BIO 137 - Angelfire



BIO 137

Final Exam Study Guide

Chapters 4-7

1. Epithelial tissue is characterized by

A) tightly packed cells.

B) absence of any basement membrane.

C) extensive extracellular matrix.

D) a rich blood supply.

E) A & D

2. Epithelial tissue is distinguished from connective, muscular, or nervous tissue by its

A) extracellular matrix.

B) contractility.

C) ability to carry action potentials.

D) ability to serve as insulation.

E) basement membrane.

3. The various types of epithelium are classified by

A) the size and shape of cells.

B) the shape of cells and number of cell layers.

C) the number of cell layers and size of the cells.

D) the size and location of cells.

E) function and size of cells.

4. Stratified epithelium consists of

A) multiple layers of cells.

B) a single layer of cells.

C) a single layer of cells that changes shape when the tissue is stretched.

D) a multiple layer of cells that appears to change shape when the tissue is stretched.

E) none of the above

5. Which type of epithelium has the following characteristics: multiple layers, squamous cell shape, dead outer layers of cells, and keratin present in some cells?

A) pseudostratified keratinized squamous epithelium

B) simple cuboidal epithelium

C) simple transitional epithelium

D) moist stratified squamous epithelium

E) stratified keratinized squamous epithelium

6. Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue?

A) conduction of action potentials

B) secretion and absorption of molecules

C) support of other tissue types

D) contraction

E) shock absorption

7. Which of the following statements is false?

A) Secretory epithelial cells are usually cuboidal or columnar in shape.

B) The movement of materials through epithelium is enhanced by simple squamous epithelium.

C) Stratified epithelium is adapted for a protective role.

D) Columnar epithelial cells promote diffusion.

E) Cuboidal epithelium is found in areas where absorption occurs.

8 Which of the following statements concerning epithelial cell surfaces is false?

A) Smooth surfaces reduce friction.

B) Epithelium with folded surfaces tends to be very rigid.

C) Cilia propel materials along the surface of an epithelial cell.

D) Epithelial cells with microvilli are involved in absorption.

E) Epithelium with folded surfaces can change shape.

9. The type of cell connection that serves as a permeability barrier is a

A) hemidesmosome.

B) desmosome.

C) gap junction.

D) intercalated disc.

E) tight junction.

10. Unlike an exocrine gland, an endocrine gland

A) is a secretory organ.

B) sheds cells with its secretions.

C) has no ducts.

D) contains goblet cells.

E) secretes to a surface.

11. Which of the following is classified as a holocrine gland?

A) sweat gland

B) salivary gland

C) sebaceous gland

D) mammary gland

E) exocrine part of pancreas

12. This exocrine gland uses exocytosis to secrete its product.

A) merocrine

B) apocrine

C) holocrine

D) endocrine

E) solocrine

13. Connective tissue is separated into subgroups based on the

A) cell type.

B) shape of the cells.

C) number of cell layers.

D) cell functions.

E) structure of the extracellular matrix.

14. A cell that forms fibrous connective tissue would be called a

A) fibroclast.

B) fibrocyte.

C) fibroblast.

D) fibroid.

E) fibromast.

15. The three types of protein fibers found in connective tissue are

A) hyaluronic acid, collagen, and reticular fibers.

B) proteoglycan, elastin, and reticular fibers.

C) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers.

D) proteoglycan, elastin, and hyaluronic acid.

E) chondronectic, osteonectin, fibronectin

16. Which of the following statements concerning collagen is false?

A) Collagen is the most common protein in the body.

B) Collagen resembles microscopic ropes.

C) Collagen is strong and flexible.

D) Collagen is elastic and stretches

E) There are at least 15 different types of collagen in the body.

17. A fibrous protein in connective, coiled, interwoven tissue consists of molecules that to form a meshwork resembling a bedspring. This protein is

A) a reticular fiber.

B) proteoglycan.

C) elastin.

D) collagen.

E) hyaluronic acid.

18. Connective tissue in tendons is

A) dense regular collagenous tissue.

B) dense regular elastic tissue.

C) dense irregular collagenous tissue.

D) dense irregular elastic tissue.

E) reticular tissue.

19. Hyaluronic acid gives a very slippery quality to fluids that contain it. Hyaluronic acid

A) resists stretching.

B) functions as an insulator.

C) is a good lubricant for joint cavities.

D) promotes oxygen transport in the plasma.

E) is a protein.

20. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Areolar tissue is tightly packed.

B) Dense connective tissue has a fluid matrix.

C) Mast cells are found in dense connective tissue.

D) Collagen fibers provide strength to dense connective tissue.

E) Elastic tissue is flexible, but not stretchy.

21. Dense regular collagenous connective tissue would be found in

A) a nerve.

B) the brain.

C) a ligament.

D) a skull bone.

E) a lymph node.

22. Which of the following structures is likely to consist of dense irregular collagenous connective tissue?

A) tendons

B) cartilage

C) elastic ligaments

D) bone

E) dermis of the skin

23. Reticular tissue is found in

A) muscles.

B) long bones.

C) lymphatic tissue.

D) the intestinal tissue.

E) nerve tissue.

24. Adipose tissue

A) functions as an insulator and a site of energy storage.

B) exists in three forms: yellow, red, and brown.

C) contains large amounts of extracellular matrix.

D) is composed of relatively small cells.

E) does not contain lipids.

25. Blood cells are produced in hemopoietic tissue found in

A) yellow bone marrow.

B) brown bone marrow.

C) red bone marrow.

D) white bone marrow.

E) compact bone.

26. Intervertebral discs exhibit a great deal of strength because of the presence of thick bundles of

A) elastin.

B) proteoglycan.

C) collagen.

D) hydroxyapatite.

E) calcium.

27. Cartilage heals slowly after an injury because

A) this tissue type is very complex.

B) it contains so much proteoglycan.

C) it has few, if any, blood vessels.

D) it is a dead rather than a living tissue.

E) it contains no fibroblasts.

28. The type of connective tissue that contains chondrocytes, a rigid matrix of collagen fibers and proteoglycan-hyaluronic acid aggregates and few, if any, blood vessels is

A) cartilage.

B) bone tissue.

C) adipose tissue.

D) fibrous connective tissue.

E) muscle tissue.

29. Bone

A) contains dead cells.

B) is not flexible.

C) does not contain protein fibers.

D) has a rich blood supply.

E) is avascular.

30. Lamellae are characteristic of

A) compact bone tissue.

B) cancellous bone tissue.

C) spongy bone tissue.

D) hyaline cartilage.

E) fibrocartilage.

31. Which of the following is found in cancellous bone but not compact bone?

A) osteocytes in lacunae

B) hydroxyapatite

C) trabeculae

D) collagen

E) matrix

32. A tissue that has a fluid matrix is

A) blood.

B) adipose tissue.

C) areolar tissue.

D) cartilage.

E) bone.

33. Which of the following types of connective tissue is mismatched with its matrix?

A) areolar - loosely packed matrix of protein fibers

B) bone - mineralized matrix

C) cartilage - highly vascular matrix

D) blood - fluid matrix

E) bone - highly vascular

34. Muscle tissue is characterized by its

A) strength.

B) durability.

C) contractility

D) rigidity.

E) avascularity.

35. The type of membrane that protects internal organs from friction is a ________ membrane.

A) serous

B) synovial

C) mucous

D) partial

E) dry

36. Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation?

A) swelling, bleeding, and numbness

B) heat, swelling, and blistering

C) blistering, pain, and swelling

D) pain, redness, and bleeding

E) redness, heat, and pain

37. Which of the following functions is associated with the skin?

A) fat production

B) vitamin C production

C) regulation of body pH

D) protection against ultraviolet radiation of the sun

E) vitamin A production

38. The layer of epithelium that covers the skin is called the

A) dermis.

B) epidermis.

C) hypodermis.

D) mesodermis.

E) papillary layer.

39. Which of the following statements concerning the hypodermis is false?

A) Hypodermis is referred to as subcutaneous tissue.

B) Hypodermis is composed of dense connective tissue with collagen and elastin fibers.

C) The main cell types of the hypodermis are fibroblasts, fat cells, and macrophages.

D) The hypodermis attaches the skin to underlying bone and muscle.

E) The hypodermis is a site of fat storage.

40. Body fat in the hypodermis

A) varies with age and sex.

B) helps regulate body temperature.

C) provides protection against infection.

D) is a thin layer in infants.

E) connects the dermis with the epidermis.

41. The dermis

A) contains no blood vessels.

B) functions as padding and insulation.

C) is divided into three distinct layers.

D) is responsible for most of the skin's structural strength.

E) does not contain connective tissue.

42. The sloughing off of older cells from the surface of the skin is called

A) pollination.

B) keratinization.

C) melaninization.

D) germination.

E) desquamination

43. Keratinocytes

A) produce skin pigments in cell organelles called melanosomes.

B) are found in both the dermal and the epidermal layers of the skin.

C) are special cells of the immune system.

D) are responsible for the permeability characteristics of the epidermis.

E) determine thickness of the skin.

44. Keratinocytes

A) produce skin pigments in cell organelles called melanosomes.

B) are found in both the dermal and the epidermal layers of the skin.

C) are special cells of the immune system.

D) are responsible for the permeability characteristics of the epidermis.

E) determine thickness of the skin.

45. The layer of epidermis that undergoes mitosis and forms new epidermal cells is the

A) stratum basale.

B) stratum granulosum.

C) stratum lucidum.

D) stratum corneum.

E) stratum dermum.

46. Keratinization

A) occurs in the dermis.

B) results in the formation of new epidermal cells.

C) produces a layer of cells that resist abrasion.

D) determines skin color.

E) does not affect permeability characteristics of the epidermis.

47. Which of the following represents the correct order of the layers of the epidermis from the deepest to the most superficial?

A) stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, and stratum corneum

B) stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum

C) stratum lucidum stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum basale, and stratum spinosum

D) stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, and stratum granulosum

E) stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

48. Fingerprints and footprints are produced by projections into the epidermis called

A) striae.

B) cleavage lines.

C) reticular lines.

D) melanocytes.

E) papillae.

49. Skin color is the result of

A) the quantity of melanin in the skin.

B) the number of keratinocytes in the skin.

C) the amount of fat in the hypodermis.

D) the thickness of the stratum basale.

E) the number of melanocytes in the skin.

50. Melanin production can be influenced by

A) genetics.

B) hormones.

C) exposure to sunlight.

D) pregnancy.

E) all of these

51. The blue color of superficial blood vessels results from

A) a lack of melanin in the area.

B) the light-scattering properties of collagen.

C) the superficial location of skin pigments.

D) an increase in arterial blood circulating in the area.

E) a lack of oxygen in the blood.

52. Delicate unpigmented hairs that cover the fetus in early development are called

A) terminal hairs.

B) primary hairs.

C) lanugo hairs.

D) vellus hairs.

E) secondary hairs.

53. Which of the following statements is true?

A) In males the hairs of the beard are vellus hairs.

B) Both vellus and terminal hairs are pigmented.

C) The majority of hair on the chest is vellus hair.

D) At puberty much of the vellus hair is replaced with terminal hair.

E) Hair in the axillary region is vellus hair after puberty.

54. The portion of a hair that protrudes above the surface of the skin is the

A) hair bulb.

B) hair root.

C) hair shaft.

D) hair follicle.

E) dermal papilla.

55. Which of the following hair colors is the result of a decrease in melanin?

A) black

B) brown

C) red

D) white

E) auburn

56. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Both the hair root and hair shaft contain living cells.

B) Undamaged hair follicles can help regenerate damaged epithelium.

C) The hair follicle has a hypodermal root sheath.

D) The matrix forms the hair surface.

E) The hair follicle is not associated with sebaceous glands.

57. When the arrector pili muscles contract

A) the body is able to lose heat.

B) "goose bumps" form on the skin.

C) the hair on your arms and legs begins to curl.

D) the sweat glands empty their contents onto the surface of the skin.

58. Which of the following statements is false?

A) Most sebaceous glands are connected by a duct to the upper portion of the hair follicle.

B) Secretions from sebaceous glands provide protection against bacteria.

C) Secretions from sebaceous glands oil the hair and skin.

D) Sebaceous glands are an example of apocrine glands.

E) Sebaceous secretions are lipid soluble.

59. The activity of apocrine sweat glands

A) produces cerumen.

B) leads to body odor.

C) gives the skin a healthy glow.

D) produces sweat on the palm of the hand.

E) produces an oily secretion.

60. Sweat glands

A) aid in cooling the body.

B) serve as "anchors" for the arrector pili muscles.

C) produce a secretion that oils the hair and skin.

D) produce a secretion that protects the body from growth of bacteria.

E) are not involved in the homeostasis of body temperature.

61. Skin glands do not include

A) sebaceous glands.

B) salivary glands.

C) ceruminous glands.

D) mammary glands.

E) sweat glands.

62. Nails

A) protect the ends of digits.

B) alternate between growing and resting stages.

C) grow from their free edges.

D) are part of the dermis.

E) are soft keratin.

63. The nail root and the nail body attach to the

A) lunula.

B) nail bed.

C) nail groove.

D) hyponychium.

E) hypodermis.

64. Nail cells are produced by the

A) lunula.

B) cuticle.

C) nail body.

D) nail matrix.

E) nail groove.

65. Intact skin provides protection because

A) it forms a physical barrier against the entry of microbes.

B) its secretions keep the skin slightly alkaline.

C) the skin contains components of the excretory system.

D) the skin enhances water loss from the body.

E) macrophages roam in the epidermis.

66. An increase in body temperature causes

A) sweating.

B) arterioles in the dermis to constrict.

C) arrector pili muscles to contract.

D) an increase in keratinization of the skin.

E) an increase in melanin production.

67. Which of the following will help cool the body?

A) absorption of ultraviolet light rays by the skin

B) evaporation of sweat from the skin's surface

C) contraction of the arrector pili muscles

D) decreased blood flow to the skin

E) absorption of excess sweat

68. Which vitamin begins its synthesis in the skin exposed to ultraviolet light?

A) vitamin A

B) vitamin B

C) vitamin C

D) vitamin D

E) vitamin E

69. Important functions of the skeletal system include

A) protection of the brain and soft organs.

B) storage of water.

C) production of Vitamin E.

D) regulation of acid-base balance.

E) integration of other systems.

70. A band of connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone is a(n)

A) aponeurosis.

B) ligament.

C) bursa.

D) epimysium.

E) tendon.

71. Ligaments attach

A) muscle to muscle.

B) bone to bone.

C) muscle to bone.

D) nerve to bone.

E) nerve to muscle.

72. Chondroblasts produce

A) ligaments.

B) cartilage matrix.

C) bone tissue.

D) blood cells.

E) synovial fluid.

73. Chondroblasts produce

A) ligaments.

B) cartilage matrix.

C) bone tissue.

D) blood cells.

E) synovial fluid.

74 The connective tissue sheath of cartilage is called the

A) matrix.

B) chondrocyte.

C) ligamentous cord.

D) lacuna.

E) perichondrium.

75. Cartilage

A) is composed of osteons.

B) is surrounded by a membrane called the periosteum.

C) contains chondrocytes located in lacunae.

D) does not need nutrients and oxygen so it has no blood vessels.

E) is well vascularized.

76. In appositional growth of cartilage,

A) chondroblasts within the tissue proliferate and add more matrix from the inside.

B) new chondrocytes and new matrix are added on the outside of the tissue.

C) osteoblasts replace the chondroblasts.

D) the tissue becomes vascularized in order to grow.

E) the cartilage is replaced with another kind of connective tissue.

77. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A) short bone - carpal bone

B) long bone - vertebra

C) irregular bone - femur

D) flat bone - phalanges of the toes

E) short bone - humerus

78. An X-ray determines that Peter fractured the shaft of his humerus. The break is in the _____________ of the bone.

A) epiphysis

B) epiphyseal line

C) diaphysis

D) growth plate

E) articular surface

79. Which of the following membranes covers the surface of a mature bone?

A) perimysium

B) perichondrium

C) peritendineum

D) peritoneum

E) periosteum

80. A bone is considered to be a (an)

A) cell.

B) tissue.

C) organ.

D) system.

E) organism.

81. The medullary cavity is

A) empty in adult bones.

B) the site where osteoblasts are found.

C) lined with an endosteum.

D) filled with fibrocartilage and elastin fibers.

E) dead space in the bone.

82. Collagen and calcium hydroxyapatite are the primary constituents of

A) bone matrix.

B) hyaline cartilage.

C) fibrous cartilage.

D) ligaments.

E) blood.

83. The proportion of collagen to hydroxyapatite in bone determines the

A) thickness of the bone.

B) length of the bone.

C) strength of the bone.

D) ability of the bone to heal.

E) growth rate of bone.

84. The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone once it has been formed is the

A) osteoclast.

B) osteoblast.

C) chondrocyte.

D) osteocyte.

E) chondroblast.

85. Which of the following cell types is responsible for breaking down bone matrix?

A) chondroclast

B) osteoclast

C) chondroblast

D) fibroblast

E) osteocyte

86. Osteoblasts involved in bone growth in length come primarily from

A) chondrocytes.

B) endothelium of blood vessels.

C) osteocytes.

D) periosteum.

E) connective tissue surrounding blood vessels from the endosteum.

87. Cancellous bone tissue

A) is very dense.

B) contains concentric lamellae.

C) contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae.

D) has many spaces and lacks osteocytes.

E) is the primary component of compact bone.

88. A passageway connecting neighboring osteocytes in an osteon is a

A) central canal.

B) lamella.

C) canaliculus.

D) lacuna.

E) osteocanal.

89. Haversian systems or osteons

A) are found in spongy bone tissue.

B) lack concentric lamellae.

C) are the basic units in compact bone tissue.

D) do not contain osteocytes.

E) are avascular.

90. The type of lamellae found in osteons (Haversian systems) is

A) circumferential.

B) concentric.

C) interstitial.

D) appositional.

E) oppositional.

91. Intramembranous ossification

A) forms the bones of the roof of the skull.

B) is the process that produces most of the skeletal system.

C) occurs when bones develop from cartilage models.

D) occurs when osteoblasts invade the spaces left by dying cartilage cells.

E) occurs on the outer surface of the membrane

92. Which of the following events occurs last?

A) Osteoprogenitor cells become osteoblasts.

B) A membrane of delicate collagen fibers develops.

C) Cancellous bone is formed.

D) Periosteum is formed.

E) Many tiny trabeculae of woven bone develop.

93. The locations where ossification begins in intramembranous ossification are known as

A) secondary ossification centers.

B) membranous ossification centers.

C) centers of ossification.

D) medullary cavity ossification centers.

E) epiphyseal ossification centers.

94. The flat bones of the skull develop from

A) hyaline cartilage.

B) areolar tissue.

C) compact bone.

D) fibrous connective tissue.

E) fibrocartilage.

95. Which of the following events occurs last?

A) Blood vessels grow into the primary ossification center.

B) Cartilage is calcified in the cartilage model.

C) A cartilage model is formed by chondroblasts.

D) Osteoblasts produce trabeculae and lamellae on the surface of calcified cartilage.

E) Secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses.

96. Which of the following statements about bone growth is true?

A) Most growth in long bones results from interstitial growth.

B) Appositional bone growth results in increased bone length.

C) Endochondral growth in long bones occurs at the epiphyseal plate.

D) In the epiphyseal plate, osteoblasts degenerate to form chondrocytes.

E) Bones can not grow by appositional growth.

97. Appositional growth deposits a new layer of bone

A) on the surface of the bone.

B) in the epiphyseal plate of long bones.

C) in the secondary ossification center of the epiphyses.

D) in interstitial areas.

E) on cancellous, but not compact bone.

98. The sequence of events that produces growth at the epiphyseal plate is

A) hypertrophy, proliferation, calcification, ossification, and remodeling.

B) proliferation, hypertrophy, cell death, calcification, ossification, and remodeling.

C) hypertrophy, calcification, proliferation, cell death, ossification, and remodeling.

D) calcification, hypertrophy, proliferation, ossification, cell death, and remodeling.

E) proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, cell death, ossification, and remodeling.

99. Long bones grow in length at the

A) epiphyseal plate.

B) articular cartilage.

C) center of the shaft.

D) endosteum-periosteum junction.

E) in the center of the epiphysis.

100. The longitudinal growth of long bones ceases when

A) chondroblasts take over mitosis of osteoblasts.

B) the epiphyseal plate is completely replaced with bone tissue.

C) the epiphysis becomes separated from the diaphysis.

D) the bone marrow forms.

E) the periosteum is completed.

101. The growth spurt seen in puberty is triggered by

A) parathyroid hormone.

B) sex hormones.

C) growth hormone.

D) thyroid hormone.

E) calcitonin.

102. The remodeling of bone tissue is a function of

A) osteoblast and osteoclast activity.

B) osteoclast and osteocyte activity.

C) chondroblast and osteoclast activity.

D) chondrocyte and osteocyte activity.

E) fibroblast and chondroblast.

103. The proper sequence of events in bone repair is

A) callus formation, hematoma formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone.

B) remodeling of bone, callus ossification, hematoma formation, callus formation.

C) hematoma formation, callus formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone.

D) callus ossification, callus formation, remodeling of bone, hematoma formation.

E) hematoma formation, callus ossification, callus formation, remodeling of bone.

104. Which of the following statements is true?

A) The cervical curve develops before birth.

B) The adult vertebral column has three curvatures.

C) Scoliosis is the term applied to normal curvature of the spine.

D) An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis.

E) Lordosis is an exaggeration of the cervical curvature.

105. Which of the following is a function of the vertebral column?

A) It supports the weight of the body.

B) It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord.

C) It serves as a passage way for the cranial nerves.

D) It contains numerous foramens for the passage way of blood vessels.

E) It protects the brain.

106. The collar bone is the

A) sternum.

B) clavicle.

C) scapula.

D) humerus.

E) atlas.

107. Another name for the shoulder blade is

A) the sternum.

B) the clavicle.

C) the scapula.

D) the acromion.

E) the xiphoid process.

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