Anatomy & Physiology Fall Final Exam Review



Anatomy & Physiology Fall Final Exam Review

1. Which term refers to the study of how an organ functions? 

A. Anatomy B. Physiology

2. A group of similar cells performing a specialized function is referred to as a(n) 

A. tissue. B. organ.

C. molecule. D. system.

3. Cells are to tissues as tissues are to 

A. systems. B. molecules.

C. organs. D. organelles.

4. Which of the following is NOT considered anatomical position? 

A. Standing erect B. Palms facing backward

C. Face forward D. Toes pointing forward

5. Which of the following pairs are opposing terms? 

A. Superior/posterior B. Superior/inferior

C. Anterior/inferior D. Superior/anterior

6. Which term refers to the back? 

A. Inferior B. Lateral

C. Posterior D. Peripheral

7. The heart is _____ to the lungs. 

A. dorsal B. superior

C. lateral D. medial

 8. Which of the following is INCORRECT in describing the nose? 

A. It is superior to the mouth

B. It is medial to the eyes

C. It is on the dorsal aspect of the face

D. It is inferior to the forehead

 

9. Appendicular refers to the 

A. skull. B. thorax.

C. legs and arms. D. skull and thorax.

 

10. Which type of section divides the body into anterior and posterior portions? 

A. Median B. Transverse

C. Sagittal D. Frontal or coronal

11. Visceral refers to 

A. organs. B. tissues.

C. cells. D. atoms.

12. Which two cavities does the diaphragm separate? 

A. Abdominal and pelvic B. Dorsal and ventral

C. Thoracic and abdominal D. Cranial and spinal

13. The liver would be found in which cavity? 

A. Dorsal cavity B. Abdominal cavity

C. Pericardial cavity D. Pleural cavity

14. The urinary bladder is found in which abdominopelvic region? 

A. Hypogastric B. Left lumbar

C. Right iliac D. Umbilical

15. Skin is part of 

A. integration and coordination.

B. the integumentary system.

C. transportation.

D. support and movement.

16. Transportation within the body is mainly part of 

A. the nervous system. B. the skin.

C. the skeleton. D. the cardiovascular system.

17. Homeostasis refers to 

A. changing external conditions.

B. stable external conditions.

C. changing internal conditions.

D. stable internal conditions.

18. Which of the following occurs as a result of positive feedback and assists in the maintenance of homeostasis? 

A. Body temperature regulation

B. Blood pH regulation

C. Blood clot formation

D. Blood cell production

 19. Sally is rushed to the hospital with acute appendicitis. Which serous membrane is in danger of infection? 

A. Peritoneum B. Pleura

C. Meninges D. Pericardium

. 

 20. Different forms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons are called 

A. molecules. B. compounds.

C. isotopes. D. lattices.

21. An ion is an atom or molecule that 

A. is in a gaseous state.

B. carries an electrical charge.

C. is attracted to a north-seeking pole.

D. forms a visible glow.

 

22. A bond created from the sharing of electrons between two atoms is a(an) ______ bond. 

A. covalent B. hydrogen

C. ionic D. polymer

 

23. When one atom has a stronger attraction for shared electrons in a bond than the other atom, a(an) ___________ covalent bond is formed. 

A. polar B. nonpolar

C. ionic D. metallic

 

24. Substances that are water-loving are called 

A. hydrophilic. B. hydrophobic.

C. hydrophoric. D. hydrochromic.

 

25. A pH of 5.5 would be considered 

A. acidic. B. basic. C. neutral.

 

26. Organic compounds always contain ___________ atoms. 

A. water B. carbon

C. nitrogen D. oxygen

 

27. Glycogen is 

A. a monosaccharide used for quick energy.

B. a protein found in cell membranes.

C. a polysaccharide used as stored energy.

D. a fat found in margarine.

 

28. Which of the following contains glucose? 

A. Protein B. Fat

C. Nucleic acid D. Starch

 

29. Organic compounds that are always insoluble in water are called 

A. sugars. B. lipids.

C. nucleotides. D. proteins.

30. Triglycerides are composed of glycerol and three fatty acids. When the fatty acids contain one or more double bonds, the fat is considered 

A. saturated. B. unsaturated.

C. emulsified. D. synthesized.

 

31. The subunit molecules for proteins are 

A. atoms. B. amino acids.

C. enzymes. D. polymers.

 

32. Which of the following is a nucleic acid? 

A. DNA

B. RNA

C. Both DNA and RNA

D. None of these choices are correct.

 

33. Which of the following is NOT a component of a nucleotide? 

A. Pentose sugar B. Phosphate group

C. Glucose D. Nitrogen-containing base  

34. Which of the following molecules is the primary energy carrier in cells? 

A. DNA B. ATP

C. RNA D. GNA

 

35. The movement of protein molecules within the phospholipids bilayer is described by the 

A. fluid mosaic model.

B. lipid mosaic model.

C. protein – lipid mosaic model.

D. cholesterol mosaic model.

 

36. Which of the following organelles functions in protein synthesis? 

A. Ribosomes B. Golgi apparatus

C. Smooth ER D. All of these choices are correct.

 

37. Mitochondria 

A. produce protein. B. store food.

C. produce ATP. D. digest food.

 

38. __________ are small hair-like extensions that produce movement across the surface of cells. 

A. Cilia B. Flagella

C. Microvilli D. Basal bodies

 

39. The plasma membrane is 

A. impermeable.

B. permeable to everything.

C. selectively permeable.

 

40. The random movement of simple substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called 

A. osmosis. B. filtration.

C. diffusion. D. pumping.

 

41. The movement of H2O across a plasma membrane 

A. is called osmosis.

B. is called diffusion.

C. requires energy.

D. is called osmosis and requires energy.

 

42. When a cell is placed into a(an) __________ solution, water enters the cell. 

A. isotonic B. hypotonic C. hypertonic

 

43. Which process does not require a concentration gradient? 

A. Active transport B. Diffusion

C. Facilitated diffusion D. Osmosis

 

44. The formation of a pocket of the plasma membrane to bring in solid materials is called 

A. exocytosis. B. pinocytosis.

C. phagocytosis. D. facilitated diffusion.

 

45. The division of the nucleus is 

A. cytokinesis. B. mitosis.

C. interphase. D. telophase.

 

46. The division of the cytoplasm and organelles is 

A. cytokinesis. B. mitosis.

C. interphase. D. telophase.

 

47. The portion of the cell cycle when a cell is not dividing and doing what it is designed to do is called 

A. interphase. B. mitosis.

C. apoptosis. D. exterophase.

 

48. Which type of tissue covers surfaces and lines cavities? 

A. connective B. epithelium

C. muscle D. connective and muscle

 

49. Which type of tissue binds and supports body parts? 

A. epithelium B. nervous

C. connective D. muscular

 50. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue? 

A. It readily divides to produce new cells.

B. It has a basement membrane to connect to underlying tissue.

C. It has many blood vessels to support its nutrient needs.

D. It always has a free surface.

 

51. Which of the following is NOT a shape of epithelial tissue? 

A. rectangular B. squamous

C. columnar D. cuboidal

 

52. What type of epithelium is found where simple diffusion occurs? 

A. simple columnar B. pseudostratified columnar

C. stratified squamous D. simple squamous

 

53. What type of epithelium is often found in glands and kidney tubules? 

A. simple cuboidal B. simple squamous

C. stratified squamous D. pseudostratified columnar

 

54. What type of tissue lines the small intestine? 

A. squamous epithelium

B. loose connective

C. simple columnar epithelium

D. simple cuboidal epithelium

 

55. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial tissue is found in (on) the 

A. skin. B. trachea.

C. blood vessels. D. digestive tract.

 

56. Specialized columnar cells that secrete mucus onto the surfaces of the tissue are called 

A. adipose cells. B. surface cells.

C. goblet cells. D. endocrine cells.

 

57. What type of epithelium is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch and slide to create a barrier? 

A. simple columnar B. stratified squamous

C. stratified cuboidal D. transitional

 

58. Which type of fiber found in connective tissue provides flexible strength? 

A. reticular B. collagen

C. keratine D. elastic

 

59. Which of the following is/are connective tissue(s)? 

A. bone B. cartilage

C. blood D. All of the choices are correct.

 

60. Which of the following is a type of loose connective tissue? 

A. tendons B. cartilage

C. adipose tissue D. ligaments

 

61. What is the cell found in fibrous connective tissue? 

A. osteocytes B. chondrocytes

C. erythrocytes D. fibroblasts

 

62. Which of the following connects muscles to bones? 

A. tendons B. cartilage

C. adipose tissue D. ligaments

 

63. Which tissue has lacunae? 

A. bone B. cartilage

C. tendons D. bone and cartilage

 

64. Which of the following is the most common type of cartilage? 

A. hyaline B. elastic C. fibrocartilage

 

65. What type of tissue is made of concentric rings called an osteon or Haversian system? 

A. compact bone B. hyaline cartilage

C. adipose tissue D. spongy bone

 

66. The skin consists of ____ regions. 

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

67. In which layer of the epidermis are cells constantly dividing? 

A. stratum corneum B. stratum lucidum

C. stratum dermis D. stratum basale

68. Which layer of the epidermis protects from abrasion and is found only in thick skin? 

A. stratum basale B. hypodermis

C. stratum corneum D. stratum lucidum

69. Which layer of the epidermis is closest to the surface? 

A. stratum lucidum B. stratum corneum

C. dermis D. stratum basale

 

70. Keratin is 

A. a pigment.

B. a waterproof protein.

C. located in the hypodermis.

D. described by all of these characteristics.

 

71. Melanin 

A. is a pigment.

B. protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation.

C. is located in the epidermis.

D. is described by all of these characteristics.

72 Which layer contains blood vessels AND nerve fibers? 

A. epidermis B. dermis C. epidermis and dermis

73. Hair is produced by epithelial cells located in the 

A. epidermis. B. dermis.

C. hypodermis. D. dermis and hypodermis.

 74. What type of gland is associated with hair follicles? 

A. sebaceous glands B. apocrine sweat glands

C. eccrine sweat glands D. ceruminous glands

 

75. What percentage of a person's skin would be involved if they had burned their left arm, front of the trunk, and the front of their left leg? 

A. 45% B. 40.5%

C. 36% D. 31.5%

 

76. Athlete's foot is 

A. a bacterial infection.

B. caused by over keratinization.

C. caused by sensitivity to chemicals.

D. a fungal infection.

 

77. Which of the following is the most common type of skin cancer? 

A. basal cell carcinoma B. squamous cell carcinoma

C. malignant melanoma D. Kaposi's sarcoma

 

78. The epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged from a 

A. first-degree burn. B. second-degree burn.

C. third-degree burn. D. fourth-degree burn.

 

79. Which of the following is a function of the skin? 

A. protection B. sensory reception

C. synthesis of vitamin D D. all of these are functions

 

80. What is needed to produce vitamin D? 

A. calcium B. phosphorus

C. ultraviolet light D. calcium and phosphorus

 

81. Which of the following is a function of the skeleton? 

A. produces blood cells

B. provides sites for muscle attachment

C. protects internal organs

D. All of the choices are functions

 

82. Which of the following is NOT a general shape to classify bones? 

A. long B. short

C. rectangular D. irregular

 

83. The end of a long bone is the 

A. diaphysis. B. periosteum.

C. shaft. D. epiphysis.

 

84. The shaft of a long bone is the 

A. periosteum. B. diaphysis.

C. articular cartilage. D. endosteum.

 

85. The medullary cavity contains 

A. yellow marrow. B. spongy bone.

C. the periosteum. D. red marrow.

 

86. Red marrow 

A. produces blood cells.

B. is located in spongy bone.

C. is located in the epiphyseal plate.

D. produces blood cells and is located in spongy bone.

 

87. What are the cells found within an osteon? 

A. osteoblasts B. osteocytes

C. epiphysealcytes D. chondrocytes 

88. What are the small passageways through compact bone that connect osteocytes to each other and the central canal? 

A. lamellae B. lacunae

C. canaliculi D. osteons

89. Which of the following is NOT a feature of compact bone? 

A. lacunae B. lamellae

C. trabeculae D. osteon

90. Which of the following are the bone-eating (reabsorbing) cells? 

A. osteoprogenitor cells B. osteocytes

C. osteoblasts D. osteoclasts

91. Which would form by way of intramembranous ossification? 

A. humerus B. metacarpal

C. frontal bone D. clavicle

92. During endochondral ossification 

A. hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.

B. osteoblasts break down bone.

C. hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone.

D. simple fractures are more common.

93. What structure is the site of bone growth in length? 

A. primary ossification center

B. epiphyseal plates

C. periosteum

D. None of the choices are correct.

 

94. The addition of new bone on top of existing bone to increase bone thickness is called 

A. endochondral ossification.

B. intramembranous ossification.

C. osteoprogenesis.

D. appositional growth.

95. A __________ is a rounded opening through a bone. 

A. foramen B. fossa

C. trochanter D. condyle

96. A condition in which bones lose bone mass and therefore become weak is 

A. osteomyelitis. B. osteogenesis.

C. osteoporosis. D. osteomalacia.

97. What are the structures that are air-filled spaces of the skull bones? 

A. sutures B. fontanels

C. paranasal sinuses D. lacrimal ducts

98. The membrane soft spots of a newborn's skull 

A. are synovial in nature.

B. occur only as a result of illness.

C. are called fontanels.

D. become foramina.

99. Which of the following bones forms the forehead? 

A. parietal B. frontal

C. mandible D. temporal

100.  Which of the following bones forms most of the roof of the cranium? 

A. parietal

B. frontal

C. mandible

D. temporal

101. Which of the following bones form the upper jaw? 

A. maxilla B. mandible

C. palatine D. lacrimal

102. What is the only movable bone of the skull? 

A. temporal B. mandible

C. maxilla D. zygomatic

103. Which bone has no articulation with any other bone? 

A. vomer B. axis

C. hyoid D. scapula

104. Which of the following pairings of vertebra and their number is correct? 

A. cervical – five B. thoracic – seven

C. lumbar – five D. sacrum – three

105. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called 

A. lordosis. B. kyphosis.

C. hunchback. D. scoliosis.

 106. The tailbone is called the 

A. sacrum. B. atlas.

C. ilium. D. coccyx.

 

107. Which ribs do NOT attach anteriorly to the sternum? 

A. true ribs B. false ribs C. floating ribs

 

108. Another name for the collarbone is the 

A. scapula. B. clavicle.

C. sternum. D. xiphoid.

 

109. The bone of the upper arm is the 

A. ulna. B. radius.

C. scapula. D. humerus. 

110. Which forearm bone is on the thumb side when in anatomical position? 

A. radius B. ulna

C. carpal D. humerus

 111. What is another name for the wrist? 

A. tarsals B. metacarpals

C. carpals D. phalanges

 

112. Another name for the bones of the hand is 

A. tarsals. B. metacarpals.

C. carpals. D. phalanges.

 

113. The phalanges are the bones of the 

A. hand. B. fingers.

C. wrist. D. foot.

 

114. Which of the following coxal bones is most inferior and allows a person to sit? 

A. ischium B. ilium C. pubis

 

115. The seven ankle bones are called the 

A. carpals. B. metatarsals.

C. metacarpals. D. tarsals.

 

116. The largest of the ankle bones that forms the heel is the 

A. talus. B. calcaneus.

C. navicular. D. cuboid.

 117. Which type of joint is correctly matched with the amount of movement they allow? 

A. synarthrosis – slight movement

B. amphiarthrosis – immovable

C. diarthrosis – freely movable

 

118. Sutures occur mainly in the 

A. cranium. B. pelvic girdle.

C. tarsals. D. wrist.

 

119. Which of the following is NOT a cartilaginous joint? 

A. between the ribs and the sternum

B. between the bodies of the vertebra

C. between the two pelvic bones

D. between each tooth and its socket

 

120. What material is found within the joint cavity of a synovial joint? 

A. fibrous connective tissue B. synovial fluid

C. fibrocartilage D. ligaments

 

121. Bursae are 

A. tendons. B. types of joints.

C. fluid-filled sacs. D. cartilage pads.

 

122. What type of synovial joint is found between the carpal and metacarpal of the thumb? 

A. pivot B. hinge

C. condyloid D. saddle

 

123. The elbow is an example of a __________ joint. 

A. ball-and-socket B. hinge

C. gliding D. pivot

 

124. A hip is an example of a __________ joint. 

A. ball-and-socket B. hinge

C. gliding D. pivot

 

125. A wrist is an example of a __________ joint. 

A. ball-and-socket B. hinge

C. gliding D. pivot

 

126. What type of synovial joint movement will move a body part laterally, away from the body? 

A. adduction B. extension

C. dorsiflexion D. abduction

 

127. What type of joint disease is described by deterioration of articular cartilage? 

A. osteoarthritis B. osteoporosis

C. rheumatoid arthritis D. gout

128. What type of synovial joint movement is the movement of a body part around its own axis? 

A. flexion B. supination

C. pronation D. rotation

 129. Rotating the arms so that the palms are forward is an example of 

A. elevation. B. abduction.

C. inversion. D. supination.

 

130. What type of joint disease is described by the autoimmune inflammation of the synovial membrane? 

A. osteoarthritis B. osteoporosis

C. rheumatoid arthritis D. gout

 131. Which type of muscle tissue has intercalated disks? 

A. cardiac B. skeletal

C. smooth D. Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

132. Which type of muscle tissue is striated? 

A. cardiac B. skeletal

C. smooth D. Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

 133. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow internal organs? 

A. cardiac B. skeletal

C. smooth D. Both smooth and skeletal are correct.

 

134. Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary? 

A. cardiac B. skeletal

C. smooth D. Both cardiac and smooth are correct.

 135. Which of the following surrounds a fascicle? 

A. endomysium B. epimysium

C. fascia D. perimysium

 

136. Which of the following covers the muscle organ itself? 

A. endomysium B. epimysium

C. fascia D. perimysium

 

137. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscles? 

A. generate heat

B. maintain posture

C. move food through the GI tract

D. keep blood moving in veins and lymphatics

 

138. The special name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is the 

A. sarcolemma. B. sarcoplasm.

C. T tubules. D. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

 139. The smooth ER that stores calcium ions is the 

A. sarcolemma. B. sarcoplasm.

C. T tubules. D. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

 

140. A sarcomere is 

A. formed from myosin only.

B. the distance between Z lines.

C. the length of the H zone.

D. between the I bands.

 

141. Myofibrils 

A. are located in muscle fibers.

B. are contractile units.

C. have striations.

D. are described by all of these characteristics.

 

142. Myosin is 

A. a protein.

B. the thin filament.

C. pulled inward during contraction.

D. described by all of these characteristics.

 

143. Which of the following proteins is NOT a component of the thin filament? 

A. tropomyosin B. myosin

C. troponin D. actin

 

144. The A band 

A. is in the center of the sarcomere.

B. is the dark region of the sarcomere.

C. contains the overlapping of the thick and thin filaments.

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

145. The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction describes 

A. how a sarcomere shortens.

B. the disappearance of the A band.

C. the movement of the myosin in relation to the actin.

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

146. Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contain the cross bridges? 

A. myosin B. actin

C. tropomyosin D. troponin

 

147. What does calcium do during muscle contraction? 

A. binds to troponin B. binds to the crossbridges

C. supplies energy D. hydrolyzes ATP

 

148. Myoglobin 

A. breaks down glycogen.

B. holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells.

C. is a protein involved in the addition of a phosphate to ADP.

D. produces the axon terminal signal.

 

149. Athletes sometimes complain of oxygen debt, a condition that results when insufficient oxygen is available to completely break down pyruvic acid. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to 

A. a strong base. B. stearic acid.

C. hydrochloric acid. D. lactic acid.

150. Rigor mortis occurs because 

A. there is no ATP to relax the muscles.

B. the body temperature drops.

C. there are no brain waves.

D. there are no nerve signals.

 151. Summation is 

A. receiving many impulses in rapid succession.

B. the period between stimulation and contraction.

C. the depletion of ATP.

D. a single contraction that lasts only a fraction of a second.

 

152. A motor unit is 

A. a group of muscles working together.

B. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it supplies.

C. a group of muscle fiber.

D. an artery and the muscle fibers it supplies.

 

153. When muscles are not used, they shrink or 

A. atrophy. B. hypertrophy.

C. antagonize. D. fatigue.

 

154. Two discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their fuel supply, oxygen supply, and tension. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of slow-twitch fibers? 

A. a sprint by an Olympic runner

B. swinging a baseball bat

C. lifting weights

D. mountain climbing

 

155. Which part of a muscle is on the stationary bone? 

A. insertion B. prime mover C. origin

 

156. The muscle that does most of the work for a particular movement is called the 

A. prime mover. B. synergist.

C. insertion. D. antagonist.

 

157. The biceps brachii and triceps brachii in the upper arm 

A. are antagonistic.

B. are synergistic.

C. depend upon activity to determine antagonism or synergism.

 

158. The gluteus maximus muscle is named for 

A. its size and shape.

B. its size and location.

C. its shape and action.

D. its attachment and fiber direction.

 

159. The biceps femoris is named for 

A. its shape and location.

B. its fiber direction and action.

C. its shape and number of attachments.

D. its number of attachments and location.

 

160. The extensor digitorum is named for 

A. its action and attachment.

B. its location and action.

C. its size and attachment.

D. its number of attachments and shape.

161. The __________ raises your eyebrow. 

A. biceps brachii B. frontalis

C. hamstring group D. gluteus maximus

 

162. The ______ is used in forming a kiss. 

A. zygomaticus B. buccinator

C. orbicularis oris D. orbicularis oculi

 

163. The _______ is used to smile. 

A. zygomaticus B. buccinator

C. frontalis D. orbicularis oris

 

164. The _______ is used for chewing. 

A. buccinators B. masseter

C. zygomaticus D. Both the buccinator and masseter.

 

165. The ____________ is used to flex the neck and turn the head laterally. 

A. trapezius B. temporalis

C. sternocleidomastoid D. suprahyoid

 

166. The _______ will adduct the scapulae and help extend the neck. 

A. trapezius B. temporalis

C. sternocleidomastoid D. deltoid

 

167. The _______ will abduct the arm. 

A. serratus anterior B. deltoid

C. latissimus dorsi D. pectoralis major

 

168. The __________ flexes your elbow. 

A. biceps brachii B. frontalis

C. triceps brachii D. gluteus maximus

 

169. The __________ flexes your knee. 

A. biceps brachii B. quadriceps femoris

C. hamstring group D. gluteus maximus

 

170. The ______ will straighten your leg (extend) at the knee. 

A. adductor group B. quadriceps femoris

C. hamstring group D. gluteus maximus

 

171. A _____ is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle. 

A. spasm B. cramp

C. strain D. tendonitis

 

172. A genetic disease of progressive muscle weakening and degeneration due to the lack of a protein is 

A. fibromyalgia.

B. myasthenia gravis.

C. muscular dystrophy.

D. osteoarthritis.

 

 

Anatomy & Physiology Fall Final Exam Review Key

 

1. B

 

2. A

 

3. C

 

4. B

 

5. B

 

6. C

 

7. D

 

8. C

 

9. C

 

10. D

 

11. A

 

12. C

 

13. B

 

14. A

 

15. B

 

16. D

 

17. D

 

18. C

 

19. A

  

21. C

 

22. B

 

23. A

 

24. A

 

25. A

 

26. A

 

27. B

 

28. C

 

29. D

 

30. B

 

31. B

 

32. B

 

33. C

 

34. C

 

35. B

 

36. A

 

37. A

 

38. C

 

39. A

 

40. C

 

41. C

 

42. A

 

43. B

 

44. A

 

45. C

 

46. B

 

47. A

 

48. A

 

49. B

 

50. C

 

51. C

 

52. A

 

53. D

 

54. A

 

55. C

 

56. B

 

57. C

 

58. D

 

59. B

 

60. D

 

61. C

 

62. D

 

63. A

 

64. D

 

65. A

 

66. A

 

67. B

 

68. D

 

69. D

 

70. B

 

71. B

 

72. D

 

73. B

 

74. B

 

75. A

 

76. C

 

77. D

 

78. A

 

79. B

 

80. D

 

81. C

 

82. D

 

83. C

 

84. D

 

85. B

 

86. A

 

87. D

 

88. B

 

89. C

 

90. C

 

91. D

 

92. C

 

93. C

 

94. B

 

95. D

 

96. A

 

97. C

 

98. C

 

99. C

 

100. B

 

101. A

 

102. A

 

103. B

 

104. C

 

105. C

 

106. D

 

107. D

 

108. C

 

109. B

 

110. D

 

111. A

 

112. C

 

113. B

 

114. B

 

115. A

 

116. D

 

117. B

 

118. C

 

119. A

 

120. D

 

121. B

 

122. C

 

123. D

 

124. B

 

125. A

 

126. C

 

127. D

 

128. A

 

129. D

 

130. D

 

131. C

 

132. A

 

133. D

 

134. C

 

135. D

 

136. D

 

137. B

 

138. C

 

139. A

 

140. D

 

141. B

 

142. D

 

143. A

 

144. B

145. D

 

146. A

 

147. A

 

148. A

 

149. B

 

150. D

 

151. A

 

152. A

 

153. B

 

154. A

 

155. D

 

156. C

 

157. A

 

158. A

 

159. B

 

160. D

 

161. A

 

162. B

 

163. C

 

164. A

 

165. B

 

166. C

 

167. A

 

168. B

 

169. A

 

170. C

 

171. B

 

172. C

 

173. C

 

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