educated.
C. a nation can progress only when women are given equal rights and opportunities as men.
D. women ought to be imparted full freedom to prove their worth and contribute to the progress of the nation.
Ans-D
19. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads?
Ans- 7/8
20. If people is coded as PLPOEE, how is trend coded?
A. TNERD
B. DNERT
C. NDETR
D. TRDNE
Ans-A
Section-B Verbal Ability
1. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct?
Ramesh is as tall if not, taller than Mahesh.
A. not as tall but
B. not so tall but as
C. as tall as, if not
D. as if not
E. No correction required
Ans-C
2. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct?
One of my drawbacks is that I do not have to tolerance of ambiguity.
A. do not have
B. cannot have
C. am not
Ans-A
3. Pick up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it without altering the meaning of the sentence.
Catching snakes can be hazardous for people untrained in the art.
A. tricky
B. harmful
C. difficult
D. dangerous
Ans-D
4. Pick up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it without altering the meaning of the sentence.
The tablet alleviated the pain, and the patient was soon feeling much better.
A. mitigated
B. moderated
C. removed
D. lightened
Ans-A
5. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or phrase.
In a literary work obscurity cab be a virtue.
A. clarity
B. precision
C. definiteness
D. specificity
Ans-A
6. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or phrase.
The minister gave a public speech on the controversial subject to precipitate the matter.
A. aggravate
B. create
C. defer
D. push
Ans-C
7. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
I saw a ...... of cows in the field.
A. group
B. herd
C. swarm
D. flock
Ans-B
8. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
...... of old paintings is a job for experts.
A. Resurrection
B. Retrieval
C. Restoration
D. Resumption
Ans-C
9. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom,
To cry wolf
A. To listen eagerly
B. To give false alarm
C. To turn pale
D. To keep off starvation
E. None of these
Ans-B
10. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom,
To be above board
A. To have a good height
B. To be honest in any business deal
C. They have no debts
D. To try to be beautiful
E. None of these
Ans-B
11. Select the pair which has the same relationship.
HOPE:ASPIRES
A. love:elevates
B. film:flam
C. fib:lie
D. fake:ordinary
Ans-C
12. Select the pair which has the same relationship.
CORPOREAL:SPIRITUAL
A. mesa:plateau
B. moron:savant
C. foreigner:immigrant
D. pedagogue:teacher
Ans-B
13. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.
They have built a perfect dam across the river.
A. Across the river a perfect dam was built.
B. A perfect dam has been built by them across the river.
C. A perfect dam should have been built by them.
D. Across the river was a perfect dam.
Ans-B
14. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.
You need to clean your shoes properly.
A. Your shoes are needed to clean properly.
B. You are needed to clean your shoes properly.
C. Your shoes need to be cleaned properly.
D. Your shoes are needed by you to clean properly.
Ans-C
15. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
His father ordered him to go to his room and study.
A. His father said, "Go to your room and study."
B. His father said to him, "Go and study in your room."
C. His father shouted, "Go right now to your study room"
D. His father said firmly, "Go and study in your room."
Ans-A
16. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech
She said that her brother was getting married.
A. She said, "Her brother is getting married."
B. She told, "Her brother is getting married."
C. She said, "My brother is getting married."
D. She said, "My brother was getting married."
Ans-C
17. In question below a sentence broken into five or six parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.
1. at 2. it 3. Take 4. once 5. away
A. 23514
B. 14352
C. 32514
D. 53214
E. 42315
Ans-C
18. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
A. I could not put up in a hotel
B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant
D. No error.
Ans-A
19. Rearrange the following six sentences in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below.
1. Chandrakanth was shocked when he realised that the leg had lost sensation.
2. when he tried to get up, he felt his leg was very heavy.
3. He had to lie down hopelessly, till he saw a flash light
4. It was an odd night time and hence nobody heard his voice.
5. Due to sudden sprain chandrakanth fell down.
6. Nervous with this realisation, he called out for help.
Q1. Which of the following should be the first sentence ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Ans-E
Q2. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 4
E. 5
Ans-C
20. Find the correctly spelt word.
A. Velnerable
B. Vulnarable
C. Vulnerable
D. Valnerable
Ans-C
Section-C Technical
1. Which bitwise operator is suitable for turning off a particular bit in a number?
A. && operator
B. & operator
C. || operator
D. ! operator
Ans-B
2. Point out the error in the program
#include
int f(int a)
{
a > 20? return(10): return(20);
}
int main()
{
int f(int);
int b;
b = f(20);
printf("%d\n", b);
return 0;
}
A. Error: Prototype declaration
B. No error
C. Error: return statement cannot be used with conditional operators
D. None of above
Ans-C
3. Which two are valid constructors for Thread?
1. Thread(Runnable r, String name)
2. Thread()
3. Thread(int priority)
4. Thread(Runnable r, ThreadGroup g)
5. Thread(Runnable r, int priority)
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 and 5
Ans-C
4. Which command is used to copy all files having the string chap and any two characters after that to the progs directory?(UNIX)
A. cp chap?? progs
B. cp chap* progs
C. cp chap[12] /progs/*.*
D. cp chap?? /progs/*
E. None of the above
Ans-A
5. What command is used with vi editor to search a pattern in the forward direction?(LINUX)
A. ??
B. //
C. ?
D. /
E. None of the above
Ans-D
6. Which of the following is not a logical data-base structure?
A. tree
B. relational
C. network
D. chain
E. All of the above
Ans-D
7. The strictest transaction isolation level provided by SQL Server is called:
A. REPEATABLE READ.
B. SERIALIZABLE.
C. READ COMMITTED.
D. READ UNCOMMITTED
Ans-B
8. Identify the class name for the following code: ABC123 course();(ODL)
A. ABC123
B. course
C. course()
D. All of the above.
ANs-A
9. The ________ ensures that only one IC is active at a time to avoid a bus conflict caused by two ICs writing different data to the same bus.
A. control bus
B. control instructions
C. address decoder
D. CPU
Ans-C
10.The 8085A is a(n):
A. 16-bit parallel CPU
B. 8-bit serial CPU
C. 8-bit parallel CPU
D. none of the above
Ans-C
WIPRO
1)APTITUDE TEST:
Section1- English, 15 questions
Direction 1-5 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'
1.A group of friends / want to visit/ the new plant as early as possible / No error
A B C D
Ans: B
2. It is rude / for the young / making fun of their elders/ No error
A B C D
Ans : C
3. Meerabai was sent away from her home/ because she spend most of the time/ in the company of holy men/ No error
A B C D
Ans : B
4. Unless you stop to make noise at once,/ I will have no option but to / bring the matter to the attention of the police / No error
A B C D
Ans: A
5.The Minister along with his / party colleagues have / been invited to the party / No error
A B C D
Ans: B
Directions 6-10 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete
6. While the disease is in ______ state it is almost impossible to determine its existence by_____ .
a. a dormant ..postulate
b. a critical...examination
c. an acute ...analysis
d. a latent...observation
ANS: (d)
7. The storehouse was infested.........................rats.
A) by B) of C) with D) in
Ans: C
8. Please distribute these sweets........................the children
A) in B) between C) amid D) among
Ans: D
9. This custom seems to have originated .....................and East European country
A) in B) from C) by D) with
Ans: A
10. While facts are ________ and data hard to come by, even scientists occasionally throw side the professional pretense of
______ and tear into each other with shameless appeals to authority and arguments that shameless appeals to authority and
arguments that are unabashedly ad hominid.
a. elusive...objectivity
b. establish...courtesy
c. demonstrate .. neutrality
d. ineluctable...cooperation
Ans: A
Directions 11-15: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
11. Your friend died...............over work
A) of B) from C) due to D) with
Ans: A
12. It is not easy to beat..................a swarm of wasps if they attack you
A) out B) up C) down D) off
Ans: D
13. What a sensation it would cause if it........................now discovered that such a man had left behind a diary.
A) is B) be C) was were
Ans: D
14. Madan...............the first prize in this competition
A) bore up B) bore with C) bore out D) bore away
Ans: A
15. In large cities people are cut..................from nature.
A) down B) out C) off D) away
Ans: C
Section2-apptitude 15 questions
The questions 1-2 are based on the following data
6 people A,B,C,D,E and F sit around a table for dinner. Since A does not like C, he doesn't sit either opposite or beside C.B and F always like to sit opposite each other.
1. If A is beside F then who is are the two neighbours of B?
(a) D and C
(b) E and C
(c) D and E
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Ans. (c)
2. If D is adjacent to F then who is adjacent to C?
(a) E and B
(b) D and A
(c) D and B
(d) either (a) or (c)
Ans.(d)
The questions 3-8are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.
The correct answer is:
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
3. What is John's age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)
4. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)
5.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)
6. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)
7.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)
8. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)
9. Complete the sequence A, E ,I ,M ,Q ,U , _ , _
(a) B, F
(b) Y, C
(c) G, I
(d) K, O
Ans.(b)
10. If the letters of the word "rachit" are arranged in all possible ways and these words are written out as in a dictionary,
what is the rank of the word "rachit".
(a) 485
(b) 480
(c) 478
(d) 481
Ans. (d)
11. Ravi's salary was reduced by 25%.Percentage increase to be effected to bring the salary to the original level is
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 33 1/3%
(d) 30%
Ans. (c)
12. A and B can finish a piece of work in 20 days .B and C in 30 days and C and A in 40 days. In how many days
will A alone finish the job
(a) 48
(b) 34 2/7
(c) 44
(d) 45
Ans. (a)
13. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and
finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)
14. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
15. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)
Section3-technical ,20 questions
1.A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams
Ans. (d)
2. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable
Ans. (a)
4. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case
and a worst time algorithm in worst case is
(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort
Ans. (a)
5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
7. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
8. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixed band channels
Ans. (b)
10. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
11. What is the use of virtual base class in c++
Ans. Multiple lines between derived classes.
12. Assignment operator targets to _____
Ans. l-value
13. A byte addressable computer has memory capacity of 2 power m Kbytes and can perform 2 power n operations an
instruction involving three operands and one operator needs maximum of___________ bits
Ans. 3m + n
14. In round robin scheduling, if time quantum is too large then it degenerates to
Ans. FCFS
15. What data structures you should use for dictionary searching and it should be capable of doing spell check also ?
Ans: Hashing
16. What is the value of 121 base 4 + 84 base 16 ?
Ans : 2130
17. When the fn. is called where the return address is stored?
Ans. stack
18. C program code
int zap (int n)
{
if (n a|A, A --> S
(b) S --> a|A, A --> b
(c) S -->aA, A-->S
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
14. A sum 's' is divided into 4 parts. second person gets Rs 10 more than first.3rd person is Rs 10 more than second, 4th is 10 more than 3rd.how much amount do 1st person get.
Ans: (s-60)/4
15. One ship goes along the stream direction 28 km and in opposite direction 13 km in 5 hrs for each direction. What is the velocity of stream?
Ans: 1.5 kmph
TECHNICAL QUESTIONS
1. Predict the output or error(s) for the following:
main()
{
char string[]="Hello World";
display (string);
}
void display (char *string)
{
printf("%s",string);
}
Ans: Compiler Error
2. What are the values printed by the following program?
#define dprint(expr) printf(#expr "=%d\n",expr)
main()
{
int x=7;
int y=3;
dprintf(x/y);
}
a) #2 = 2
b) expr=2
c) x/y=2
d) none
Ans: c
2) Parameterization generally involves
a .Data table
b. Random number
c. Environment
d. Both A & B
e. Both A, B & C
Ans: e
3) The file which is used for recovering from the run time errors known as
A. QRS
B. TSR
C. PNG
D. DAT
Ans: A
4) Among the following recording modes, which method uses both the objects and mouse coordinates
a. Normal
b. Low level
c. Analog
d. All of the above
Ans: b
5) Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
a. Action Settings
b. Action Properties
c. Action Run Properties
d. Action Call Properties
Ans: d
6) Where do you mark an action as reusable?
a. Action Settings
b. Action Properties
c. Action Run Properties
d. Action Call Properties
Ans: b
7) After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, where can the results of an output parameter be found?
a. Local Data Sheet
b. Global Data Sheet
c. Run-time Data Table
d. Design-time Data Table
Ans: c
8) If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don’t want to use it what you must do?
a. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
b. Remove the Collection from your machine
c. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
d. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
Ans: c
9. For a 25MHz processor , what is the time taken by the instruction which needs 3 clock cycles,
(a)120 nano secs
(b)120 micro secs
(c)75 nano secs
(d)75 micro secs
Ans: a
10. For 1 MB memory, the number of address lines required,
( a)11
(b)16
(c)20
(d) 24
Ans. (c)
WIPRO
Verbal Section
For questions 1–3,
select among the given choices the word or phrase for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. Old and tired rule India that is _______ with young people.
A) flowing
B) teeming
C) pouring
D) bouncing
2. Of the 20 international companies, which had been ________ permission to undertaken reconnaissance operations, 15 companies had already started the work.
A) asserted
B) accorded
C) assigned
D) assured
3. India is making __________ investments in overseas oil even as it is trying its to best to sell off its own deep-water
blocks to private parties.
A) massive
B) high
C) solid
D) excess
For questions 4–6,
select among the given choices the correct phrase to replace the underlined phrase in the following sentence.
4. She is good to the neighbours. But they put about her goodness to weakness.
A) put on
B) put in
C) put up
D) put down
5. Customers must avail of this opportunity.
A) must avail themselves of this opportunity
B) should avail themselves of this opportunity
C) should avail of this opportunity
D) must make availability of this opportunity
6. The principal reminded the audience that the school always has and always will try to secure some ranks in the board examination.
A) has always and will always try to secure
B) always has tried and always will try to secure
C) always has tried and always will try to secure
D) has always tried to secure and will always
For questions 7–9,
choose the lettered pair that expresses a relationship most similar to the relationship expressed in the capitalized pair.
7. PRUDISH : PROPRIETY ::
A) fanatical : violence
B) authoritative : evidence
C) finicky : quality
D) obstinate : accuracy
8. FEAR : COWER ::
A) calmness : fret
B) anger : rant
C) disappointment : co mole
D) embarrassment : speak
9. FOIBLE : FAULT ::
A) perjury : testimony
B) reputation : disrepute
C) vagary : notion
D) quibble : objection
For questions 10 & 11,
select the option that gives the correct meaning of the given idiomatic expression or phrase.
10. To meet one’s waterloo.
A) To die fighting
B) To die an ignoble death
C) To meet one’s final defeat
D) To meet a strong adversary
11. To flog a dead horse.
A) To do a vain thing
B) To try to work from a weak horse
C) To act in a foolish way
D) To revive interest in a subject which is out of date
For questions 12–14,
Given below are sentences which when arranged logically form a coherent passage. choose the option which gives the correct sequence.
12. Choose the correct option.
a. It attracts tourists from all over the world.
b. India has a rich cultural heritage, which has no parallel in the world.
c. The best example of the Indian-architecture is the Taj at Agra.
d. They are charmed by the beauty of this poem in marble.
A) bcad
B) badc
C) abcd
D) adbc
13. Choose the correct option.
S1. Speech was the first means of conveying information.
P. Thirdly printing helped in dissemination of knowledge in a permanent form.
Q. Then writing as a means introduced a capacity for storing information.
R. Computer is the only medium that can not only store but analyse information to make decision.
S. However all these are passive media.
S6. Therefore, computer is hailed as the fourth information revolution.
A) PQSR
B) QPRS
C) QPSR
D) QRPS
14. S1. He tried the door.
P. The room was neat and clean.
Q. Then he stepped into the room.
R. He waited for a minute or two.
S. It opened easily and he peeped in.
S6 He was careful not to touch anything.
A) PQRS
B) QSPR
C) RPQS
D) SPRQ
For questions 15–17,
select the option that can be substituted for the given sentence.
15. A person who lives alone and avoids other people.
A) Ascetic
B) Recluse
C) Unsocial
D) Agnostic
16. A person interested in reading books and nothing else
A) Student
B) Scholar
C) Book Worm
D) Book Keeper
Read the following passage and select the best answer to questions 17 - 20 among the given choices.
Music has the power to cause emotions to well up within us. These feelings are gripping - often irresistible - and seem to emerge from nowhere. These feelings colour our moods, affect our perceptions and generate a behavioural pattern. The indisputable fact about music is its power to evoke emotions. Is there anyone, for whom music is completely emotion-neutral? Music has the ability to inevitably tap the still, mysterious deep well of our emotions. However, music can produce various emotional responses in different individuals and even different responses in the same person at different times. Music may produce expressions of various emotions - peaceful, relaxing, exciting, festive, boring, unsettling, un-stimulating, invigorating…, and so on.
Music is an extremely versatile medium of communication. Through music it is possible to explore all the features that are used in verbal communication. Moreover, it does so in an explicit and structured way, which makes it an interesting and useful window into human communication, in general. The repetition of a line as in a lullaby, the regular beating of a drum - produces a feeling of physical ease and lulls the child to sleep. The rhythmic sound of the train, of waves breaking on the shore, the song of a cricket at night - why, even the electric fan is able to produce a soothing physical quiet. But good music does not stop there. It touches our emotions. True music really goes far deeper and touches our very soul and leaves its imprint on us. It may not be possible to explain or describe this reaction in ordinary language. It can only be felt. It is one of those mystic experiences, which baffle analytical explanation.
Music is known to endow the listener with aesthetic or intellectual pleasure. It can be simple, complex, subtle, overt - and these features may reside, in one of the different aspects of the music e.g. rhythm, melody. Some of the greatness of music, however, lies in its holistic nature-that all the elements form a unique wholeness which may not be understood by studying the parts, separately. However complex, music is readily appreciated by the mind without the need for formal knowledge. The lay listener may not be able to hear which instruments are playing, or which pitches are used. Yet, he or she may have no problem appreciating the music as a whole. An experienced listener, on the other hand, may be able to transcribe every note, but might still be at a loss to understand why the music is so pleasing to listen to even for the time! As a performer, I believe that music can recreate emotions and get the listeners involved with my emotions. Any particular music has an inherent emotion. And, there is the emotion that one feels while rendering it. Besides, the listener is in an emotional state while listening to that music - which is also important because it could be possible that this will now be linked to the emotional state of the listener. So he or she can use the song to recreate this emotion. Very often we hear people say "This is my song" and feel that special emotion again.
Rhythm and melody are two facets of music that lend themselves to enjoyment in their individual capacities. The experience of beat and rhythm has a simple relation with joy, well-being and even excitement. Babies spontaneously start to rock and move when they hear music with a pronounced beat in a medium or fast tempo. By changing the rhythm, we can change the aesthetic appeal of a piece of music. Even a change of tempo can cause variations in the aesthetic appeal. Similarly, melody, which is the soul of music, can create different types of feelings in listeners. Some melodies bring soulfulness, some sadness, some bring jubilance or tranquility.
Music is created from the heart and molded by emotion. As musicians, we are inherently creative - so people say - and we have the ability to derive intense pleasure from a particular piece of music, which we listen to or Produce. Here, I am referring to an aesthetic experience, which everybody must have felt. Tears of Joy, a tug at the heart, goose pimples … True art always comes as an irresistible inner urge. We hear a song of Thyagaraja and are enthralled just as we gaze at a majestic temple or an ancient sculpture with wonder. All such works of art are the result of an inner urge. That is why it is something inherently beautiful. And there can be no enjoyment more impersonal and sublimating than what it offers. It prepares the very soul for something higher.
17. According to the passage, music is a medium of communication as
A) We can explore all the features used in verbal communication through music
B) Certain melodies cause certain reactions
C) It is created from an inner urge
D) It can appease the mentally imbalanced people
18. What, according to the author, is the fact of music that cannot be disputed?
A) It causes national barriers
B) It creates a feeling of amiability
C) People react in the same manner to music without regard to age
D) It has the power to evoke emotions
19. Which of the following could be an apt title for the above passage?
A) The spontaneous reaction to music
B) The power of soothing.
C) The inherent creativity in music
D) The power of music
20. What is the mystic experience that the author refers to?
A) Children rocking spontaneously to the sound of music
B) Music bringing about physical repose as well as affecting the soul
C) The experience of Tyagaraja in the temple
D) The festive mood caused by the rhythmic beating of drums
Aptitude Questions:
The questions 1-6 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.
The correct answer is:
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
1. What is John's age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)
2. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)
3.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)
4. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)
5.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)
6. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)
7. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)
8. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
9. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)
10. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word "MANGO" would be
(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347
Ans. (d)
11. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS ,then "PLAYER" should be
(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI
Ans. (a)
12. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels 6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west
Ans. (c)
13. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14
Ans.(b)
14. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can they type in 30 minutes?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75
Ans: E
15. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how many times they toll together.
a) 4
b) 10
c) 15
d) 16
Ans: (d)
The questions 16-20 are based on the following data
The only people to attend a conference were four ship captains and the first mates of three of those captains. The captians were L, M, N and O; the first mates were A, D and G. Each person in turn delivered a report to the assembly as follows:
Each of the first mates delivered their report exactly after his or her captain. The first captain to speak was M, and captain N spoke after him.
16. Among the following which is not an appropriate order of delivered reports?
(A)M, A, N, G, O, L, D
(B)M, D, N, G, L, O, A
(C)M, N, A, L, D, O, G
(D)M, N, A, O, D, L, G
(E)M, N, G, D, O, L, A
Ans : E
17. In case L speaks after A, and A is the third of the first mates to speak, then among the following statements which would be untrue? O spoke immediately after G. The order of the first four speakers was M, G, N, D. O's first mate was present. A was the fourth speaker after M. The captains spoke in the order M, N, O, L.
Ans : D
18. Among the following statements which statement must be true?
In case the second speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
In case the second speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
In case the third speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
In case the third speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
In case the seventh speaker was a first mate, the first and third speakers were captains.
Ans : A
19. In case A spoke immediately after L and immediately before O, and O was not the last speaker, L spoke
(A)second
(B)third
(C)fourth
(D)fifth
(E)sixth
Ans : C
20. In case G is M's first mate, D could be the person who spoke immediately
(A) Aprior to T
(B)prior to L
(C)prior to V
(D)after T
(E)after V
Ans : D
Technical Questions:
1. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
2. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Unlinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[ ] variable
Ans. (a)
4. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case and a worst time algorithm in worst case is
(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort
Ans. (a)
5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
7. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
8. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixed band channels
Ans. (b)
10. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams
Ans. (d)
11. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?
(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data
Ans. (a)
12. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?
(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Fiber optic cable
(c) Microwave circuits
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM
Ans. (a)
14. A shift register can be used for
(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
15. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady's anomaly occurs?
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU
Ans. (a)
16. Subschema can be used to
(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema's description
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
17. A 12 address lines maps to the memory of
a. 1k bytes
b. 0.5k bytes
c. 2k bytes
d. none
Ans: b
18. In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to implement this instructions
[a] 6
[b] 7
[c] 10
[d] none
Ans: b
19. In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed.
[a] 2k/9
[b] (2k+8/9
[c] (k+8/9
[d] 2*(k+8/9
[e] none
Ans: a
20. Virtual memory size depends on
[a] address lines
[b] data bus
[c] disc space
[d] a & c [e] none
Ans : a
Quantitative
1.If there are 20 socks in a box,10 red and 10 blue.in a dark room,how many socks one will have to take out to ensure that he takes out exactly 2 blue socks. (this quest. was prev. asked by wipro...as i had seen it on freshersworld).
ans->12.
2.If a watch shows tym 3:15,then what tym will appear in the mirror?
ans->8:45
3.The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 3:2 and area=216,what is perimeter?
ans->60
4.there was 1 more quest. on area....i don't remember exactly.
5.A person has to travel 48 kms in 5 hrs at a fixed speed. But he covers first 24 kms at a speed 20%less than the fixed speed and the rest 24 kms at 2 kms. more than the fixed speed. what is his fixed speed?
(i don't remember ans. but once u get eqn. try to satisfy given options instead of solvimg eqn.)
6.1 more quest. on tym and distance->a person starts 10 min later than his usual tym.....etc (easy).
7.one quest to find the present age.
8.Water level is rising at a rate of x inch/hour (given data ).Each step of ladder of a ship is 1/2 inch thick and the distance b/n two steps is 8 inch. Three steps are already below water. How many steps will go below water level after 6hr 30min.
9.tym and work (simplest)->If A and B together can do 1/48 work in 1 day.........bla...(useless data)...bla.....
In how may days can they finish the work?
ans->48
10.there was one more quest on tym and work...i don't remember.
11.one or two problems on profit and loss.
12. Two containers of equal volume are filled 1/3rd and 1/4th of there volume by milk and water respectively. If both containers are poured into another container of double the volume of previous one and then container is filled completely with water. What is the ratio of milk and water in the new container. (something like this...i don't remember exactly)...
13. (A,B,C,D,E assumed...there name was given...)
C is son of B but B is not the father of C.Also A is married to B.D is brother to A and E is brother to C.
How many male members are there in the family. ( something like this...i don't remember exactly)...
ans-> 4.
-----------
TECHNICAL (quests are not in exact order...)
1.what will be the output
main()
{
int i=0;
switch(i)
{
case 1:printf("..1");
case 0:i++;
case 2:printf("1...");
}
a.)..11... b.)1.....1 c.) ..1 d.)none of these
ans->a.)..11... (all cases will be checked as there is no 'break')
2.Which is not valid on LHS while declaration of an array a...(something like this...i don't remember exactly)
i)&a[i]
ii)a
iii)...
iv)...
a.) i b.) i,ii and iii c.) i and iv d) i,iii and iv
(basic idea is that address can't be initialized or manipulated)
3.What will be the postfix of a+b*c+(d*e+f/g) ? (expression was different)
4.Which of the following has ovrhead of path establishment..... but provides single path for sending message....(something like this...)
a.)circuit switching b.)packet switching c.)message switching d.)none of these
ans-> a
5.One long question on socket...some statements were given an we ahd to find which were true...
6.Which of the following is a correct identifier?
a.) 1name b.) date of birth c.) age year d.) .....
ans-> b
7.)which of the following represents mane with one or more alpahabet and ending with .txt and..........(something)....
a.) *.txt... b.) [a-zA-Z]*.txt/.... c.) [a-zA-Z]?.txt/...... d.).........
(its good to do technical and analytic part first and then switch to verbal as they are more difficult than these parts.)
--------------------------------
technical interview
Q->Ur favourite subject-i said data structure.
Q->So Pancuz ,tell me about yourself.
Q->write a function add that accepts value (passed by reference) adds them and returns sum as reference.
int* add(int *a,int *b)
{
int *sum;
sum=*a+*b;
return ∑
}
void main()
{
int x=5,y=7;
int *sum=add(&x,&y);
printf("%d",*sum);
}
Q->declaration of structure,structure variable,how to access structure member.
Q->inheritance(defn.),importance,private and protected members...etc
Q->link-list,how to create nodes,how to insert,what is 'new' for...(see malloc,calloc.....etc)
Q->binary-search...explain completely,also pseudocode.
Q->fork().....
Q->CPU scheduling,different techniques,what is round-robin technique...explain...
Q->what is -> int *a[15]
Q->What is paging,page table concept and advantages.
Q->She asked ur project is academic or u did for pesonal interest..i said personal interest...
But she didn't ask anything regarding my project...
(fortunately, all questions asked to me were easy)
1) Written round.
2) Essay writing (Non - elimination round)
3) Technical Interview.
4) HR Interview.
1) Written round :-
Technical Question - 10 (C,C++,Data Structure, basic of computer)
Aptitude Question - 20 (Time&distance, Average, Pipes, Profit & loss, Puzzles)
Verbal Question - 20 (Follow the India Bix Test)
2) Essay writing (Non - elimination round):-
1. The house with all its / furniture and exotic plants / were sold for Rs. 50,000 / No error
Ans : C
2. The teacher asked the students / if everyone of them were interested in / going on an excursion / No error
Ans : B
3. a physiologist in the last century demonstrated / that puppies will die / if kept awake for more than five days / No error
Ans : B
4. It is unfortunate that / many youngsters get / addicted to gamble / No error
Ans : C
5. I have seen / that film last year / but I do not remember its story / No error
Ans: A
Directions 6-10 : The following questions, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
6. Plants : Coal
A) Crops : Manure B) Animals : Oil C) Cow : Milk D) Fire : Smoke
Ans : B
7. Rectangle : Cylinder
A) Square : Sphere B) Circle : Dosc C) Triangle : Cone D) Wall : Room
Ans : C
8. Expend : Replenish
A) Exhort : Encourage B) Formant : Rebellion C) Defect : Rejoin D) Encroachment : Occupy
Ans : C
9. Graphite : Lubricant
A) Movement : Friction B) Iron : Steel C) Wool : Cloth D) Diamond : Abrasive
Ans: D
10. Cube : Cuboid
A) Oval : Sphere B) Square : Cube C) Sphere : Ellipsoid D) Triangle : Cone
Ans: C
Directions 11-12 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) Voice.
11. They are building a house next door to our school
A) Next door to our school a house is being built by them
B) Next door to our school is being built a house by them
C) a house next door to our school is being built by them
D) a house is being built by them next door to our school
Ans : D
12. Have the box broken.
A) Have the broken box
B) Break the box
C) Get someone to break the box
D) They have broken the box
Ans: C
Directions 13-15 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete
13. A man who connives ........................the faults of his children is their worst enemy
A) with B) at C) of D) in
Ans: B
14. Some people revel...............gossip.
A) at B) with C) by D) in
Ans: D
15. The officer warned me.....................the office until five O'clock.
A) don't leave B) to leave C) to not leave D) not to leave
Ans: D
Section2- Aptitude 15 questions
The questions 1-5 are based on the following data
The only people to attend a conference were four ship captains and the first mates of three of those captains. The captains were L, M, N and O; the first mates were A, D and G. Each person in turn delivered a report to the assembly as follows:
Each of the first mates delivered their report exactly after his or her captain. The first captain to speak was M, and captain N spoke after him.
1. Among the following which is not an appropriate order of delivered reports?
1. M, A, N, G, O, L, D
2. M, D, N, G, L, O, A
3. M, N, A, L, D, O, G
4. M, N, A, O, D, L, G
5. M, N, G, D, O, L, A
Ans : E
2. In case L speaks after A, and A is the third of the first mates to speak, then among the following statements which would be untrue?
1. O spoke immediately after G.
2. The order of the first four speakers was M, G, N, D.
3. O's first mate was present.
4. A was the fourth speaker after M.
5. The captains spoke in the order M, N, O, L.
Ans : D
3. Among the following statements which statement must be true?
1. In case the second speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
2. In case the second speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
3. In case the third speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
4. In case the third speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
5. In case the seventh speaker was a first mate, the first and third speakers were captains.
Ans : A
4. In case A spoke immediately after L and immediately before O, and O was not the last speaker, L spoke
1. second
2. third
3. fourth
4. fifth
5. sixth
Ans : C
5. In case G is M's first mate, D could be the person who spoke immediately
1. prior to T
2. prior to L
3. prior to V
4. after T
5. after V
Ans : D
6.Two series are 16,21,26.... and 17,21,25.....What is the sum of first hundred common numbers
(a) 101100
(b) 110100
(c) 101110
(d) 110101
Ans. (a)
7. There are two sections in a question paper each contain five questions. A students has to answer 6 questions.
Maximum no. of questions that can be answered from any section is 4. How many ways he can attempt the paper?
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 200
Ans. (d)
8. a and b are two numbers selected randomly from 1,2,3.... 25 what is the probability of a and b are not equal.
(a) 1/25
(b) 24/25
(c) 13/25
(d) 2/25
Ans. (b)
9. The sum of the series 1 + 1(1+1/n) + 3(1+1/n)2 + ..... is equal to?
Ans. n2
Q15. Two circles of different radii intersects each other what is the maximum no of intersections
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans. (c)
10. How long will a train 100m long traveling at 72kmph take to overtake another train 200m long traveling at 54kmph
(a) 70sec
(b) 1min
(c) 1 min 15 sec
(d) 55 sec
Ans. (b)
11. What is the product of the irrational roots of the equation (2x-1)(2x-3)(2x-5)(2x-7)=9?
(a) 3/2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 3/4
Ans. (a)
12. Worker W produces n units in 5 hours. Workers V and W, workers independently but at the same time, produce n units in
2 hours. how long would it take V alone to produce n units?
a) 1 hr 26 min
b) 1 hr 53 min
c) 2 hr 30 min
d) 3 hr 30 min
e) 3 hr 20 min
Ans: e
13. 49.The sum of 7 consecutive odd numbers in terms with 27 as fourth number
Ans:189
14. It takes 30 days to fill a laboratory dish with bacteria. If the size of the bacteria doubles each day, how long did it take for the
bacteria to fill one half of dish?
Ans) D
15. If the area of a square increases by 69%, then the side of the square increased by
Ans: (B) 30%
Section3- Technical, 20 questions :-
Predict the output or error(s) for the following:
1. main() { static int var = 5; printf("%d ",var--); if(var) main(); }
Ans: 5 4 3 2 1
2. main() { int c[ ]={2.8,3.4,4,6.7,5}; int j,*p=c,*q=c; for(j=0;j ................
................
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