MASSACHUSETTS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
MASSACHUSETTS INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
6.436J/15.085J
Fall 2008
10/31/2007
Recitation 11
1
On taking limits of random variables
Consider the following problem. Suppose
P (B|A) ¡È
1
1
and P (C|B) ¡È .
2
2
Is it necessarily true that
1
P (C|A) ¡È ?
4
Solution: No; let X be a uniform random variable in the interval [0, 4]. Let
A = {X ¡Ü [0, 2]}, B = {X ¡Ü [1, 3]}, C ? {X ¡Ü [2, 4]}. Then, P (B|A) =
P (C|B) = 1/2, but P (C|A) = 0.
In fact, we can strengthen this example. Indeed, suppose X is uniform over
[0, K], and A = {X ¡Ü [0, 1]}, B = {X ¡Ü [0, K]}, C = {X ¡Ü [1, K]}. Then
P (B|A) = 1, P (C|A) = 0, and P (C|B) = (K ? 1)/K. If we pick K large,
P (C|B) approaches 1. So it is quite possible that
P (B|A) = 1, P (C|B) = 1 ? ?, P (C|A) = 0,
regardless of how small ? > 0 is.
It is somewhat surprising therefore that it is not possible to have
P (B|A) = 1, P (C|B) = 1, P (C|A) = 0.
Indeed, let us write A ? B if A ? B c has measure 0. Observe that P (B|A) = 1
is equivalent to1
A ? B.
So the conditions P (B|A) = 1 and P (C|B) = 1 can be rewritten as
A ? B, B ? C,
1
Provided P (A) > 0, which we implicitly assume.
1
which necessarily implies A ? C. Indeed,
P (A ? C c ) = P (A ? B ? C c ) + P (A ? B c ? C c ) = 0 + 0,
the ?rst term being a subset of the measure-0 set B ? C c , and the second set
being a subset of the measure-0 set A ? B c . So A ? C and thus P (C|A) = 1.
What is the source of this discontinuity? What happens if we simply let
K ? ¡ú in our counterexample? Unfortunately, X was de?ned to be uniform
over [1, K], and when we let K ? ¡ú, we do not get a random variable.
2
Convergence of densities vs convergence of distributions
Suppose fn is the density of the random variable X n , and
fn ? f,
pointwise. It does not follow that f is the density of a random variable. As we
had just argued in the previous section,
1
1
? 0,
n [0,n]
and of course the zero function is not a valid density. Another example is 1 [n,n+1]
which also converges to the zero function.
But suppose fn ? f everywhere, and moreover fn , f are all valid densities.
What is the relationship of this convergence to the convergence of the distribu?
tions Fn and F ?
We will prove the following two statements.
Claim 1: It is possible that Fn ? F everywhere, that Fn has density fn , F has
density f , and yet nowhere does fn converge to f .
Claim 2: If fn ? f , and f, fn are valid distributions, then Fn ? F everywhere.
Proof of Claim 1: Break up the the interval [0, 1] into 2 i intervals
[0, 1] = [0,
1
1 2
2i ? 1
]
?
[
,
]
?
¡¤
¡¤
¡¤
?
[
, 1],
2i
2i 2i
2i
and let fi be 2 on the ?rst, third, ... of these intervals and 0 on the second, fourth,
... of them.
2
If F is the cdf of the U [0, 1] distributions, then its not hard to see that F n ?
F . Indeed,
1
max |Fn (x) ? F (x)| = i .
x?R
2
On the other hand, f = 1[0,1] , so fn does not approach f anywhere.
Proof of Claim 2: De?ne gi = fi ? f , and let gi = gi+ ? gi? be the standard
decomposition of gi into positive and negative parts. Since f i converges to f
almost everywhere, we have that gi+ and gi? both converge to 0 almost every?
where.
Since fi is a PDF, it is nonnegative almost everywhere; and therefore, g i ¡È
?f almost everywhere, which in turn implies g i? ¡É f almost everywhere. So
gi? is upper bounded by an integrable function. Thus we can interchange limit
and integration when it comes to gi? , and in particular
? +?
? +?
?
lim
gi =
lim gi? = 0.
i
But since
? +?
??
fi = 1 =
??
? +?
and therefore
lim
i
f , it follows that
??
?
?
i
??
+?
gi+
=
??
+?
?
+?
gi? ,
??
gi+
??
= lim
i
?
+?
gi? = 0.
??
Now passing from integrals involving g i+ and gi? to integrals involving g:
? +?
? +?
? +?
lim
|gi | = lim[
gi+ +
gi? ] = 0.
i
??
i
??
??
Now we use the last equation to prove convergence in distribution:
? x
|F (x) ? Fn (x)| ¡É
|f (u) ? fn (u)|du
??
? +?
¡É
|f (u) ? fn (u)|du
??
? +?
=
|gn (u)|du
??
and we have just shown that the last expression approaches 0.
3
MIT OpenCourseWare
6.436J / 15.085J Fundamentals of Probability
Fall 2008
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