Physical Education
QUESTIONS FOR UGC NET (PHYSICAL EDUCATION) SET I
51. Which of the following is a law of learning?
(a) Law of readiness (b) Law of exercise
(c) Law of effect (d) All the above.
52. Mental development includes
(a) External and internal organs (b) reasoning and thinking
(c) Ethical and moral (d) emotional maturity.
53. Through which of the following methods, desirable channels are provided for the release of emotional energy?
(a) Inhibition (b) Sublimation
(c) Catharsis (d) Repression.
54. The rate of progress in learning slows down and reaches a limit beyond which further improvement seems impossible. It is known as
(a) Plateau (b) loss of interest
(c) Boredom (d) difficult stage.
55. The therapy of psychoanalysis was developed by
(a) Skinner (b) Sigmund Freud
(c) Plato (d) Darwin.
56. Sports performance is the bi-product of
(a) Skill (b) conditional ability
(c) Total personality (d) tactical ability.
57. The first metamorphosis falls between the ages of
(a) 7-10 years (b) 3-5 years
(c) 11-14 years (d) 2-4 years.
58. Which is the most effective method for encouraging self learning?
(a) Demonstration method (b) Lecture method
(c) Observation method (d) Task method.
59. Which one is the simplest form of cognition?
(a) Conception (b) Perception
(c) Sensation (d) Affection.
60. The functional division of spinal cord are
(a) somatic-motor (b) somatic-sensory
(c) visceral-motor (d) none of the above.
61. The response defined as a result of training is called
(a) Conditioned stimulus (b) unconditioned reflex
(c) Conditioned reflex (d) conation.
62. Which need is on top of the Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
(a) Self-actualization (b) Esteem
(c) Belongingness (d) Safety.
63. ERG theory was given by
(a) Maslow (b) Alderfer
(c) Jung (d) Mcclellan.
64. Alderfer's theory categorizes needs into three categories. The most important is
(a) Growth needs (b) ralatedness need
(c) Existence need (d) none of the above.
65. Which of the following is an intrinsic motivator?
(a) Pay (b) Promotion
(c) Feedback (d) Interest of play.
66. The two factor theory of motivation is given by
(a) Maslow (b) Jung
(c) Alderfer (d) Harzberg.
67. Reinforcement theory of motivation is given by
(a) Jung (b) Herzberg
(c) Skinner (d) Maslow.
68. Achievement motivation relates to
(a) Need of the person (b) Knowledge of the person
(c) experience of the person (d) aptitude of the person.
69. Terminal feedback is the information provided to the learner
(a) Before the activity (b) During the activity
(c) After the activity (d) none of the above.
70. The initial steep rise in the learning graph is an indication of quick progress and is technically known as
(a) 'End spurt' (b) 'Initial spurt'
(c) Saturation point (d) None of the above.
71. What type of motivation is not applicable to young children?
(a) Intrinsic motivation (b) Extrinsic motivation
(c) Achievement motivation (d) none of the above.
72. The 'trial and error' theory of learning was propounded by
(a) Newton (b) Pavlov
(c) Thorndike (d) Homer.
73. In the childhood, individual's behaviour is most influenced by
(a) Community (b) School
(c) Peer group (d) family.
74. The cause of frustration among sports person is
(a) Result of own performance (b) Normally due to mismatched level of aspiration and ability
(c) Result of good performance (d) Natural outcome of competitive sports.
75. Which is the description of the methods of personality measurement?
(a) Rating scale (b) Interviews & observations
(c) Paper & pencil test (d) All the above.
76. Trial & Error learning is also known as
(a) Conditioning (b) connectionism
(c) Insight (d) none of the above.
77. 'Exercise for the body and music for the soul, in which country the common adage was used?
(a) Italy (b) France
(c) Greece (d) Germany.
78. What aspect of movement refers to body awareness?
(a) To identify the parts of the body and the whole (b) To establish the relationship of the body parts
(c) Able to identify the body parts (d) All the above.
79. Law of effect in learning was started by
(a) Pavlov (b) Thomdike
(c) Skinner (d) Gestalt.
80. What is the population that psychologists usually study?
(a) Cats & Dogs (b) Monkeys
(c) People (d) Pigeons and rats.
81. How is psychology defined today?
(a) The science of behaviour and mental processes (b) The science of human behaviour and mental processes
(c) The science of mind (d) The study of motivation, emotion, personality, adjustment and abnormality.
82. Who is regarded as the 'father' of psychology?
(a) Sigmund Freud (b) Ivan Pavlov
(c) John B. Watson (d) Wundt.
83. When catching a ball, your hand knows when to grasp because
(a) Your parasympathetic nervous system is active (b) Alpha waves are being generated by your brain
(c) participating muscles receive efferent signals from the brain (d) afferent signals inform your hand that the ball is about to make contact.
84. Body mind relationship was first promulgated by
(a) Socrates (b) Plato
(c) Hitler (d) Homer.
85. Who said, "I think therefore I am"?
(a) Discartes (b) Plato
(c) Aristotle (d) Rousseau.
86. Who said, "sound mind in a sound body"?
(a) Discartes (b) Rousseau
(c) Aristotle (d) Plato.
87. The hereditary factors of learning are
(a) Height and weight (b) Physical structure
(c) body composition (d) all the above.
88. Autogenic training is a technique
(a) To bring about relaxation in body (b) To increase anxiety level
(c) to counter avoidance syndrome (d) none of the above.
89. The stress condition is
(a) Advantageous to the performer (b) Detrimental to the performer
(c) Neither (d) helpful in the development of strength.
90. Which law of learning states that things most often repeated are best retained?
(a) Law of readiness (b) Law of exercise
(c) Law of effect (d) Law of recency.
91. The state of being first creates a strong almost unusable impression. This is
(a) Law of primacy (b) Law of intensity
(c) Law of recency (d) law of effect.
92. That the things most recently learned are best remembered refers to
(a) Law of intensity (b) Law of effect
(c) Law of primacy (d) Law of recency.
93. Which is the lowest level of learning?
(a) Rate learning
(b) Understanding (c) Application (d) Correlation.
94. Emotional stability, anxiety, sadness and built ability are attributes of which personality dimension?
(a) Extroversion (b) Agreeableness
(c) Bourgeoisies (d) Openness.
95. Which of the following is not an attribute of agreeableness personality dimension?
(a) Altruism (b) Complexity
(c) Trust (d) Modesty.
96. The leader who allows complete freedom in decision making and do not participate in the group activities is
(a) Autocratic (b) Democratic
(c) Lassez fair (d) none of the above.
97. Stress is
(a) Advantageous to the player (b) Detrimental to his abilities
(c) Both advantageous and detrimental as per the situation (d) None of the above.
98. Maslow places needs at the bottom of hierarchy.
(a) Esteem (b) belongingness
(c) Safety (d) physiological.
99. Which law of learning is also called the law of use and disuse?
(a) Law of exercise (b) Law of readiness
(c) Law of effect (d) Law of intimacy.
100. The law of effect is also known as
(a) Law of use & disuse (b) Law of satisfaction
(c) Law of recency (d) Law of frequency.
101. Encouragement by spectators is a
(a) Social incentive (b) Monetary incentive
(c) Reward incentive (d) social competitive incentive.
|51. (d) |52. |(b) |53. (c) |54. (a) |55. (b) |56. (c) |
|57. |(a) |58. (c) |59. |(c) |60. (b) |61. (c) |62. (a) |
| |c |15 |a |28 |b |41 |c |
| |b |16 |b |29 |a |42 |b |
| |b |17 |d |30 |a |43 |c |
| |c |18 |d |31 |a |44 |d |
| |c |19 |a |32 |a |45 |c |
| |c |20 |b |33 |c |46 |b |
| |a |21 |c |34 |d |47 |c |
| |c |22 |b |35 |d |48 |b |
| |d |23 |c |36 |a | | |
| |a |24 |c |37 |c | | |
| |a |25 |b |38 |b | | |
| |a |26 |b |39 |d | | |
1. Endoskeleton involves
(a) Covering of skin, hair, nails
(b) Bones and cartilages
(c) Bones only
(d) None of the above.
2. Exoskeleton involves
(a) Covering of skin, hair nails
(b) Bones and cartilages
(c) Long bones only
(d) Short bones only.
3. Study of joints is called
(a) Kinesiology
(b) Biology
(c) Anthropometry
(d) Anthology.
4. 'Hunch back' is also known as
(a) Back pain (b) scoliosis
(c) lordosis (d) kyphosis.
5. Side ward curvature of the spine is called
(a) knock knee (b) kyphosis
(c) Scoliosis (d) lordosis.
6. The path of an object project projected into free air space is known as
(a) Speed (b) abnormal curve
(c) Velocity (d) parabola.
7. Boxer's muscles are
(a) trapezius
(b) sterno cliedo mastoid
(c) Abdominal
(d) Deltoid.
8. 'Neck joint' is an example of
(a) Pivot joint
(b) Hinge joint
(c) Saddle joint
(d) Condyloid joint.
9. 'Trapeziums' muscles help in
(a) Pushing the neck backward
(b) Punching
(c) Raising the leg forward
(d) None of the above.
10. Strongest ligament of the hip joint is
(a) pub femoral
(b) Ileofemoral
(c) Ischiofemoral
(d) None of the above.
11. Which type of lever is most effective in sport movements?
(a) Third class
(b) Second class
(c) First class
(d) None of the above.
12. Which muscle is involved in the elevation of arm?
(a) Deltoid (b) Biceps
(c) Triceps (d) Quadriceps.
13. Which of the following is an example of bi-axial joint?
(a) Hinge
(b) Pivot
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
14. Number of bones in the axial skeleton is
(a) 60 (b) 80
(c) 40 (d) 20.
15. Number of bones in the appendicle skeleton is
(a) 120 (b) 180
(c) 126 (d) 116.
16. Movements possible in condyloid joint are
(a) Flexion and extension
(b) Circumduction only
(c) Flexion, extension abduction, adduction
(d) Flexion, extension, abduction adduction and circumduction.
17. Which of the following is an example of uniaxial joint?
(a) Condyloid
(b) Saddle
(c) Hinge
(d) Condyloid and saddle both.
18. The cartilage which serves to cushion the impact of large forces on bone ends is called
(a) Fibrous cartilage
(b) Hyaline cartilage
(c) Notch
(d) fossa.
19. Function of long bones in the body is to
(a) Give strength
(b) Give protection
(c) Act as lever
(d) Provide surface area for muscle attachment.
20. Force generation but fiber lengthening is also known as
(a) Eccentric contraction
(c) Isotonic contraction
(d) Isometric contraction.
21. 'Hypnosis' is also called
(c) Lateral back curve.
22. Bending forward of the trunk is an example of movement in the
(a) Frontal plane
(b) Transverse plane
(c) sagittal plane
(d) Longitudinal axis.
23. A forward upward movement of the foot at the ankle joint is
(a) Plantar flexion (b) dorsi flexion (c) inversion (d) eversion.
24. Bending of head towards right or left side of the shoulder is
(a) Extension (b) flexion
(c) Lateral flexion
(d) Lateral extension.
25. Synovial joints are
(a) Slightly movable
(b) Freely movable
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
26. The vertical axis passes
(a) Perpendicular to the ground
(b) Horizontal to the ground
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of above.
27. The law of gravity is an example of a law of motion studied in the body of knowledge called
(a) Chemistry (b) Physics (c) Mechanics (d) All the above.
28. Largest bone in the human body is
(a) Femur (b) hummers
(c) Tibia (d) fibula.
29. Shortest bone in the human (a) phalange (b) metatarsal (c) in nominate bone (d) tarsal.
30. Which of the following has maximum percentage in. the. ComQ-aVdon bone 1
(a) Calcium sulphate Calcium phosphate
(c) Chloride
(d) Fluoride.
31. An athlete covering 100 m distance in 10 seconds, ran at a speed of
(a) lOm/s (b) 100 m/s
(c) 20 m/s (d) 1000 m/s.
32. The forces acting on a runner near the end of a race are
(a) Weight (b) friction
(c) Air resistance (d) all the above.
33. The terms reset and motion are studied under
(a) Biochemistry
(b) Anatomy
(c) Biomechanics
(d) None of the above.
34. In which type of lever, the weight is in between force and fulcrum?
(a) Type I (b) Type II
(c) Type III (d) All the above.
35. The movements around ball and socket joints are
(a) Flexion and extension
(b) Rotation and circumduction
(c) Hyper extension
(d) All the above.
36. Bone cells are also called
(a) Osteoblasts (b) osteocytes (c) osteoclasts (d) osteoporosis.
37. Technique of ossification of bones of right hand is used to determine
(a) Height
(b) Age
(c) Weight
(d) Equilibrium ability.
38. 'Hamstring' muscle
(a) extends knee (b) flexes knee (c) extends elbow (d) flexes elbow.
39. Which of the following is a ball and socket joint?
(a) Hip joint
(b) Shoulder joint
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
40. During abduction the arm moves
(a) Towards the body
(b) Away from the body
(c) In front of the chest
(d) None of the above.
41. In which type of lever, the force is in between weight and fulcrum?
(a) Type I (b) Type II
(c) Type III (d) All the above.
42. 'Latissimus Dorsi' is situated in (a) lower leg (b) thigh
(c) Back (d) upper arm.
43. 'Lordosis' is also called
(a) Round back
(b) Hollow back
(c) Lateral back
(d) Back curve.
44. Parabola is
(a) The path of an object projected into free air
(b) path of an object formed with air resistance
(c) Path of the object falling vertically down
(d) None of the above.
45. Which of the following is responsible for limiting the range of movements of joint?
(a) Tendons (b) Ligaments
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Muscle fibers.
46. 'Zygomatic' bone is present in
|1. (b) |2. |(|
| | |a|
| | |)|
| |[pic]Which of the following divides a group of data |
| |into four subgroups? |
| |quartiles |
| | |
| |percentiles |
| | |
| |standard deviation |
| | |
| |median |
| | |
| Question 2 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]If the standard deviation of a population is |
| |9, the population variance is: |
| |3 |
| | |
| |9 |
| | |
| |21.35 |
| | |
| |81 |
| | |
| Question 3 | What is the median for the following | |
| |numbers?6,15,21,23,28,33,38 | |
| | |
| |23 |
| | |
| |28 |
| | |
| |38 |
| | |
| |21 |
| | |
| Question 4 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]Which of the following is not a measure of |
| |central tendency? |
| |[pic]median |
| | |
| |mean |
| | |
| |standard deviation |
| | |
| |mode |
| | |
| Question 5 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]What is 40th percentile of the following |
| |numbers? |
| |[pic]39 |
| | |
| |29.4 |
| | |
| |17 |
| | |
| |23 |
| | |
| Question 6 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]What is the value of the coefficient of |
| |skewness for the following population of numbers? |
| |[pic]1.04 |
| | |
| |0.56 |
| | |
| |0.97 |
| | |
| |0.28 |
| | |
| Question 7 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]Consider the following population of numbers.|
| |What is the z score for 6? |
| |[pic]0.66 |
| | |
| |0.95 |
| | |
| |1.23 |
| | |
| |+1.23 |
| | |
| Question 8 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]Consider the following grouped data. What is the |
| |sample variance of these data? [pic][pic] |
| |[pic] |
| |212.69 |
| | |
| |208.90 |
| | |
| |14.45 |
| | |
| |14.58 |
| | |
| Question 9 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]What is the sample standard deviation of the |
| |following numbers? |
| |[pic] |
| |3.42 |
| | |
| |2.96 |
| | |
| |11.67 |
| | |
| |8.75 |
| | |
| Question 10 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]What is the mode for the following numbers? |
| |[pic]3 |
| | |
| |4 |
| | |
| |5 |
| | |
| |6 |
| | |
| Question 11 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]Suppose data are normally distributed with a|
| |mean of 120 and a standard deviation of 30. |
| |Between what two values will approximately 68% of|
| |the data fall? |
| |[pic]60 and 180 |
| | |
| |90 and 150 |
| | |
| |30 and 210 |
| | |
| |105 and 135 |
| | |
| Question 12 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]The interquartile range is which of the |
| |following? |
| |[pic]the range of the middle 50% of the data |
| | |
| |Q2 |
| | |
| |the difference between any two quartiles |
| | |
| |the square of the standard deviation |
| | |
| Question 13 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]According to Chebyshev's theorem, if a |
| |population has a mean of 80 and a standard |
| |deviation of 35, at least what proportion of the |
| |values lie between 30 and 130? |
| |[pic].35 |
| | |
| |.68 |
| | |
| |.49 |
| | |
| |.51 |
| | |
| Question 14 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]The middle value of an ordered array of |
| |numbers is the |
| |[pic]mean |
| | |
| |median |
| | |
| |mode |
| | |
| |midpoint |
| | |
| | |
| | |
| Question 15 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]Consider the following grouped data. What is the mode |
| |of these data? [pic][pic] |
| |[pic] |
| |16 |
| | |
| |35 |
| | |
| |15 |
| | |
| |20 |
| | |
| Question 16 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]The sum of the deviations about the mean are|
| |always: |
| |[pic]the range |
| | |
| |the standard deviation total |
| | |
| |zero |
| | |
| |positive |
| | |
| Question 17 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]If a distribution is abnormally tall and |
| |peaked, then is can be said that the distribution|
| |is: |
| |[pic]mesokurtic |
| | |
| |platykurtic |
| | |
| |leptokurtic |
| | |
| |pyrokurtic |
| | |
| Question 18 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]According to the empirical rule, |
| |approximately what percent of the data should lie|
| |within μ± 2σ? |
| |[pic]68% |
| | |
| |75% |
| | |
| |95% |
| | |
| |99.7% |
| | |
| Question 19 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]What is the first quartile of the following |
| |numbers? |
| |55 |
| | |
| |62.5 |
| | |
| |65 |
| | |
| |70 |
| | |
| | |
| | |
| Question 20 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]What is the population variance of the |
| |following numbers? |
| |[pic]3.31 |
| | |
| |10.98 |
| | |
| |3.58 |
| | |
| |12.81 |
| | |
| Question 21 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]Which of the following describe the middle |
| |part of a group of numbers? |
| |[pic]measures of central tendency |
| | |
| |measures of variability |
| | |
| |measures of shape |
| | |
| |measures of association |
| | |
| Question 22 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]What is the coefficient of correlation for |
| |the following two variables? |
| |[pic][pic] |
| |[pic].129 |
| | |
| |.205 |
| | |
| |.366 |
| | |
| |.491 |
| | |
| Question 23 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]The mean of a distribution is 23, the median|
| |is 24, and the mode is 25.5. It is most likely |
| |that this distribution is: |
| |[pic]negatively skewed |
| | |
| |positively skewed |
| | |
| |symmetrical |
| | |
| |asymptotic |
| | |
| Question 24 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]What is the mean of the following numbers? |
| |[pic] |
| |12.5 |
| | |
| |13 |
| | |
| |11 |
| | |
| |10.3 |
| | |
| Question 25 | Multiple Choice | |
| |[pic]The mean of a distribution is 14 and the |
| |standard deviation is 5. What is the value of the|
| |coefficient of variation? |
| |[pic] |
| |60.4% |
| | |
| |48.3% |
| | |
| |35.7% |
| | |
| |27.8% |
| | |
26. What is the standard deviation for the numbers: 75, 83, 96, 100, 121 and 125?
a) 18.2
b) 16.2
c) 17.3
d) 18.9
27. What is the standard deviation of the first 10 natural numbers (1 to 10)?
a) 2.87
b) 2.01
c) 3.87
d) 4.87
|1 |2 |3 |4 |5 |6 |7 |
|5|(a) |
|7| |
|.| |
|b|the correlational method. @ |
|.| |
|c|a controlled experiment. |
|.| |
d. The survey method
In an experiment to find out if taking steroids increases muscle mass scores, the muscle mass scores would be
|a. |the independent variable. |
|b. |a control variable. |
|c. |an extraneous variable. |
| |the dependent variable. @ |
1. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following?
a. Consistency or stability @
b. Appropriateness of interpretations on the basis of test scores
c. Ways in which people are the same
d. A rank order of participants on some characteristic
2. An ordinal scale is:
a. The simplest form of measurement
b. A rank-order scale of measurement @
c. A scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbers
d. A scale with an absolute zero point
e. A categorical scale
16. Which of the following is not a type of reliability?
a. Test-retest
b. Split-half
c. Content @
d. Internal consistency
6. Which of these is not a method of data collection.
a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Experiments @
d. Observations
10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s predetermined response categories
b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own words
c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words @
d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words
15. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n):
a. Interview protocol
b. Event sampling
c. Summated rating scale @
d. Ranking
16. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data collection that are used by educational researchers?
a. Observation
b. Interviews
c. Questionnaires
d. Checklists @
18. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:
a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. All of the above are methods of data collection @
1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called:
a. A nonrandom sampling method
b. A quota sample
c. A snowball sample
d. An Equal probability selection method @
2. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?
a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate
b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within
each ethnic group at random.
c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number
table to pick cases from the table. @
d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.
7. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?
a. Snowball sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
e. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling @
8. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a sample has been taken?
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
b. A small sample based on simple random sampling
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling @
d. A small cluster sample
9. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling @
10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?
a. Cluster sampling @
b. Simple random sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Proportional stratified sampling
12. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method called ______.
a. Simple random sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Convenience sampling @
16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. Snowball @
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
d. Quota
17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed in your chapter?
a. Simple random sampling @
b. Proportional stratified sampling
c. Cluster random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?
a. Cluster sampling @
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
e. They are all type of nonrandom sampling
24. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.
a. Sampling @
b. Census
c. Survey research
d. None of the above
28. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.
a. Sample @
b. Population
c. Statistic
d. Element
30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling @
d. Snowball sampling
1. When a extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent variable and influences the dependent variable, it is called:
a. Another dependent variable
b. A confounding variable @
c. A moderating variable
d. An unreliable variable
8. An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent variable and also influences the dependent variable is known as a _______________.
a Confounding variable @
b. Third variable
c. Second variable
d. Both a and b are correct
1. Analysis of covariance is:
a. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific variables @
b. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects
c. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups
d. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables
8. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?
a. Presence technique
b. Amount technique
c. Type technique
d. Random technique @
9. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment variable is introduced into the research setting.
a. One-group pretest-posttest design
b. Pretest-posttest control group design @
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
d. Both b and c
11. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____.
a. Experimental group @
b. Control group
c. Participant group
d. Independent group
12. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for both known and unknown variables?
a. Building the extraneous variable into the design
b. Matching
c. Random assignment @
d. Analysis of covariance
13. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the ________.
a. Experimental group
b. Control group @
c. Treatment group
d. Independent group
14. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?
a. Random assignment @
b. Matching
c. Counterbalancing
d. None of the above
15. Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to groups in an experimental study?
a. Split-half (e.g., first half versus second half of a school directory)
b. Even versus odd numbers
c. Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program @
d. Let the researcher decide which group will be the best
22. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes precedence over all other methods?
a. Matching individual participants
b. Holding extraneous variables
c. Building the extraneous variable into the research design
d. Counterbalancing
e. Randomly assign research participants to the groups @
23. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect produced by the ____.
a. Dependent variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Independent variable @
d. Confounding variable
24. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental treatment conditions.
a. Factorial design
b. Repeated measures design @
c. Replicated design
d. Pretest-posttest control-group design
3. Partial correlation analysis involves:
a. Examining the relationship between two or more variables controlling for additional
variables statistically @
b. Including only one group in a correlational analysis
c. Matching participants on potential confounding variables
d. Limiting the sample to individuals at a constant level of an extraneous variable
14. Which one of the following is not a step in nonexperimental research?
a. Determine research problem and hypotheses
b. Analyze data
c. Interpret results
d. All are steps @
15. If a research finding is statistically significant, then ____.
a. The observed result is probably not due to chance @
b. The observed result cannot possibly be due to chance
c. The observed result is probably a chance result
d. The null hypothesis of “no relationship” is probably true
17. Which of the following independent variables cannot be manipulated in a research study?
a. Gender
b. Ethnicity
c. Intelligence and other traits
d. None of the above can be manipulated in a research study @
25. If a correlation coefficient is .96, we would probably be able to say that the relationship is ____.
a. Weak
b. Strong
c. Statistically significant
d. b is true and c is probably true @
32. The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of _________ relationship present between two variables.
a. Curvilinear
b. Nonlinear
c. Linear and quadratic
d. Linear @
1. A researcher was interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are considered:
a. Primary sources @
b. Secondary Sources
c. External critics
d. Internal critics
2. The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is referred to as:
a. Sourcing
b. Internal criticism
c. Secondary criticism
d. External criticism @
3. A researcher studying the history of physical education finds a manuscript that purports to be from the 14th century. Before he uses the source, he goes to three other experts who help him identify whether the manuscript is authentic or not. His authentification of the object is referred to as:
a. Positive criticism
b. Internal criticism
c. Secondary criticism
d. External criticism @
4. to know the accuracy of the information contained in the sources present in the historical data is :
a. Positive criticism
b. Internal criticism @
c. External criticism
d. Secondary criticism
6. Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons?
a. To identify the relationship that the past has to the present
b. To evaluate and record accomplishments of individuals or entities
c. To uncover the unknown
d. All of the above
7. Historical research is interpretative.
a. True @
b. False
c. sometime true
d. sometime false
8. The following is a step in the process of historical research?
a. Preparing a report or narrative exposition
b. Identifying a research topic and formulation of the research problem or question
c. Data collection and/or literature review
d. All of the above @
10. In historical research, a primary source _________.
a. Consists of firsthand accounts by witnesses to events @
b. Can consist of sources that include original maps, diaries, transcripts of the minutes of a meeting, and photographs
c. Both a and b @
d. none of the above
11. In historical research secondary sources are _________.
a. Generally considered more useful that primary sources
b. Generally considered less useful than primary sources @
14. The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information contained in the sources collected is known as ______.
a. External criticism
b. Internal criticism @
c. Vagueness
d. Presentism
1. What is the median of the following set of scores?
18, 6, 12, 10, 14 ?
a. 10
b. 14
c. 18
d. 12 @
2. Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal distribution?
a. 34%
b. 95%
c. 99%
d. 68% @
3. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is
a. The standard deviation @
b. The difference between a score and the mean
c. The range
d. The mean
5. The standard deviation is:
a. The square root of the variance
b. A measure of variability
c. An approximate indicator of how numbers vary from the mean
d. All of the above @
6. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics.
a. True
b. False @
8. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ____.
a. Line graph
b. Bar graph @
c. Scatterplot
d. Vertical graph
9. The goal of ___________ is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific set of data.
a. Inferential statistics
b. Descriptive statistics @
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
10. The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the ____.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode @
d. Range
11. As a general rule, the _______ is the best measure of central tendency because it is more precise.
a. Mean @
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range
13. Why are variance and standard deviation the most popular measures of variability?
a. They are the most stable and are foundations for more advanced statistical analysis @
b. They are the most simple to calculate with large data sets
c. They provide nominally scaled data
d. None of the above
14. ____________ is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values of a dependent variable based on the values of one or more independent variables.
a. Regression analysis @
b. Regression coefficient
c. Regression equation
d. Regression line
15. The ______ is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic average.
a. Mean @
b. Median
c. Mode
d. All of the above
16. ___________ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two quantitative variables.
a. Bar graphs
b. Pie graphs
c. Line graphs
d. Scatterplots @
17. The _______ is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data are severely skewed.
a. Mean
b. Median @
c. Mode
d. Range
18. Which of the following is the formula for range?
a. H + L
b. L x H
c. L - H
d. H – L @
19. Which is a raw score that has been transformed into standard deviation units?
a. z score @
b. SDU score
c. t score
d. e score
20. Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability?
a. Median @
b. Variance
c. Standard deviation
d. Range
21. Which of the following is NOT a common measure of central tendency?
a. Mode
b. Range @
c. Median
d. Mean
22. What is the median of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?
a. 7.5
b. 6
c. 7 @
d. 4
23. What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?
a. 7.5
b. 400,005.2 @
c. 7
d. 4
24. Which of the following is interpreted as the percentage of scores in a reference group that falls below a particular raw score?
a. Standard scores
b. Percentile rank @
c. Reference group
d. None of the above
25. The median is ______.
a. The middle point @
b. The highest number
c. The average
d. Affected by extreme scores
26. Which measure of central tendency takes into account the magnitude of scores?
a. Mean @
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range
27. If a test was generally very easy, except for a few students who had very low scores, then the distribution of scores would be _____.
a. Positively skewed
b. Negatively skewed @
c. Not skewed at all
d. Normal
29. Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile, or the middle point in a set of numbers arranged in order of magnitude?
a. Mode
b. Median @
c. Mean
d. Variance
30. If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is __________.
a. Negatively skewed @
b. Positively skewed
c. Symmetrically skewed
d. Symmetrical
31. In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?
a. Mutually exclusive
b. Exhaustive
c. Both A and B @
d. Neither A nor B
1. Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter?
a. SD
b. σ .....
c. r
d. 0
3. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?
a. The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long run
b. You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population parameter
c. You can be “5% confident” that your interval will not include the population parameter
d. All of the above statements are true @
5. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?
a. The coin is not fair
b. There is a correlation in the population
c. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population @
d. The defendant is guilty
6. The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how many group means?
a. Three or more
b. Two or more @
7. What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?
a. Sampling error
b. Sample error
c. Standard error @
d. Simple error
8. Hypothesis testing is the key branches of the field of inferential statistics?
a. True @
b. False
9. A ______ is a subset of a _________.
a. Sample, population @
b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter
d. Parameter, statistic
10. A _______ is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a ______ is a numerical characteristic of a population.
a. Sample, population
b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter @
d. Parameter, statistic
12. As a general rule, researchers tend to use ____ percent confidence intervals.
a. 99%
b. 95% @
c. 50%
d. none of the above
13. Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting when he or she is engaging in hypothesis testing?
a. The alternative hypothesis @
b. The null hypothesis
c. Both the alternative and null hypothesis
d. Neither the alternative or null hypothesis
14. When p05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship, it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a significance or alpha level of .05).
a. True
b. False @
16. _________ are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval.
a. Confidence intervals
b. Confidence limits @
c. Levels of confidence
d. Margin of error
17. _____ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually false.
a. Type I error
b. Type II error @
c. Type III error
d. Type IV error
_____ results if you reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually true.
a. Type I error @
b. Type II error
c. Type III error
d. Type IV error
18. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________.
a. Repeated sampling
b. Small sample
c. Large sample @
d. Large population
19. the probability of not committing a type II error is known as:
a. power of the test @
b. level of significance
c. confidence level
d. degree of freedom
20. a test is known as ------------- if it test the hypothesis that whether the means of two groups are significantly different or not.
a. two tailed test @
b. one tailed test
c. analysis of covarience
d. one way ANOVA
22. ________ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.
a. Standard error @
b. Sample standard deviation
c. Replication error
d. Meta error
25. When the researcher rejects a true null hypothesis, a ____ error occurs.
a. Type I @
b. Type A
c. Type II
d. Type B
26. A post hoc test is ___.
a. A test to compare two or more means in one overall test
b. A test to determine regression to the mean
c. A follow-up test to the analysis of variance when there are three or more groups @
d. A follow-up test to the independent t-test
27. The use of the laws of probability to make inferences and draw statistical conclusions about populations based on sample data is referred to as ___________.
a. Descriptive statistics
b. Inferential statistics @
c. Sample statistics
d. Population statistics
28. A statistical test used to compare 3 or more group means is known as _____.
a. One-way analysis of variance @
b. Post hoc test
c. t-test for correlation coefficients
d. Simple regression
30. The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis is called the:
a. Significance level
b. Alpha level
c. Probability value
d. Both a and b are correct @
31. Which ____ percent confidence interval will be the widest (i.e., the least precise) for a particular data set that includes exactly 500 cases?
a. 99% @
b. 95%
c. 90%
d. None of the above
32. As sample size goes up, what tends to happen to 95% confidence intervals?
a. They become more precise
b. They become more narrow
c. They become wider
d. Both a and b @
33. __________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.
a. Type I error
b. Type II error @
c. Type A error
d. Type B error
34. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of hypothesis testing?
a. When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejected
b. When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejected
d. When the null hypothesis is false, it should not be rejected
e. Both a and b are true @
36. Assuming innocence until “proven” guilty, a Type I error occurs when an innocent person is found guilty.
a. True @
b. False
37. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population parameter.
a. Standard error
b. Sampling error @
c. Difference error
d. None of the above
38. The “equals” sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting hypothesis testing?
a. Null @
b. Alternative
c. It can appear in both the null and the alternative hypothesis
39. A Type I error is also known as a ______.
a. False positive @
b. False negative
c. Double negative
d. Positive negative
40. A Type II error is also known as a ______.
a. False positive
b. False negative @
c. Double negative
d. Positive negative
41. the formula of rank order correlation coefficient is.
a. 1-6€D2/N(N2-1)
b. 1+6€D2/N(N2-1)
c. 1-6€D2/N2(N-1)
d. none of the above
The number of basketball shoots is a type of:
a) Discrete variables @
b) Continuous variables
c) True variables
d) None of the above
The sum of deviation of all the score in a set from their mean is
a) Zero @
b) Less than zero
c) More than zero
d) One
To find out the mode from median and mean, the formula is
a) 3 median -2 mean @
b) 3mean – 2 median
c) 3 median + 2 mean
d) 3 mean +2 median
In positively skewed distribution, the exact position of central tendency is
a) Mode < median < mean @
b) mean < median < mode
c) Mode < mean < median
d) mean < mode < median
In negatively skewed distribution, the exact position of central tendency is
a) Mode > median > mean @
b) mean > median > Mode
c) Median > mode > mean
d) Mode > mean > median
The measures of variability taken about median is
a) Quartile deviation @
b) Range
c) Mean deviation
d) SD
In a normal distribution the value of mean, median and mode are:
a) mean=median= mode @
b) mean >median>mode
c) Mode > mean > median
d) Mode < median < mean
The lack of symmetricity of normal curve is know as
a) Kurtosis
b) Skewness @
c) Flatness
d) None of the above
The measure of flatness of normal curve is known as:-
a) Kurtosis
b) Skewness
c) Binomial expansion
d) None of the above
If the calculated value of t is greater than the tabulated value of t:-
a) The significant difference will occur
b) The significant effect will occur
c) The alternate hypothesis will accept
d) All the above
2. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers, counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically help them solve local problems?
a. action research @
b. basic research
c. predictive research
d. orientational research
3. How much confidence should you place in a single research study?
a. you should completely trust a single research study.
b. you should trust research findings after different researchers have found the same findings @
c. neither a nor b
d. both a and b
4. The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is built from which type of research?
a. basic research @
b. action research
c. evaluation research
d. orientational research
5. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises?
a. rationalism
b. deductive reasoning @
c. inductive reasoning
d. probabilistic
7. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the "same variables but different people" is which of the following?
a. exploration
b. hypothesis
c. Replication @
d. empiricism
8. ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience.
a. rationalism
b. deductive reasoning
c. logic
d. Empiricism @
15. Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory?
a. Inductive @
b. Deductive
c. Imductive
d. Top down
18. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method @
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
19. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?
a. Deductive method @
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
20. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method @
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
4. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ___.
a. a constant
b. a variable @
c. a cause-and-effect relationship
d. a descriptive relationship
5. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):
a. categorical variable
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable @
d. intervening variable
6. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:
a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. it uses the deductive scientific method
d. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment @
8. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-and-effect relationships?
a. nonexperimental Research
b. experimental Research @
9. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. extraneous variables are never present
b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists
d. manipulation of the independent variable @
10. In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher cannot manipulate the independent variable.
a. basic research
b. quantitative research
c. experimental research
d. causal-comparative and correlational research @
11. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. resistance to manipulation
b. manipulation of the independent variable @
c. the use of open-ended questions
d. focuses only on local problems
12.. A positive correlation is present when _______.
a. two variables move in opposite directions.
b. two variables move in the same direction. @
c. one variable goes up and one goes down
d. several variables never change.
13. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative method for one phase and the quantitative method for another phase is known as ______.
a. action research
b. basic research
c. quantitative research
d. mixed method research @
e. mixed model research
15.. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____?
a. experimental research
b. historical research @
c. replication
d. archival research
16. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research @
c. ethnography
d. correlational research
17.. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a. age, temperature, income, height
b. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c. gender, religion, ethnic group
d. both a and b @
18.. What is the opposite of a variable?
a. a constant @
b. an extraneous variable
c. a dependent variable
d. a data set
20. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?
a. age
b. annual income
c. grade point average
d. Religion @
21. In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.
a. variable
b. method
c. Constant @
d. control group
23. A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded elementary schools. She develops a model that posits parent involvement as an important variable. She believes that parent involvement has an impact on children by increasing their motivation to do school work. Thus, in her model, greater parent involvement leads to higher student motivation, which in turn creates higher student achievement. Student motivation is what kind of variable in this study?
a. Manipulated variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Confounding variable
d. Mediating or intervening variable @
25. Which correlation is the strongest?
a. +.10
b. -.95
c. +.90
d. -1.00 @
26. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive @
b. Negative
c. Perfect
d. They are not correlated
6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of the development of a research idea?
a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis @
b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, and hypothesis
c. Research topic, hypothesis, research purpose, research question, research problem
d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose
9. Sources of researchable problems can include:
a. Researchers’ own experiences as educators
b. Practical issues that require solutions
c. Theory and past research
d. All of the above @
12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do which of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
d. All of the above @
17. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:
a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
b. Skills required of the researcher
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above @
18. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study” generally ______.
a. Is made prior to the literature review
b. Is made after the literature review
c. Will help guide the research process
d. b and c @
22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?
a. Introduction
b. Method @
c. Data analysis
d. Discussion
23. Research hypotheses are ______.
a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. b and c @
25. A research plan _____.
a. is a blue print of the study
b. is a conclusion of the study
c. is a thesis of the study
d. All of the above
27. The Introduction section of the research plan
a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies
b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c. gives boundaries and significance of the study
d. All of the above @
28. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?
a. Everyday life
b. Practical issues
c. Past research
d. Theory
e. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas @
|a|They are assigned to experimental and control groups from a sample which is representative of the larger population. |
|.| |
|b|They each have an equal chance of being assigned to either the experimental or control group. |
|.| |
|c|They are assigned to experimental and control groups so that the groups differ on some critical variable before the experiment begins.|
|.| |
|d|neither the experimenter nor the subject knows whether the subject is in the experimental or control group. |
|.| |
| |We wish to test the hypothesis that music improves learning. We compare test scores of students who study to music with those who |
| |study in silence. Which of the following is an extraneous variable in this experiment? |
| |a. |
| |the presence or absence of music |
| | |
| |b. |
| |the students' test scores |
| | |
| |c. |
| |the amount of time allowed for the studying |
| | |
| |d. |
| |silence |
| | |
| | |
| |An experiment is performed to see if background music improves learning. Two groups study the same material, one while listening to |
| |music and another without music. The independent variable is |
| |a. |
| |learning. |
| | |
| |b. |
| |the size of the group. |
| | |
| |c. |
| |the material studied. |
| | |
| |d. |
| |music. |
| | |
| | |
| |Which of the following coefficients of correlation indicates the strongest relationship between two sets of variables? |
| |a. |
| |-0.98 |
| | |
| |b. |
| |0.90 |
| | |
| |c. |
| |0.00 |
| | |
| |d. |
| |1.20 |
| | |
| | |
| |The most powerful research tool is a (an) |
| |a. |
| |clinical study. |
| | |
| |b. |
| |experiment. |
| | |
| |c. |
| |survey. |
| | |
| |d. |
| |correlational study. |
| | |
| | |
| |Students who do better in high school tend to do better in college. This is an example of |
| |a. |
| |a negative correlation. |
| | |
| |b. |
| |a zero correlation. |
| | |
| |c. |
| |a positive correlation. |
| | |
| |d. |
| |a perfect correlation. |
| | |
| | |
| |In the traditional learning experiment, the effect of practice on performance is investigated. Performance is the __________ variable.|
| |a. |
| |independent |
| | |
| |b. |
| |extraneous |
| | |
| |c. |
| |dependent |
| | |
| |d. |
| |control |
| | |
| | |
| |An advantage of the experimental method in physical education is |
| |a. |
| |the identification of a cause- and-effect relationship. |
| | |
| |b. |
| |similar to the correlational method in that causality is determined. |
| | |
| |c. |
| |that the surroundings are always similar to real life experiences. |
| | |
| |d. |
| |that it is an informal way to investigate behavior. |
| | |
| | |
| |A correlation coefficient of 0 means that there is |
| |a. |
| |a strong negative relationship between the two variables. |
| | |
| |b. |
| |a strong positive relationship between the two variables. |
| | |
| |c. |
| |a perfect positive relationship between the two variables. |
| | |
| |d. |
| |no relationship between the two variables. |
| | |
| | |
| | |
| | |
| | |
| | |
The independent variable in an experiment is
|a|the subject himself. |
|.| |
|b|a measure of the subject's behavior. |
|.| |
|c|the variable that the experimenter chooses to |
|.|manipulate. |
|d|any unwanted variable that may adversely affect the |
|.|subject's performance. |
| |A simple experiment has two groups of subjects called |
| |a. |
| |the dependent group and the independent group. |
| | |
| |b. |
| |the extraneous group and the independent group. |
| | |
| |c. |
| |the before group and the after group. |
| | |
| |d. |
| |the control group and the experimental group. |
| | |
Which of the following coefficients of correlation indicates the weakest relationship between two sets of variables?
|a. |0.08 |
|b. |-0.29 |
|c. |0.48 |
|d. |-1.00 |
A correlation coefficient of -1.09 indicates a(n)
|a. |strong positive correlation. |
|b. |strong negative correlation. |
|c. |cause/effect relationship. |
|d. |error in computation. |
Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers, counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically help them solve local problems?
a. action research @
b. basic research
c. predictive research
d. orientational research
The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is built from which type of research?
a. basic research @ b. action research c. evaluation research d. orientational research
Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?
a. Deductive method @
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory?
a. Inductive @
b. Deductive
c. Imductive
d. Top down
A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):
a. categorical variable b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. intervening variable
Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-and-effect relationships?
a. nonexperimental Research b. experimental Research
What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. extraneous variables are never present b. a positive correlation usually exists c. a negative correlation usually exists d. manipulation of the independent variable @
A positive correlation is present when _______.
a. two variables move in opposite directions.
b. two variables move in the same direction.@
c. one variable goes up and one goes down
d. several variables never change.
Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____? \
a. experimental research
b. historical research
c. replication
d. archival research
……. research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research
c. ethnography
d. correlational research
Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a. age, temperature, income, height
b. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c. gender, religion, ethnic group
d. both a and b @
What is the opposite of a variable?
a. a constant @
b. an extraneous variable
c. a dependent variable
d. a data set
Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?
a. age
b. annual income
c. grade point average
d. religion @
In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.
a. variable
b. method
c. constant @
d. control group
Which correlation is the strongest?
a. +.10
b. -.95
c. +.90
d. -1.00
The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Perfect
d. They are not correlated
Which of the following statements are true? (Check one)
I. Categorical variables are the same as qualitative variables.
II. Categorical variables are the same as quantitative variables.
III. Quantitative variables can be continuous variables.
a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) I and III only
The catabolism is known as:
(A)Destructive Metabolism (B)Destructive Metabolism
(C) Anabolism (D) glycolysis
2. In which Metabolism ATP is consumed:
(A) Catabolism (B) Anabolism
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Digestion
3. Physiology is the study of:
(A) Function of human body (B) structure of human body
(C) 1954 (D) 1955
4. Phosphagen means:
(A) ATP+CP (B) CP
(C) Glycogen (D) Pyruvic Acid
5. Which enzyme is used for the production of ATP from CP :
(A) Creatine Kinase (B) ATPase
(C) APT Symthesase (D) Non of these
6. Glycolysis occurs in:
(A) Mitochondria of the cell (B) Nucleus of the cell
(C) cytoplasm of the cell (D) ribosome of the cell
7. Carrier of oxygen in the human body is:
(A) Haemoglobin (B) WBC
(C) Mitochondria (D) Non of these
8. the ATP produced in complete breakdown of 1 gm of Glycogen :
(A) 34 (B) 36
(C) 39 (D) 38
9. Glycogen stored in:
(A) liver (B) blood
(C) kidney (D) stomach
10. The end product in anaerobic glycolysis is:
(A) lactate (B) pyruvate
(C) Co2 (D) Acetyl CoA
11. NAD and FAD act as:
(A) Electron carrier (B) energy giving
(C) by product (D) Non of these
12. glycogenolysis is the formation of:
(A) Glucose from gycogen (B) glycogen from glucose
(C) Glycogen from lactic acid (D) ATP from Glycogen
13. cori cycle is the formation of:
(A) Glucose from glycogen (B) glycogen from lactic acid
(C) glycogen from pyruvic acid (D) acetyl CoA from pyruvate
14. The total ATP produced in ETC is:
(A) 38 (B) 39
(C) 36 (D) 34
15. Kreb’s cycle occur in:
(A) cytoplasm (B) mitochondria
(C) nucleus (D) blood
16. The main function of enzyme is:
(A) speed up the reaction (B) electron carrier
(C) energy giving (D) all of these
17. The breakdown of Fat is known as:
(A) transamination (B) glycogenolysis
(C) beta oxidation (D) fattylysis
18. ATP denotes as:
(A) Adenine tri phosphate (B) adenomine tri phosphate
(C) adenosine tetra phosphate (D) adenosine tri phosphate
19. The immediate source of energy is
(A) ADP (B) ATP
(C) Glucose (D) glycogen
20. The main source of energy is:
(A) Glucose (B) ATP
(C) glycogen (D) Fat
21. Alactic system is:
(A) anerobic (B) aerobic
(C) oxidative (D) all of these
22. In the human body the store house of the energy is:
(A) cells (B) nerves
(C) glands (D) spinal cord
23. Which is the rich source of Vitamin ‘C’ ?
(A) Eggs (B) Milk
(C) Citrus fruits (D) Green vegetables
24. Milk, eggs, fruits and green vegetables come under:
(A) Protective food (B) Body building food
(C) Energy food (D) None of these
25. Which of the following is a communicable disease ?
(A) Beri-Beri (B) Scurvy
(C) Malaria (D) None of these
26. Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency most commonly affects the power of:
(A) Eyes (B) Lungs
(C) Heart (D) All of these
26. The term “metabolism”
A. refers to all the chemical reactions that occur in the body.
B. includes the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules.
C. includes the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler molecules.
D. includes anabolism and catabolism.
E. is described by all of the above.
27. ATP
A. is formed during the hydrolysis of ADP.
B. is used by cells for the storage of energy.
C. represents the energy “currency” of all cells.
D. A and C.
E. B and C.
28. The "basic unit of life" is:
a. the atom b. water
c. the cell d. the chemical level of organization
29. Essential fatty acids are active in the promotion of:
(A) Growth (B) Development
(C) Both of the above (D) None of these
1. Chromium supplementation might benefit the endurance athlete by ___.
a. increasing 2,3 DPG
b. increasing steady state metabolism
c. improving maximal oxygen consumption
d. improving carbohydrate metabolism
2. Iron supplementation for anemic subjects will improve ___.
a. anaerobic power
b. hemoglobin
c. ventilation during maximum work
d. WBC count
3. Phosphate loading is thought to ___.
a. improve maximal oxygen uptake
b. increase 2,3 DPG
c. promote a better ventilatory response
d. none of the above
4. An increase in the body fat stores is accomplished by an increase in ___.
a. fat cell size
b. fat cell number
c. fat cell size to a critical level, then an increase in number
d. fat cell number to a critical level, then an increase in size
5. The respiratory centers are located in the ___.
a. cerebral cortex
b. medulla oblongata
c. thalamus
d. central thorax
6. When the inspiratory center is triggered into action, the ___ space becomes ___ subatmospheric, thus causing the ___ space to become subatmospheric and air moves ___ the lungs.
a. intrapleural/less/intrapulmonary/out
b. intrapulmonary/less/intrapleural/in
c. intrapulmonary/more/intrapleural/out
d. intrapleural/more/intrapulmonary/in
7. The cuff pressure at which the last sound can be detected is the ___ pressure.
a. systolic
b. diastolic
c. mean
d. mean arterial
8. The initial increase in heart rate with exercise appears to be a result of a(an) _____, and later during exercise a(an) _____.
a. decrease in accelerator tone/increase in vagal tone
b. withdrawal of vagal influence/increase in SNS tone
c. increase in PsNS tone/increase in sympathetic tone
d. none of the above
9. Following an aerobic training program, heart rate tends to be ___ at the same fixed work bout because ___ is generally increased.
a. lower/body weight
b. higher/stroke volume
c. higher/mean arterial pressure
d. lower/stroke volume
10. Maximal oxygen uptake ___ with increasing age.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
d. none of the above
11. Which of the following changes in lung capacity may be observed in sedentary aging adults ___.
a. decreased inspiratory volume
b. decreased vital capacity
c. increased residual volume
d. all of the above
12. With immobilization, which of the following is responsible for the greatest change in skeletal muscle ___.
a. decreased protein synthesis
b. increased protein degradation
c. decrease protein degradation
d. increased protein synthesis
13. Bicarbonate loading is proposed to have ergogenic potential for ___.
a. skill-type sports
b. strength-type sports
c. middle distance sports
d. endurance-type sports
14. Bicycle ergometers allow for an easier blood pressure measurement and blood sampling because ___.
a. maximum physiological values are higher than when tested on a treadmill
b. the pumping activity of the legs increases blood flow, thereby allowing easy blood collection
c. the upper body remains relatively stable
d. cycle is a familiar activity to the participants
15. A primary reason to include stress testing in a medical evaluation is to ___.
a. screen for possible silent coronary disease
b. reproduce and document exercise-related chest symptoms
c. detect an abnormal blood pressure response
d. all of the above
16. Thickening of blood vessel wall lining, and a progressive narrowing of the
vessels is referred to as ___.
a. myocardial ischemia
b. arteriosclerosis
c. atherosclerosis
d. diabetes
17. A transcient, reversible state of a lack of oxygen in the heart caused by reducted blood flow is termed ___.
a. necrosis
b. functional lesion
c. muscle death
d. ischemia
18. The following conditions are associated with an improvement in coronary artery blood flow ___.
a. reduction in stress
b. refrain from cigarette smoking
c. a and b
d. hypertension
19. Regarding nitrates, which of the following is not true ___.
a. little effect on heart rate and contractility
b. decreased afterload
c. increased preload
d. reduces wall tension
20. Beta-blockers are also referred to as ___ that ___ heart rate and ventricular contractility, and ___ myocardial oxygen consumption.
a. adrenergic blocking agents/decrease/increase
b. adrenergic blocking agents/decrease/decrease
c. cholinergic blocking agents/increase/decrease
d. none of the above
21. Calcium-blockers ___ coronary arteries by ___ calcium entry.
a. vasodilate/enhancing
b. vasodilate/blocking
c. have no effect on/stimulating
d. none of the above
22. Among the following, which is true with regard to unstable angina ___.
a. unprovoked pain
b. pain that lasts 20 minutes or longer
c. unpredictable pain
d. all of the above
23. Myocardial infarctions usually occur in the ___ ventricle, thus involving the ___ coronary artery.
a. right/transverse
b. left/anterior descending
c. right/collateral
d. left/posterior descending
24. The electrical impulse of the heart spreads from ___ via the ___.
a. outside to inside/coronary arteries
b. inside to outside/purkinje fibers
c. middle to inside to outside/myocardium
d. epicardial to subendocardial/bundle branches
25. A narrowed pulse pressure with increasing workload indicates a low ___ and a very good likelihood of a ___ left ventricle.
a. stroke volume/functionally good
b. stroke volume/failing
c. end-diastolic volume/poor
d. end-systolic volume/healthy
26. Increased ventricular contractility results in a(an) ___ in myocardial oxygen consumption.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. no change
d. none of the above
27. When doing a squat exercise, which phase is considered eccentric for the quadriceps muscle group ___.
a. when the hips, knees, and ankles undergo flexion
b. when the hips, knees, and ankles undergo extension
c. both flexion and extension are eccentric
d. neither a nor b is eccentric
28. All of the following muscles flex the shoulder joint except ___.
a. subscapularis
b. biceps brachii
c. coracobrachialis
d. anterior deltoid
29. Which of the following is the classic “gold standard” in assessing body composition?
a. height and weight charts
b. skinfolds
c. hydrostatic weighing
d. bioelectrical impedance
30. Of the following types of resistance training protocols, which is static?
a. circuit
b. Isotonic
c. isometric
d. pyramid
31. The ___ component of the exercise prescription is used to prevent blood pooling in the lower limbs.
a. muscular strength training
b. cool-down
c. warm-up
d. heart rate training threshold
32. During exercise, heart rate is linearly related to ___.
a. age
b. body weight
c. oxygen consumption
d. stroke volume
33. The volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle with each beat is ___.
a. cardiac output
b. stroke volume
c. ejection fraction
d. cardiac index
34. The thigh skinfold measurement should be taken ___.
a. two inches above the patella
b. only with bioelectrical impedance
c. with a horizontal fold on the anterior midline of the thigh
d. with a vertical fold midway between the patella and the inguinal crease (line)
35. With low resistance, high repetition, high speed training, muscle ___ is developed.
a. strength
b. endurance
c. power
d. none of the above
36. The force arm of a third-class lever is always ___ the resistance arm.
a. longer than
b. shorter than
c. equal to
d. force times the force arm of
37. Regarding the following types of research, which one examines cause-and-effect relationships?
a. qualitative
b. descriptive
c. longitudinal
d. experimental
38. In research, ___ variables are manipulated by the investigator.
a. dependent
b. representative
c. independent
d. control
39. Researchers use correlational research because it allows them to ___.
a. predict relationships
b. establish cause-and-effect between two variables
c. provide proof to support conclusions
d. all of the above
40. Systolic blood pressure ___ with the transition from standing to lying down to head-down (45 degrees).
a. decreases
b. increases
c. is unchanged
d. increases, then decreases
[pic]
Answer Key
for Sample Questions
| 1. | 11. b | 21. b | 31. b |
|d | 12. a | 22. c | 32. c |
| 2. | 13. c | 23. b | 33. b |
|b | 14. c | 24. b | 34. d |
| 3. | 15. b | 25. b | 35. c |
|a | 16. c | 26. a | 36. b |
| 4. | 17. d | 27. a | 37. d |
|c | 18. c | 28. a | 38. c |
| 5. | 19. c | 29. c | 39. a |
|b | 20. b | 30. c | 40. c |
| 6. | | | |
|d | | | |
| 7. | | | |
|b | | | |
| 8. | | | |
|b | | | |
| 9. | | | |
|d | | | |
| 10. b | | | |
If enzymes could not be used during a reaction, which of the following could be added to a system to make the reaction occur faster?
A) substrate
B) energy, possibly in the form of heat
C) product
D) water
E) none of the choices are correct
Answer: B
2. Which of the following is LEAST likely to enhance the activity of an enzyme?
A) phosphorylation
B) a vitamin
C) 2-4 degree increase in temperature
D) inorganic ions
E) acid
Answer: E
3. Which form of energy is NOT correctly associated with an example?
A) kinetic energy: fat molecules
B) kinetic energy: movement of muscles
C) chemical energy: glucose
D) potential energy: water held behind a dam
E) potential energy: ATP
Answer: A
4. Which best describes the first law of thermodynamics?
A) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter.
B) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another.
C) Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter.
D) Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs.
E) Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another.
Answer: B
5. Which best describes the second law of thermodynamics?
A) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter.
B) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another.
C) Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter.
D) Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs.
E) Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another.
Answer: D
6. Which of the following is consistent with the laws of physics governing energy?
A) When a liter of gasoline is burned in a car engine, 100% of its energy goes into moving the car along the road.
B) You eat a "quarter-pounder" hamburger and assemble exactly a quarter-pound of additional body weight on your body.
C) Eventually sunlight that is absorbed on the earth returns to space as dispersed heat.
D) A calorie of sunlight becomes a calorie of plant tissue that, eaten by you, becomes a calorie of heat lost in muscle "power."
E) Chemical bonds are a case of converting energy to matter; breaking the bonds converts matter to energy.
Answer: C
7. While science is not yet able to describe the phenomenon of "thinking" in physical terms, we can be certain that it is a process involving the metabolism of brain cells. With positron emission tomography (PET scan) it is possible to inject short-lived isotopes and image the regions of the brain that have the most active metabolism during various mental activities. For different mental functions, different regions and amounts of nerve cells become active. However,
A) the cellular energy expended in "thinking" must be less than the chemical bond energy supplied in food to these brain cells.
B) "thought" cannot be linked to cell processes because energy is not related to matter.
C) since thoughts can occur over and over, the requirement for a continual input of energy to prevent entropy does not apply to this cell activity.
D) "thinking" is beyond the scope of science to study.
E) None of these is correct
Answer: A
8. A living organism represents stored energy in the form of chemical compounds. When an organism dies, what happens to this stored energy?
A) All chemicals immediately lose their high-energy bonds.
B) All molecules immediately degrade into basic elements.
C) All energy immediately leaves, and that is one manifestation that the organism is dead.
D) The chemical compounds in cells lose their organization over time because there is no longer an input of energy to maintain the organized state.
E) The chemical compounds remain exactly intact and ready to start up again unless digested by a consumer or decay organism.
Answer: D
9. All of the biochemical pathways in a cell constitute
A) coupling reactions.
B) free energy.
C) endergonic reactions only.
D) exergonic reactions only.
E) metabolism.
Answer: E
10. Endergonic reactions
A) are always coupling reactions.
B) have a negative ΔG and occur spontaneously.
C) can only occur if there is an input of energy.
D) have products with less free energy than the reactants.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: C
11. Which of these statements is NOT a consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?
A) While the total amount of energy is unchanged, the energy lost as heat is no longer useful to the cell in doing work.
B) Reactions that occur spontaneously are those that increase the amount of useful energy in a system.
C) The amount of disorder in the universe is always increasing.
D) To maintain organization of a cell, a continual input of energy is required.
E) The energy available to each successive level in an ecosystem is progressively diminished.
Answer: B
12. Coupling occurs when the energy released by an exergonic reaction is
A) used to drive another exergonic reaction.
B) used to drive an endergonic reaction.
C) lost as nonusable heat to the environment.
D) used to decrease the entropy of the universe.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: B
13. The subunits from which ATP is made are
A) ADP and phosphate.
B) FAD and NAD+.
C) FAD and NADPH.
D) ADP and FAD.
E) ADP and NAD+.
Answer: A
14. ATP is considered to be
A) an enzyme used widely in all kinds of cells.
B) a coenzyme used to inhibit or activate different enzymes.
C) a molecule that carries a great deal of chemical energy in a chemical bond.
D) the precursor of a high-energy membrane-bounded protein.
E) All of these
Answer: C
15. ATP is considered a high-energy compound because under cellular conditions, 7.3 kcal per mole of energy is released when a bond is broken between
A) the base adenine and the sugar ribose.
B) the adenosine and the phosphate groups.
C) the base adenine and the phosphate groups.
D) the adenosine diphosphate and the third phosphate.
E) All of the bonds release energy as ATP is completely broken down.
Answer: D
16. While eating a container of yogurt, you have to leave, so you store the yogurt in the refrigerator. A day later you return and find the surface of the yogurt is no longer smooth but has broken into several liquified products. You correctly guess that enzymes from your saliva, via the spoon, have continued digesting the yogurt in your absence. What will happen over time?
A) The reaction will soon stop because the amount of saliva is small, and you would have to add more saliva to continue the degradation.
B) The reaction will continue indefinitely since the enzyme is not consumed by the reaction.
C) The reaction will continue until half is digested and then stop because the reaction between substrate and product will be balanced.
D) Absolutely no degradation of the yogurt will occur naturally unless in the presence of this enzyme.
E) The reaction will stop because the enzyme will be denatured in the refrigerator.
Answer: B
17. If there are twelve different intermediate products produced in the stages for production of a molecule in a cell, we can expect that there
A) is one enzyme that carries this process through to the end product.
B) is one enzyme for degradation and another enzyme for synthesis.
C) may not be any enzymes involved if this is a natural cell product.
D) must be twelve different raw materials combined in the cell by one enzyme.
E) are about twelve enzymes, at least one responsible for each step in the metabolic pathway.
Answer: E
18. Which of the following is characteristic of enzymes?
A) They lower the energy of activation of a reaction by binding the substrate.
B) They raise the energy of activation of a reaction by binding the substrate.
C) They lower the amount of energy present in the substrate.
D) They raise the amount of energy present in the substrate.
E) They react chemically with the substrate and gradually get used up in the process.
Answer: A
19. An enzyme is generally named by adding _____ to the end of the name of the ______.
A) "-ose," cell in which it is found
B) "-ase," cell in which it is found
C) "-ose," substrate
D) "-ase," substrate
E) "-ase," coenzyme
Answer: D
20. Lactose is milk sugar, and humans produce substantial lactase enzyme to digest it when we are infants. However, we soon lose some or even all of our lactase after childhood. In such cases, undigested lactose passes to the lower intestine where bacteria break it down into lactic acid and CO2, causing painful gas bloating. This problem could be avoided by
A) avoiding all dairy products containing lactose.
B) taking lactase enzyme tablets when consuming lactose products.
C) taking any enzyme tablets when consuming dairy products.
D) consuming lactose in tablet form.
E) Both taking lactase enzyme and avoiding all dairy products would correct the problem.
Answer: E
21. Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together?
A) As the product is released, the enzyme breaks down.
B) The enzyme is like a key that fits into the substrate, which is like a lock.
C) The active site is permanently changed by its interaction with the substrate.
D) As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction.
E) All of these
Answer: D
22. Which statement is NOT true about the effects of various conditions on the activity of an enzyme?
A) Higher temperatures generally increase the activity of an enzyme up to a point.
B) Above a certain range of temperatures, an enzyme is denatured.
C) A change in pH can cause an enzyme to be inactivated.
D) An enzyme's activity is generally reduced by an increase in substrate concentration.
E) When sufficient substrate is available, the active site will nearly always be occupied.
Answer: D
23. Which term is derived from the Greek root words meaning "other space"?
A) allosteric
B) coenzyme
C) vitamin
D) enzyme
E) chemiosmosis
Answer: A
24. Which statement is NOT true about enzyme inhibition?
A) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme.
B) In noncompetitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the allosteric site of the substrate.
C) In irreversible inhibition, a poison binds to the enzyme so that it can never work again.
D) Most inhibitors act in a reversible fashion.
E) All of the statements are true.
Answer: E
25. A coenzyme is
A) an ionic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.
B) a protein cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.
C) a nonprotein organic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.
D) an ionic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.
E) a protein cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.
Answer: C
26. Solar energy is stored in which molecules during photosynthesis?
A) carbon dioxide
B) water
C) NAD
D) glucose
E) All of these
Answer: D
27. Which organelles contain functioning ATP synthase complexes in their membranes?
A) Golgi complexes and lysosomes
B) mitochondria and chloroplasts
C) endoplasmic reticulum and vesicles
D) vacuoles and vesicles
E) mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B
28. What establishes the electrochemical gradient across a membrane to provide energy for ATP production?
A) The chloroplast's electron transport system provides the ions.
B) Hydrogen ions naturally collect on the outside of the organelle membrane.
C) Hydrogen ions are pumped across the membrane by carrier proteins.
D) ATP synthase channels pump the hydrogen ions to the outside of the membrane.
E) All of the choices establish the electrochemical gradient.
Answer: C
29. Which of the following is NOT a form of potential energy?
A) glucose manufactured by a plant
B) water behind a dam
C) glycogen in an animal's liver
D) ATP in a cell
E) All of these choices are a form of potential energy
Answer: E
30. Diffuse, disorganized forms of energy
A) is given off as heat.
B) increase entropy.
C) are not usable to do work.
D) are formed during energy transformations
E) All the choices are true.
Answer: E
31. Coupling of endergonic and exergonic reactions within cells
A) permits biological reactions to proceed at temperatures consistent with life.
B) uses energy released by one reaction to fuel the other reaction.
C) utilizes ATP to carry energy between the exergonic and endergonic reactions.
D) is a common process used by both plants and animals.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
32. ATP
A) supplies energy needed to synthesize macromolecules within the cell.
B) supplies energy required to pump substances across the plasma membranes.
C) is the energy source for muscles to contract.
D) supplies the energy needed for cells to divide.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
33. Of the following, which process will NOT denature or destroy a protein?
A) heating to temperatures above 100 degrees Centigrade
B) subjecting the protein to strong acids or strong bases
C) subjecting the protein to digestive enzymes
D) dissolving the protein in distilled water
E) All of these will destroy the protein.
Answer: D
34. If a reaction results in one molecule losing an electron and a second molecule gaining that electron, the electron donor is said to be
A) reduced.
B) transformed.
C) oxidized.
D) inhibited.
E) None of these
Answer: C
35. In the electron transport systems of chloroplasts and mitochondria,
A) the system consists of a series of membrane bound carriers that transfer electrons from one carrier to another.
B) high energy electrons enter the system and low energy electrons exit the system.
C) energy release occurs when the electron transfers from one carrier to another.
D) released energy is used to pump protons across a membrane.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
36. Which statement does NOT describe a chemical equation?
A) The products are placed to the left of the arrow.
B) The reactants are placed to the left of the arrow.
C) The arrow represents the direction in which the reaction proceeds.
D) Atoms must be balanced on both sides of the arrow.
E) It represents a chemical change involving energy.
Answer: A
37. From the table below of free energy exchange, it is obvious that
[pic]
A) photosynthesis and cellular respiration have essentially the same amount of free energy generated or released.
B) free energy is released in all of these reactions except photosynthesis.
C) where the free energy is negative, formation of the products less complex than the reactants is more likely.
D) All of the choices are true.
E) None of the choices is true.
Answer: D
Use the following to answer questions 38-40:
[pic]
38. The above process takes place in the membranes of what organelles?
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplasts
C) nuclei
D) ribosomes
E) both mitochondria and chloroplasts
Answer: E
39. Two globular proteins are represented in the above diagram. What is the term for the protein on the right?
A) ATP synthase
B) Electron carrier
C) Proton carrier
D) Electron acceptor
E) sodium-potassium pump
Answer: A
40. The process illustrated above is known as
A) photosynthesis
B) respiration
C) chemiosmosis
D) transcription
E) protein synthesis
Answer: C
Use the following to answer questions 41-43:
[pic]
41. The above graph shows the rate of reaction of an enzyme at various temperatures. What is the ideal functioning temperature for this enzyme?
A) 10 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 40 degrees
D) 50 degrees
E) 60 degrees
Answer: C
42. What statement is a correct conclusion about the rate of reaction as indicated by the graph?
A) The rate increases steadily until about 40 degrees and then levels off.
B) The rate increases steadily throughout the temperature range.
C) The rate of reaction decreases throughout the temperature range.
D) The rate increases steadily then decreases steadily after reaching an optimum temperature.
E) None of these statements is correct.
Answer: D
43. What is the most likely explanation for the data represented by this graph?
A) The enzyme works rapidly at first but then gets used up in the reaction after about 50 degrees.
B) The enzyme is running out of substrate and is therefore slowing down.
C) The enzyme speeds its collisions with the substrate as it warms but begins to denature past a certain temperature.
D) The enzyme could begin to speed up its rate again after 65 degrees.
E) The enzyme is unstable unlike most enzymes that can work well across a range of temperatures.
Answer: C
1. The first recorded Olympic Games were held in the year:
(A) 677 B.C. (B) 776 B.C.
(C) 666 B.C. (D) 567 B.C.
2. Olympic Flag was hoisted first time in the year:
(A) 1920 (B) 1900
(C) 1908 (D) 1912
3. All India Council of Sports came into existence in the year:
(A) 1952 (B) 1953
(C) 1954 (D) 1955
4. The diameter of the shotput circle is:
(A) 2.5 metres (B) 2.135 metres
(C) 2 metres (D) 2.55 meters
5. Learning is a process of:
(A) Acquiring new skills (B) Observing new skills
(C) Both of the above (D) Non of these
6. Cardiac muscles are:
(A) Voluntary muscles (B) Involuntary muscles
(C) Striped muscles (D) None of these
7. Carrier of oxygen in the human body is:
(A) RBC (B) WBC
(C) Mitochondria (D) Non of these
8. The highest exclusive sports award of Govt. of India is:
(A) Padamashri Award (B) Vikram Award
(C) Arjuna Award (D) Khel Rattan
9. ‘Tennis elbow’ injury can occur to:
(A) Tennis players (B) Badminton players
(C) Squash players (D) All of these
10. Sprain is injury to:
(A) Bone (B) Muscle
(C) Ligament (D) Tendon
11. Body-fat is measured with the help of:
(A) Flexometer (B) Skinfold caliper
(C) Tensiometer (D) Non of these
12. Circumduction is a movement performed at:
(A) Knee joint (B) Elbow joint
(C) Shoulder joint (D) None of these
13. The decathlon event is completed within:
(A) 1 day (B) 3 days
(C) 2 days (D) None of these
14. For equilibrium to exist the centre of gravity of a body must fall:
(A) Away from its base (B) Within its base
(C) At the edge of its base (D) At the top of its base
15. Climbing stairs on the toes, rope skipping and cycling are some of the corrective exercises for:
(A) Flat foot (B) Kyphosis
(C) Lordosis (D) Non of these
16. Eysenck classified personality into:
(A) 6 dimensions (B) 16 dimensions
(C) 4 dimensions (D) 3 dimensions
17. Law of Readiness, Law of Exercise and Law of Effect are propounded by:
(A) Thorndike (B) Cattle
(C) Pavlov (D) Non of these
18. Anxiety is classified into the following no. of categories:
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 3
19. The National body which controls track & field in India
(A) IAAF (B) I.O.A.
(C) AAAA (D) AFI
20. 84 - ( - 17) is equal to:
(A) 101 (B) 84
(C) 17 (D) 67
21. Lakshmibai College of Physical Education, Gwalior was established in the year:
(A) 1958 (B) 1957
(C) 1956 (D) 1960
22. The first training college of Physical Education in India is:
(A) T.I.P.E., Kandivali (B) L.N.I.P.E., Gwalior
(C) Y.M.C.A., Madras (D) Christian College, Lucknow
23. Which is the rich source of Vitamin ‘C’ ?
(A) Eggs (B) Milk
(C) Citrus fruits (D) Green vegetables
24. Milk, eggs, fruits and green vegetables come under:
(A) Protective food (B) Body building food
(C) Energy food (D) None of these
25. Which of the following is a communicable disease ?
(A) Beri-Beri (B) Scurvy
(C) Malaria (D) None of these
26. Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency most commonly affects the power of:
(A) Eyes (B) Lungs
(C) Heart (D) All of these
27. A sprinter is disqualified when he:
(A) takes two foul starts (B) takes one foul start
(C) takes three foul start (D) falls in the track
28. Essential fatty acids are active in the promotion of:
(A) Growth (B) Development
(C) Both of the above (D) None of these
29. ‘AIDS’ Transmission mode is:
(A) Sexual (B) Mother to child
(C) Blood (D) All of these
30. The adaptation processes in sports training are set in motion only when it is:
(A) Optimum load (B) Critical load
(C) Overload (D) Underload
31. It is called Passive flexibility when the movement is done:
(A) By slow stretch and hold method (B) By the athlete himself
(C) With external help (D) Without external help
32. The longest cycle of training in a year is:
(A) Meso cycle (B) Macro cycle
(C) Metro cycle (D) Olympic cycle
33. Ideo-motor training is also known as:
(A) Mental Rehearsal (B) Isometric training
(C) Iso-Kinetic training (D) Isotonic training
34. While arranging competitions, it must be ensured that majority of these fall in:
(A) Loading period (B) Preparatory period
(C) Competition period (D) Scattered throughout the year
35. The total of the frequency column is indicated by the word/letter:
(A) N (B) F
(C) C1 (D) None of these
36. The most reliable central tendency is:
(A) Mean (B) Mode
(C) Median (D) Standard Deviation
37. Motor educability is:
(A) Ability to learn motor skills (B) Ability to learn athletic skills
(C) Ability to learn fundamental skills (D) None of these
38. Criteria for test selection is:
(A) Reliability (B) Validity
(C) Objectivity (D) All of these
39. The height of bench in Harward Step test is:
(A) 15 to 17 inches (B) 18 to 20 inches
(C) 21 to 23 inches (D) All of these
40. Anthropometer means:
(A) Machine to measure height (B) Machine to measure width (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
41. Sports management is:
(A) An Art (B) A Science
(C) Art and Science both (D) None of these
42. The basic functions of management are:
(A) Planning and organization (B) Directing and programme development
(C) Personnel and financial management (D) All of the above
43. Blueprint of the competition plan is called:
(A) Technique (B) Tactics
(C) Strategy (D) Skill
44. Which of the following is the first step in a sports programme ?
(A) Directing (B) Staffing
(C) Planning (D) Budgeting
45. A leader must possess the following qualities except one given below:
(A) Missionary zeal (B) Commitment
(C) Selfishness (D) Foresight
46. Which of the following is not one of the five components of health-related fitness?
A)[pic]speed. B)[pic]body composition
[pic] C)[pic]muscular endurance D)[pic]flexibility
[pic] [pic] [pic] [pic]
47. The body adjusts to lower levels of activity by losing fitness over time, a training principle known as:
[pic] A)[pic]overload B)[pic]specificity
C)[pic]reversibility D)[pic]none of the above
[pic]48. As an individual gains muscle mass, which of the following adaptations occurs?
[pic] A)[pic]decreased stroke volume B)[pic]increased metabolism
[pic] C)[pic]increased resting heart rate D)[pic]decreased energy use
[pic] [pic]
49. Which of the following is not part of the cardiorespiratory system?
[pic] A)[pic]alveoli B)[pic]capillaries
C)[pic]lymph nodes [pic] D)[pic]venae cavae
50. The right side of the heart pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs in what is referred to as:
[pic] A)[pic]systemic circulation B)[pic]pulmonary circulation
[pic] C)[pic]a systole [pic] D)[pic]a diastole
[pic] [pic]
51. All of the following are characteristics of arteries except that they:
[pic] A)[pic]carry blood away from the heart B)[pic]carry oxygenated blood in the systemic circulation
C)[pic]return blood to the heart D)[pic]have thick elastic walls
[pic] [pic] [pic][pic]
52. Pushing on an immovable object is an example of which type of training?
[pic] A)[pic]isotonic exercise B)[pic]isometric exercise
[pic] C)[pic]isokinetic exercise D)[pic]concentric exercise
[pic] [pic]
53. During weight training, the muscle that contracts is known as the:
[pic] A)[pic]antagonist B)[pic]agonist
[pic] C)[pic]eccentric [pic] D)[pic]involuntary
[pic] [pic] [pic] [pic] [pic]
54. Health problems associated with obesity include:
[pic] A)[pic]hypertension B)[pic]impaired immune function
[pic] C)[pic]breathing disorders D)[pic]all of the above
55.. Individuals with hypertension should follow which of these recommendations?
[pic] A)[pic]hold their breath while exercising B)[pic]exercise at a high intensity
C)[pic]increase intensity gradually D)[pic]none of the above
[pic] [pic]
56. Cycling on Monday, jogging on Wednesday, and swimming on Saturday is an example of:
[pic] A)[pic]cycle training B)[pic]cross-training
[pic] C)[pic]periodization [pic] D)[pic]interval training
57. Our genes influence all of the following except:
[pic] A)[pic]body size and shape B)[pic]our eating patterns
[pic] C)[pic]the ease with which weight is gained D)[pic]where on the body extra fat is stored
58. The energy required to maintain vital body functions is known as:
[pic] A)[pic]resting heart rate B)[pic]stroke volume
[pic] C)[pic]respiration D)[pic]resting metabolic rate
59. Which of the following is considered a major risk factor for CVD that cannot be changed?
A)[pic]family history B)[pic]chronic hostility
[pic] C)[pic]stress D)[pic]tobacco use
60. The greenhouse effect is related to:
[pic] A)[pic]acid rain B)[pic]air quality index
C)[pic]global warming D)[pic]temperature inversion
61. Patella
A) ribs B) hipbone
C) kneecap D) skull
62. Involuntary muscle found in blood vessel walls.
A) Smooth muscle B)Sensory nerves
C) Venous return D)Vasodilate
63. Increase in size of heart muscle wall.
A)pH level B)Sedentary
C)Hypertrophy D)Receptors
64. The ability to change the position of you body and control the movements
A)lifting B)flexibility
C)time D)agility
65. The world record of 100 meter sprint is:
A) 9.65 sec. B)9.69 sec.
C) 9.66 sec. D) 9.71 sec.
66. Who defeated Andy Roddick in the Wimbledon 2009 final?
A)Rafael Nadal B)Andy Murray
C)Andy Roddick D)Roger Federer
67. A measurement tool of the energy value of food.
A) Calories B)Calcium
B)copper D)fluoride
68. Only Allow One Direction Of Movement
A) Hinge Joints B)Bicep
C)B.O.S.S D)Overload
69. Was invented in the United States
A)Baseball B)Soccer
C)Gymnasium D)Basketball
70. Changing your training from 3 to 4 sessions per week
A)Increasing Duration B)Increasing Frequency
C)Evaluating Training D)Increasing Intensity
71. A method of training that involves training at a variety of paces, or over varied terrain
A)Interval Training B)Fartlek Training
C)Evaluating Training D)Monitoring Training
72. A standardised test for stamina which involves running as far as you can in a set time
A)Training Zone B)12-Minute Cooper Run
C)Monitoring Training D)Split Times
73. An instrument used to measure the movements and angles created by joints.
A)Emetic B)Amnesia
C)Goniometer D)Anterior
74. Who is the top ranked female tennis player in the world
A) Serena Williams B)Ana Ivanovic
C) Dinara Safina D)Venus Williams
75. Which of the following should be the primary objective of an intramural program?
A) Involving the greatest possible number of students in the program
B) Providing for well-balanced competition in individual and team sports throughout the program
C) Stimulating the interest of spectators and gaining newspaper coverage of intramural events
D) Providing a wide variety of activities for teams and for individuals
|Q |Ans |
| | |
|A.|Carbohydrate |
|B.|Protein |
|C.|Pepsin |
|D.|Vitamin D |
|E.|Iron|
|Q.2) |What products are needed for aerobic respiration? |
| | |
|A.|Glucose + Oxygen |
|B.|Glucose + Carbohydrate |
|C.|Carbon Dioxide + Oxygen |
|D.|Glucose + Lactic Acid |
|E.|Glucose + Iron |
|Q.3) |How to calculate male's MHR? |
| | |
|A.|220 / age |
|B.|220 + age |
|C.|230 - age |
|D.|220 - age |
|E.|220 x age |
|Q.4) |What are the by products in anaerobic respiration? |
| | |
|A.|Glucose + Carbon dioxide |
|B.|Oxygen + Glucose |
|C.|Lactic acid + Carbon Dioxide |
|D.|Lactic acid + oxygen |
|E.|Oxygen + Calcium |
|Q.5) |Where was 1936 Olympic held? |
| | |
|A.|Berlin |
|B.|Athens |
|C.|Paris |
|D.|Tokyo |
|E.|Melbourne |
1. What is the essence of education?
A. The essence of education is reason and intuition,
B. The essence of education is growth.
C. The essence of education is knowledge and skills.
D. The essence of education is choice,
2. What is the nature of the learner?
A. The learner is an experiencing organism.
B. The learner is a unique, free choosing, and responsible creature made up of intellect and emotion.
C. The learner is a rational and intuitive being.
D. The learner is a storehouse for knowledge and skills, which, once acquired, can later be applied and used.
3. How should education provide for the needs of man?
A. The students need a passionate encounter with the perennial problems of life; the agony and joy of Love,
reality of choice, anguish of freedom consequences of actions and the inevitability of death.
B. Education allows for the needs of man when it inculcates the child with certain essential skills and
knowledge, which all men should possess.
C. The one distinguishing characteristic of man is intelligence. Education should concentrate on developing the
intellectual reeds of students.
D. Since the needs of man are variable, education should concentrate on developing the individual differences in
students.
4. What should be the environment of education?
A. Education should possess an environment where the student adjusts to the material and social world, as it
really exists,
B. The environment of education should be life itself, where students can experience living—not prepare for it.
C. The environment of education should be one that encourages the growth of free, creative individuality, not
adjustment to group thinking nor the public norms.
D. Education is not a true replica of life, rather, it is an artificial environment where the child should be
developing his intellectual potentialities and preparing for the future.
5. What should be the goal of education?
A. Growth, through the reconstruction of experience, is the nature, and should be the open-ended goal, of
education,
B. The only type of goal to which education should lead is to the goal of truth, which is absolute, universal, and
unchanging.
C. The primary concern of education should be with the development of the uniqueness of individual students.
D. The goal of education should be to provide a framework of knowledge for the student against which new
truths can be gathered and assimilated.
6. What should be the concern of the school?
A. The school should concern itself with man’s distinguishing characteristic his mind, and concentrate on
developing rationality.
B. The school should provide an education for the ‘whole child,” centering its attention on all the needs and
interests of the child.
C. The school should educate the child to attain the basic knowledge necessary to understand the real world
outside.
D. The school should provide each student with assistance in his journey toward self-realization.
7. What should be the atmosphere of the school?
A. The school should provide for group thinking in a democratic atmosphere that fosters cooperation rather than
competition.
B. The atmosphere of the school should be one of authentic freedom where a student is allowed to find his own
truth and ultimate fulfillment through non-conforming choice making.
C. The school should surround its students with “Great Books” and foster individuality in an atmosphere of
intellectualism and creative thinking.
D. The school should retain an atmosphere of mental discipline; yet incorporate innovative techniques, which
would introduce the student to a perceptual examination of the realities about him.
8. How should appropriate learning occur?
A. Appropriate learning occurs as the student freely engages in choosing among alternatives while weighing
personal responsibilities and the possible consequences of his actions,
B. Appropriate learning takes place through the experience of problem-solving projects by which the child is led
front practical issues to theoretical principles (concrete-to-abstract).
C. Appropriate learning takes place as certain basic readings acquaint students with the world’s permanencies,
inculcating them in theoretical principles that they will later apply in life (abstract-to-concrete).
D. Appropriate learning occurs when hard effort has been extended to absorb and master the prescribed subject
matter.
9. What should be the role of the teacher?
A. The teacher should discipline pupils intellectually through a study of the great works in literature where the
universal concerns of man have best been expressed.
B. The teacher should present principles and values and the reasons for them, encouraging students to examine
them in order to choose for themselves whether or not to accept them.
C. The teacher should guide and advise students, since the children’s own interests should determine what they
learn, not authority nor the subject matter of the textbooks.
D. The teacher, the responsible authority, should mediate between the adult world and the world of the child
since immature students cannot comprehend the nature and demands of adulthood by themselves.
10. What should the curriculum include?
A. The curriculum should include only that which has survived the test of time and combines the symbols and
ideas of literature, history, and mathematics with the sciences of the physical world.
B. The curriculum should concentrate on teaching students how to manage change through problem solving
activities in the social studies. . empirical sciences and vocational technology.
C. The curriculum should concentrate on intellectual subject matter and include English, languages, history,
mathematics, natural sciences, the fine arts, and also philosophy.
D. The curriculum should concentrate on the humanities; history, literature, philosophy, and art—where
greater depth into the nature of man and his conflict with the world are revealed.
11. What should be the preferred teaching method?
A. Projects should be the preferred method whereby the students can be guided through problem-solving
experiences.
B. Lectures, readings, and discussions should be the preferred methods for training the intellect.
C. Demonstrations should be the preferred method for teaching knowledge and skills.
D. Socratic dialogue (drawing responses from a questioning conversation) should be the preferred method for
finding the self.
Scoring the Test
This test is self-scoring. Circle the answer you selected for each of the questions checked on the test
(Table A—I). Total the number of circles below each column.
Progressivism Perennialism Essentialism Existentialism
1 B A C D
2 A C D B
3 D C B A
4 B D A C
5 A B D C
6 B A C D
7 A C D B
8 B C D A
9 C A D B
10 B C A D
11 A B C D
One of the subdivisions of Philosophy is “Metaphysics”, which questions:
A. What is truth?
B. What is real? +
C. What is value?
D. How to think clearly?
301. The statement by the then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi that a new education would made so as to "Prepare Indians for the 21st Century in the year
(a) 1990 (b) 1985
(c) 1987 (d) 1991
302. Who had observed that the art of education would never attain clearness in itself without philosophy? He was
(a) M.K. Gandhi (b) Fichte
(c) John Dewey (d) Gautam Buddha
303. The opinion that "our aim should be to produce men who possess both culture and expect knowledge" given by
(a) Prof. A.H. Whitehead
(b) Montessori
(c) Froebel
(d) All of the above
304. How do we get knowledge and how can we be sure it is true and not error? This area of philosophy is called
(a) Neurology
(b) Epistemology
(c) Beyond Philosophy
(d) None of the above
305. All levels of education are provided from the nursery to the University stage in
(a) Ashram at Pondicherry
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Shantiniketan
(d) Arya Samaj
306. In today's society school should give
(a) Ornamental base
(b) Vocational base
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of the above
307. Following attributes would correctly define learning
(a) Understanding, imagination and workmanship
(b) Change of behaviour, practice and experience
(c) Belief, creativity, and endurance
(d) Intution, intelligence and memorisation
308. The 1968 national policy teacher education adopted by the Indian Government laid stress on the following aspects of teacher's education
(a) Adequate emoluments and academic freedom for teachers.
(b) Travel allowance and family pensions for teachers
(c) In-service training and correspondence education for teachers.
(d) Promotion and retirement facilities for teachers.
309. If we believe in the dualistic theory of the mind versus body nature of man, have to arrive at the econsequence that
(a) Education is mechanisation in process and theoretical in development
(b) Learning is purely a matter of material changes in the behaviour of man
(c) Learning an education should cater to observable behaviour of man
(d) Education is purely a matter of mental training and development of the self.
310. Swami Vivekanand was famous for speaking on
(a) Vedas
(b) Medicians
(c) Gita
(d) Vedanta
311. Article 45 under the Directive Principles of State policy in the Indian Constitution, provides for
(a) Rights of minorities to establish educational institutions
(b) Free and compulsory primary education
(c) Education for weaker sections of the country
(d)Giving financial assistance to less advanced states
312. Vivekanand was a
(a) Religious guru
(b) Poet
(c) Philosopher
(d) All of the above
313. The National Educational Policy of 1979, recommended also about the public schools
(a) their uniquencies and traditions have to preserved the interests of the best talents of the country
(b) they should be brought under laws and regulations of the government public education system
(c) they must be allowed the autonomy that was bestowed on them by the past system of education
(d) suitable ratio has to be maintained for admission of middle class and poor student also.
314. Rama Krishna Mission was founded by
(a) Swami Dayanand
(b) Swami Vivekanand
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Guru Nanak Dev
315. Annie Besant inspired the opening of schools in many cities in
(a) End of nineteenth century
(b) Early nineteenth century
(c) Early twentieenth century
(d) End twentieenth century
316. In ancient India religions and moral aims were dominated by
(a) Brahmnic system of education
(b) Kshatriya system of education
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of the above
317. The concept of totalitarian education in the West was in favour of
(a) Treating education as a binding factor of international understanding
(b) The education of the individual for development of his total personality
(c) Making the education of the individual as an instrument for realising the ends of the state
(d) Making the state responsible to evolve education as a means of satisfying individual's needs and interests.
318. Regarding co-education at the secondary stage, the 1952-53 Education Commission has suggested that
(a) To start, resource, in several states could not afford
(b) There should be objection to extend coeducational school
(c) To maintain separate schools for boys and girls
(d) The situation in our country warrants establishment of more boys schools than co-educational school.
319. Who formed Brahmo Samaj
(a) Guru Nanak (b) Kabir
(c) Ramanand
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
320. Tagore was a
(a) Philosopher (b) Poet
(c) Musician (d) Both a & b
321. The topic method in education should be interpreted
(a) a method of development of the syllabus in a subject
(b) a concentric approach of teaching the classroom
(c) a substitute for the project method of teaching
(d) a method suited better for arts subjects as compared to science subjects.
322. Arya Samaj was founded by
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Swami Dayanand Sarswati
(c) Swami Satyanand
(d) Kabir
323. Ahimsa & Truth in Gandhiji's opinion is
(a) Two side of a coin
(b) Have no relation between the two
(c) Can't translate
(d) Can't inter-wined
324. "The affection brought about a lossening up of the rigidity of Hindu Society and has been an admirable modern influence on Hindu thought" said by
(a) Swami Dayanand
(b) Swami Vivekanand
(c) Kabir
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
325. Intellectual aim in education was emphasised in
(a) India
(b) Greek
(c) Sparta
(d) Athenian
Answers:
|301(b) |302. (b) |303. (a) |304. (b) |305. (a) |
|306. (b) |307. (c) |308. (a) |309. (d) |310. (c) |
|311. (b) |312. (d) |313. (d) |314. (b) |315. (a) |
|316. (c) |317. (c) |318. (a) |319. (d) |320. (b) |
|321(c) |322. (b) |323. (a) |324. (b) |325. (b) |
1. Who is a philosopher, in the original sense of the world?
A. Someone who studies the stars and planets.
B. A person primarily interested in the truth about moral matters.
C. A lover and pursuer of wisdom, regardless of the subject matter
D. A clever and tricky arguer
2. Which is a common characteristic of philosophical questions?
A. They are strictly empirical questions
B. They involve fundamental concepts that are unavoidable by the thoughtful person
C. They are purely semantic questions.
D. They aren't relevant to ordinary, everyday situations
3. Which is the branch of philosophy that studies issues concerning art and beauty?
A. Aesthetics
B. Epistemology
C. Logic
D. Metaphysics
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